West Bengal Board Class 7 Science Book Solution in English WBBSE

WBBSE Class 7 Science Question Answer West Bengal Board

WBBSE Class 7 Science Book Solutions West Bengal Board in English Medium

WBBSE Class 7 Science Book Solutions West Bengal Board in Hindi Medium

WBBSE Class 7 Solutions

West Bengal Board Class 7 History Book Solution in English WBBSE

WBBSE Class 7 History Question Answer West Bengal Board

WBBSE Class 7 History Book Solutions West Bengal Board in English Medium

WBBSE Class 7 History Book Solutions West Bengal Board in Hindi Medium

WBBSE Class 7 Solutions

West Bengal Board Class 8 History Book Solution in English WBBSE

WBBSE Class 8 History Question Answer West Bengal Board

WBBSE Class 8 History Book Solutions West Bengal Board in English Medium

WBBSE Class 8 History Book Solutions West Bengal Board in Hindi Medium

WBBSE Class 8 Solutions

West Bengal Board Class 7 Geography Book Solution in English WBBSE

WBBSE Class 7 Geography Question Answer West Bengal Board

WBBSE Class 7 Geography Book Solutions West Bengal Board in English Medium

WBBSE Class 7 Geography Book Solutions West Bengal Board in Hindi Medium

WBBSE Class 7 Solutions

West Bengal Board Class 8 Geography Book Solution in English WBBSE

WBBSE Class 8 Geography Question Answer West Bengal Board

WBBSE Class 8 Geography Book Solutions West Bengal Board in English Medium

WBBSE Class 8 Geography Book Solutions West Bengal Board in Hindi Medium

WBBSE Class 8 Solutions

West Bengal Board Class 10 Life Science Book Solution in English WBBSE

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Question Answer West Bengal Board

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Book Solutions West Bengal Board in English Medium

Chapter 1 Control and Coordination Living Organisms

Chapter 2 Continuity of Life

Chapter 3 Heredity and Some Common Genetic Diseases

Chapter 4 Evolution and Adaptation

Chapter 5 Environment, Its Resources and Their Conservation

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Book Solutions West Bengal Board in Hindi Medium

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Syllabus West Bengal Board 2024

Chapter 1 Control and Co-ordination in Living Organisms

Chapter 1A Sensitivity and Response in Plants:
Discussions should include the following along with relevant diagrams: Living organisms exist in changing environments. Some changes are favourable and advantageous, while others are unfavourable or harmful. Sensitivity is the ability of organisms to detect change and respond to it. Changes that are detected and lead to responses are termed stimuli. Stimulus is a kind of energy. All living organisms respond to stimuli of one kind or another. Many stimuli arise externally from an organism, but others from an organism’s internal environment. As most plants are anchored organ¬isms, plant responses are less evident than those of animals. Rapid movements by plants are extremely rare. Generally, plant responses are slow growth movements or turgor movements. Explain plant sensitivity and response citing movements in mimosa and Desmodium. Brief mention of the contribution of Acharya Jagdish Chandra Bose in discovering the sensitivity of plants. Brief mention of plant movement as a response to stimuli. Types of plant movement: Tactic, Phototactic, Tropic: Phototropic, Hydrotropic, Geotropic, Nastic: Photonastic, Thermonastic, Seismonastic, Chemonastic (Brief mention of the stimuli and response in each case and one or two examples of each with relevant diagrams.) Comparison between Tactic, Tropic, and Nastic movements in Tabular form.

Chapter 1B Response and Chemical Co-ordination in Plants – Hormones:
A brief discussion on plant hormones as substances responsible for sensitivity and response in plants. Also mention hormones as plant growth substances mentioning the phenomena of apical and lateral growth, flowering, bud break, germination of seeds, and tropic movement in plants. Brief mention of the source, mode of transport, functioning, and fate of hormones in plants. Brief mention of the origin, chemical constituent (mention C, H, O, N only), and the role (as mentioned below) of Auxin, Gibberellin, and Cytokinin in plants with relevant diagrams. Auxin: Promotes apical dominance and inhibits lateral bud growth, cell division and cell enlargement, root growth at very low concentrations, fruit growth, and control of tropic movement. Gibberellin: Breks seed and bud dormancy, elongation of internodes, fruit growth. Cytokinin: Promotes cell division, and lateral bud growth, delays leaf senescence. Chemical names of synthetic hormones are not to be mentioned. The terms synthetic auxin and synthetic gibberellin can be used. Mention the role of synthetic hormones – rooting of cutting, dealy of pre-harvest fruit crop, artificial auxin as herbicide, developing parthenocarpic fruits.

Chapter 1C Response and Chemical Co-ordination in Animals – Hormones:
Briefly mention the erection of body hair, maintaining a constant level of glucose in the blood, combating stress, maintaining blood pressure, controlling BMR, control growth and secretion of reproductive glands in animals. Briefly mention the need for regulatory chemical molecules namely hormones for controlling these functions. Explain the source (endocrine glands), chemical nature, mode of transport, functioning, and fate of hormones; Explain the role of the hormone as messenger and regulator (feedback control with an example – TSH and Thyroxine). Mention the differences between plant hormones and animal hormones (in tabular form). Hypothalamus: Controls hormonal secretions of the anterior pituitary gland & produces the hormones of the posterior pituitary gland (ADH and Oxytocin). They remain stored in the posterior pituitary gland and released later on. Pituitary: ACTH, GH, TSH, GTH (FSH, LH, ICSH, LTH/Prolactin), ADH, Thyroid: Thyroxine, Adrenal: Adrenalin, Nor- adrenalin, Endocrine Pancreas: Insulin, Glucagon, Gonads: Testes – Testosterone, Ovary – Oestrogen, Progesterone. The name of endocrine glands, their location, the hormones secreted, and their role in the human body are to be mentioned. Causes and symptoms of the following hormonal disorders are to be mentioned separately – dwarfism, diabetes insipidus, goiter, and diabetes mellitus. A diagram of the human body is to be provided to show the location of the endocrine glands mentioned above. Mention the difference between endocrine and exocrine glands based on the following features (in tabular form): (i) Presence or absence of ducts, (ii) Place of action, (iii) Product secreted.

Chapter 1D Response and Physical Coordination in Animals – Nervous System:
Explaination in brief about neural control and coordination with examples from daily life, setting the stage for introducing neurons, nerves, and the nervous system. One example may be running: leg muscles need extra supplies of glucose and oxygen – Lungs breathe faster and deeper and the heart pumps rapidly to supply oxygen and glucose to the muscles quickly – the brain detects changes in oxygen and carbon dioxide content of the blood and sends nerve impulses to the diaphragm, intercostal muscles, and heart. The coordination of different systems is thus brought by the nervous system. Discussions should include the following along with relevant diagrams: Irritability or sensitivity is a characteristic feature of all living organisms. It refers to their ability to respond to a stimulus. The stimulus is received by a receptor. It is transmitted by means of nerves. Finally, an effector (muscle and gland) brings about a response. Between the receptors and effectors are the conducting cells of the nervous system, termed neurons. These are the basic structural and functional units of the nervous system. They are spread throughout the organism forming a complex communication network. Some common examples may be given to illustrate the pathway: Stimuli – Receptor – Nervecentre – Effector – Response (e.g. opening the door at the sound of a knock on the door/ doorbell). Mention the difference between the mode of action of hormones and the nervous system. Explain the structure and function of different parts of neurons (in tabular form with diagrams); Mention the neuroglia as supporting cells of the nervous system. A brief explanation of types of neurons – Sensory, Motor, Adustor/lntemeurone. A brief explanation of the inter-relationship between neurons, nerve fibers, and nerves (with diagram). Brief mention of Afferent, Efferent, and Mixed nerves with one or two examples of each. Brief mention of the formation of ganglia from the cell bodies of neurons and functions of ganglia. A brief explanation of location and function (Mention the role of neurotransmitter in the transmission of nerve impulse. Detailed mechanism of transmission of nerve impulse across the synapse not to be mentioned.) Central nervous system: Brain and spinal cord. Peripheral nervous system: Cranial and spinal nerves. Autonomic nervous system: Sympathetic and Parasympathetic (In dendrogram format – Mention the types of nervous system along with the main parts of the brain and their regions). Cerebral cortex, Thalamus, Hypothalamus, Mid-brain, Pons, Cerebellum, Medulla oblongata, Spinal cord (only location and one or two functions in brief in tabular form with diagram showing their locations). Brief mention of the location and function of Meninges and CSF. A brief explanation of reflex action with examples; Types – Inborn and acquired (with examples); Components of Reflex Arc with diagram (Receptor, Sensory neuron, Nerve Centre, Motor Neurone, Effector); Importance of different reflexes in everyday life – (i) Blinking eye (ii) Coughing (iii) Sneezing Eye (Outline structure and function in tabular form with a diagram showing different parts). Brief mention of binocular vision in humans and how it differs from monocular vision.

Chapter 1E Locomotion as a Type of Response in Animals:
Discussions should include the following along with relevant diagrams (for near and distant vision). Example from one daily life situation (Role of accommodation in case of pedestrians and vehicle drivers to avoid road accidents by taking note of obstacles, traffic signals, and road directions). The curvature of the lens can be modified to some extent by the ciliary muscles. The change in curvature of the lens can thus change its focal length. Accomodation is the ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length. The eye adjusts the shape of the lens to keep objects in focus. Looking at distant objects: Ciliary muscles relaxed – Lens becomes thin – focal length of the lens increases. Looking at objects closer to the eye: Ciliary muscles contract – increasing curvature of the eye lens – Lens becomes thick – focal length of the lens decreases. Brief mention of the loss of power accommodation and in this context mention myopia, hyperopia, presbyopia, and their corrective measures (lenses used for correction) with diagrams. Cataract Brief explanation and corrective measure.

Chapter 2 Continuity of Life

Chapter 2A Cell Division and Cell Cycle:
Discussions should include the following along with relevant diagrams of DNA double helix (ribbon diagram), chromatin reticula, and chromosomes. Inside the nucleus of a cell, Fine reticulum-like structures are woven like threads around each other structures are DNA. DNA is a large biomolecule. The DNA remains in folded or partly open condition inside the nucleus, which is then termed as Chromatin Reticulum. In the folded condition, the DNA is wound tightly around proteins. This folded structure of DNA is termed a Chromosome. Chromatin reticula and chromosomes are actually different folding states of DNA molecules. Specific parts of the DNA carry the code for producing specific proteins which ultimately lead to the expression of different characters in an organism. Each of these parts of DNA is termed a Gene. Autosome and Sex Chromosome – Brief explanation with reference to humans. Mention the number of chromosomes in body cells and gametes in humans and briefly explain haploid and diploid states with reference to humans. Briefly explain the following in tabular form with diagrams Chromatid, Primary constriction or Centromere, Secondary constriction, oatelite, Telomere. Briefly mention DNA, RNA, and Proteins (Mention Purine and pyrimidine, 5C-Sugar, Phosphoric Acid, Histone, and non-histone proteins) – Structure and formula not to be included. Brief mention of euchromatin and heterochromatin. Brief discussion on the role of following cell organelles in cell division. Structural details not be mentioned, (i) Nucleus – it is the seat of the chromosomes that are to be divided, (ii) Cen- trosome and microtubule – Formation of spindle fibre, (iii) Ribosome – Helps in protein synthesis, (iv) Mitochondria – Supply energy required for cell division. Brief explanation of cell division and its significance (Growth, Reproduction, Repair). Amitosis, Mitosis, and Meiosis -Brief explanation mentioning the site of occurrence of each type with diagrams. Brief mention of the events (G,, S, G2, M) of the cell cycle with diagram and significance of the cell cycle (Mention that the loss of control at different points in the cell cycle results in uncontrolled cell division leading to formatting of tumor sometimes may becomes malignant and may result in cancer). Brief explanation with diagrams of different stages of Mitosis in plant and animal cells (Karyokinesis & its stages and Cytokinesis). Mention the difference between plant and animal mitosis based on the following features: (i) Formation of spindle fiber; (ii) Process of cytokinesis; Mention the significance of mitosis-growth, cell replacement & repair (eg. skin), regeneration (eg. legs in crustacean and arms in starfish), reproduction. Brief introduction of homologous chromosomes, sister and non-sister chromatid. A brief explanation of the following features of meiosis with the help of relevant diagrams: Separation of homologous chromosomes in Meiosis I as opposed to the separation of chromatids in Mitosis; separation of chromatids in Meiosis II (just like Mitosis); Reduction in chromosome number; Crossing over (exchange or segments between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes). (The stages of meiosis are not mentioned.) The significance of meiosis is to be mentioned (maintenance of constant chromosome number of a species, producing variation in organisms, formation of gametes, alternation of generation). The basic differences between mitosis and meiosis are to be mentioned in tabular form based on the following features – (i) site of occurence; (ii) nature of division of chromosomes (equational as opposed to reductional); (iii) number of cells produced.

Chapter 2B Reproduction:
Discussions should include the following along with relevant examples: Reproduction is the production of a new generation of individuals of the same species. It is one of the fundamental characteristics of living organisms. Reproduction is not necessary to maintain the life of an individual organism, unlike essential life processes like nutrition, respiration, or exertion. But reproduction is essential for the continuation of species. A brief explanation of the modes of reproduction with one or two examples of each – Asexual and sexual. Difference between asexual and sexual reproduction based on the following features: (i) Number of parents; (ii) Production of gametes; (iii) Dependence on mitosis or meiosis; (iv) Nature of offspring. Only the types are to be mentioned with examples and diagrams in tabular form. Detailed process not to be mentioned. Fission (Amoeba and Plasmodium), budding (Yeast and Hydra), fragmentation (Spirogyra), spore formation (Bryophyta, Pteridophyta, Fungi), and regeneration (Planaria). A brief explanation of vegetative propagation with diagrams and one example of each type. Detailed process not to be mentioned. Types of vegetative propagation (brief explanation with one example of each): Natural – Root: Fleshy root (Sweet potato); Stem; Offset (Water hyacinth); Leaf: Adventitious bud (Bryophyllum). Artificial – Cutting, Grafting, and Micropropagation. Discussion on micropropagation should include only the following: ‘Micro’ refers to the small size of the material used, usually isolated cells or small pieces of tissue. The material is grown in special culture solutions (with added nutrients and plant hormones, particularly auxins and cytokinins), so the process is also known as tissue culture. Basically, it is the propagation of plants by tissue culture. This process ensures rapid propagation of desired varieties of plants. Brief explanation with a schematic diagram of alternation of generation with one example from germ. Discussions should include the following with relevant diagrams: (i) Different parts of a flower – sepals, petals, stamens, and carpels; (ii) Stamens and carpels – the reproductive parts of a flower containing germ cells; (iii) Stamen – male reproductive part; produces pollen grains of yellowish colour; (iv) Carpel – female reproductive part; consists of stigma, style, and ovary; ovary contains ovules and each ovule has an egg cell. A brief explanation of pollination and its types (self and cross-pollination) with examples and diagrams. Merits and demerits of self and cross-pollination in tabular form are to be mentioned based on the following – (i) the necessity of agents and (ii) the emergence of new characters in the offspring. A brief explanation of agents of pollination with one common example of each in tabular form – air (paddy), water (hydrilla), insect (mango), and bird (shimul). Discussions should include the following with relevant diagrams: Pollen grains transferred from the stamen to the stigma – male germ cells produced by pollen grain fuses with female gamete present in ovule – fusion of germ cells (fertilization) – zygote – divides several times to form embryo within the ovule – ovule gradually converts into seed and the ovary grows and ripens to form a fruit – seed contains future plant or embryo which develops into a seeding under appropriate conditions (Double fertilization and development of endosperm not to be mentioned). Discussions should include the following with relevant diagrams: Growth is a fundamental characteristic of all living organisms. The growth of an organism consists of a permanent and more or less irreversible increase in size and shape, commonly accompanied by an increase in solid matter, dry mass, and amount of cytoplasm. It is basically an irreversible increase in dry mass of living material. The development could be described as an increase in complexity. Starting with an individual cell, the growth of a multicellular organism can be divided into three phases – (i) Cell division – an increase in cell number as a result of mitosis and cell division; (ii) Cell enlargement – and irreversible increase in cell size as a result of uptake of water or the synthesis of living material; (iii) Cell differentiation – the specialization of cells; in its broad sense, the growth also includes this phase of cell development. Briefly mention the five phases of human development namely infancy, childhood, adolescence, adulthood, and senescence or late adulthood.

Chapter 3 Heredity and Common Genetic Disease

Chapter 3A Heredity:
Discussions should include the following with relevant examples: Members of a family share many similarities in appearance, such as height, eye color, and hair colour. People may also note that there are differences in the manner in which characteristics are inherited by offspring. Offsprings do not look exactly like their parents. An Austrian monk, Gregor Johann Mendel performed a series of simple experiments and discovered how heredity worked. Heredity is the transmission of characteristics or traits from one generation to another through reproduction. Sometimes alteration may occur in chromosome structure or number or there may be an alteration in a gene due to a change in DNA composition. This phenomenon is termed mutation. This permanent change in chromosome or DNA may result in a difference in the expression of characters, termed variation. A brief explanation of variation with suitable examples from human-free and attached ear lobe, roller, and normal tongue. Explain key terms associated with heredity with proper examples – (i) Characteristics or traits, (ii) Allele, (iii) Locus, (iv) Unit of inheritance (Factor/Gene), (v) Monohybrid and dihybrid Cross, (vi) Homozygous and heterozygous organisms, (vii) Hybridization, (viii) Pure and hybrid, (ix) Parental generation, (x) Filial generations (F,, F ), (xi) Dominant and recessive characteristics, (xii) Phenotype and genotype (Explain through sample cross). Mendel’s work on the pea plant is to be mentioned. Explanation of cross-pollination as practiced by Mendel (eg. removing another from a flower of a plant and transferring pollen grains from a flower of another plant to that flower with the help of a brush) with the help of proper diagrams. Reasons behind Mendel’s success to be mentioned. The seven pairs of contrasting characters as chosen by Mendel to be mentioned in tabular form with diagrams. Explanation of Mendel’s experiments on Heredity (Monohybrid and Dihybrid Cross) with examples from Pea plant and Guineapig using checkerboard. Explaining deduction of Mendel’s Laws (Law of Segregation and Law of Independent Assortment) with reference to pea plant and guineapig. A brief explanation of incomplete dominance using the four O’Clock (Mirabilis jalapa) flower as an example. A brief explanation of the Process of sex determination in man with special emphasis on the role of the father in determining the sex of the offspring.

Chapter 3B Some Common Genetic Diseases in Population:
Symptoms and causes (autosome/sex chromosome) of thalassemia, hemophilia, and colour blindness are to be mentioned briefly. Discussions should include the following, Thalassemia is a type of genetic disorder where haemoglobin is produced in decreased amounts. The decreased amount of haemoglobin in the blood causes anemia, which reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. It also results in iron overload, either from the disease itself or from frequent blood transfusions. Iron overload may cause damage to the heart, liver, and endocrine system. The damage is characterized by excessive deposits of iron. Mention the role of genetic counseling in preventing thalassemia before marriage in families that carry the thalassemia trait.

Chapter 4 Evolution and Adaptation

Chapter 4A Evolution:
Discussions should include the following with relevant examples. The word evolution means change of life forms over a period of time. It is the central most important idea in biology that complex living organisms evolved from relatively simple ones. Evolution is the cause of biodiversity on earth. Brief outline of the chemical origin of life mentioning Miller and Urey’s experiment. Following evolutionary events to be mentioned with the help of schematic diagram (Not to be elaborated and time frame not to be mentioned): Formation of earth – origin of life – the origin of unicellular life – photosynthetic bacteria begin to release oxygen into the atmosphere – origin of multicellular organisms – fish-like vertebrates evolve land plants evolve, drastically changing earth’s landscape and creating new habitats – four-limbed vertebrates move on to the land. Lamerckism and Darwinism as put forward by Lamarck and Darwin respectively, to be explained with examples. Brief explanation of the evidence of evolution with examples and diagrams: Paleontological: Fossil history of Horse – increase in size, lengthening of limbs and feet, reduction of lateral digits, increase in length and thickness of the third digit; Comparative anatomy (examples to be mentioned): (i) Analogous and Homologous structures – convergent and divergent evolution to be mentioned; (ii) Vestigial organs; (iii) Structure of vertebrate heart (Fish, am-phibia, reptile, bird and mammal). Comparative embryology – At comparable stages of development, the vertebrate embryos all possess the following- external branchial grooves (visceral clefts) in the pharyngeal region and a series of internal paired gill pouches, segmental myotomes (muscle blocks) evident in the rail-like structure.

Chapter 4B Survival Strategies:
Adaptation: Discussions should include the following; A behaviour is an action carried out by an organism under the control of the nervous system in response to environmental cues or to the actions performed by an organism. A cue may be an odor, sound, or visual! signal. Put more simply, behaviour is what an animal does. Behavior allows animals to survive and reproduce and is, thus, critical to the evolutionary process. Adaptation is a modification in the form, physiological functioning or behavior of an organism over generations in response to environmental change in order to survive and reproduce in a particular environment. Adaptive character or adaptation evolves in a population of organisms by the process of natural selection. Brief mention of following adaptive features: (i) Morphological – Cactus (Conversion of leaf into spine or reduction in the number of Leaf); swim bladder of fish and air sac of bird; (ii) Physiological – Mechanism of salt adaptation in Sundri; Camel’s ability to withstand extreme water loss and the shape of RBC in Camel, (iii) Behavioural (Mention the following survival strategies with diagrams. Not to be elaborated further): Problem-solving in Chimpanzees: Chimpanzees pull leaves of a tree branch and then stick the branch into the entrance of a termite nest to “fish” for food. They also crack open nuts using pieces of wood in a “hammer and anvil” technique. They are even observed to eat the leaves of medicinal plants when infected with certain parasites. Communication in Honeybees: Honeybees go out to locate food sources. A honeybee returns to the hive after successfully locating a source of food, she performs the set of maneuvers on a honeycomb that resembles a figure 8 while waggling her abdomen. Based on the way she is dancing and the duration of her dance, other bees are able to leave the hive and quickly locate the food source.

Chapter 5 Environment, Its Resources and Their Conservation

Chapter 5A Nitrogen Cycle:
Discussions should include the following with relevant diagrams: Stages of the nitrogen cycle: (i) Nitrogen Fixation: Atmospheric, biological, and industrial (ii) Ammonification(iii) Nitrification (iv) Denitrification. Discussion should include the following: Human activities such as the use of fertilizers greatly increase the amount of nitrogen that is cycling between the living world and the soil, water, and atmosphere. This may result in Increased global concentrations of nitrous oxide (N2O), a potent greenhouse gas, in the atmosphere as well as increased regional concentrations of other oxides of nitrogen (including nitric oxide, NO) that may cause air pollution; Substantial acidification of soils and of the waters of streams and lakes in several regions.

Chapter 5B Environmental Pollution:
Discussions should include the following with relevant examples: Pollution is an undesirable change in the physico-chemical and biological characteristics of the biosphere that has adverse effects on living organisms and the environment. Mention the causes and effects of Air, Water, Soil, and Noise pollution in tabular form: Air pollution – Cause: Greenhouse gases, SPM Effect: Acid rain and its consequences, Lung disease; Water pollution – Cause: Agricultural runoff, pathogenic organisms; Effect: Disease (cholera, typhoid, etc.), Eutrophication; Soil pollution – Cause: Pathogenic organisms, Chemicals (fertilizers, pesticides, herbicides, etc.); Effect: Effect on human (through direct contact with soil or via inhalation of soil contaminats), Biological magnification; Noise pollution – Cause: Vehicle, Industry; Effect: Effect on human (ear and heart), effect on animals.

Chapter 5C Environment and Human Population:
Problems to be mentioned: over-exploitation and depletion of natural resources, deforestation and loss of ecosystems, shrinking of agricultural land, shortage of fresh water, air and water pollution, changes in atmospheric condition and global warming, destruction of wetland and its consequences, scarcity of food. Discussions should include a brief explanation of the environmental causes behind Lung diseases and cancer. Lung diseases; Asthma – a condition in which breathing is difficult; environmental triggers for asthma include naturally occurring triggers such as animal dander, plant pollen, dust & mold and manmade triggers such as chemicals. Bronchitis – inflammation of the airways of the lungs, can be caused by breathing in of certain chemicals or smoke; welders, firefighters, and smokers are some of the people at risk. Cancer: Cancers have been linked to environmental toxins (poisons). Pesticides, herbicides, and radioactive substances have the potential to cause cancer. Smokers are at increased risk for developing lung cancer. Tobacco chewers are at increased risk of developing oral cancer.

Chapter 5D Biodiversity and Conservation:
Explanation of biodiversity and its importance (with relevant diagrams and pictures) namely in producing food, drugs & medicines, maintenance of ecological balance, climate control, economic importance (construction of the house and household furniture, production of paper, gum, resin, wax, leather, silk, wool, pearl etc.), influence on art and literature. Discussions should include the following: Four of the 34 globally identified biodiversity hotspots are in India. These hotspots are the Eastern Himalayas, Indo-Burma, Western Ghats, and Srilanka, Sundaland. The reasons behind the loss of biodiversity to be mentioned (with relevant examples pictures and diagrams) – the destruction of habitat due to changes in land use patterns, hunting and poaching, global warming and climate change, pollution, over-exploitation, natural calamities, the introduction of exotic species. The following factors are to be mentioned: Destruction of mangroves due to urbanization, agriculture, freshwater crisis, destruction of habitat, pollution, disbalance in prey-predator number, and submergence of islands due to rising sea level. Brief explanation of the terms – in-situ and ex-situ conservation, in-situ Conservation – National park, sanctuary, Reserve Forest, and Biosphere Reserve. [One or two characteristics with two examples of each type (one from West Bengal and one from the rest of India) in tabular form] ex-situ Conservation – Zoological Garden, Botanical Garden, and Cryopreservation. (Mention two characteristics with relevant examples for each). Discussions should include the following: Joint Forest Management (JFM): It was instituted by the Government of India. The pioneer project started in West Bengal in 1971 for the restoration and management of degraded Sal forests by the local inhabitants of the Arabari forest in the district of West Midnapore in West Bengal. It was initiated to meet the demands of the people and save forests from destruction. It involves the participation of common people in the protection and management of forests. People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR): It is a documented register prepared with the involvement of local people containing comprehensive information on the availability and knowledge of the local biological resource, their use, and the traditional folklore knowledge associated with them. Mention briefly with pictures of the conservation efforts of Tigers, Rhinoceros, Lions, Crocodile and Red Panda in India. Mention the name and place of one of the projects undertaken for each of their conservation.

First Summative Evaluation: 40
Month of Evaluation: April
Internal Formative Evaluation: 10

  • Chapter 1 Control and Coordination in living organisms
  • Chapter 2 Continuity of Life
    • Chapter 2A Cell Division and Cell Cycle

Second Summative Evaluation: 40
Month of Evaluation: August
Internal Formative Evaluation: 10

  • Chapter 2 Continuity of Life
    • Chapter 2B Reproduction
    • Chapter 2C Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
    • Chapter 2D Growth and Development
  • Chapter 3 Heredity and Some Common Genetic Diseases
  • Chapter 4 Evolution and Adaptation

Third Summative Evaluation: 90
Month of Evaluation: December
Internal Formative Evaluation: 10

  • Chapter 5 Environment, Its Resources and Their Conservation

Note: Along with this theme, 4 themes from the first and second summative evaluations are to be included.

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Blueprint for 1st Summative Evaluation (Total Marks – 40)

Theme Group A Group B Group C Group D Total Marks Total Questions
MCQ
1 Mark
VSAQ
1 Mark
SAQ
2 Marks
LAQ
5 Marks
Chapter 1 1 × 5 = 5 1 × 5 = 5 2 × 3 = 6 5 × 2 = 10 26 15
Chapter 2A 1 × 3 = 3 1 × 4 = 4 2 × 1 = 2 5 × 1 = 5 14 9
Total 8 9 8 15 40 24

Group A – MCQ: All questions are compulsory. There will be no alternative for MCQ.
Group B – VSA: Out of 11 questions, 9 questions are to be attempted. One (1) extra question is to be set from each theme. VSA questions may be of four types – answer in one word or in one sentence, fill in the blanks, true/false, and match column A with column B. In column matching two points are to be kept in mind – (i) For each correct matching one (1) mark is allotted, (ii) There should be at least one (1) extra option in Column B.
Group C – SA: Out of 6 questions, 4 questions are to be attempted. One (1) extra question is to be set from each theme.
Group D – LA: 3 questions are to be attempted. Alternative question from the same theme is to be set for each question. 5 marks can be given as a whole or can be divided into 3 + 2 or 2 + 3.

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Blueprint for 2nd Summative Evaluation (Total Marks – 40)

Theme Group A Group B Group C Group D Total Marks Total Questions
MCQ
1 Mark
VSAQ
1 Mark
SAQ
2 Marks
LAQ
5 Marks
Chapter 2B,2C,2D 1 × 3 = 3 1 × 2 = 2 2 × 1 = 2 5 × 1 = 5 12 7
Chapter 3 1 × 3 = 3 1 × 2 = 2 2 × 2 = 4 5 × 1 = 5 14 8
Chapter 4 1 × 3 = 3 1 × 2 = 2 2 × 2 = 4 5 × 1 = 5 14 8
Total 9 6 10 15 40 23

Group A – MCQ: All questions are compulsory. There will be no alternative for MCQ.
Group B – VSA: Out of 9 questions, 6 questions are to be attempted. One (1) extra question is to be set from each theme. VSA questions may be of four types – answer in one word or in one sentence, fill in the blanks, true/false, and match column A with column B. In column matching two points are to be kept in mind – (i) For each correct matching one (1) mark is allotted, (ii) There should be at least one (1) extra option in Column B.
Group C – SA: Out of 8 questions, 5 questions are to be attempted. One (1) extra question is to be set from each theme.
Group D – LA: 3 questions are to be attempted. Alternative question from the same theme is to be set for each question. 5 marks can be given as a whole or can be divided into 3 + 2 or 2 + 3.

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Blueprint for 3rd Summative Evaluation (Total Marks – 90)

Theme Group A Group B Group C Group D Total Marks Total Questions
MCQ
1 Mark
VSAQ
1 Mark
SAQ
2 Marks
LAQ
5 Marks
Chapter 1 1 × 3 = 3 1 × 5 = 5 2 × 3 = 6 5 × 1 = 5 19 12
Chapter 2 1 × 3 = 3 1 × 5 = 5 2 × 2 = 4 5 × 1 = 5 17 11
Chapter 3 1 × 3 = 3 1 × 3 = 3 2 × 2 = 4 5 × 1 = 5 15 9
Chapter 4 1 × 3 = 3 1 × 3 = 3 2 × 2 = 4 5 × 1 = 5 15 9
Chapter 5 1 × 3 = 3 1 × 5 = 5 2 × 3 = 6 5 × 2 = 10 24 13
Total 15 21 24 30 90 54

Group A – MCQ: All questions are compulsory. There will be no alternative for MCQ.
Group B – VSA: Out of 26 questions, 21 questions are to be attempted. One (1) extra question is to be set from each theme. VSA questions may be of four types – answer in one word or in one sentence, fill in the blanks, true/false, and match column A with column B. In column matching two points are to be kept in mind – (i) For each correct matching one (1) mark is allotted, (ii) There should be at least one (1) extra option in Column B.
Group C – SA: Out of 17 questions, 12 questions are to be attempted. One (1) extra question is to be set from each theme.
Group D – LA: 6 questions are to be attempted. Alternative question from the same theme is to be set for each question. 5 marks can be given as a whole or can be divided into 3 + 2 or 2 + 3.
The question pattern is indicative of the Madhyamik Examination.

WBBSE Class 10 Solutions

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019

Practicing with West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions and West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019 alongside detailed explanations can lead to a deeper understanding of the subject.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019

Group-A

1. Write the correct answer from the given alternatives

1. The process by which the height of the earth’s surface increases is ………….
Answer: Aggradation.

2. Deep cracks on the surface of the mountain glacier are called ………….
Answer: Crevasse.

3. Annual range of temperature remains minimum in ………….
Answer: Equatorial climate region.

4. Cold local wind that blows in Rhone valley of France is called ………….
Answer: Mistral

5. The place where warm and cold ocean currents converge is called ………….
Answer: Cold wall.

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019

6. When the distance between the earth and the moon is farthest, it is called-
Answer: Apogee.

7. In human body, contaminated water may cause ………….
Answer: Diarrhoea.

8. The main basis of state recognisation in India is ………….
Answer: Language.

9. The source of river Ganga is ………….
Answer: Gangotri glacier.

10. In India, the largest multipurpose river valley project is ………….
Answer: Bhakra-Nangal.

11. The state which ranks first in production of rice per hectare is ………….
Answer: West Bengal.

12. The required raw materials of iron and steel industry include.
Answer: All of them.

13. According to 2011 census the number of metropolis in india is ………….
Answer: 53

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019

14. The latitudinal and longitudinal extension of million sheet topographical map is ………….
Answer: 4°x4°

Group-B.

1. If the statement is true, write ‘T’ and if false, write ‘F’ against the following :

1. Altitude of snowline varies with latitudes.
Answer: True

2. Wind velocity is measured with the help of Anemometer.
Answer: True

3. Salinity of sea-water is maximum in Equatorial region.
Answer: False

4. The highest plateau of India is Deccan Trap.
Answer: False

5. The old alluvial soil of Ganga plain is called Bhangar.
Answer: True

6. Vishakhapattanam is the only tax-free port of India.
Answer: False

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019

7. Red coloured lines are used to show roads in satellite images.
Answer: False

2. Fill in the blanks with suitable words

1. Holes formed by abrasion on river bed are called pot holes.
2. Smog is formed by mixing of dust and fog during winter in industrial region.
3. Labrador current causes snowfall in New Foundland.
4. Waste paper is a solid/biodegradable type of wastes.
5. Tropical early jetstream forests south-west monsoon winds to blow over India.
6. The southernmost most paint of mainland India is kanyakumari.
7. Kolkata is the most populous city of India.

3. Answer in one or two words

1. Which type of rainfall is found in Temperate zone?
Answer: Frontal or cyclonic rainfall.

2. Which island of Sundarban was completely submerged due to global warming?
Answer: New Moore island.

3. Which type of natural vegetation is found in the desert region of India?
Answer: Xerophytes.

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019

4. On which quarters of moon, does Neaptide occur?
Answer: 1st and 3rd quarters of the moon.

5. In which part of the course, river Ganga is maximum polluted?
Answer: Middle course.

6. Name one Zaid crop of India.
Answer: Aus rice, nuts, pumpkin, cucumber, etc.

7. Which state of India leads in ‘Rain-water harvesting’?
Answer: Tamil Nadu.

8. Where is the headuarter of ‘Survey of India’ located?
Answer: Dehradun.

4. Match the left column with the right column.

1. Prominence of ozone gas a. Gurgaon
2. Research Institute of sugarcane b. Jammu & Kashmir
3. Largest automobile manufacturing industrial centre c. Stratosphere
4. Karewa d. Lucknow

Answer:
1- c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b

Group-C

3. Answer the following in brief

Question 1.
What is denudation?
Answer:
After weathring, when the weathered earth materials are remained from their position by erosion and mass wasting, the surface beneath the debris becomes open and forms a new landform. This process of opening up of the new surface of the landform is called denudation.
Denudation-Weathering + Erosion + Mass wasting

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019

OR.

What is inversion of temperature?
Answer:
By the normal lapse rate, temperature reduces by 6.4°C with every 1km or 1000m rise in altitude. But in some cases, it is seen that temperature increases with increase in height or altitude. This phenomenon is known as the inversion of temperature. This is common in valleys of mountainous regions during early morning and late night

Question 2.
What is ‘Inter-tropical convergence zone’?
Answer:
The Inter-tropical convergence zone is the region around the equator, extending up to about 5°-10° N and S latitudes. It is called so because the Northeastern and South-eastern Trade winds meet in this region.

OR.

State the definition of ocean current.
Answer:
A continuous and regular horizontal movement of ocean water in a fairly defined direction over a great distance on the surface or sub-surface of the ocean is called ocean currents. they are mostly caused by wind direction, rotation of the earth, temperature, salinity and density of ocean water, prsence and location of landmass, etc. Ocean currents are of two types-warm currents and cold currents.

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019

Question 3.
Define waste management.
Answer:
Waste management is the method of collecting wastes scientifically, segregating then, taking steps for recycle, reuse and reduction, so that the ultimate damage or pollution caused by the wastes comes down to the minimum.

OR

What do you mean by radioactive wastes?
Answer:
Radioactive wastes are by-products of various nuclear technology processes. Industries generating radioactive wastes include nuclear medicine, nuclear research, nuclear power, manufacturing, construction, coal and rare-earth mining, nuclear weapons reprocessing, etc, Radioactive wastes include any material that is either intrinsically radioactive or that has been contaminated by radioactivity.

Question 4.
Where is Malnad region located?
Answer:
The Malnad region is located in the western part of the Karnataka plateau. This region is 320km long and 35km wide. It is highly dissected, and have deeply cut valleys.

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019

OR.

Name two watershed regions of India.
Answer:
The main watershed regions of India are :

  • The Himalaya and the Karakoram ranges.
  • The Vindhya-Satpura ranges.
  • The Western Ghats.

Question 5.
What do you mean by millet crops?
Answer:
Millets are a group of highly variable small-seeded grasses, widely grown in India as well as around the world as foodgrains for man and fodder for animals. The millets are hardy grains that can grow well in dry zones as rain-fed crops, under conditions of low soil fertility and low soil moisture. Eg- Jowar, Bajra, Ragi, etc.

OR.

Name one agro-based and one forest-based industries of India.
Answer:

  • Agro-based industries in India: Sugar mills, rice mills, cotton textile industry, edible oil mills, tea industry, coffee industry.
  • Forest-based industries in India: Paper industry, match box and card board industry, rubber industry, furniture industry.

Question 6.
State the definition of satellite imageries.
Answer:
Satellite imageries are photographs of the earth and other planets captured by imaging satellites that are installed in space. These are prepared by reading and representing the signals sent by the satellites with the help of high technological know-how.

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019

OR.

State the use of Representative Fraction (R.F.)
Answer:
Representative Fraction (R.F) is a scale which is represented as a fraction that contains no unit. Hence, it can be used for any unit eg. cm to m or km, inch to feet, etc. It is readable and usable in any country with a unit system suitable to them.

Group-D

4. Give brief explanatory answers

Question 1.
State three differences between ‘Seif dunes’ and ‘Barkhans’
Answer:
Seif dunes

  • The term Seif comes from the Arabian word ‘Seif’ meaning a straight sword.
  • Formed like straight lines parallel to the wind direction
  • They are narrow and straight and look like parallel ridges.
  • They are very long dunes, Width is very less, but height may be a few be hundred metres.

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019 1
Barkhans

  • The term Barkhan comes from the Turkish word ‘Barkhan’ meaning sand mountain.
  • Formed like a curve diagonal or perpendicular to wind direction.
  • They are crescent-shaped dunes. The windward side is convex and the beward side is concave.
  • They are not very huge in size. Widthh lies between 20-30m and height may around 30m.

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019 2
OR.

Briefly explain any three factors to identify the mediterranean climate in Temperature-Rainfall graph.
Answer:
The Mediterranean climate can be identified with the help of the following factors :

  • Average annual temperature remains about 13°- 18°c
  • Average summer temperature is 14°-22°c
  • Average winter temperature is 10°-14°c
  • Average annual rainfall is 35-75cm, which mostly occurs during winter due to the moist westerly winds.

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019

Question 2.
Briefly discuss any three effects of wastes on environment.
Answer:
The effects of wastes on the environment are :

  • Solid wastes lying on the ground for a long time pollute the soil and water of the region. It may spread bad smell and cause air-pollution as well.
  • Chemical wastes coming from pesticides, insecticides, etc. Tend to reduce nitrogen content of the soil and reduce fertility. Numerous animals and microorganisms may get killed, and land may gradualy become unproductive.
  • Accumulation of wastes in rivers, lakes, ponds, oceans, etc. cause death of numerous aquatic plants and animals. Fishes may loose their reproductive capacity. Water ecosystems may get disrupted.
  • Wastes disposed on grounds change the chemical properties of soils. Soils may become acidic and salty and unfit for vegetation growth.

OR.

Briefly discuss the role of students in waste management from any three perspectives.
Answer:
Effective waste management is best achieved at household level, and students can take an active role in this process. They can take up the following steps-

i. Reduce waste creation :

  • Use towels and ceramic plates instead of paper napkins and disoposable plates.
  • Use biodegradable shopping bags instead of plastic bags.

ii. Reuse things :

  • Use old clothes, old toys, books, etc. from elders.
  • Make innovative items from discarded things Eg- Penstand from soda cans, Rags from old clothes.

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019

iii. Cleaning programmes :

  • Awareness camps and demonstration programms regarding garbage disposal.
  • Schools can arrange groups of students for regular survey, Whether the local people are following cleaning and garbage disposal systems or not.

Question 3.
Mention three differences about characteristic features of tropical evergreen and tropical deciduous vegetation of India.
Answer:

Tropical Evergreen forests Tropical deciduous forest
i. Tropical evergreen forests are very dense. i. Tropical deciduous forests are compartively less dense.
ii. The trees are very tall and highly branched. ii. The trees are moderately tall and branched.
iii. The trees do not shed their leaves altogether in one season. Thus the forest appears green throughout the year. iii. The trees shed their leaves together in the dry season, hence the name deciduous.
iv. The leaves of the trees create a canopy over the head of the forest and allow very little sunlight to penetrate the forest. iv. The leaves of the trees are comparatively smaller in size, hence do not create a canopy over the head of the forest. Hence, the forests receives sufficient sunlight.

OR.

Explain with examples the influence of raw materials on the developments of industries in India.
Answer:
Development of industries in any region is dependent upon various factors. Raw materials is one of them.

a. Availability of a certain raw material in a region determines the development of a particular industry in that region. Eg-Availability of coal and iron are along with other necessary raw materials in the Asansol-Durgapur belt has helped in the growth of iron and steel industry in that region.

b. Unless the particular raw material is available in a particular region, the related industry cannot grow, even if all other necessary things are available. Eg-Sugar industry cannot develop in Rajasthan due to unavailability of sugarcane in the vicinity.

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019

c. Nature of raw materials determines the location of the industry. Eg-Sugar mills must be located near the sugarcane producing regions, so that the canes can be moved to the mills very fast. If the raw materials are pure, like cotton industry can be located at the source of raw materials or at the market.

Question 4.
Briefly discuss about three main characteristic features of satellite imageries.
Answer:
The characteristic features of satellite imageries are :

  • They can supply complete weather information and imagery of a full hemisphere at a time.
  • Imageries can also be obtained in segments for detailed descriptions.
  • They help in resource surveys, for eg-locating huge collection of fishes in ocean water, monitoring agricultural yields, etc.
  • The informations collected by satellite imageries is digital, that can be easily analysed by computers.

OR.

Mention the merits and demerits of remote sensing.
Answer:
The merits of remote sensing are :

  • Remote sensing helps to conduct surveys of regions from very long distances with the help of satellites, without coming in physical contact with the region.
  • Surveys can be easily conducted during day or night time and on any kind of terrain.
  • Most of the work in remote sensing is done with the help of computers and other sophisticated machines, Hence, very little man-power is required.

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019

The demerits of remote sensing are :

  • Remote sensing is a very expensive affair, as it includes use of highly sophisticated computers and machineries and satellite services.
  • Remote sensing requires a special kind of training to analyse the images. Hence the images are not readable or usable for common people.
  • Sometimes large scale engineering maps cannot be prepared from satellite data which makes remote sensing data collection incomplete.

Group-E.

5. Answer any two questions from the following :

Question 1.
Describe with sketches three major landforms developed by erosional work of rivers.
Answer:
The different landforms developed by the erosional works of rivers are :

i. Gorge or V-shaped valley: In the upper course of the river, the down-cutting force is much more than lateral of side-cutting force of erosion. Hence the channel develops more depth than width, and takes the shape of a V-shaped valley.

ii Canyon or I-shaped valley: When the river flows through an arid region made up of nonresistant rocks, most of its energy is spent in down-cutting rather than widening of the valley. Thus the valley takes the shape of an ‘I’-shaped valley.
West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019 3

iii. Pot holes: Round disc-like depressions curved by the swirling water and rock fragments on the bed or floor of the river are called pot holes.
West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019 4

iv. Waterfalls : When water of the river falls freely from a height due to very steep slope, it is called a waterfall. They are further classified into rapids, cataracts and cascades.
West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019 5

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019

Question 2.
Explain the factors responsible for the formation of equatorial low pressure belt and polar high pressure belts.
Answer:
The factors responsible for the formation of equatorial low pressure belt are:

  • The sun gives its maximum heat to this region through perpendicular rays. Hence, air gets heated, lightened and rises up.
  • Presence of huge water bodies and much heat leads to high rates of evaporation. The air gets filled with water vapour and becomes light.
  • Rotation of the earth tends to deflect air due to coriolis force.
  • Presence of vast forests add up to water vapour in the air due to transpiration.

The factors responsible for the formation of polar high pressure belts are :

  • The sun gives the most inclined rays to the polar regions. Heat is very less, hence the air is very cold and heavy.
  • There is very less water vapour in the air, as the rate of evaporation is very less.
  • Some air from the adjacent sub-polar low pressure belts rise and descend towards the poles, and increase the density of air over there.

Question 3.
Give an account of occurance of orographic rainfall with suitable example and diagram.
Answer:
Orographic rainfall is typically found in hilly and mountainous regions. When the moisture lader winds blowing from the sea strike against mountains, the humid winds rise up along the windward slope.

As they rise, they cool down and bring heavy rainfall to the windward slope. Such a rainfall caused due to hindrance or obstruction by a mountain is called orographic or relief rainfall. (‘Oro’-greek word meaning mountain).
West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019 6

Question 4.
Explain the causes responsible for the development of high tides and ebb.
Answer:
The causes responsible for the development of high tides and ebb tides are :
i. Gravitational pull of the moon: Although both the sun and the moon exert gravitational force on the earth the sun’s force is only 46% of that of the moon, due to its large distance from the earth compared to the moon. Hence, the moon’s influence on the tides is twice as strong as that of the sun.

The water of the earth nearest to the moon is pulled by its gravitational force. This makes the water on this side bulge, causing high tide. Waters on the opposite side also experience high tides at a comparatively lower scale. The areas perpendicular to these areas of high tide experience ebbs or low tides.

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019

ii. Effect of centrifugal force for rotation of the earth: Rotation of the earth causes generation of centrifugal force. Which tends to throw the waters outwards. This causes the rise of water as tides. The regions lying perpendicular to the regions of high tides experience ebbs or low tides.

iii. Gravitational pull of the sun: The sun also helps to cause tides. When it lies in the same side as the moon, it causes very big tides. When the sun lies in the opposite direction to the moon, it causes weaker tides.

2. Answer any two questions from the following :

Question 1.
State the differences between the physical characteristics of North and South Indian rivers.
Answer:
The differences between the physical characteristics of the North and South Indian rivers are :

North Indian Rivers South Indian Rivers
1. The North Indian rivers originate from the Himalayan range. Hence they are both rainfed and snowfed. 1. The South Indian rivers originate from the plateau region. Hence they are only rainfed.
2. The rivers are perennial, as they are both rainfed and snowfed. 2. The rivers tend to dry up in the dry season. Hence, they are non-perennial.
3. Most of the rivers exhibit their upper, middle and lower courses. Hence, they are ideal rivers. 3. Most of the rivers do not exhibit the three courses prominently. Hence, they are not ideal rivers.
4. The rivers are very long. They form ‘V’ and ‘I’-shaped valleys in the upper course. 4. The rivers are not very long. They mostly run through rugged regions and form less deep valleys.
5. The rivers are navigable in the middle and lower courses as the rivers are perennial and these regions have very gentle slope. 5. The rivers are not navigable as they are non perennial, and flow over rugged terrain.
6. These rivers have more number of tributaries. 6. These rivers have less number of tributaries.
7. These rivers carry a huge amount of silt and hence form big deltas at their mouth. 7. These rivers carry comparatively lower amount of silt, and hence form smaller deltas.

Question 2.
Give a brief account of alluvial and black soils of India.
Answer:

Alluvial soil Black soil
1. Formed by deposition of sand, silt clay and organic matter brought down and deposited by rivers. 1. Formed by weathering of basalt rocks.
2. The colour of the soil varies from lightbrown to dark-grey. 2. The colour of the soil varies from black to dark-brown.
3. Found in the river valleys of India, especially along the middle and lower courses. 3 . Found in the plateau region of Maharashtra, parts of Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh, parts of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
4. Alluvial soil is best for growing crops like rice, wheat, sugarcane, jute, etc. 4. Block soil is best for growing crops like cotton, tobacco, jowar, wheat, etc.

Question 3.
State favourable physical conditions required for cultivation of wheat.
Answer:
The favourable physical conditions required for cultivation of wheat are :

  • Temperature: Wheat prefers temperature around 155°c. The temperature should be low at the time of sowing, but as the time of harvesting approaches, higher temperature (about 21°c-26°c) is required for ripening of the crop.
  • Rainfall: Wheat thrives well in areas receiving an annual rainfall of about 75cm – 100 cm. In areas receiving rainfall less then 50cm, the deficiency is recovered by irrigation.
  • Frost: There should be atleast 100 frost-free days. Long gloomy or foggy weather is harmful for crop.
  • Soil: Chernozem is the best suited soil for wheat. It also grows well in light clayey or heavy loamy soil.
  • Land: Wheat grows well in well-drained slightly rolling plains

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019

Question 4.
Discuss the importance of transportation system in India.
Answer
The importance of transportation system in India are –

  • Transport system helps in moving agricultural products, industrial raw materials, finished manufactured goods, etc to the required regions.
  • In helps in transportation of labor and other necessary things for the development of agricultural, industrial and other sectors.
  • It makes different products available to all the corners of the country, so that uniform development can be made possible.
  • It helps in growth of new towns and bigger cities and hence brings about urbanisation.
  • It helps to remove regional disparities and inequalities.
  • It makes administrative works easier.
  • It helps to raise the National Income and bring about socio-economic development of the country.

Group-F.

Locate the following with appropriate symbols and names on the given outline map of India. Attach the map with the answer script.

1. Vindhya mountain
2. Loktak Lake
3. River Mahanadi
4. One-rainshadow region
5. One mangrove forest region.
6. One desert soil region.
7. One sugarcane producing region of north India.
8. One heavy engineering industrial centre of eastern India.
9. Vishakhapathnam Port.
10. A megacity of western coast.
West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2020

OR
Answer any ten of the following questions :

1 Name the longest river of South India.
Answer: Godavari.

2 Which is the largest lagoon in the eastern coast of India?
Answer: Chilika lake in Odisha.

3 Name one tributary of Indus that flows through Punjab plain.
Answer: River Sutlej.

4 In which month kalbaisakhi occurs in India?
Answer: April-May.

5 Name a state having laterite soil.
Answer: Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh.

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019

6 What type of natural vegetation grows on saline soil of India?
Answer: Mangrove vegetation.

7 Name one plantation crop produced in India.
Answer: Tea, coffee.

8 Where is the largest petro-chemical industry of India located?
Answer: Gujarat.

9 Name the most populous state of India according to 2011 census.
Answer: Uttar Pradesh.

10 What is the name of the international Airport of West Bengal.
Answer: Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose International Airport.

11 What are the dry river vallays of the deserts called?
Answer: Wadis.

12 In which layer of the atmosphere, disturbances are found?
Answer: Troposphere.

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019

13 Name the highest peak of South India.
Answer: Dodabetta Peak.

14 Name and iron and steel industrial centre of West Bengal.
Answer: Kulti, Burnpur, Durgapur.

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2020

Practicing with West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions and West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2020 alongside detailed explanations can lead to a deeper understanding of the subject.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2020

Group-A.

1. Write the correct answer from the given alternatives: 1×14=14

Question 1.
The process by which, soil and rock layers move down along the slope of highlands by gravity is called:
a. Weathering
b. Gradation process
c. Endogenic processes
d. Mass wasting process
Answer:
d. Mass wasting process

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2020

Question 2.
In pediplain, low lying hills of hard rocks remain as residual landform is called :
a. Yardang
b. Zeugen
c. Sand dunes
d. Inselberg
Answer:
d. Inselberg

Question 3.
“Horse Latitude” is located at :
a. Equatorial low pressure belt
b. Sub-tropical high pressure belt
c. Sub-polar low pressure belt
d. Polar high pressure belt
Answer:
b. Sub-tropical high pressure belt

Question 4.
Diurnal range of temperature is maximum in :
a. Equatorial climatic region
b. Hot desert climatic region
c. Tropical Monsoon climatic region
d. Mediterranean climatic region
Answer:
b. Hot desert climatic region

Question 5.
The formation of ocean currents depend on :
a. Prevailing winds
b. Earth’s revolution
c. Sand banks
d. All of them are applicable
Answer:
a. Prevailing winds

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2020

Question 6.
The time difference between high and low tides at a place is nearly :
a. more than two hours
b. more than six hours
c. more than four hours
d. more than eight hours
Answer:
b. more than six hours

Question 7.
Carbon particles emitted by vehicles are controlled by use of :
a. Cyclone Separators
b. Electrostatic Precipitator
c. Scrubber
d. Coated Alumina
Answer:
c. Scrubber

Question 8.
Parallel of latitude, passing through the middle of India is :
a. Equator
b. Tropic of Capricorn
c. Prime Meridian
d. Tropic of Cancer
Answer:
d. Tropic of Cancer

Question 9.
The lake located, in between the deltas of Godavari and Krishna rivers is :
a. Kolleru
b. Pulicat
c. Chilka
d. Vembanad
Answer:
a. Kolleru

Question 10.
The most extensive method of irrigation, practiced in India is :
a. Wells and tube wells
b. Tanks
c. Canals
d. Sprinkler
Answer:
a. Wells and tube wells

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2020

Question 11.
Western disturbances occur in India during :
a. Summer season
b. Autumn season
c. Rainy season
d. Winter season
Answer:
d. Winter season

Question 12.
Salty sea breeze is needed for :
a. Sugar cultivation
b. Tea cultivation
c. Jute cultivation
d. Coffee cultivation
Answer:
a. Sugar cultivation

Question 13.
Petro-chemical industrial centre of West Bengal is located at :
a. Junput
b. Kolkata
c. Sankarpur
d. Haldia
Answer:
d. Haldia

Question 14.
The colour used for drawing of contour lines in topographical map is :
a. Brown
b. Black
c. Red
d. Blue
Answer:
a. Brown

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2020

Group-B.

1. If the statement is true, write ‘T’ and if false, write ‘F’ against the following answer any six: 1×6=6

1. The confluence of Alakananda and Bhagirathi rivers is at Devprayag.
Answer: True

2. Mistral is a warm local wind which blows over Rhone valley in France.
Answer: False

3. Floods occur in India in the years of El-Nino.
Answer: False

4. The position of sun, moon and earth along a straight line is known as syzygy.
Answer: True

5. Papers may be manufactured by recycling newspapers as raw material.
Answer: True

6. The soil composed of pebbles, sands and silts, found along the foothills of Siwalik is called bet.
Answer: False

7. For analysis of satellite imageries, use of computer is mandatory.
Answer: True

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2020

2. Fill in the blanks with suitable words answer any six: 1×6=6

1. The process of modifying landforms by combined action of erosion and weathering is called ……..
Answer: Gradation

2. Oases are formed by ………………… action of wind.
Answer: Erosional/Deflational/Blouring

3. With the increase of air pressure gradient, wind velocity ………..
Answer: Increases

4. The cold ocean water from polar region flows as ………………… current towards equator.
Answer: Cold

5 The longest national highway of India is NH …………..
Answer: 44

6. Indian Space Research Centre is situated at …………..
Answer: Thiruvananthapuram

7. In short, electronic waste is known as ………….. waste.
Answer: e

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2020

3. Answer in one or two words answer any six: 1×6=6

1. Name the largest valley glacier of the world.
2 Where in the atmosphere over the earth surface ozone hole was first discovered?
3 Name the southern-most mountain pass of Western Ghats.
4 What is the local name of the lagoons in Kerala coast?
5 Name the highest waterfall of India.
6 In which city of India underground rail first started its journey?
7 Which is the most populous state of India?
8 In what form the satellite imagery is produced?
Answer:
1. Lambert glacier in Antarctica.
2. Antarctica
3. Pal ghat (Palakkad gap)
4. Kayal
5. Kunchikal waterfalls of karnataka
6. Kolkata
7. Uttar Pradesh
8. Digital form

4. Match the Left Column with the Right Column:1×4=4

A B
1. Ratna a. Pine
2. Coniferous forest b. Murmagaon
3. Railway coach manufacturing centre c. High-yielding variety rice seed
4. Iron ore exporting port d. Perambur

Answer:
1-c, 2-a , 3-d, 4 -b

Group-C.

3. Answer the inflowing in brief (Alternatives should be noted): 2×6=12

Question 1.
What is Plunge Pool?
OR Define Loess.
Answer:
The depression or hole created at the foot of a waterfall due to falling or plunging of water along with rock fragments with high velocity, is known as a plunge pool.
West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2020 1
OR.
Plains formed by deposition of fine sand particles carried by wind far away from the place where they belong, are called loess or loess plains. Eg-A loess plain has been formed along the valley of river Hwang Ho in China, due to deposition of sand blows away from the gobi desert.
West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2020 2

Question 2.
What is relative humidity?
OR, What do you mean by Perigean tide?
Answer:
The ratio of the amount of water vapour present in the air mass at a given temperature of a place, to the maximum quantity of water vapour that the air can hold at that particular temperature, is known as relative humidity. It is expressed as a percentage.

Relative humidity
\(=\frac{\text { Actual amount of water vapour present in air }}{\text { Maximum amount of water vapour the air can hold at that temperature }} \times 100\)
Or
\(\text { Relative humidity }=\frac{\text { Absolute humidity }}{\text { Humidity capacity }} \times 100\)
Or
A perigean tide occurs when the moon comes closest to the earth (on a new moon or full moon day) while revolving around the earth on its orbit. The strongest perigean tide occurs three or four times a year when a perigee (nearest position of the moon to the earth) coincides with a spring tide (When the sun, the moon and the earth are nearly aligned in every two weeks).

Question 3.
What is a landfill in waste management?
OR
Define municipal wastes.
Answer:
The method of discarding wastes in approved grounds, filling up the huge holes dug to bury the wastes callected, is called land-filling. Land-filling is the most common method of waste disposal, where the waste is buried underground. But this method is not much in use in modern days, as this requires a large vacant land and produces strong methane and other gases, and cause contamination problems.
OR.
The wastes generated in the urban areas, or municipal areas. are known as municipal wastes. These include trash of garbage from households, schools, offices, markets, restaurants and other public places; obsolute computers, mobiles and other electronic goods; furniture and old fashioned clothes etc.

Question 4.
Mention two characteristic features of desert vegetation in India.
OR.
What do you mean by “Dun”?
Answer:
Characteristics of desert vegetation in India are :

  • It is found in Rajasthan, Kachch and Kthiawar Peninsular region of gujarat and the rain shadow area of Decan Plateau.
  • The vegetation is very sparsely spread.
  • The leaves of the plants are reduced to thorns due to lack of water. The roots are very long to absorb underground water. The stems are flashy and have a waxy coating over them.

OR.
The valleys lying in the siwalik range are called ‘Duns’ or ‘Doons’. The Siwalik range has been formed much later than the Himadri and Himachal Himalayas. During the formation of the siwalk, the rivers that were flowing ran the higher Himalyan ranges got interupted and blocked, thus forming lakes, and depositing pebbles, sand, silt etc. Later the rivers eroded and made their ways through the Siwalik range as well. Thus, the waters of the lakes were removed. The depositions left back formed the ‘doons’

Question 5.
Define ancillary industry.
OR
Name the two terminal centres of the longest inland waterways in India.
Answer:
The industries which supply their finished products as raw materials for some other industries or support the growth of other industries are called basic industries, and the industries which receive these raw materials or are supported by these basic industries, are called ancillary industries. Eg-Ancillary industries for the automobile industry are-tyre industry battery industry, glass industry etc.
OR.
The longest inland waterway of india (also called National Waterway 1) lies along the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghl river system. It is 1,620 km long, lying between Prayagraj in Allahabad in the north to Haldia in West Bengal (Sagar) in the south.

Question 6.
What do you mean by sensor?
OR.
State two uses of topographical maps.
Answer:
A sensor is a specialised camera that is installed in a satellite in order to take photographs of the earth. It can be of two types. An active sensor uses its own energy for illumination and helps the satellite to capture images at night. A passive sensor can help the satellite to capture images only when the sun is illuminating the earth.
OR.
The uses of topographical maps are :

  • It helps to understand and study the physical characteristics of the region.
  • It helps to understand and analyse the different cultural features (roads, settlements, etc.) of the same area with respect to the physical features present there.
  • It helps to analyse the relation between man and nature, and helps to plan for economic development.

Group-D.

Give brief explanatory answer (Alternatives should be noted):-

Question 1.
Discuss in brief about three processes of river transportational activity.
OR.
Mention the relationship between Jet stream and Indian Monsoon system.
Answer:
The river transports its load by the following processes:

  • Traction: The heavier and large rock fragments are forced to flow down along the river water by rolling on the floor of the river channel due to gravity.
  • Saltation: The comparatively smaller fragments of rocks are moved downstream by jumping over the floor of the river channel along with the water continuously.
  • Suspension: The fine particles of the river’s load remain suspended in the river due to buoyancy of water, while they are carried downstream.
  • Solution: The soluble particles are dissolved in the river water and moved downstream.

OR.
Jet stream is a thin stream of speedy winds (350-450 km/hr) that blow from west to east from the winter till March-April between the Troposphere and the Stratosphere. These winds play an important role in the Indian monsoon system. These winds influence the onset and retreat of the monsoons in India, by seasonal shifting and creation of low presure and high presure calls respectively.

Question 2.
Classify wastes according to nature along with examples.
OR.
State three necessities of waste management.
Answer:
The different types of wastes are :

  • Solid wastes: Solid wastes are any type of garbage or rubbish generated at home or outside. Eg-Food wastes newspaper, broken household or office articles, etc.
  • Liquid wastes: Liquid wastes include wash waters from homes, cleaning liquids used in industries, waste waters or liquids from industries, etc. Sometimes, solid wastes are converted to liquids before discarding.
  • Gaseous wastes: Gaseous wastes include CO2, SO2, N2O NH3 etc. produced as a result of manufacturing activities in industries comsumption of differnent products and other biological processes.
  • Toxic wastes : Toxic wastes are harmful and hazardous poisonous wastes that threaten public health and environment. Eg-pesticides, mercury, containing equipments, lamps, batteries, etc.
  • Non-toxic wastes: These wastes are not poisonous as such and do not pose a serious problem to the environment. They can be decomposed easily. Eg-domestic wastes, food left-overs, paper, glass, etc.

OR.
The necessities of proper waste management system are-

  • To control different types of pollution.
  • To control the spread of infectious diseases.
  • To conserve environmental resources like forests, minerals, water etc.
  • To reduce the amount of wastes generated everyday.
  • To recycle hazardous wastes for further production of useful items.

Question 3.
Discuss three advantages each of roadways and railways in India.
OR.
State the merits of agricultural revolution as experienced in the States of Punjab and Haryana.
Answer:
The advantages of roadways in India are as follows :

  • The light weight and less bulky commodity can be easily transported from one corner of the country to the other.
  • A variety of vehicles, eg-buses, trucks, cycles, auto rickshaws, vans, etc. can use the same road and carry different types of commodities and number of passengers and render door-to-door services as well.
  • This is the easiest mode of transport for moving raw materials to factories and finished products to markets. Hence, a large percentage of economic development of the country depends upon the roadways.

The advantages of railways in India are as follows :

  • Railways transport a huge quantity of goods and passengers at a high speed and at a low cost throughout the country.
  • Railways carry seeds, fertilizers, agricultural equipments to the fields and the produced crops to the markets. Railways also transport minerals, power resources, equipments etc. to the industries and their finished products to the markets. Thus railways help to bring about agricultural and industrial development in India.
  • Railways help in defence of the country by transporting soldiers, ration, war equipments and other necessary things to the border regions.

OR.
The agricultural revolution experienced in the States of Punjab and Haryana is popularly known as the Green Revolution. The merits of Green Revolution are-

  • Remarkable increase on production of foodcrops, especially wheat.
  • Extension of agricultural land.
  • Modernisation and mechanisation of agriculture.
  • Reduction of past attacks due to use of better quality of insecticides and pesticides.
  • Employment and improvement in the economic condition of the farmers, and thus a rise in their standard of living.
  • Reduction in import of foodgrains and huge increase in the export of the same.

Question 4.
Give an account of different types of scales in tabular form as used “topographical maps”.
OR.
Distinguish between Geostationary and Sun-Synchronous satellites.
Answer:
The different types of scales used in topographical maps areas follows :
West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2020 3
OR

Geostationary Satellites
i. The artificial satellites that orbit the earth from west to east in circular orbits in the same time as that of earth’s rotation ( 24 hours), are called geostationary satellites. i. The sun-synchronous satellites are those which are installed on a geocentric orbit that combines altitude and inclination in such a way, that the satellite passes over any given point of the planets surface at the same local solar time.
ii. They are installed at a height of of 36,000 km approximately, above the equator. ii. They are installed at 700-800km above the land surface and orbit the earth in circular or elliptical paths from the north polar to south polar regions.
eg : GOES-E, GOES-W, etc. iii. eg : IRS, LANDSAT, etc.


Group-E.

(Sketches are not essential for Sightless Candidates)

1. Answer any two questions from the following :

Question 1.
Describe with sketches three landforms carved out by glacial erosion.
Answer:
The landforms curved out by glacial erosion are as follows:

i. Cirque: At the source of the glacier, the mountain wall is heavily eroded by the process of plucking and abrasion. This it looks like a scooped out huge arm chair. This is known as a cirque or a corrie. Acrque may be filled with glacier melt water and may form a cirque lake or a corrie lake.

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2020 4

ii. Arete: In a show-covered mountains region, two or more glaciers may originate from different slopes of the same mountain. Thus, two or more cirques may be formed or the same mountain adjecent to each other. The steep and sharp wall that separates two adjecent cirques, is known as the arete.

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2020

iii. Pyramidal peak: If a mountain has three or more aretes, it takes the structure of a pyramid, and thus is called the pyramidal peak. The tip of such a peak becomes very sharp and pointed, and is called a horn.

iv. U-shaped valley : While the glacier flows down, the intensity of side erosion is same as that of vertical or down erosion by the processes of plucking and abrasion. Hence the valley developed looks like the letter ‘U’. Thus they are called U-shaped valley.
West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2020 5
v. Hanging valley : In a glaciated region, the main or trunk glacier cames a greater volume of ice than the tributary glaciers. Thus the main glacier has more erosive power than the smaller tributary glaciers. Hence, the main glacier forms deper valleys and the tributary glaciers form comparatively less deeper valleys. These are not visible as long as the ice cover reviews found to be hanging over the huge deep valleys. Such valleys are called hanging valley.

Question 2.
Give an account of atmospheric layers of troposphere and stratosphere.
Answer:
Troposphere

  • The lowest layer of the atmosphere, lying closest to the earth is known as Troposphere.
  • It extends upto 18km near the equator and 18km near the poles.
  • Temperature in this layer decreases by this is known as Lapse Rate.
  • About three-fourths of the total mass of the atmosphere is concentrated in this layer.
  • All the weather phenomena, like wind, rainfall, storm, etc, occur in this layer.
  • The upper limit of the Troposphere is known as the Tropopouse.

Stratosphere

  • Stratosphere is the second layer of the atmosphere that lies above the Troposphere.
  • It spreads upto 50km above the earth’s surface.
  • Temperature goes on increasing in this layer at the rate of 4 for every 50km.
  • A huge concentration of ozone gas is found in this layer between 20-40 km. This is also known as the Ozonosphere.
  • There is very less atmospheric disturbances here. A thin layer of cirrus clouds may form at the lower layers of the stratosphere.
  • Jet planes fly through this layer due to less friction due to lack of air.
  • The upper limit of the stratosphere is known as stratopause.

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2020

Question 3.
Mention the location of Mediterranean climatic region and discuss its major climatic characteristics.
Answer:
Mediteranean climate is found between 30°c – 40°c latitudes in both Northern and Southern hemispheres.

  • Europe: Portugal, spain, Italy, Greece
  • Aisa: Western Turkey, Lebanon, Syria, Israel.
  • Africa: Egypt, Morocco, Northern Algeria, Cape town.
  • North America: Southern California.
  • South America: Chile
  • Oceania: Southern and south-western coast of Australia.

Characteristics of Mediterranean climate

  • Temperature remains moderate throughout the year.
  • Average summer temperature lies between 14°c 22°c
  • Average winter temperature lies between 10°c -14°c
  • Summers are dry and the sky remains clear during this season.
  • Most of the rainfall occurs during winter.
  • Average annual rainfall is 35-75cm

Question 4.
Discuss the influences of ocean currents on global climate.
Answer:
The influences of ocean currents on global climate are :
i. Control on temperature: The warm currents move towards the polar regions from the equatorial region and the cold currents flow towards the equatorial region from the polar regions. This helps in maintaining a balance between temperature of various regions due to exchange of heat.

ii. Rainfall and snowfall: The regions along which warm currents flow experience heavy rainfall. The regions along which cold currents flow, are more prone to snowfall.

iii. El Nino and La Nina: During El Nino, a warm current flows from the north towards the coast of Peru and Ecuador in South America. This causes heavy rainfall in those regions. However, India and Australia may face severe draughts. During La Nina opposite climatic conditions prevail. Australia experiences heavy rainfall, India experiences moderate rainfall and Peru and Ecuador experience draught.

2. Answer any two question from the following :

Question 1.
Explain the major factors controlling the climate of India.
Answer:
The major factors that control the climate of India are :
i. Latitude: India lies between latitudes. The tropic of cancer runs through the middle of the country dividing the land into two distinct temperature zones. The southern part belongs to the Torrid Zone, While the northern part belongs to the Temperature Zone.

ii. Relief: Temperature is inversely proportionate to altitude. High relief regions have cooler climate compared to lower regions. Eg : some regions of Deccan plateau enjoy cool summers due to altitude, inspite of being nearer to the equator than the northern plains. The coastal regions enjoy an equable climate throughout the year.

iii. The Himalayas: The lofty Himalayas act as a barrier to the severely cold polar winds that come from the north, thus saving the country from chilling winters. It also prevents the monsoon winds from escaping northwards, thus ensuring monsoon rainfall in India.

iv. Distance from the sea: India has a very long coastline. The regions along the coastline enjoy moderate or maritime climate throughout the year due to the influence of the sea. Regions lying far from the sea experience extreme or continental climate with harsh summers and winters.

v. Winds: India lies under the prevailing north-eastern trade winds. Due to inequal heating of land and sea in different seasons, section of the wind blow seeasonally from oposite directions. These are called monsoon winds, They have a remarkable impact on the Indian climate and economy.

vi. Western disturbances: In winter, some cyclonic winds from the Mediteranean region, called western disturbances, enter India, causing a little rainfall and snowfall in the north.

vii. Jet Stream: This is a thin stream of speedy winds (350-450km/hr) blowing from west to east between the Troposphere and Stratosphere. These winds influence the onset and retreat of monsoons in India.

viii. El Nino and La Nina: During El Nino, India may experience rise in

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2020

Question 2.
Give an account of favourable physical conditions required for cultivation of tea in India.
Answer:
The favourable physical conditions required for the cultivation of tea in india are :

  • Temperature: Tea can grow in temperatures between 10°c – 35°c. The best condition is 25°c  and growth is retarded below an average of 18°c.
  • Rainfall: Tea requires 150-200 cm of annual rainfall well distributed throughout the year, with no long spells of dry season.
  • Humidity: High humidity, heavy dews and morning fog favour rapid development of young leaves.
  • Frost: Widespread winter frost is harmful for the growth of tea.
  • Shade: Tea is a shade-loving plant. Hence big trees are planted in between tea plants to provide light and shade.
  • Relief: Tea plants cannot tolerate stagnant of water at the base. Hence mountain slopes and undulating highlands are preferred for cultivation of tea.
  • Soil: Well-drained sandy loam with porous sub-soil is favourable for tea. Virgin forest soils with good amout of iron and humus are also suitable.

Question 3.
Explain why cotton textile industry is extensively developed in Western India.
Answer:
The factors responsible for the extensive development of cotton textile industry in western india are :

  • Availability of raw cotton from the black soil region of Western and Central India.
  • Hot humid weather of western India helps in the growth of cotton and making of threads.
  • Presence of ports at Mumbai, Kandla, Surat etc. helps in international trade.
  • Availability of hydel power from Ukai, Veera, etc. thermal power from Dhubran, and atomic power from Kakrapara, Tarapore, etc.
  • Good network of railways and roadways cannecting all important centres of the country.
  • Availability of capital from business communitees residing in the western part of India.
  • Ample labour at cheap rates.
  • High demand of cotton products in the local and foreign markets.

Question 4.
Discuss the major problems of Urbanization in India.
Answer:
The major problems of urbanisation in India are :

  • Unplanned growth of urban areas: Rapid concentration of population in urban areas lead to unplanned and nonsystematic growth of towns and cities,
  • Accomodation: The rapidly growing population is difficult to house in the already existing urban areas, Hence, growth of slums and downtrodden areas occurs in the fringes of towns and cities.
  • Availability of water: The amount of water available is not sufficient for the rapidly growing population. Hence scarcity of water occurs.
  • Unemployment: A huge section of rural population comes to urban areas in search of work. But all of them do not get employment. Hence, the total percentage of unemployed population in the urban areas increases.
  • Sewage and garbage disposal: The huge volume of disposable solid and liquid wastes generated by the excess population is difficult to handle with the present sewage and waste management systems. Thus waste dumping, water lagging, sewage overflow, etc. are common.

West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2020

Group-F.

Locate the following with appropriate symbols and names on the given outline map of India. Attach the map with your answer paper: 1×10=10

1. Aravalli mountain.
2. River Narmada.
3. Highest rainfall receiving centre in north-east India.
4. Forest Research Institute of India.
5. A region of saline soil in eastern India.
6. A coffee producing region.
7. Rurh of India.
8. India’s largest IT industrial centre.
9. A natural port of Western India.
10. Largest megacity of Northern India.
OR
[For Sightless Candidates Only]
Answer:
West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2020 7

6. Answer any ten of the following questions: 1×10=10

1. Name the rift valley lying between Vindhya and Satpura range.
2. Mention the name of the largest river island of India.
3. Name a coral island of India.
4. In which state of India, south-west monsoon wind strikes first?
5. Mention the name of state where mountain soils are found.
6. Which state of India ranks first in production of paddy?
7. Name one rabi crop produced in India.
8. Where in West Bengal rail engine manufacturing centre is located?
9. Name a mountain pass of Eastern Himalaya.
10. By which name, the old alluvial soil of Ganga Plain is known?
11. Name the state of India, having least population density.
12. Mention the name of the biggest port of Eastern India.
13. Which state of India ranks first in Coffee Production?
14. Name one natural port on the Eastern Coast of India.
Answer:
1. Aravalli mountain
2. River Normoda
3. Highest rainfall receiving centre in morth-east India
4. Forest research institute of India
5. A region of saline soil in eastern India.
6. A coffee producing region.
7. Rurh of India
8. India’s largest IT industrial centre.
9. A natural port of western India.
10. Largest mega city of Northern India.
OR.
[For sightless candidates only]
1. Narmoda river valley.
2 Majuli island on river Brahamaputra, Assam.
3. Lakshadweep islands.
4. Kerala
5. Sikkim, Jammu and Kashmir, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam.
6. West Bengal.
7. Wheat, barley, peas, gram, mustard, etc.
8. Chittaranjan
9. Nathula Pass, Bumla Pass
10. Bhangar
11. Arunachal Pradesh.
12. Chennai port
13. Karnataka
14. Kolkata port.

WBBSE Class 10 History Sample Question Paper Set 3

Practicing with West Bengal Board Class 10 History Book Solutions and WBBSE Class 10 History Sample Question Paper Set 3 alongside detailed explanations can lead to a deeper understanding of the subject.

West Bengal Board Class 10 History Model Question Paper Set 3

Group A

1. Choose the correct answers to the following: 1×20=20

Question 1.
Of the following who translated a text book on anatomy into Sanskrit ?
a. Madhusudan Gupta
b. Jagadish Chandra Bose
c. Dasarathi Roy
d. Sridhar Kathak
Answer:
a. Madhusudan Gupta

WBBSE Class 10 History Sample Question Paper Set 3

Question 2.
Of the following which often tells story from life?
a. History
b. An autobiography
c. A memoir
d. A short story
Answer:
c. A memoir

Question 3.
In which of the following years was Hindoo Patriot published ?
a. 1800
b. 1813
c. 1853
d. 1857
Answer:
c. 1853

Question 4.
Of the following the name that does not in any way go with the spread of Western education?
a. Raja Radhakanta Deb
b. Raja Rammohan Roy
c. Ramendrasundar Trivedi
d. Kaliprasanna Singha
Answer:
d. Kaliprasanna Singha

WBBSE Class 10 History Sample Question Paper Set 3

Question 5.
Of the following who left the Brahmo Samaj after a breach with Debendranath Tagore ?
a. Shivnath Shastri
b. Rammohan Roy
c. Keshab Chandra Sen
d. Dwarakanath Tagore
Answer:
c. Keshab Chandra Sen

Question 6.
Of the following who launched a very strong movement against the practice of sati?
a. Sivnath Shastri
b. Rammohan Roy
c. Keshab Chandra Sen
d. Radhakanta Deb
Answer:
b. Rammohan Roy

Question 7.
Of the following who made liberal contribution for the spread of education in Bengal ?
a. Keshab Chandra Sen
b. Raja Rammohan Roy
c. Dwarakanath Tagore
d. Haji Muhammad Mohsin
Answer:
d. Haji Muhammad Mohsin

WBBSE Class 10 History Sample Question Paper Set 3

Question 8.
Of the following who mooted the idea of setting up the Ramakrishna Mission?
a. Sri Ramakrishna Deva
b. Bijay Krishna Goswamee
c. Swami Vivekananda
d. Debendranath Tagore
Answer:
c. Swami Vivekananda

Question 9.
In which of the following places did the Chuar Rebellion take place ?
a. Hooghly
b. Rangpur in present Bangladesh
c. Chotonagpur
d. Bankura and Medinipur
Answer:
d. Bankura and Medinipur

Question 10.
One of the leaders of the Kol rebellion was :
a. Kanu
b. Buddhu Bhagat
c. Birsa Munda
d. Majnu Shah
Answer:
d. Majnu Shah

WBBSE Class 10 History Sample Question Paper Set 3

Question 11.
Of the following who founded the religious sect Pagal-Panthis ?
a. Dudu Mian
b. Karam Shah
c. Joa Bhagat
d. Durjan Singh
Answer:
b. Karam Shah

Question 12.
Of the following who came to be known as the Governor-General and Viceroy of India following the Queen’s Proclamation ?
a. Lord Dalhousie
b. Lord Canning
c. William Bentinck
d. Warren Hastings
Answer:
b. Lord Canning

Question 13.
Of the following who was the founder of the Wahabi Movement ?
a. Titumir
b. Mir Nisar Ali
c. Muhammad Abdul Wahab of Nejd
d. Haji Shariatullah
Answer:
c. Muhammad Abdul Wahab of Nejd

WBBSE Class 10 History Sample Question Paper Set 3

Question 14.
Of the following find the incompatible one :
a. Jibansmriti
b. Jibaner Jharapata
c. Sattur Batsar
d. Gora
Answer:
d. Gora

Question 15.
Of the following who was the editor of the Grambarta Prakashika?
a. Kangal Harinath Majumdar
b. Kaliprasanna Singha
c. Dinabandhu Mitra
d. Girish Chandra Ghosh
Answer:
a. Kangal Harinath Majumdar

Question 16.
In which of the following years was the first Hindu widow remarriage took place?
a. 1855
b. 1856
c. 1857
d. 1858
Answer:
b. 1856

Question 17.
The woman revolutionary who made a daring attack upon the Europeans:at the Assam-Bengal Railway European Club was :
a. Bina Das
b. Kalpana Dutta
c. Pritilata Waddedar
d. Ashalata Sen
Answer:
c. Pritilata Waddedar

WBBSE Class 10 History Sample Question Paper Set 3

Question 18.
Of the following who was the first to use the term dalit meaning oppressed people?
a. Jotiba Phule
b. Harichand Thakur
c. Mahatma Gandhi
d. B. R. Ambedkar
Answer:
a. Jotiba Phule

Question 19.
Of the following who is regarded as the ‘father of the Namasudra renaissance?
a. Harichand Thakur
b. B.R. Ambedkar
c. Mahatma Gandhi
d. Guruchand Thakur
Answer:
d. Guruchand Thakur

WBBSE Class 10 History Sample Question Paper Set 3

Question 20.
Under whose leadership Hyderabad was annexed to the Indian Union by ‘police action’?
a. General Cariappa
b. General J.N. Chaudhuri
c. General Subrata Chaudhuri
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. General J.N. Chaudhuri

Group B

2. Answer the following Questions

Attempt one question from each sub-group: In all 16 questions 1×16=16

Answer each of the following questions in one sentence :

Question 1.
Name the memory picture written by Rabindranath Tagore.
Answer:
Jibansmriti is the name of the memory picture written by Rabindranath.

Question 2.
Who was author of the book entitled Letters from a Father to His Daughter?
Answer:
‘Father to His Daughter’ is the book authored by Jawaharlal Nehru.

WBBSE Class 10 History Sample Question Paper Set 3

Question 3.
When was Calcutta Medical College of Bengal established ?
Answer:
It was in 1835 that the Calcutta Medical College of Bengal was established.

Question 4.
Who was the first lady to become the President of the Congress ?
Answer:
Annie Besant was the first lady to become the President of the Indian National Congress.

Identify which of the following is ‘True’ or ‘False’ :

1. While speeches are considered primary source the autobiography and memoirs are the secondary source of history.
Answer: True

2. Titumir of the Barasat Revolt was also known as Mir Nisar Ali.
Answer: True

WBBSE Class 10 History Sample Question Paper Set 3

3. The Munda rebellion is classified as a working class movement.
Answer: False

4. Bina Das was in favour of Non-violent movement.
Answer: False

Match column ‘A’ with column ‘B’

A B
1. First printing press and newspaper (a) Vernacular Press Act
2. First Bengali news weekly (b) Lord Ripon
3. Revocation of the Vernacular Press Act (c) Bangal Gazette
4. Lord Lytton (d) Hicky

Answer:
1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a

4. Identify the following places in the given map of India :

1. The area where Ramakrishna Mission is located.
2. The area where Wahabi Movement began.
3. The region in Bangladesh where peasantry revolted in 1870 .
4. The area where Mangal Pandey raised the banner of rebellion.
Answer:
See the Map attached
Or
(Only for blind students)

WBBSE Class 10 History Sample Question Paper Set 3

1. was one of the leaders of the Fakirs in the Sannyasi-Fakir rebellion.
Answer: Majnu Shah

2. The play Neel Darpan was composed by
Answer: Dinabandhu Mitra

3. was known as the ‘Grandfather of Indian nationalism’.
Answer: Rajnarayan Bose

4. Hyderabad was annexed to the Indian Union in
Answer: 1949

Select the correct interpretation of the following statements :

1. Statement : In Bamabodhini, a Bengali periodical, strong emphasis was was given on women issues.

Interpretation 1: The paper focused on the needs of the womenfolk
Interpretation 2: Bamabodhini continued to be published till 1923
Interpretation 3: Bamabodhini helped to bring about women’s progress in education and social matters.
Answer:
Interpretation 2: Bamabodhini continued to be published till 1923

WBBSE Class 10 History Sample Question Paper Set 3

2. Statement: Derozio promoted advanced ideas through his lectures.

Interpretation 1: Derozio moulded the minds of his students.
Interpretation 2: He constantly encouraged his students to think freely and questioning all authority.
Interpretation 3: Under Derozio’s influence his students drew inspiration from Bacon, Hume, etc.
Answer:
Interpretation 2: He constantly encouraged his students to think freely and questioning all authority.

3. Statement: The play Neil Darpan was written in the background of the. Indigo Revolt of 1859.

Interpretation 1: It exposed the inhuman villainy of the indigo planters.
Interpretation 2: The torture perpetrated by the indigo planters were mostly Europeans.
Interpretation 3: In reality the play highlighted the oppressive machinery of the colonial rulers.
Answer:
Interpretation 1: It exposed the inhuman villainy of the indigo planters.

4. Statement: The British Government of India instituted the Meerut Conspiracy Case (1929)

Interpretation 1: To suppress labour movement which was the result, it was thought, due to socialist influence.
Interpretation 2: In the case most of the Communist and trade union leaders were arrested.
Interpretation 3: The then-British Government became alarmed at the growing unrest among the workers.
Answer:
Interpretation 1: To suppress labour movement which was the result, it was thought, due to socialist influence.

Group C.

3. Answer the following questions in 2 or 3 sentences (any 11)

Question 1.
Can autobiography be considered as a source of history?
Answer:
Indeed, autobiography is a primary source for the reconstruction of history. For, autobiography directly tells the story of life of the person.

WBBSE Class 10 History Sample Question Paper Set 3

Question 2.
Name the first two graduates of the University of Calcutta.
Answer:
The first two graduates of the University of Calcutta were Bankim Chandra Chatterjee and Joddunath Bose.

Question 3.
To which educational institution did Mohammad Mohsin contribute liberally ?
Answer:
Haji Mohammad Mohsin was a wealthy man. In his charitable efforts he made no distinction between man and man. He made remarkable gift to the Hooghly College (presently Hooghly Mohsin College).

Question 4.
Who founded the Nababidhan ?
Answer:
The initial breach between Keshab Chandra Sen and Debendranath Tagore led to the formation of Brahmo Samaj of India. Yet formation of another religious faith became inevitable in 1881 when Keshab Chandra Sen founded Nababidhan.

Question 5.
Who were the adivasi or tribals ?
Answer:
The adivasi or tribal communities of India as distinguished from the peasantry were also basically peasants. They earned their livelihood through shifting cultivation and collection of fruits and roots from forest.

Question 6.
What social reforms did the Brahmo Samaj aim at?
Answer:
The Brahmo Samaj aimed at promotion among different religious groups a faith in the unity of the divine and of man. Another objective of the Brahmo Samaj was the welfare of the common people.

Question 7.
What do you understand by the term ‘revolution’?
Answer:
‘Revolution is one that brings about fundamental change in the politicosocio-economic level of a country. The French Revolution or Russian Revolution may be cited as examples of revolution.

Question 8.
What was the characteristic feature of the Kol Rebellion?
Answer:
The characteristic feature of the Kol rebellion was that the Kol tribesmen were not alone to give a fight to the British. The Kols got direct support from other tribesmen like Hos, Oraons and Mundas. Thus it goes to the credit of the Kols that could garner support of the fellow tribesmen in a fight against the British.

WBBSE Class 10 History Sample Question Paper Set 3

Question 9.
Why was the ‘age of association’ crucial to the country?
Answer:
In the absence of any political party it is not at all possible to express the grievances of people to the political authority. In India, such deficiency was made up when a number of political associations came into existence in the mid-nineteenth century. Thus began the ‘age of association’ when people could raise their legitimate demands and place them before the colonial government.

Question 10.
What is stated in the Bartaman Bharat of Swami Vivekananda?
Answer:
In Bartaman Bharat Swami Vivekananda predicted formation of an ideal state in India. According to him, the ideal state would be one in which the knowledge of the priest period, the culture of the military as also the ideal of equality are brought into harmony.

Question 11.
How did printing press help the spread of education ?
Answer:
Printing press, indeed, helped the spread of education in India. Printing of books within a short time facilitated availability of reading materials. Thus printed books became a medium for the dissemination of knowledge.

Question 12.
Why did Rabindranath found Sriniketan?
Answer:
Rabindranath set up Sriniketan at the contiguous campus of Visva Bharati. The objective was to help the villagers to solve their own problems. Also an emphasis was laid on a scientific study of the village problem.

Question 13.
Who was Baba Ramchandra?
Answer:
In 1919 Baba Ram Chandra was the first to lead a peasant protest against the landlords. In 1920 he set up Oudh (Awadh) Kisan Sabha. He was a sannyasi (mendicant) who earlier had been to Fiji as a bonded labour

Question 14.
Why is Bina Das remembered ?
Answer:
In 1929 Bina Das joined Bhupal Bose’s revolutionary group. She engaged herself in carrying on revolutionary activities. In 1932 Bina Das made an attempt o the life of Stanley Jackson, the then Governor of Bengal.

WBBSE Class 10 History Sample Question Paper Set 3

Question 15.
Why is Potti Sreeramulu remembered ?
Answer:
Potti Sreeramulu was a devout follower of Mahatma Gandhi. He worked throughout his life for humanitarian causes. He became famous for undertaking a fast for the formation of Andhra for the Telegu-speaking people of Madras.

Group D

4. Answer the following questions in 7/8 sentences: 

(Attempt one question from each sub-group: in all 6 questions)

Question 1.
How did Rammohan Roy help the spread of Western education?
Answer:
Raja Rammohan Roy was the first Indian to feel the need for Western education, and as such came to be known as the ‘First Modern Man of India’. In a letter addressed to Lord Amherst Rammohan categorically pointed out that no useful purpose will be served establishing college for Sanskrit learning. Noticing apathy of the government in establishing institutions where Western scientific education would be taught Rammohan himself founded Anglo-Hindu School in 1822.

In 1825 Rammohan founded the Vedanta College where along with Western science and philosophy the students were to be taught Vedanta philosophy. Another significant contribution of Rammohan in the field of Western education was that he drew the Christian Missions to this field. He requested the Church of Scotland Assembly to send out competent teachers to spread English education in India.

Question 2.
How did Iswarchandra Vidyasagar campaign for widow remarriage ?
Answer:
It was Iswarchandra Vidyasagar who began a campaign for widow remarriage during the mid-nineteenth century. He waged a long struggle in favour of widow remarriage. However, he realized that the campaign for widow remarriage would have an appeal to the general people if it was backed by reference to Shastric instructions.

Thus Iswarchandra began studying sacred books. Vidyasagar raised his powerful voice, backed by the weight of immense traditional learning in favour of widow remarriage. At last he found what he wanted in a verse of the Parasara Samhita.

WBBSE Class 10 History Sample Question Paper Set 3

In one of the Slokas it has been categorically stated that a second marriage is sanctioned for women under certain conditions, and one of the conditions referred to is the death of husband of a married woman. It was in this manner Vidyasagar sanctified the remarriage of Hindu widows.

Question 3.
What was the importance of the Queen’s Proclamation?
Answer:
Queen Victoria by a Proclamation announced on 1 November 1858 assumed the responsibility of the Indian administration in her own hands. The importance of the Proclamation were :

  • The honorific title of Viceroy was added to the ‘Governor-General of India’.
  • Lord Canning so far known as the Governor-General of India also became the first Viceroy of India.
  • In her Proclamation Queen Victoria also announced some changes in the governmental policy to be pursued by the British in India. She made it clear that the British Government had no desire of further territorial expansion in India.
  • The Queen also stated that the British would in no way interfere with the established customs or religions of the Indian people.
  • As per the Proclamation there was an extensive reorganization of the army and civil administration.

Question 4.
How did Anandamath help the spread of nationalism ?
Answer:
Study of the literary works of great litterateurs of nineteenth century Bengal reveals nationalist feelings embedded in them. In this context Anandamath of Bankim Chandra Chatterjee may be discussed. Anandamath of Bankim Chandra bears historic worth in the narrative of nationalism in modern India.

Written in the background of the memory of Sannyasi Rebellion, the novel centres around the organization of the santans (or children of Mother India). Now that the Mother is in chains of the foreigners her children vow to tear asunder the bondage.

  • The novel narrates how the children of the Mother take up arms against the rule and domination of the aliens. It is in Anandamath that the Indian people get the famous song, Bande Mataram.
  • The opening stanza of the song is full of appreciation for the natural possessions that adorn the Mother.
  • In the song the sacredness of the land has been raised to a religious level. The song combines patriotism with religious fervour.
  • Anandamath was a Bible for the secret revolutionaries. In fact, they modeled their societies on the organization founded by Satyananda, the hero of the novel. Thus Anandamath helped the spread of Indian nationalism.

WBBSE Class 10 History Sample Question Paper Set 3

Question 5.
What were the contributions of Hindu Mela to the cause of Indian nationalism?
Answer:
The Hindu Mela had immense contributions to the cause of Indian nationalism.

  • The Hindu Mela used to hold annual sessions. On such occasions fairs were organized attended by thousands of people. Display of various products of Indian arts and crafts encouraged the native producers.
  • The Hindu Mela also worked for the development of national literature, national song, national gymnastics, etc.
  • The Mela also drew into the national movement personalities like Sivnath Shastri, Bipin Chandra Pal, Sisirkumar Ghose and many others.
  • The Hindu Mela by fostering the spirit of self-help paved the way for foundation of the national movement.
  •  Emphasis on the indigenous products in the fairs (mela) organized was a farsighted move and the industrial exhibitions were the forerunners of the Industrial Exhibition organized by the Indian National Congress in 1896.

Question 6.
What was Rabindranath’s idea of education ?
Answer:
Elaborating his own ideas about the aims of education Rabindranath said that the fundamental purpose of education was not “….merely to enrich ourselves through the fullness of knowledge…”. Rather he believed that the purpose also was to establish bond of love and friendship between man and man. Thus it may be said that Rabindranath’s approach to education was humanistic.

He believed in an inner harmony amongst man, nature and god. In Rabindranath’s idea of education teachers had to be imaginative. The teachers should understand the child, and help the child to develop curiosity in them. Tagore further felt that the creative learning could be encouraged only within natural environment. Living in harmony with nature, children would be able to cultivate their natural creativity.

WBBSE Class 10 History Sample Question Paper Set 3

Question 7.
What was the nature of women’s participation in the revolutionary Struggle
Answer:
In the revolutionary struggle participation of women presented a different picture than that of non-violent struggle.

i. Women’s involvement in the non-violent struggle had the support and encouragement of Gandhiji. But the women who participated in the armed struggle joined it on their own. That is to say, there had been no encouragement from any quarter to enthuse the women to join the revolutionary struggle.

ii. In fact, the revolutionary secret societies made no concerted efforts to encourage the participation of women as Mahatma Gandhi had done in regard to the non-violent activities.

iii. Another important point to be noted is that direct participation of women in the revolutionary movement was not feasible also due to certain constraints. First, women were not allowed by their male relatives to join the revolutionary secret societies. Second, the risk was too high to allow women to participate in revolutionary feats on an equal basis with men.

iv. However, in general the indirect participation of women helped the revolutionaries silently from the background. In the above context the revolutionary activities of Pritilata Waddedar and Kalpana Datta may be discussed.

Question 8.
What was the main point of the debate between Gandhiji and Ambedkar regarding the rights of the dalits ?
Answer:
There is little doubt that both Gandhi and Ambedkar were very much aware of the problem of untouchability or the dalits. Yet there was sharp difference between the two regarding the dalit issue.

i. That there was little in common in the perception between the two came to the forefront in the early 30s of the nineteenth century.

ii. Gandhiji refused to view the dalits as a minority who should be given political safeguards. Rather he considered it essentially a social problem, and that was to be tackled by the Hindu community itself. Contrarily, Ambedkar describing the dalits as ‘slaves’ advocated for communal representation of the dalits on the ground that ‘untouchability constitutes a definite set of interests which the untouchables alone can speak for.’

WBBSE Class 10 History Sample Question Paper Set 3

iii. Throughout 1920s Ambedkar had a soft spot for Gandhi as he took him as one different from the elitist Brahmanic leaders he (Ambedkar) hated. The real break between the two surfaced during the events of the Round Table Conference of 1932.

Group E.

5. Answer any one question in 15/16 sentences :

Question 1.
Write about the nature of the Revolt of 1857
Answer:
The nature of the Revolt of 1857 is a very contentious issue, and debate over it started from the very moment of its happening.

1. Opinions are sharply divided as to whether the Revolt of 1857 was mere a mutiny or a War of Independence.

2. Considered from the nature of the rising the old school of historians found it difficult to call it a War of Independence on the following grounds

  • There was no definite political ideal before the rebels. Though expulsion of the British was the immediate goal, there was no co-ordinated plan to establish an independent government in place of the British.
  • There was no plan, no co-ordination among the rebels in different parts of the country. The fact that at least some of the zamindars and talukdars (landed magnates) participated in the rebellion would at best give it a feudal character as Jawaharlal Nehru pointed out. c Common people did not participate in any measure that can legitimately give it the name of a ‘national rising’.

3. Professor S. N. Sen in his book entitled Eighteen Fifty-seven concluded that the mutiny of 1857 was not simply a rising of the sepoys. He argued that a national rising does not require participation of all people. Only an influential section of people had participated in the revolutions of France and America. On such arguments Professor Sen calls it a ‘national rising’, although to a limited extent.

4. Professor Rames Chandra Mazumder’s arguments are also somewhat identical with those of Professor Sen. According to him, what began as a mutiny ended in certain areas in an outbreak of the civil population.

5. There is, however, no dearth of other opinions. As pointed out by Professor Sekhar Bandyopadhyay, V. D. Savarkar by describing the revolt of 1857 as the ‘Indian War of Independence’ directly drafted it into the historiography of Indian nationalism.

WBBSE Class 10 History Sample Question Paper Set 3

Question 2.
What was the participation of the peasants in the Anti-Partition Movement? What was the Bardoli satyagraha?
Answer:
A. Participation of the Peasants: The anti-partition movement assumed an all-India character in which different classes of people participated. Despite the popular character of the anti-partition movement it must be admitted that it was largely confined to the urban middle class. The peasants’ participation was very much limited.

Indeed, the Congress leadership did call upon the peasants to start a no-rent campaign. However, in some way the participation of peasants in the movement was significant. The indigo peasants of Champaran in Bihar rose in rebellion. Peasants’ disturbances took place in Assam and Mymensingh (in present Bangladesh).

The Muslim peasants of Barisal (in present Bangladesh) were led by Aswini Kumar Datta. The Left politics did not emerge in India during the anti-Partition movement. As such there was no question of the Leftists’ leadership amongst the peasants.

B. Bardoli Satyagraha: The first civil disobedience movement was staged by the peasants of Bardoli in the Surat district of Gujarat. In 1926 when the time of revision of land revenue was due at Bardoli it was found that the hike was unprecedented. The burden on the peasants was 22% to 60 % more than the previous rate of tax.

The peasants of Bardoli thereupon began satyagraha under the leadership of Vallabhbhai Patel who had the blessings of Gandhiji. The Bardoli Satyagraha was formally launched on 12 February 1928. The satyagraha constituted an important chapter in the freedom movement of India. a. Bardoli Satyagraha became the symbol of peasants’ protests in the country.

WBBSE Class 10 History Sample Question Paper Set 3

Question 3.
Write in short about the participation of the working class in the Quit India Movement.
Answer:
The Quit India Movement did not leave the working class untouched. The formation of Congress ministries in different provinces following election in 1937 gave a boost to the working class movement.

i. In fact, during the tenure of the Congress ministries between 1937 and 1939 there was a phenomenal rise in the trade union movement. During this period the number of trade unions increased from 271 to 562.

ii. It must be pointed out here that the pro-labour attitude of the Congress governments in the provincial level also served as an encouragement to the trade union activities.

iii. Even the Congress Working Committee in a resolution denounced the repressive measures taken on the workers by the non-Congress provincial ministries of Bengal and Punjab.

iv. Another significant feature was that during the period under reference strikes organized by the trade unions mostly ended successfully, with victory of the struggling workers.

v. The Quit India Movement formally began on 9 August with arrests of most of the prominent national leaders including Gandhiji. As the news of the arrests spread workers of various places of the country went on strikes and hartals that lasted for a week.

Delhi, Lucknow, Jamshedpur, Madras, Bangalore, etc. were some of the main centres of the strikes. In some places the strikes continued for longer periods. The Tata Steel Plant was shut down for thirteen days. In Ahmedabad the textile workers continued the strike for three and half months.

vi. Following the ‘People’s War’ line the communists dissociated themselves from the Quit India Movement. They lent no support to the industrial strikes by the working class. Rather the communists followed a policy of industrial peace so that the workers could concentrate on production.

WBBSE Class 10 History Sample Question Paper Set 3

Group F

6. Answer the questions in a complete sentence

Question 1.
What is the name of the autobiography of Bipin Chandra Pal ?
Answer:
Sattar Batsar (Seventy Years) is the name of the autobiography of Bipin Chandra Pal.

Question 2.
Who was the editor of Bangadarshan ?
Answer:
The journal Bangadarshan was published by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.

Question 3.
Who was the author of Hootum Pyanchar Naksha?
Answer:
Hootum Pyanchar Naksha was authored by Kaliprasanna Singha.

Question 4.
Mention the name of a woman leader of the Swadeshi Movement.
Answer:
Ashalata Sen was a woman leader during the Swadeshi Movement.

Question 5.
Who organized the Anti-Circular Society ?
Answer:
Krishnakumar Mitra organized the Anti-Circular Society.

7. Answer the following questions in 2/3 sentences :

Question 1.
What do understand by the term ‘Urban History’?
Answer:
Urban History literally means history of cities. Till very recently the subject was much neglected, but of late the urban history has received the attention of modern historians.

Question 2.
Can periodicals and newspapers be regarded as a source of history ?
Answer:
Indeed, newspapers and periodicals are regarded as an important source for the reconstruction of history. While newspapers are the primary source of history, the periodicals are the secondary source.

WBBSE Class 10 History Sample Question Paper Set 3

Question 3.
What came to be known as the Corridor Warfare?
Answer:
Benoy Bose, Badal Gupta and Dinesh Gupta, the revolutionary trio named ‘Benoy-Badal-Dinesh’ of the Bengal Volunteers group were involved in an encounter with police inside the Writers’ Buildings that came to be known as the Corridor Warfare. The encounter followed after the revolutionaries fatally shot Simpson, the then Inspector-General of Police.

Question 4.
What was the ‘carrot and stick’ policy followed in the accession of the princely (or native) states of India.
Answer:
It was Vallabhbhai Patel who with great skill and diplomacy successfully completed the accession of the Princely States with the Indian Union. He had followed the dual policy of ‘carrot and stick’ meaning while invitation was made to the princes to join the Indian Union peacefully the recalcitrant elements would be forced to accede to.

WBBSE Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Resistance and Rebellion: Characteristics and Analyses

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 History Book Solutions Chapter 3 Resistance and Rebellion: Characteristics and Analyses offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 History Chapter 3 Question Answer – Resistance and Rebellion: Characteristics and Analyses

Class 10 History Chapter 3 Question Answer WBBSE – Very Short Answer Questions (1 Mark)

Question 1.
What was the picture of forests in india at the time when the country became independent?
Answer:
By the time British left india her forest resources were considerably depleted.

Question 2.
How did the restrictions imposed on the use of forest affect the tribal women?
Answer:
The imposition of restrictions on the use of forest affected the tribal women adversely because they were unable to cook food using fuel- wood from forest.

WBBSE Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Resistance and Rebellion: Characteristics and Analyses

Question 3.
How did the Forest Acts impact the traditional method of cultivation ?
Answer:
Millions of indian peasantry suffered because the Forest Acts banned the traditional shifting cultivation or jhum by the colonial government.

Question 4.
Which tribesmen organized a major revolt against the penetration of state in forest ?
Answer:
The tribesmen of Gudem and Rampa in Andhra Pradesh organized a major revolt against the steady penetration of state in forest.

Question 5.
What is a rebellion ?
Answer:
A rebellion may be defined as a violent uprising of the masses for any goal including change to a system of government.

Question 6.
Can the protest of the tribals against the Forest laws be termed as ‘revolution’ ?
Answer:
Protest of the tribals against the Forest laws cannot be termed as ‘revolution’ because it did not aim at bringing about any fundamental change in the governance of forest.

Question 7.
What led the ryots of Rangpur to raise the banner of rebellion ?
Answer:
The ryots of Rangpur burst out in rebellion as the petitions sent to the district authorities for redressal of their grievances received no attention.

WBBSE Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Resistance and Rebellion: Characteristics and Analyses

Question 8.
How did the Rangpur Rebellion pave the way for settlement of revenue on a permanent basis ?
Answer:
The Rangpur Rebellion paved the way for settlement of revenue on a permanent basis, that is to say, the Permanent Settlement of 1793.

Question 9.
What caused tension in the tribal society leading to their rebellion ?
Answer:
Encroachment on the tribal areas by outsiders like the moneylenders, contractors, etc. under the British caused tension in the tribal society leading to their rebellion.

Question 10.
What led the Chuars to align themselves with the zamindar to raise the banner of rebellion?
Answer:
Levy of land-revenue at a high rate led the Chuars in lianson with Durjan Singh, the zamindar, to burst out in rebellion.

Question 11.
What was the paikan land ?
Answer:
Paikan was a rent-free land assigned to the paiks who acted as the private army of the local zamindars.

Question 12.
What was the impact of the Chuar rebellion in respect of the paikan land ?
Answer:
An impact of the Chuar Rebellion was that the British Government immediately stopped the take-over of the paikan land.

Question 13.
Who were the Bheels ?
Answer:
The Bheels were a backward warlike community spread over in the hilly region of Maharashtra and Gujarat.

Question 14.
Why did the British occupy Khandesh ?
Answer:
The law and order problem created by the continuous plunder of the Bheels in Khandesh provoked the British Government to occupy Khandesh.

Question 15.
How did the Kol rebellion start in Chotonagpur ?
Answer:
The Kol rebellion started in 1831 when the farm of two Sikh contractors was plundered and burnt by the Kols.

Question 16.
How did the Kols fight the British soldiers ?
Answer:
The Kol tribesmen fought with their traditional primitive weapons against the British soldiers who were armed with modern instruments of warfare.

WBBSE Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Resistance and Rebellion: Characteristics and Analyses

Question 17.
Why did the Santals take up arms against the oppressors ?
Answer:
The peace-loving Santals took up arms against by the colonial rulers as also their agents like the moneylenders, contractors, etc. who oppressed them beyond endurance.

Question 18.
What was the character of the Santal Rebellion ?
Answer:
So far as the character of the Santal Rebellion is concerned it took the shape of a full-fledged guerilla war spearheaded by their leaders.

Question 19.
What was the consequence of the Santal Rebellion ?
Answer:
The consequence of the Santal Rebellion was that the British administrators became conscious about the problem of the Santals and tried to reduce their suffering.

Question 20.
What administrative changes followed the Santal Rebellion ?
Answer:
The Santal Rebellion forced the British administrators to reorganize the districts populated by the Santals into a separate district of Santal Parganas.

Question 21.
What did the Santals mean by the term ‘neighbours’ ?
Answer:
By the term ‘neighbours’ Santals meant the English officials and their agents like the zamindars, traders, moneylenders, etc. who came from outside the tribal area.

WBBSE Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Resistance and Rebellion: Characteristics and Analyses

Question 22.
How were the tribal peasants subjected to the medieval system of slavery ?
Answer:
Under the colonial rule the tribal peasants were forced to offer free-labour to the zamindars which was akin to the medieval system of slavery.

Question 23.
How were the female-labour procured by the arkatias (recruiters) from the tribal villages ?
Answer:
Under the colonial rule the recruiters were found moving around local village- markets where from they used to recruit or purchase girls for employment in plantations, mines and factories.

Question 24.
What was the call given by Birsa to his associates ?
Answer:
Birsa’s prediction of the coming of a golden age attracted the Mundas and with their support he gave a clarion call to establish an independent Mundaraj.

Question 25.
How did the Ulghulan begin in 1899 ?
Answer:
With a view to establishing a mundnmj Birsa called upon his fellowmen to rise, drive out or slay the foreigners, and tnat began the Munda Revolt or Ulghulan.

Question 26.
What was the character of the Munda Rebellion ?
Answer:
Character of the Munda Rebellion was definitely anti-British because Birsa Munda set forth the ideal of an independent Mundaraj.

Question 27.
What was the primary objective of the Sannyasi and Fakirs prior to the Bengal Famine of 1769-70 ?
Answer:
Prior to the Bengal Famine the objective of the Sannyasi and Fakirs was to loot properties indiscriminately.

Question 28.
Who were the Pagal-Panthis ?
Answer:
The Pagal-Panthis was a religious sect founded by a mendicant named Karam Shah.

Question 29.
Who burst out in rebellion against the zamindar of Sherpur ?
Answer:
The Gaos of the Pojal-Panthi sect burst out in rebellion against the zamindar of Sherpur, in present Bangladesh.

Question 30.
Were the Wahabi and Ferazi two separate movements ?
Answer:
Yes, the Wahabi and Ferazi were the two separate movements, the former began in Barasat and the latter in Faridpur.

Question 31.
Who was the founder of the Wahabi Movement ?
Answer:
The founder of the Wahabi Movement was Muhammad Abdul Wahhab of Nejd in Arabia.

Question 32.
Why is Titumir famous ?
Answer:
Titumir is famous because a believer in the Wahabi ideal he directed his energies in organizing the peasants against the oppressive zamindars, moneylenders, indigo planters, etc.

Question 33.
What led to a fight between Titumir’s followers and the British army ?
Answer:
Being scared at the defiance of land reforms introduced the British deployed soldiers to suppress Titumir and this led a fight between the British troops and Titumir’s followers.

WBBSE Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Resistance and Rebellion: Characteristics and Analyses

Question 34.
What is ‘Barasat Uprising’
Answer:
The standard of rebellion raised by Titumir and his followers, and the resistance they offered to the British troops from the hurriedly built “bamboo fortress’ is famous in history as the ‘Barasat Rebellion’.

Question 35.
What did Dudumiyan say in his call to the peasants of the Ferazi community ?
Answer:
In the name of religion Dudumiyan gave a fervent call to rise against the oppressive zamindars, indigo-planters, money-lenders, etc. who were agents of the British.

Question 36.
Why was the Ferazi Movement unsuccessful ?
Answer:
The Ferazi Movement was unsuccessful because the rebels had no political training as also because they could not come out of the narrow limits of religion.

Question 37.
What is meant by the term Tariqah-i-Muhammadiya ?
Answer:
The term Tariqah-i-Muhammadiya means the path as shown by Hazrat Muhammad, and the term is also optionally used to mean Wahabi Movement.

Question 38.
Why did the Wahabiis enter into a clash with the Sikhs ?
Answer:
The military preparation of the Wahabis in the north-west India was taken to be their attempt to oust the Sikhs from Punjab.

Question 39.
Where did the indigo rebellion begin in West Bengal ?
Answer:
The indigo rebellion began at Chaugacha of Krishnanagar, in Nadia District of West Bengal in 1859 and continued for about a year.

Question 40.
what was the most important feature of the Indigo Rebellion ?
Answer:
The most important feature of the Indigo Rebellion was that for the first time considerable interest was shown by the middle class in support of the indigo rebels.

Question 41.
How was the spirit of passive resistance expressed in the indigo Rebellion ?
Answer:
The indigo cultivators of Barasat for the first time took a vow unitedly that they would not sow indigo anymore.

WBBSE Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Resistance and Rebellion: Characteristics and Analyses

Question 42.
How was the Tenancy Act beneficial for the zamindars ?
Answer:
The Tenancy Act of 1859 while did not allow occupancy right to the peasants allowed the zamindars to enhance rent at their sweet-will.

Class 10 History Chapter 3 Questions and Answers WBBSE – Short Answer Questions (2 Marks)

Question 1.
Why did the Forest Acts affect the tribals (adivasi) adversely?
Answer:
Adivasis were virtually the ‘children of forest’. Their life centred round forests. The Forest Acts enforced by the British imposed various restrictions on the use of forest which adversely affected the tribal communities.

Question 2.
What were the strategies adopted by the adivasis against the barriers imposed on the use of forests?
Answer:
The adivasis adopted various strategies to protect their rights on forests. They started with petitioning the British government for repealing the Forest Acts. As this did not yield results the adivasis organized revolts to protect their rights on forest lands.

Question 3.
Illustrate by an example what was an ‘uprising’?
Answer:
An ‘uprising’ is a protest organized locally against certain policy or action of government authorities. The peasants of Deccan organized an uprising against the moneylenders and sowcars for their oppressions. Thus the ‘Deccan Uprising’ is an instance in point.

WBBSE Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Resistance and Rebellion: Characteristics and Analyses

Question 4.
Why did the peasants of Rangpur organize revolt sainst the ijaradars?
Answer:
Ijaradars were speculators in land-revenue. Debi Singh, the ijaradar of Rangpur, forcibly collected revenue from the peasants at a high rate. The immediate cause of the revolt was the takeover and disposal of the agricultural land of the defaulting peasants by Debi Singh.

Question 5.
Why did the ‘Chuars’ burst out in rebellion ?
Answer:
The adivasis living in some parts of Bankura, Midnapur and Manbhum were called the ‘Chuars’. The Chuars burst out in rebellion in 1799 against the oppressions of the British authorities and their agents. The ‘agents’ included the moneylenders, contractors who were the creation of the British.

Question 6.
Why did the Bhils organize revolt against the British Government?
Answer:
The ‘Bhils’ were a warlike community living in parts of Maharashtra and Gujarat. They enjoyed monopoly of power at Khandesh where they resorted to plunder and loot of the rich landholders. When the British with a view to putting an end to the anarchical condition occupied Khandesh the Bhils burst out in rebellion in 1818.

Question 7.
Why did the Kol tribesmen burst out in rebellion ?
Answer:
The Kol tribesmen of Chotonagpur had long been exploited by the non-tribal outsiders. The Kols became restive as they found that their territories were being encroached upon by the non-tribal planters, zamindars, etc. Finally, in 1831 the Kols under the leadership of Joa bhagat, Buddhu Bhagat and others raised the banner of rebellion.

Question 8.
What forced the Santals to burst out in rebellion?
Answer:
The Santals of the Santal Parganas were generally peace-loving people. They found that their simple and peaceful life was being disturbed by the British and their agents like the moneylenders, contractors, etc. Redress of the grievances through court of law being of no avail the Santals burst out in rebellion in 1855 under the leadership of Kanu and Sidhu.

Question 9.
What was bet-began as imposed upon the Munda tribals?
Answer:
The Munda tribals were forced to offer free-labour to the zamindars in addition to the land-revenue paid by them. The medieval system of forced labour came to be known as bet-began amongst the tribals. The Mundari society could not remain immune from the new system introduced by the British.

Question 10.
How did the Ulghulan begin under the leadership of Birsa Munda’
Answer:
After Birsa’s release from jail he clearly defined his objective to be the establishment of the Mundaraj (rule of the Mundas). He also called upon his fellowetten to rise, drive out or slay all the foreigners’ from the land of the Mundas. Here was the beginning of the Ulghuian of 1899-1900 under Birsa’s leadership.

Question 11.
What were the immediate results of the Mundari Movement of 1899-1900?
Answer:
Though unsuccessful the Mundari Ulgiwlan resulted in some administrative measures by way of review of the land settlement in the tribal areas. Forced labour or bet-begczri was declared illegal. British Government was also forced to introduce certain administrative reforms.

WBBSE Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Resistance and Rebellion: Characteristics and Analyses

Question 12.
What was the character of the sannyasl and fakir rebellion?
Answer:
One opinion suggested that the sannyasi and Fakir Rebellion was a full-fledged anti-colonial. But researches subsequently revealed that it was the economic distress that provoked the sannyasi and fakirs to raise the banner of rebellion.

Question 13.
What forced the Santals to burst out in rebellion?
Answer:
The Santals of the Santal Parganas were generally peace-loving people. They found that their simple and peaceful life was being disturbed by the British and their agents like the moneylenders, contractors, etc. Redress of the grievances through court of law being of no avail the Santals burst out in rebellion in 1855 under the leadership of Kanu and Sidhu.

Question 14.
What was bet-began as imposed upon the Munda tribals?
Answer:
The Munda tribals were forced to offer free-labour to the zamindars in addition to the land-revenue paid by them. The medieval system of forced labour came to be known as bet-began amongst the tribals. The Mundari society could not remain immune from the new system introduced by the British.

Question 15.
How did the Ulghulan begin under the leadership of Birsa Munda?
Answer:
After Birsa’s release from jail he clearly defined his objective to be the establishment of the Mundaraj (rule of the Mundas). He also called upon his fellowmen to ‘rise, drive out or slay all the foreigners’ from the land of the Mundas. Here was the beginning of the Ulghulan of 1899-1900 under Birsa’s leadership.

Question 17.
What were the immediate results of the Mundari Movement of 1899-1900?
Answer:
Though unsuccessful the Mundari Ulghuian resulted in some administrative measures by way of review of the land settlement in the tribal areas. Forced labour or bet-began was declared illegal. British Government was also forced to introduce certain administrative reforms.

Question 18.
What was the character of the sannyasi and fakir rebellion?
Answer:
One opinion suggested that the sannyasi and Fakir Rebellion was a full-fledged anti-colonial. But researches subsequently revealed that it was the economic distress that provoked the sannyasi and fakirs to raise the banner of rebellion.

Question 19.
What were the features of the Wahabi Movement?
Answer:
Though began as a religious movement its anti-British character gave it a political overtone. Another fcature of the movement was that it was directed against the oppressors like the money landers, zamindars, etc. The movement, however, in the ultimate analysis the Wahabi movement did not remain confined within the narrow fold of religion.

Question 20.
Who were the Ferazis?
Answer:
In 1820, one named Haji Shariatullah of Faridpur (in Bangladesh) founded a kindered brotherhood called Ferazi. The Arabic word Ferazi means ‘one who acts upto the commandments of God’.

WBBSE Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Resistance and Rebellion: Characteristics and Analyses

Question 21.
What is Tariqah I Muhammadiya?
Answer:
The real name of the Wahabi Movement was Tciriqah i Muhammadiya. The term literally means the path as shown by Muhammad. In India the founder of the movement was Syed Ahmed Barelvi.

Question 22.
Why were the peasants unwilling to cultivate indigo?
Answer:
Indigo cultivation was not at all profitable for the indigo cultivators. They did not get the wage equal to their labour. Moreover, the oppressions of the European planters made the peasants unwilling to cultivate indigo.

Question 23.
How did the Bengali middle class take up the cause of the indigo-cultivators?
Answer:
For the first time the Bengali middle class openly supported the cause of the indigo-cultivators. Harish Chandra Mukhopadhyay, who came of a middle class family despite driven to financial ruin, offered help to the indigo-cultivators. Again, Sisir Kumar Ghosh, a petty zamindar of Jessore, used to send eye-witness accounts of popular struggles of the indigo-cultivators for publication of the news in the Hindoo Patriot.

Question 24.
What is the importance of the in digo Rebellion in the history of peasants’ movement in India ?
Answer:
Importance of the indigo Rebellion lies in the fact that for the first time a close affinity was established between the peasants and the zamindars. Further, instead of lodging a silent protest, the indigo-cultivators had built up a united mass movement. Again, the spirit of passive resistance expressed in the Indigo Rebellion may be said to be the forerunner of the Non Co-operation Movement started by Gandhiji later.

Question 25.
How did the Pabna Revolt reveal that the question of rent created a bitter relationship between the ryots and the zamindars ?
Answer:
All evidences show that the Revolt was due to the enhancement of rent (khazna) by the zamindars of Pabna (in Bangladesh). In the Revolt the Muslim peasants fought hand in hand with the Hindus. The Revolt took the form of a rent-strike as the peasants refused to pay rent to the zamindars.

WBBSE Class 10 History Chapter 3 Questions and Answers – Analytical Answer Questions (4 Marks)

Question 1.
How did the British colonists deplete the forest resources of the country ?
Answer:
In the beginning the colonial rulers did not feel the need for protecting the forests. Rather they thought that the forests were unproductive. Forests were considered as ‘an obstruction to agriculture and consequently a bar to the prosperity of the Empire’. it was felt that if the forest areas were brought under cultivation these would yield agricultural products and land-revenue.

Moreover, in order to meet the growing demand of timber for making English ships trees of the forests were felled on a massive scale. Thus vast quantities of timber were being exported from India. The spread of railways new demand was created. Wood was necessary for laying the railway lines sleepers which would hold the tracks together. Also wood was for use as fuel in running locomotives. Thus Indian forest resources were depleted by the colonial
rulers.

WBBSE Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Resistance and Rebellion: Characteristics and Analyses

Question 2.
Why did the colonial rulers of India establish a forest department in 1864?
Answer:
The control of the forests of India through setting up of a department became necessary for the colonial rulers as they found that great chunks of forest were destroyed to meet the demand for railway sleepers. As there was no supervision over the felling operation a large number of trees was felled unnecessarily. Good quality of trees lay rotting on the ground.

Private contractors, both Indian and European, were chiefly responsible for this destruction. Realisation that India’s forests were not inexhaustible Lord Canning, the then Governor-General, called for establishment of a department that could ensure regular supply of wood to the different railway companies. The imperial forest department was formed in 1864.

Question 3.
What led the British colonial rulers to introduce forest Acts?
Answer:
The colonial rulers introduced the Forest Acts not for the benefit of the adivasi nor was the intention to save the forest resources. In fact, the Forest Acts aimed at establishing government control over the forests. After the formation of the imperial forest department in 1864 the checking the deforestation of the past decades became necessary.

With this end in view the urgent need was to formulate legal mechanism to safeguard state control over forests.The first attempt at asserting state monopoly was through the Indian Forest Act of 1865. This was followed by a number of Forest Acts.

Question 4.
What was the impact of the Forest Acts on the villagers and foresters ?
Answer:
The Forest Acts meant hardship to the villagers across the country.

  • The Forest Acts deprived the tribals (adivasi) of all their everyday practices.
  • Cutting of wood for their houses, collecting fruits and roots, hunting, etc. were banned.
  • The tribal women were particularly disturbed as they were unable to cook food using fuel-wood collected from forests.
  • Most importantly grazing and shifting cultivation (jhum) that were the life-blood of millions of Indians suffered immensely as these were banned in areas under control of the colonial government.

Question 5.
What led to the Rangpur Rebellion ?
Answer:
Rangpur Rebellion was the first peasant uprising against the oppressions perpetrated by the East India Company’s administration. The administration of Warren Hastings was marked by experiments in land-revenue settlement. Under the Ijaradari system land used to be farmed out to the highest bidder. Ijaradar basically was a speculator in land. He used to squeeze out as much money as possible from the ryots during his tenure of office.

Rangpur Rebellion took place because Debi Singh, the Ijaradar, forced the ryots to pay the revenue at the highest rate. Alongside the revenue other illegal demands made the total demand so high that the ryots were unable to pay it even after selling their wives. In the rebellion the ryots and the zamindars combined together against Debi Singh.

WBBSE Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Resistance and Rebellion: Characteristics and Analyses

Question 6.
Why did the tribal people rebel during the East India Company’s rule ?
Answer:
The tribals, very much a part of the Indian society felt the brunt of the Company’s rule. Various factors led the tribals to burst out in rebellion.

  • Under the Company’s rule the tribals lost their traditional rights on land.
  • The foreign rulers imposed taxes on the land reclaimed by the tribals themselves.
  • The tribals were subjected to oppressions by the zamindars, who were nothing but the agents of the British.
  • The illiterate tribals revolted more violently than any other community including the peasantry of the country.

Question 7.
Why did the Chuars burst out in rebellion against the British rulers ?
Answer:
The adivasis living in the territorial limits of south-west Bankura, north-west Medinipur were known as the Chuars. The Chuars were subjected to oppressions by the British rulers and their agents like the moneylenders, contractors and such others. Ultimately, the Chuars burst out in rebellion in 1798-1799.

WBBSE Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Resistance and Rebellion Characteristics and Analyses 1
The most important cause of the rebellion, however, was the resumption of the rent-free paikan land by the British government. The Chuars who acted as the private army of the local zaminders used to enjoy rent-free paikan. As the government converted the paikan into rent-paying land the Chuars burst out in open rebellion.

Question 8.
Why did the Bheels raise the banner of rebellion against the foreign rules?
Answer:
The Bheels were a section of backward and warlike community of central india. They remained scattered in the hilly regions of Maharashtra and Gujarat. They were in the habit of resorting to plunder and loot of the rich landholders. Continuous plunder affected the law and order situation particularly in Khandesh region.

The British Government in india with a view to bringing an end to the anarchical condition ultimately occupied Khandesh. This enraged the Bheels as they lost monopoly of power in Khandesh. Of the insurgent Bheels leaders mention may be made of Chil Naik, Hiria, Dusrut, etc.

Question 9.
Why did the Kol tribesmen rebel against the agents of the British ?
Answer:
The Kol tribesmen of Chotonagpur raised the banner of rebellion against the oppressions of the agents of the British. The local zamindars, non-tribal landlords who were the agents of the British exploited the Kols in various ways. The landlords resorted to forced labour, fines, and often ‘took away their cattle’.

The Kol insurrection began in 1831 when the farm of two Sikh thikadars (contractors) were plundered and burnt. Under the leadership of Bhundu (Buddhu) Bhagat and others the Kols put up a strong resistance until they perished to the last man.

Question 10.
Was the Kol rebellion revivalist ?
Answer:
The Kol tribesmen were very much a part of the Indian society. Under the new revenue system introduced by the British every land was brought under the system. The Kols found that the land reclaimed by them was placed under zamindars or landlords, and imposed revenue on it. Besides, the Kols were subjected to oppressions by the agents of the British.

In Chotonagpur a series of uprisings broke out in the 19th century of which the most important was the one that broke out in 1831. The Kol rebellion was revivalist because they wanted to get back the rights and privileges of the land and forest that they had been enjoying earlier.

Question 11.
What led the Santals to burst out in rebellion in 1855 ?
Answer:
The Santhals of Santal Pargana raised the banner of revolt in 1855 under the leadership of Kanu and Sidhu. The Santals were generally peace-loving people who worked under primitive agricultural conditions. The simple and peaceful life of the Santals was disturbed by the effects of the alien civilisation. Besides, the contractors, money lenders, revenue-collectors and other agencies exercised a variety of tyrannies upon the timid Santal tribesmen.

Redressal of the grievances through the machinery of law being of no avail the Santals themselves took up arms against the oppressors. Under the leadership of Sidhu and his elder brother Kanu of Bhagnadihi, about ten thousand Santals armed with primitive weapons rose in revolt in 1855. The Santal rebellion for some months swept the British rule out of existence in the region.

WBBSE Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Resistance and Rebellion: Characteristics and Analyses

Question 12.
What were the characteristic features of the Santal rebellion of 1855 ?
Answer:
The Santal Rebellion was the first organized resistance of its kind against feudal oppressions,

  • An important feature of the rebellion was the support the rebel Santals had received from the so-called lower classes like the dom, chamar, telli, etc.
  • Zamindars and other associates of the British supported the administration against the rebel Santals. Thus the British found it easy to suppress the rebels,
  • That the Santal Rebellion had an anti-British character was evident from the objective of the rebels. The Santals’ aim was to bring an end to the ‘sinful’ rule that obviously meant the alien British rule in india.

Question 13.
What were the results of the Santal Rebellion of 1855
Answer:
The Santal Rebellion was a failure, yet it is not possible to ignore the results that followed.

  • Santal Rebellion was the first organized resistance of its kind against the feudal oppressions.
  • The rebellion brought to the surface the sufferings of the innocent tribal people. The British also henceforth became conscious about the tribal problem and sought to alleviate their sufferings.
  • Despite failure the Santals drew inspiration from it and subsequently organized another resistance movement, against the British.
  • The rebellion of the Santals forced the British to reorganize the districts to create a separate district of Santal Parganas.

Question 14.
What was the social cause of the Munda Movement ?
Answer:
The Munda society could not remain immune from the new economy that had been introduced by the British. In fact, it shook the old Munda society at its roots. For instance, the Panchczyati system of the Mundas decayed and even minor social disputes were now referred to the British police or judicial courts for settlement. Infiltration of the dikus or foreigners also severely affected the morale of the race. All this created a strong sentiment of protest against the intruders among the Mundas.

Question 15.
What was the nature of the Munda Movement under the leadership of Birsa Munda in the early stage ?
Answer:
The Munda movement had its beginning in 1858. But this was a failure. It was Birsa Munda taking lesson from the failure, chalked out altogether a new pattern of movement later on. Birsa’s reputation as a ‘healer’ earned him popularity. It was on the strength of this mass support that Birsa chose to embark on a popular movement.
WBBSE Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Resistance and Rebellion Characteristics and Analyses 2
The nature of the movement was revivalist as because Birsa predicted the coming of a golden age when bad days would be over. The British administration being annoyed with Birsa put him behind the bar. On his release in 1897 Birsa’s movement entered into the second stage.

Question 16.
Was the Ulghulan of the Mundas anti-British in character?
Answer:
The second phase of Birsa’s movement, called Ulghuian, had an anti-British element. Brrsa’s objective after 1897 was clearly defined to be the establishment of the Mundaraj that is to say, rule of the Mundas. With this end in view he called upon his fellow men to rise, drive out or slay all the foreigners. Here was the beginning of the Ulghulan. The revolt started with the attacks upon the church and missionary establishments. The main centres of the Ulghulan were Tamar, Tepa, etc.

WBBSE Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Resistance and Rebellion: Characteristics and Analyses

Question 17.
Who were the Sannyasi and Fakirs ?
Answer:
The sannyasi and fakirs are very much a part of the Indian society. Both the sannyasi and fakirs lived on charitable gifts. They used to keep long hairs, and always carried with them knives and arrows. Majnu Shah was the leader of the fakirs while Bhawani Pathak led the sannyasis.

The Sannyasi and Fakir rebellion may be divided into two phases, namely, before and after the Bengal Famine. In 1760 the sannyasis of Burdwan (West Bengal) made an attack upon the English officers, and in 1763 the fakirs of Barisal (in present Bangladesh) attacked the English settlement there.

Question 18.
Why did the Sannyasi and Fakirs oppose the British ?
Answer:
It was, in fact, as a consequence of the East India Company’s drive for enhancement of land-revenue that the Sannyasis and Fakirs broke out in rebellion. The Sannyasis acquired rent-free lands on different parts of Bengal from small zamindars during the eighteenth century. In lieu of this the Sannyasis gave services as forces to repeal the aggression of other rival zamindars.

In a similar manner the Fakirs also came to acquired rentfree land from various authorities in Bengal. The British attempt to levy tax, that is to say, impose land-revenue was resisted by the Sannyasis and Fakirs. The restrictions on the movement of the Fakirs and a ban declared on the carrying of arms by the Sannyasis and Fakirs also constituted other cause that led to rebellion by the Sannyasis and Fakirs.

Question 19.
Write in short about the Pagal-Panthi Revolt.
Answer:
The religious sect called Pagal-Panthi was founded by a mendicant named Karam Shah. His doctrine became very much popular with the Garo hill tribe that inhabited in the region below the Garo hills. Karam’s successor Tipu laid stress on truthfulness and equality between man and man. The Garos of the Pagal-Panthi sect burst out in rebellion against the oppressions of the zamindar of Sherpur (in present Bangladesh). Tax levied by the zamindar became unbearable for the Garos. The Pagal-Panthi Garos then decided to undo the tax-hike by armed rebellion. The insurrection yielded result.

Question 20.
Why was Dudumiyan famous?
Answer:
In the name of religion Dudumiyan made a fervent call to the peasants of the Ferazi community to rise against the oppressions of the zamindars, indigo-planters, moneylenders, etc. He declared that Allah being the real owner of land none had the right to levy tax on the ryots. Apprehensive of the designs of the Ferazis under the leadership of Dudumiyan the zamindars further increased oppressions that led to armed clashes between the zamindars and the Ferazis. The rebels did not spare even the indigo factories. Thus Dudumiyan became famous as the leader of the suffering peasantry.

Question 21.
Why was the Ferazi movement unsuccessful ?
Answer:
The Ferazi Movement began as a religious movement. In course of time religion was utilized by the Ferazis to give vent to their agrarian grievances. Yet the movement was bound to be a failure as the Ferazis could not come out of the influence of religion.

WBBSE Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Resistance and Rebellion: Characteristics and Analyses

The Ferazis were religious fanatics and thus completely alienated from the Hindus. The Muslims of the old Islamic faith were also opposed to the Ferazis. Even the Ferazis were disliked by the Wahabis because of the fanaticism of the former. Another factor responsible for the failure of the movement was that the leaders had no political training or vision.

Question 22.
What was the Tariqah-i-Muhammadiya?
Answer:
The real name of the Wahabi Movement was Tariqah-i- Muhammadiya. The term Tariqah-i-Muhammadiya literally means the path as shown by Muhammad. In India the founder of the movement was Syed Ahmed Barelvi. He toured extensively preaching the ideal of Tariqah Muhammadiya. Between 1820 and 1822 the movement gained considerable momentum, and centres were established in many parts of north India.

Question 23.
What were the objectives of the Tariqah i-Muhammadiya?
Answer:

  • The Tariqah-i-Muhammadiya or the Wahabi movement initiated by Syed Ahmed Barelvi was designed to revive the ways of the Prophet.
  • Along with this he put forward the objective of driving the British out of the country.
  • According to Syed Ahmed Barelvi, under the British rule India had become an “unholy land’ (dar-ul-harb), and Barelvi desired, through the movement, to convert the country into the land of Islam’ (dar-ul-Islam).
  • The movement, however, did not remain confined to the narrow limits religion exclusively.

Question 24.
Why is Titumir remembered ?
Answer:
Titumir is remembered for his armed struggle against the British. Alongside the British Titumir also severely dealt with the zamindars, money-lenders etc. who were the agents of the British. At Narkelberia, in present North 24 Parganas, Titumir constructed a fortress with bamboo and mud. From this fortress Titumir gave a strong fight to the British soldiers in 1831. Titumir-British armed struggle, known as the Barasat Rebellion, ended with the death of Titumir Titumir, thus, is remembered for his heroic fight against the British.

Question 25
Why were the indigo cultivators of Beigal unwilling to cultivate indigo ?
Answer:
The Europeans introduced the cultivation of indigo in India during the eighteenth century,

  • The fertile land of Bengal was very suitable for growing indigo plants. The indigo-planters did not hesitate to convert the food-growing areas into indigo plantation.
  • Indigo was an important and profitable item of trade for the Europeans in India. But for the indigo cultivators growing of indigo was not at all profitable.
  • The European planters did not hesitate to apply all kinds of cruelty to force the peasants to cultivate indigo.
  • Another issue was that the indigo cultivators were deprived of their legitimate wages. Above are the reasons why the indigo cultivators of Bengal were unwilling to cultivate indigo.

Question 26.
Write in short how the middle class Bengali intelligents is came in support of the indigo cultivators.
Answer:
An important feature of the Indigo Rebellion was that the middle class Bengali intelligentsia did not hesitate to support the rebellious indigo cultivators. In no other occasion such a support was lent by the middle class. The point may be explained by some examples. Harish Chandra Mukhopadhyay, Sisir Kumar Ghosh and other Bengali intellectuals took up the cause of the indigo cultivators.

Sisir Kumar Ghosh used to send eye-witness accounts of popular struggle for publication in the Hindu Patriot. Dinabandhu Mitra, a government employee, wrote highly popular drama Neel Darpan in which he vividly described the oppressions and injustice done to the indigo cultivators. This was how the Bengali middle class openly supported the indigo cultivators.

Question 27.
What was the impact of the Indigo Rebellion on the mass awakening ?
Answer:
An important aspect of the Indigo Rebellion was that instead of lodging silent protest against the oppressions perpetrated on them the indigo cultivators unitedly built up a mass movement. For example, the indigo cultivators of Barasat took a vow unitedly that they would no more sow indigo.

Again, the spirit of passive resistance expressed in the Indigo Rebellion may be said to be the forerunner of the Non Co-operation Movement under the leadership of Gandhiji. Lastly, the Indigo Rebellion made the people of the country conscious about their unity against the British.

Question 28.
Why did the Tenancy Act of 1859 fail to safeguard the interests of the ryots of Pabna ?
Answer:
The Tenancy Act of 1859 was designed to safeguard the interests of the rich peasants and of jotedars. The ryots or tenants were not given occupancy right. At the same time the zamindars were allowed to evict the tenants as also permitted to enhance the rent. Moreover, the zaminndars did not issue rent receipt and collected illegal cesses along with rent by improper means.

In such a situation the discontent of the ryots of Pabna, in present Bangladesh, found expression in locally organized resistance of the zamindars. Thus it may be said that the failure of the Tenancy Act of 1859 forced the tenants to organize resistance that finally took the shape of a revolt.

Question 29.
What were the characteristic features of the Pabna Revolt ?
Answer:
The characteristic features of the Pabna Revolt were as follows :

  • An important feature of the revolt was that the Muslim peasants of Pubna fought hand in hand with the Hindus,
  • The revolt took the form of a rent-strike as the peasants refused to pay rent to the zamindars.
  • Leaders of the movement came from the rich peasants, jotedar, village headmen and others,
  • Ishan Chandra Roy, a small talukdar (landed magnate) and a trader, called bidrofu raja by the rebel peasants, was an important leader. He with his assistant, Sambhunath Pal, moved from village to village organizing a league of the peasants against the zamindar.
  • As the Act of 1859 had failed to ensure security of the ryots the Bengal Tenanacy Act was passed in 1885. The Act sought to protect the interests of the ryots.

Class 10 History Chapter 3 Questions and Answers West Bengal Board – Explanatory Answer Questions (8 Marks)

Question 1.
How did the colonial British rulers systematically establish control over Indian forests through Forest Acts ? What was the impact of the Forest Acts on the forest-depended communities ?
Answer:
a. Control over Forests through Forest Acts : The British administration in order to ensure availability of wood for their enormous requirement in London formed the forest department in 1864. Subsequently, through Forest Acts the officials sought to assert total control over forests.

The first attempt at asserting state monopoly was through the Forest Act of 1865. The 1865 Act was passed to facilitate the acquisition of those forest areas that were earmarked for railway supplies. However, from that time onwards the British Government in India passed a number of Acts. By the Forest Act of 1878 the Indian forests were divided into three categories, namely,

  • Reserved Forest
  • Protected Forest, and
  • Village Forest. The villagers or the tribal forest-dwellers were not allowed to use any other forest except the Village Forests. In short the sole purpose of the Forest Acts was to terminate gradually a century-old system of rights and privileges of forest-inhabiting and forest-dependent communities.

WBBSE Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Resistance and Rebellion: Characteristics and Analyses

b. Impact of the Forest Acts : The Forest Acts meant hardship to the villagers across the country.

  • The Forest Acts deprived the tribals (adivasi) of all their everyday practices.
  • Cutting of wood for their houses, collecting fruits and roots, hunting, etc. were banned.
  • The tribal women were particularly disturbed as they were unable to cook food using fuel-wood collected from forests.
  • Most importantly grazing and shifting cultivation (jhum) that were the life-blood of millions of Indians suffered immensely as these were banned in areas under control of the colonial government.

Question 2.
What was the importance of the Rangpur Rebellion ? What was the nature of the rebellion ?
Answer:
a. Rtiportance of the Rangpur Rebellion : The Rangpur rebellion of 1783 was significant on many accounts.

  • The uprising of 1783 clearly exposed the evils associated with the system of colonial exploitation.
  • The rebellion of 1783 demonstrated the colonial oppression. It also exposed how the law of independent social development was being suppressed by the foreign rulers.
  • It has been pointed out by Prof. N. Kaviraj that all the native agents of the East India Company were linked with the Company’s high officials in the same chain in oppressing the people of the country.
  • The Rangpur rebellion made clear the evils of the Ijaradari system. Devi Singh, and ijaradar of Rangpur showed the way how people could be exploited beyond their endurance.
  • The Rangpur uprising paved the way for devicing a land settlement that would be permanent in nature.

b. Nature of the Rebellion : The Revolt of 1783 was a real peasant uprising.

  • The uprising was led by the village headmen who palyed a very important role in the uprising. This is one of the examples to show that the uprising was a peasnat rebellion.
  • The mass character of the revolt is reflected in the huge assembly of peasants in times of action.
  • The peasant character of the uprising is also attested by the mass of local evidence collected at that time. The peasants showed a marvellous initiative throughout the course of the uprising.

Question 3.
What were the characteristic features of the Santal Hool ? What were its results ?
Answer:
a. Characteristic Features : The characteristic features of the Santal rebellion were many as they were varied.

  • On the basis of the facts revealed through recent researches some believe that this was the first armed insurrection in India against the British.
  • Contemporary records show that fighting with traditional weapons the Santals defeated the British soldiers at every place from Bhagalpur to Rajmahal in Dumka district.
  • The Santal rebellion took the shape of a full-fledged guerilla war spearheaded by their leaders.
  • The Santal Hool spread like wildfire in the entire Chotonagpur region before the East India Company’s soldiers contained it after a month-long battle.
  • Another important feature of the Santal Hool was the support that the rebellious Santals had received from the so-called lower classes of people, particularly, the doms, chamars, telis and such others.
  • The Santal Hool of 1855-56 definitely had an anti-British character because the rebels wanted to bring an end to the ‘sinful’ rule that obviously meant the British rule.

WBBSE Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Resistance and Rebellion Characteristics and Analyses 3

b. Results : The Santal rebellion was the first organized resistance of its kind against the feudal oppression.

  • The rebellion brought to surface the sufferings of the innocent tribal people. The British administrators as an impact of the rebellion became conscious about the problem and tried to reduce their suffering.
  • In spite of the failure of the rebellion the Santals drew inspiration from it and subsequently organized another resistance movement against the British. It may be mentioned here that the Santal rebellion of 1861 over the hike in rent was successful.
  • The rebellion of the Santals forced the British administrators to reorganize the districts to create a separate district of Santal Parganas.

WBBSE Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Resistance and Rebellion: Characteristics and Analyses

Question 4.
What was the significance of the Munda movement ? What were its results ?
Answer:
a. Significance : One can hardly underestimate the significance of the Munda Movement.

  • The strained relation between the Munda peasants and the zamindars manifested, through the movement, did never imporve in the following years.
  • the discontent of the Mundas against the British raj remained smouldering in the hearts of the Mundas for many years following the Ulghulan.
  • The legal rights on the lands that had been derived by the tribal Mundas through the Ulghulan seem considerable as it not took ling year for the peasants of Bihar to wrest similar rights from the British.
  • Importance of the Munda movement lies in the fact that the ideal of an independent Mundaraj set forth by Birsa definitely had in it an anti-British element.

b. Results : The Munda movments, though unseccessful, resulted in certain administrative measures taken by the British government.

  • Necessary arrangements were made to review the land settlement in the tribal areas.
  • On the basis of the survey reports new Regulations were passed.
  • Forced labour or beth-begari was declared illegal.
  • The British government was compelled to introduce certain administrative reforms following the Munda movement.

Question 5.
Who were the Sannyasi and Fakirs ? Why did they oppose the British ?
Answer:
a. Sannyasi : The Sannyasis of the eighteenth century were descent from the ten branches of Adwaita school established thousand years before by Shankaracharya. They were also known as dasnamis. The Sannyasis were wanderers who moved out from place ot place seeking alms.

Along side religious curriculum the Sannyasis also developed skill in the use of arms. For they believed training in arms was necessary for defence of the religion. The Sannyasis rebelled when the British government imposed certain restrictions on the movement and some activities of the Sannyasis.

b. Fakirs : The Fakirs, also known as the Madari Fakirs, were descendents of Shah-i-Madar who introduced a major Sufi order in India in the fourteenth century. There was much similarity between the Sannyasis and the Fakirs. The Fakirs, like the Sannyasis cultivated combat techniques regularly. Manju Shah was the leader of the Fakirs, while Bhawani Pathak led the Sannyasis. The Fakirs also burst out in rebellion in protest against the oppressive prohibitory orders issued against them by the British administration.

c. Their Opposition to the British : It was, in fact, as a consequence of the East India Company’s drive for enhancement of land-revenue that the Sannyasis and Fakirs broke out in rebellion. The Sannyasis acquired rent-free lands in different parts of Bengal from small zamindars during the eighteenth centuiy.

In lieu of this the Sannyasis gave services as forces to repeal the aggression of other rival zamindars. In a similar manner the Fakirs also came to acquire rent-free land from various authorities in Bengal. The British attempt to levy tax, that is to say, impose land-revenue was resisted by the Sannysis and Fakirs. The restrictions on the movement of the Fakirs and a ban declared on the carrying of arms by the Sannyasis and Fakirs also constituted other cause that led to rebellion by the Sannayasis and Fakirs.

Question 6.
How was Wahabi Movement carried to Bengal ? Write in short about the ‘Barasat uprising’.
Answer:
a. Wahabi Movement in Bengal : Titumir : The founder of the Wahabi Movement was Muhammad Abdul Wahab of Najd (in Arabia). This was orthodox Islamic religious movement, and aimed at purging Islam of all the impurities that crept into it. The Wahabi movement was successfully carried to Bengal by Mir Nisar Ali, popularly known as Titumir of North 24-Parganas.

  • A believer in the Wahabi ideal Titumir, from the very beginning directed his energies in organizing the peasants against the oppressive zamindars, money-lenders, indigo planters, etc. He acquired much influence among the peasants of the present North 24-Parganas and Nadia districts of West Bengal, irrespective of their religious affiliation.
  • Titumir and his followers offered the first armed resistance to the zamindar of Pura who imposed punitive tax on the Wahabis. The action on the part of the zamindar of Pura sparked off an armed rebellion against him.
  • Another reason why the Wahabis took the law into their own hands was the failure to get redress either from the administration or from the court of law.
  • In fact, the government machineiy and the law courts always sided with the zamindars and the village rich. Thus redress through peaceful means having failed the Wahabis resorted to armed rebellion against the oppressors.

b. Barasat Uprising : Seeing that Titumir’s activities had assumed an anti-govmment character the British deployed military contingent to suppress the rebels. In order to resist the British soldiers Titumir with his six hundred followers hurriedly built up a fortress with bamboo and mud.

This was the famous Banser Kella (bamboo-fortress) constructed at Narkelberia (Barasat), about 20 kilometres away from Kolkata. The standard of rebellion raised by Titumir and his followers, and the resistance offered by the British troops from the bamboo-fortress is famous in history as the Barasat Rebellion of 1831.

WBBSE Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Resistance and Rebellion: Characteristics and Analyses

Question 7.
What was the role of Dudumiyan in the Ferazi Movement ? What were its limitations ?
Answer:
a. Dudumiyan and the Ferazi Movement: In the name of religion Dudumiyan (1840) gave a fervent call to the peasants’ of the Ferazi community to rise against the oppressive acts of the zamindars, indigo planters and money-lenders. Dudumiyan declared that Allah being the real owner of the land, the zaminders had no right of levying taxes on the ryots (cultivators, tenants or peasants).

The zamindars of the Eastern Bengal being apprehensive of the design on the Ferazis under the leadership of Dudumiayn made a common cause and further increased oppression on the peasants who had Ferazi leanings. This further deteriorated the situation and armed clashes took place between the zamindars and the Ferazis (1840-47). The Ferazi rebels did not even spare any indigo factories.

This was how the Ferazis had raised the banner of protest against the oppressors. The limitation from which the Ferazis had suffered was that the movement was confined to the Ferazi sect of the Muslims and hardly spread among the Hindus. The Ferazi movement did not have any anti-British character.

b. Limitations : The Ferazis were religious fanatics and this alienated themselves completely from the Hindu community. The Muhammadans strongly opposed to them. The Muhammdans of the old faith were sometimes found in the witness box in the court of law recording their evidence against Dudumiyan.

The Ferazi leaders were ignorant people and proud of their influence over the lower clases. This was a feature that was responsible for their differences from other Wahabi sects. Thus it may be said that the greatest limitations of the Ferazis were that they were isolated from similar other religious movements in force at that time.

Question 8.
Write some of the characteristic features of the Wahabi Movement. What was the nature of the movement ?
Answer:
a. Characteristic Features : The characteristic features of the Wahabi Movement were as follows :

  • The movement initiated by Syed Ahmed was designed to revive the ways of the Prophet. Along with this he put forward the objective of driving the British out of the countiy. For according to him, India under the British had become an unholy land or ‘Dar-ul-Harb\ and it was Syed Ahmed’s desire to convert the ‘Dar-ul-Harb’ into ‘Dar-ul-Islam’, that is the land of Islam. Indeed, the anti-British aspect of the movement had given it a political overtone.
  • Another important feature of the movement was that it no longer remained confined within the narrow fold of religion exclusively. Syed
    Ahmed did not even hesitate to appeal to Hindurao, the Maratha leader, for help in his fight against the British.
  • Under his instructions training centres were established in different parts of the country where the Wahabis received some sort of military training.
  • As peasantry formed the core of the Wahabis, the movement was also directed against the oppressors like the zamindars, indigo farmers, money-lenders etc.

b. Nature of the Movement : The Ferazi Movement began as a religious movement. But in course of time the motive of religion was utilized by the Ferazis to give vent to their agrarian grievances. The movement was anti-British in the sense that the Ferazis struck terror into the hearts of the oppressors who were practically the agents of the British.

Dudumiyan had pleaded that his movment was not anti-British in character. Yet one can hardly deny that attack upon the agents of the British like money-lentders, zamindars and the like amounted to an attack upon the British government.

It must be remembered that the Ferazis because of their doctrinaire attitude alienated themselves completely from the Hindu community. Moreover, the Ferazis were not liked by the Wahabis. Belonging to a movement of a lower order, the Ferazis evoked opposition from the village rich, the zamindars, mahajans and the indigo planters.

WBBSE Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Resistance and Rebellion: Characteristics and Analyses

Question 9.
What were the causes of the Indigo Rebellion ? What was its significance ?
Answer:
a. Causes of the Rebellion : Indigo cultivation was not at all profitable for the peasants. Forceable employment of the peasants to grow indigo and deprevation of the cultivators of their legitimate wages formed the background of the Indigo Rebellion. The causes of the rebellion may be summed up as follows :

  • The peasants were unwilling to cultivate indigo as they did not get the wage equal to their labour
  • The powerful European plantersforcibly employed the peasants to grow indigo. In fact, the cultivators were reduced to a state of slavery.
  • Since the indigo-planters converted the best plots of cultivable land to indigo plantation, the production of food-crops declined considerably.
  • The greedy indigo-planters did not even hesitate to augment the plantation area evicting the peasants from their villages. The armed gangman, employed by the planters used to clear village after village burning the peasants’ huts.
  • Oppressions of the indigo-planters reached such a stage that even the family members of the peasants were not spared. Abduction of women was a regular affair. In short, the miseries of the indigo cultivators knew no bounds, and all this led the peasants to rise in revolt.

b. Significance of the Rebellion :

  • The indigo Rebellion of Bengal constitues an important chapter in the history of the peasant movement in India. Whatever might have been the nature of the movement there is no denying the fact that it was in this rising that aclose affinity was first established between the peasants and the zaminders. This was so because of the simple fact that the indigo cultivation had adversely affected the interests of both the peasants and the zaminders.
  • Another important aspect of the movement was that instead of lodging a silent protest, the indigo-cultivators, had unitedly built up a mass movement. Indeed, the indigo cultivators of Barasat took a vow unitedly not to sow indigo any more.
  • The spirit of passive resistance expressed in the Indigo Rebellion may be said to be the forerunner of the Non-Cooperation Movement started by M. K. Gandhi later. Fourth important aspect of the Indigo Rebellion was the support lent by the middle class people to the oppressed peasantry.
  • The revolt of the indigo cultivators made the people of India conscious about their unity against the British.

Question 10.
Write an essay on the Peasants’ Revolt in Pabna.
Answer:
Peasants’ Revolt in Pabna (presently in Bangladesh) is an ideal example of how the question of rent (khazna) created bitter relationship between the zamindars and the ryots. The Tenancy Act of 1859 was put into force to safeguard the interests of rich peasants and the landed peasantry (jotedai). It was expected that the two classes of people would act as precursor to the development of agriculture.

In reality, however, this did not happen. The zamindars did never follow the provisions of the Act. While the Tenancy Act did not allow occupancy right to the peasants, allowed the zamindars to enhance rent at their sweet-will. Official records show that enhancement of rent proceeded after 1859.

WBBSE Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Resistance and Rebellion: Characteristics and Analyses

The peasants were forced to pay increased rent failing which they were evicted. In such a condition the discontent of the peasants found expression in locally organizing resistance to the zamindars. The resistance finally took the shape of a revolt in 1873 when an agrarian league was formed at Esafshahi in the Pabna district of present Bangladesh. All evidences show that the revolt was due to enhancement of rent by the zamindars.

  • The characteristic feature of the revolt was that the Muslim peasants of Pubna fought hand in hand with the Hindus.
  • The revolt took the form of a rent-strike as the peasants refused to pay rent to the zamindars.
  • Leaders of the movement came from the rich peasants, jotedar, village headmen and others.
  • Ishan Chandra Roy, a small talukdar (landed magnate) and a trader, called bidrohi raja by the rebel peasants was an important leader. He with his assistant, Sambhunath Pal, moved from village to village organizing the league. Khoodi Mollah, a Muslim jotedar, also organized the peasants against the zamindar.
  • As the Act of 1859 had failed to ensure security of the ryots the Bengal Tenanacy Act was passed in 1885. The Act sought to protect the interests of the ryots.