Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 8 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 4 Pressure Belts and Winds offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Question Answer – Pressure Belts and Winds

Textbook Page no. 36.

Question 1.
From which direction do Westerlies blow in the Southern hemisphere and what is the name given to such winds?
Answer:
At the time of blowing from southern Tropical High pressure belt to southern subpolar low pressure belt the Westerlies turns to the left according to Ferrell’s Law. Then it is known as North-West Westerlies.

Question 2.
Why are the Westerlies faster in the Southern hemisphere?
Answer:
The world masses are more than land masses in southern hemisphere and so the Westerlies blows faster here.

Question 3.
From which direction does the Polar wind blow in the Southern hemisphere according to the Ferrell’s Law and what is its called?
Answer:
In Southern hemisphere the wind blowing form south pole and turns to the left and it is known as south-east Polar wind.

Question 4.
why is Polar wind cold?
Answer:
Polar wind generates from extremely cold region. So which region the wind passes through the temperature decreases.

Textbook Page no. 37.

Question 1.
Which winds bring rain to China in Asia, Etheopia in Africa and Mexico in North America?
Answer:
For the influence of Westerlies.

Textbook Page no. 39.

Question 1.
which wind brings more rainfall to coastal areas?
Answer:
Sea wind brings more fainfall to coastal areas.

Question 2.
Which wind would help boats sail as they venture out into the sea or river at dawn?
Answer:
With the help of Landwind.

Question 3.
From which direction would the cool breeze come in a coast or a river bank in the evening?
Answer:
From the sea.

Textbook Page no. 40.

Question 1.
Why is there almost no rainfall from the winter Monsoon Wind?
Answer:
In winter dry cool wind blows from the land to sea. Thus rainfall does not occur.

Question 2.
Why is monson wind elassified as periodic wind?
Answer:
Monsoon wind blows in a certain season of the year, certain time of the day for the variation of the temperature. So it is called Perodic Wind.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Question Answer West Bengal Board – Pressure Belts and Winds

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers : (1 mark for each question)

Question 1.
The region extends through 50 of latitude to the north and south of the equator is –
i) Equatorial region
ii) Polar region
iii) Tropical region
Answer:
i) Equatorial region.

Question 2.
The other name of equatorial region is-
i) Coriolis
ii) Doldrums
iii) Horse Latitudes
Answer:
ii) Doldrums

Question 3.
The region between 25° and 30° parallels of latitude in the Northern and Southern Hemisphere is called-
i) Subpolar region
ii) equatorial region
iii) Tropical calm zone
Answer:
iii) Tropical calm zone.

Question 4.
The temperature of two poles remains the ice point throughout the year-
i) over
ii) below
iii) within
Answer:
ii) below.

Question 5.
Two tropical region between 250 and 300 parallels of latitude is known as-
i) Horse Latitude
ii) Coriolis
iii) equatorial region
Answer:
i) Horse latitude.

Question 6.
The difference between the air pressure of two regions is responsible for-
i) changing the direction of wind
ii) changing the speed of the wind
iii) blowing wind
Answer:
iii) blowing wind

Question 7.
The scientist who first said about the deflective force is-
i) G. G. Coriolis
ii) M. Sen
iii) Willium Ferrell
Answer:
i) G. G. Coriollis.

Question 8.
Buys Ballot Law was introduced in-
i) 1855
ii) 1856
iii) 1850
iv) 1857
Answer:
iv) 1857

Question 9.
Dry cold polar winds blow from high pressure belt to low pressure belt
i) all through the year
ii) sometimes
iii) periodically
Answer:
i) all through the year.

Question 10.
Westerlies blow in the southern hemisphere than the northern-
i) faster
ii) slower
iii) equally
Answer:
i) faster.

Question 11.
Westerlies blowing with a violent howl along the 60 south parallel of latitude is-
i) Roaring Forties
ii) Furious Fifties
iii) Screaming Sixtics
Answer:
iii) Screaming Sixties.

Question 12.
In the Northern hemisphere Polar winds blow between 70° N and 80° N-
i) latitude
ii) longitude
iii) not any of them
Answer:
i) latitude

Question 13.
The apparent migration of the sun occurs within-
i) 22nd. March-21st. June
ii) 22 nd. Sep.-21st. July
iii) 22nd Dec.-21st.June
Answer:
iii) 22nd. Dec. 21st. June

Question 14.
In agriculture the coasts of the Mediterranean sea are-
i) under-developed
ii) well-developed
iii) medium
Answer:
ii) well developed.

Question 15.
The Tundra Region is completely covered in ice for-
i) 7-8 months
ii) 6-7 months
iii) 8-9 months
iv) 3-4 months
Answer:
iii) 8-9 months.

Question 16.
The temperate grass land that located in the central and eastern parts of the continents are called-
i) Havard grassland
ii) mangrove forests
iii) Central Asian Steppis
Answer:
iii) Central Asian steppis.

Question 17.
The winds that blow particular time in the year is called-
i) periodic wind
ii) Local wind
iii) Sea brecze
Answer:
i) periodic wind

Question 18.
The cold wind blows from sea to land is called-
i) land breeze
ii) sea breeze
iii) Trade wind
Answer:
ii) Sea breeze.

Question 19.
At night the wind that blows from land to sea is called-
i) Trade wind
ii) perodic wind
iii) land breeze
Answer:
iii) Land breeze.

Question 20.
The another name of mountain wind is-
i) Anabatic wind
ii) Katabatic wind
iii) land breeze
Answer:
ii) Katabatic wind

Question 21.
The another name of valley wind is-
i) Anabatic
ii) Katabatic
iii) Parmanent wind
Answer:
i) Anabatic

Question 22.
Wind blowing in different parts of the earth at different times in the year due to local factors are called-
i) Land breeze
ii) Permanent wind
iii) Local wind
Answer:
iii) Local wind.

Question 23.
Pompero blows over-
i) Libiya
ii) Pampas region
iii) Guinea coast
Answer:
ii) Pampas region.

Question 24.
Chinook blows over-
i) Pampas region
ii) Guinea coast
iii) the eastern slope of Rocky mountain
Answer:
iii) the eastern slope of Rocky mountain

Question 25.
Harmattan blows over-
i) Guinea Coast
ii) Pampas region
iii) the Rocky. mountain
Answer:
i) Guinea coast

Fill in the blanks : (1 mark for each question)

1. The ______ region extends through 5° of latitude to the north and south of the equator.
2. The ______ movement of air over the earth’s surface is called air current.
3. The horizontal movement of air parallel to the earth’s surface is called ____
4. The two polar regions have temperature below _____ almost all through the year.
5. The two Tropical region is known as _____.
6. The rotation of the earth results in a force that causês an frèe flowing and mobile objects on earth to change direction and deflect. This deflective force is known as ______.
7. The American meteorolist _____ first mention the similarities swinging of clock with the swinging of provalent wind.
8. First _____ mentioned the coriollis Force .
9. The Coriollis Foree is mentioned in _____.
10. Buys Ballot Law is named after _______.
11. _____ are the winds blowing from Northern and Southern Tropical high pressure belt to the Equatorial low pressure belt through out the year.
12. The equatorial region where the North East and South East Trade wind meet is called ______.
13. _____ blow between 35° and 60° north and south parallels of latitudes.
14. The winds blow along 40° south parallels of latitude to the east is called _____.
15. Westerlies blowing with a violent howle among the 60° south parallel of latitude is called ______.
16. Extremely fast westerlies along the 50° south parallel of latitude is called ______.
17. With the variation of the parallels of latitude the temperature of air ______.
18. As the Trade wind blow from the less warm tropics to the warmer equatorial region, they get progressively ______.
19. The livehood of the people of ______ is rather difficult.
20. In winter watermass remains ______ than landmass.
21. The coasts of the Mediterranean sea are well developped in terms of ______ and ______.
22. The influence of Polar wind is found in ______ region.
23. ______ winds in both hemisphere blow from freczing cold regions to comparatively less region.
24. The ______ Region is completely covered in ice and has a lengthy spanning through 8-9 months.
25. At night the wind blows from ______ to sea.
26. The durinal difference in temperature between opposite seasons leads to the formation of ______.
27. The another name of ‘mountain wind’ is ______.
28. The another name of ‘valley wind’ is ______.
29. When the air pressure suddenlly drops over a small area, pressure is generally ______ in the centre.
30. In a cyclone wind speed can shoot up to about ______ km per hour.
31. Tropical cyclones are ______.
32. When the prevalent condition is just opposite to the cyclone, it is called ______.
33. Sirocco is one type of ______.
34. The word ‘chinook’ means ______.
35. Boro blows through the coast of the ______.
36. Fohn is one type of ______.
37. ______ is characterized by the dry and dusty northeasterly trade wind.
38. Fohn is found in the ______.
39. After the name of G. G. Coriolis the deflective force is called ______.
Answer:
1. equatorial region
2. vertical
3. wind
4. freezing point
5. Horse Latitude
6. Coriolis Force
7. William Ferrell
8. G. G. Coriollis
9. 1835 A.D
10. Buys Ballot
11. Trade wind
12. Inter Tropical convergence zone
13. Westerlies
14. Westerlies
15. Screaming sixties
16. Furious Fifties
17. varies
18. warmer
19. Sahara desert
20. warmer
21. agriculture, communication
22. Tundra
23. Polar, cold
24. Tundra, winter
25. Land
26. Monsoon wind
27. Katabatic wind
28. Arabatic wind
29. lowest
30. 160
31. destructive
32. anticyclone
33. local wind
34. snow eater
35. Adriatic sea
36. local wind
37. Harmattan
38. northern slope of Alps
39. Coriolis Force.

State whether True or False : (1 mark for each question)

1. Land breeze blows from the land towards the water at night.
2. Periodic winds are winds that blow during a particular time in the year.
3. Anticyclones are generally formed in low latitudes.
4. ‘Mountain wind’ is called local wind.
a. The he wind of rocky mountain is example of local wind.
6. Trade winds blow between 25° and 30° north and south parllels of latitude.
7. Wind is named after the direction fron which it flows.
8. William Farrel was a British scientist.
9. The equatorial region has more water than landmass.
10. Westerlies blows from the east.
11. Two air masses of opposite nature meet at the Tropics.
12. The wet hot polar winds blow throughout the year from polar low pressure belts to sub polar belts.
13. Periodic winds are winds that blow during a particular time in the year.
14. Tropical cyclones are constructive.
15. The higher slopes in Kulu and Kangra valleys are more populated than the valley floors.
Answer:
1. true
2. true
3. false
4. false
5, true
6. false
7. true
8. false
9. true
10. false
11. true
12. false
13. true
14. fale
15. true

Match the column A with column B.

Column A	Column B
a) Land breeze	i) the air is super cool and heavy
b) Sea breeze and Land Breeze	ii) tropics and the poles
c) Inter Tropical Convergence Zone	iii) meet at the Tropics
d) Coriolis Force acts generally	iv) different parts of the earth’s surface
e) In polar regions	i) occur everyday
f) The air is denser in the	ii) picks up speed at dawn.
g) Two air masses of opposite nature	iii) on the naturally flowing winds
h). Ships come to a stndstill	iv) is cold
i) Atmosphere pressure varies over	i) in the Horse Latitude
j) Polar wind	ii) is known as Equatorial calm region

Answer:
a) Land breeze picks up speed at dawn.
b) Sea breeze and Land Breeze occur everyday.
c) Inter Tropical Convergence Zone is known as Equatorial calm region.
d) Coriolis Force acts generally on the naturally flowing winds.
e) In polar regions the air is super cool and heavy.
f) The air is denser in the tropics and the poles.
g) Two air masses of opposite nature meet at the Tropics.
h) Ships come to a stndstill in the Horse Latitude
i) Atmosphere pressure varies over different parts of the earth’s surface.
j) Polar wind is cold.

Very Short Questions & Answers : (1 mark for each question)

Question 1.
What is wind?
Answer:
The horizontal movement of air parallel to the earth’s surface is called wind.

Question 2.
What is air current?
Answer:
The vertical movement of the air over the earth’s surface is called air current.

Question 3.
Which region is called Doldrums?
Answer:
Equatorial calm zones.

Question 4.
Which region is called Horse-latitude?
Answer:
Tropical regions (25°-35°N. and S) are known as Horse-latitude.

Question 5.
How does the coriolis Force acts?
Answer:
Coriolis Force acts as a right angle to the direction of flow of wind.

Question 6.
How is the wind named?
Answer:
Wind is named after the direction from which it blow.

Question 7.
When was Buys Ballot Law find out?
Answer:
Buys Ballot law was found out in 1857.

Question 8.
What is the speed of Trade wind in Northern Hemisphere?
Answer:
Trade winds travel 16 km per hour in Northern Hemisphere.

Question 9.
What is ITCZ?
Answer:
The North East and South East Trade winds meet in the Equatorial Region. This is the Inter Tropical Convergence Zone or the ITCZ.

Question 10.
What is the other name of ITCZ?
Answer:
The other name of ITCZ is Equatorial calm region.

Question 11.
What is Roaring Forties?
Answer:
Westerlies blowing with a howl aiong the 40° south parallel of latitudes.

Question 12.
What is Furious Fifties?
Answer:
Extremely fast Westerlies along the 500 south parallel to latitude.

Question 13.
What is Screming Sixties?
Answer:
Westerlies blowing with a violent how along the 600 south parallel of latitude.

Question 14.
What is the source of the temperature of air?
Answer:
The source of air temperature is Sun.

Question 15.
How is the livehood of the people of Sahara desart for the influence of Trade wind?
Answer:
The ivehood here is rather difficult.

Question 16.
How is the livehood of the people of Mediterranean coast for the influence of westerlies?
Answer:
Prosperous in scope of employment.

Question 17.
Which region experiences blizzards for Polar wind?
Answer:
Siberia in Russia somctimes experience blizzards in polar wind.

Question 18.
When do the Periodic Winds blow?
Answer:
Periodic winds blow during a particular time in the year.

Question 19.
Where is the effect of Sea Breeze found?
Answer:
The effect of Sea-Breeze is found till 150 km. inland the coast line.

Question 20.
When the influence of Land Breeze increases?
Answer:
The influence of Land Breeze increases at dwon.

Question 21.
Which wind is called the larger verson of Sea and Land Breeze.
Answer:
Monsoon wind is cousdeered the larger verson of sea and I and Breeze.

Question 22.
Name two valleys of Himachal Pradesh.
Answer:
The two valleys of Himachal Pradesh are Kulu and Kangra.

Question 23.
Where is Chinook found?
Answer:
Chinook is found in Rocky mountain region of North America.

Question 24.
What does the term ‘Chinook’ mean?
Answer:
The term ‘Chinook’ means ‘Snow eater’.

Question 25.
What is the nature of Chinook?
Answer:
Chinook is dry and hot.

Question 26.
Where are the Cattles reared for the influence of Chinook?
Answer:
For the influence of Chinook the cattles are reared in Prairies.

Question 27.
Where is Fohn found?
Answer:
Fohn is found in Alps mountain region.

Question 28.
What is the nature of Fohn?
Answer:
Fahn is dry and warm.

Question 29 .
What happens due to the influence of Fahn?
Answer:
Due to the influence of Fahn the temperature rises.

Question 30.
How is Harmattan?
Answer:
Harmattan is dry and cold.

Question 31.
Where is Harmattan found?
Answer:
Harmattan blows over the Guinea coast from the eastern part of North West Anerica.

Question 32.
What is the Doctor wind?
Answer:
Harmattan is called the Doctor wind.

Question 33.
Why is Harmattan called the ‘Doctor’?
Answer:
It is because the wind provides relief from the warm moist and sultry wtither in the Tropical region.

Question 34.
How is Bora?
Answer:
Bora is dry and cold.

Question 35.
Where is Bora found?
Answer:
Bora blows through the coast of the Adriatic sea after descending along the southern slope of Alps.

Question 36.
What happens due to the influence of Bora.?
Answer:
This excessive cold wind disrupts normal life is southern Europe along the coast of the Adriatic sea.

Question 37.
What is Pompero?
Answer: Pampero is one of a local winds.

Question 38.
Where is Pampero found?
Answer:
Pampero originates in the Southern parts of South America and blows over Pampas region.

Question 39.
How does Pampero effect on human life?
Answer:
For the influence of Pampero the life of the people becomes comfortable.

Question 40.
Where is Sirocco found?
Answer:
Sirocco is originated in Libyan desert of Africa and blows over Southern Europe.

Question 41.
What type of wind is Sirocco?
Answer:
Sirocco is dry, warm and dusty.

Question 42.
How is the coast of Africa influenced by Sirocco?
Answer:
For the influence of Sirocco the northern coast of Africa is dried up and covered with dust.

Question 43.
Give examples of local wind blowing in India.
Answer:
Loo and Andhi.

Question 44.
What is the speed of Trade Wind in southern hemisphere?
Answer:
The speed of Trade Wind in southern hemisphere is 22-30 km. per hour.Short

Short Questions & Answers : (2 marks for each question)

Question 1.
What is coriolis Force?
Answer:
The rotation of the earth results in a force that causes all free flowing and mobile objects on earth to change direction and deflect. This is called Coriolis Force.

Question 2.
What is Buys Ballot’s Law?
Answer:
When one faces the wind in the Northern Hemisphere pressure is more towards the right and lower on left. Just opposite condition is seen in the Southern Hemisphere.

Question 3.
Which wind is called winter Monsoon wind?
Answer:
In winter cold, dry, wind blows from landmass towards the ocean. This is called Winter Monsoon Wind.

Question 4.
Which is called Summer Monsoon Wind?
Answer:
In summer moisture laden wind blows from ocean towards the land. That is called Summer Monsoon Wind.

Question 5.
What is Anabatic Wind?
Answer:
Sometimes the air over the valley does not heat up as much as that over the slopes flanking the valleys during day time. Therefore, the air pressure is comparatively highrer whereas the temperature is lower in the valley.nAir from the valley rises along the slopes. This is known as Anabatic Wind.

Question 6.
What is Catabatic Wind?
Answer:
At night the slopesradiate heat faster as the air over the mountain slopes cools down and high pressure prevails here. This heavy air from the high pressure descends and settles down in the valley. This is known as Catabatic Wind.

Question 7.
What is meant by periodic Wind?
Answer:
There are some winds that blow during a particular time in the year or a particular time of the day. These winds do not blow throughout the year like the planetary winds. These are called periodic winds.

Question 8.
What is Doldrums?
Answer:
In equatorial region upward air current is observed. There is no horizontal movement of air. This leads to the prevalence of calm conditions. So this is the zone of equatorial calm. This region is called ‘Doldrums’ which mean calm.

Question 9.
What is Sub-tropical regions?
Answer:
The region between 25° and 30° parallels of latitude in the Northern and Southern Hemispheres are respectively called the Northern sub-tropical and Southern sub-tropical regions.

Question 10.
Mention three segments of Inter Tropical Convergence Zone.
Answer:
The segment extending through the indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean is the largest one. The second segment is found to the west of Africa in the Atlantic Ocean. The third segment is also on the pacific Ocean to the west of South America.

Question 11.
How trade winds get such name?
Answer:
Ancient commercial vessels used these winds in their sails to carry the cargo along certain marine routes. These winds them in trading. So these winds got their name as trade wind.

Question 12.
Mention the features of Sea breeze and Land breeze?
Answer:

1. Sea breeze and Land breeze occur everyday.
2. These winds blow at a regular interval each day.
3. Generally the effect of these winds are found till 150 Km. inland from the coastline.

Question 13.
How cyclone is formed?
Answer:
When air pressure suddenly drops over a small area, pressure is generally lowest at the centre. Then wind blows at high speed towards the central low pressure zone from higher pressure. this is called cyclone.

Long Questions & Answers : (3 marks for each question)

Question 1.
Why are the pressure belts formed?
Answer:
The hot and wet air of equatorial region rises up. The temperature reduces as the air rises up. On cooling the weight and density increases. The cool and heavy air sinks in the Northern and Southern Tropical region. Cool and dry air from polar region also sinks dwon in these two Tropical regions. Two air masses of defferent characters meet at the Tropic and the mass and density of air increase.

Question 2.
What is Horse Latitude?
Answer:
In sixteenth century ship from West Indies and Europe used to come stand still in Northern and Southern Tropical region because there was no air in their soil. The vessels carrying horses used to take much time to reach the West Indies and America. To avoid the crises of food and water the crews sacrificed some of the horses by throwing them into the Atlantic Ocean for reducing the weight of the ship. Therefore the Tropical regions are called the Horse latitudes.

Question 3.
What is Cyclone and Anti cyclone?
Answer:
When air pressure suddenly drops over a small area a low pressure creates at center and a high pressure creates at the surrounding zoncs. In the situation air blows from high pressure area to low pressure area. This is called cyclone.

When temperature of an area drops suddenly the air pressure increases. Then high pressure creates at the centre and a high pressure creates at the surrounding zones. In this situation air blows from centre to outwards. As the condition is just opposite of that of cyclone. So it is called the Anti cyclone.

Question 4.
Describe Ferrell’s Law.
Answer:
One type of force acts on any free flowing object on the earth for the revolution of earth. This deflects the direction of the moving objects. At the time of flowing from high pressure zone to low pressure zone the wind deflects towards right in the Northern hemisphere and to the left in Southern hemisphere for this reason. This is known as Ferrell’s Law.

Question 5.
What is Summer Monsoon wind and Winter monsoon wind?
Answer:
Monsoon winds blows through the Indian peninsula. In summer when the land get heated quickly by the sunrays the low pressure belt creates. But the water of Indian ocean remains cooler then and high pressure creates over there. Thus the moisture laten winds blows from ocean to land mass in :ummer which is called Summer Monsoon Wind.

In winter the landmass cools rcadily by radiating the sun heat and create high pressure belt over there. The water of Indian ocoan remains cooler, hotter then and low pressure belt creates there. Therfore, dry cool air tlows from land to sea in winter which is called winter monsoon wind.

Question 6.
What is permanent winds? Classify permanent winds. The winds that blow horizo”tally through out the year in the same direction at uniform speed are calied permanent winds.
Answer:
There are three types of permanent winds Trade wind, westerlies, Polar wints. Trade wind : The winds that blow from Northern and Southern Tropical high pressure belts to equatorial low pressere belt regularly, throughout the year are called Trade wind.
Westerlies : The winds that blow from Northern and Southern Tropikeal High pressure belt to Northern and Southern subpolar belts are called Westerlies. Polar winds The hot and dry winds blow from polar high pressure belt to subpolar low pressure belt in both hemisphere are called Polar wind.

Question 7.
What is Periodic winds? Compare Sea Brecze and Land Breeze.
Answer:
The winds that blow in a particular time in the year or a particuler time of a day are called Periodic winds.
Sea Breeze : The cool breeze that blows from sea to land in the afternoon or evening is called Sea Breeze. The difference between the air pressure of land and sea is responsible for the wind blowing.
Land Breeze : The land gets heated quickly and becomes cool by raducting the heat than the water mass. At night when the land entirely cools down the water still retain some heat and is warmer. A low pressure belt creates on the water and wind blows from land to sea at night which is called Land Breeze.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 8 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 3 Rocks offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Question Answer – Rocks

Textbook Page no. 23.

Question 1.
Why are crystals not formed in sedimentery rocks?
Answer:
The hardness of the sedimentery rock is less than igneous rock. Therefore, sedimentery rocks do not have crystalline structure.

Question 2.
Why are fossils not found in igneous rocks?
Answer:
Due to excessive pressure and heat the inagma from earth’s interior comes out as lava and solidifies either on the earth’s surface or in the earth chamber to form igneous rock. So the fossil is not found.

Question 3.
From which type of rock is extraction of minerals convenient and why?
Answer:
In sedimentary rock mining is easy. Near about 7-10 crore years ago many organisms got burried under the layer of the sedimentary rocks. For the excessive pressure of upper layer and heat of the earth chamber the remaining parts of the body changes into the solution of hydrogen and carbon and different types of minerals are formed. So only the porous layer of sedimentery rock is called the store house of the minerals.

Textbook Page no. 26.

Question 1.
Which rocks are laid between and near a pair of railway tracks? Why are these rocks found here?
Answer:
In between railway track generally granite is found. It is because granite is very much resistant to erosion.

Question 2.
why does a piece of granite glitter?
Answer:
Glittering substance like mica is present in granite. This is because granite glitters.

Question 3.
Which rock is used to make a pencil lead?
Answer:
The lead of the pencil is made up of graphite, a metamorphic rock.

Question 4.
I am glittery, black or white. I am soft and malleable. I am a main constituent mineral of Granite. Can you say who I am?
Answer:
Quartz.

Identify me Page no. 27.

Question 1.
I have a smooth and attractive appearance. I am used in making floors. I have been used in constructing famous archetectural landmarks including the Victoria Memorial.
Answer:
Marble.

Question 2.
I am a very hard, fine grained grey black rock. I am commonly used in constructing roads. Water can easily pass through me.
Answer:
Gneiss.

Match the following :
Answer:

1. Limestone	Stalactite.
2. Sandstone	Sedimentary Rock.
3. Granite	Rounded dand form.
4. Great pressure	A cause of metamorphosis of rock.
5. Basalt	Flat topped landform.
6. Marble	Metamorphic rock.
7. Potassium	Plagioclase Feldsper.
8. Calcium Sulphate	Gypsum.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Question Answer West Bengal Board – Rocks

Multiple Choice Questions& Answers : (1 mark for each question)

Question 1.
The characteristics of landform formed by Granite-
i) cavesquare
ii) flatsquare
iii) roundsquare
iv) steep slope
Answer:
iii) round.

Question 2.
The characteristics of landform formed by basalt-
i) cavesquare
ii) flatsquare
iii) roundsquare
iv) steep slope
Answer:
ii) flat.

Question 3.
The characteristics of landform formed by limestone-
i) cavesquare
ii) flatsquare
iii) roundsquare
iv) steep slope
Answer:
i) cave.

Question 4.
The characteristics of landform formed by sandstone-
i) cavesquare
ii) flatsquare
iii) roundsquare
iv) steep slope
Answer:
iv) steep slope

Question 5.
Slate is used in making-
i) cementsquare
ii) blackboardsquare
iii) iron industrysquare
iv) roads
Answer:
ii) blackboarc

Question 6.
Peat coal can be metamorphosed to graphite due to-
i) great pressuresquare
ii) chemical reactionsquare
iii) great heatsquare
iv) none of these
Answer:
iii) great heat

Question 7.
Amphibolite is the metamorphosed form of-
i) granitesquare
ii) sandstonesquare
iii) peat coalsquare
iv) mud stone
Answer:
i) granite

Question 8.
Victoria Memorial is made of-
i) granitesquare
ii) basattsquare
iii) mudstonesquare
iv) marble
Answer:
iv) marble

Question 9.
Fossils are found only in-
i) igneous rocks
ii) metamorphic rocks
iii) sedimentary rocks
Answer:
iii) sedimentary rocks

Question 10.
Sorrect metamorphosed form is-
i) graniterightarrow marble
ii) limestonerightarrow graphite
iii) sandstonerightarrow amphibolitesquare,
iv) basaltrightarrow amphibolite
Answer:
iv) basaltrightarrow amphibolite

Correct the wrong : (1 mark for each question)

Question 1.
The extrusive igneous rocks are generally fine grained because lavas after coming over the surface are slowly cooled and solidify.
Answer:
The extrusive igneous rocks are generally fine grained because lavas after coming over the surface are quickly cooled and solidify.

Question 2.
The amount of basic oxide in peridotite rock as 55%-45%.
Answer:
The amount of basic oxide in peridotite rock is more than 55%.

Question 3.
Andresite is one type of intrusive igneous rock.
Answer:
Andresite is one type of extrusive igneous rock.

Question 4.
Land forms developed on the regions of granite rock are mainly of round shaped.
Answer:
Land forms developed on the regions of granite rock are mainly of flat shaped.

Question 5.
The granite is composed of otvin and pyroxene.
Answer:
The granite is composed of mica and hornblends.

Question 6.
Igneous rocks are the store house of coal, petroleum and natural gas.
Answer:
Sedimentary rocks are the store house of coal petroleun and natural gas.

Question 7.
High permeability increases the water retaining capacity.
Answer:
High permeability reduces the water retaining capacity.

Question 8.
Fossil is found in metamorphic rocks.
Answer:
Fossil is found in sedimentary rocks.

Question 9.
Chemically formed sedimentary rock is conglomerate.
Answer:
Mechanically formed sedimentary rock is conglomerate.

Question 10.
Limestone is resistant to erosion and less permeable.
Answer:
Limestone is not resistant to erosion and highly permeable.

Question 11.
Bright crystalline structure is found in sedimentary rocks.
Answer:
Bright crystalline structure is found in igneous rocks.

Question 12.
Gneiss is harder than granite.
Answer:
Gneiss is less harder than granite.

Question 13.
The region predominated by limestone is suitable for constructing high rise building, roads etc.
Answer:
The region predominated by granite is suitable for constructing highrise building, roads etc.

Question 14.
Quartz is used for making glass.
Answer:
Quartz is used for cutting glass.

Question 15.
Mica is good conductor of heat and electricity.
Answer:
Mica is poor conductor of heat and electricity.

Question 16.
In Mah’s scale the value of harlness of diamond is 8.
Answer:
In Mah’s scale the value of hardness of diamond is 10.

Question 17.
The main element of plagioclase feldsper is Potassium.
Answer:
The main element of plagioclase feldspar is Sodium.

Question 18.
The main occupation of Chotanagpur plateau region is agriculture.
Answer:
The main occupation of Chotanagpur plateau region is mining and mine-based industry.

Question 19.
The soil derrived from basalt rock is infertile.
Answer:
The soil derrived from basalt rock is suitable for wheat and cotton.

Question 20.
The grains of sandy soil is smaller.
Answer:
The grains of sandy soil is bigger.

Question 21.
Sandy soil is found in North Indian plain.
Answer:
Alluvial soil is found in North Indian plain.

Question 22.
The fertility of clayey soil is more.
Answer:
The fertility of clayey soil is medium.

State whether True or False : (1 mark for each question)

1. In Mah’s scale the mineral with value of hardness 7 is Quartz.
2. Limestone disolves in water:
3. Sandstone is used in architectural works.
4. The colour of shale may be yellow, red, orange, pink etc.
5. Rocks can be metamorphosed in different ways.
6. When sedimentary rock metamorphosed it becomes brittle.
7. Marble is the metamorphosed form of limestone.
a. It is easy to mine from marble.
9. The metamorphosed form of sandstone is Qurartzite.
10. No landform is found in the limestone dominated region.
11. Feldspar is as smooth as slate.
12. Mica is used for making glass.
13. Regolith is the main composition of soil formation.
14. The soil made up of basalt is white.
15. The alluvial soil is the most suitable for agriculture.
Answer:
1 true
2. false
3. true
4. false
5. true
6. false
7. true
8. false
9. true
10. false
11. true
12. false
13. true
14 false
15. true

Fill in the blanks : (1 mark for each question)

1. __________ is a clastic rock.
2. Crystal may be __________ or hexagonal in shape.
3. Cometite is a _______ rock.
4. The diameter of the particle of gabbro is _________ mm.
5. The continental plate is made up of _________.
6. The chief constituent minerals of Basalt is _________.
7. __________ are found is sedimentery rock.
8. High _________ reduces the water retaining capacity of rocks.
9. ________ is the sedimentery rock of silicate.
10. The golden fort of Joysalmeer is made up of ___________.
11. Graphite is the _________ form of peat coal.
12. The example of a rock with fine grains is ___________.
13. Sedimentery rocks become less ________ when metamorphosed.
14. Marble readily melts in _________
15. ___________ is not as hard as ganite.
16. Sometimes lime formation may rise from the cave floors which is called ________.
17. For the construction high rise buildings and road the region with __________ is suitable.
18. Diamond is metamorphosed torm of __________.
19. Most of the rock forming minerals is made up of ________ eliment.
20. Mica may be of the white ____________.
21. Mica is _________ of heat and electricity.
22. ____________ is a hydrated crystal of Calcium Sulphate.
23. The influence of __________ is verv much evident in nature.
24. The soil predominated by Zypsum is soft and ___________ in colour.
25. The main occupation in Chotanagpur plateau region is mining and __________.
26. Characteristic features of a soil usually depend on the ____________ of the layer of rock underneath.
27. Soil derived from Basalt is suitable for growing ___________.
28. The soil derived from _________ is found in Chotanagpur plateat.
29. Grains of minerals are very _________.
Answer:
1. conglomerate
2. cubic
3. ultra basic rock
4. 3, 5. granite
6. Pyroxene
7. layers
8. permeability
9. flint
10. sandstone
11. metamorphose
12. mudstone
13. brittle
14. acid
15. granite
16. stalagmites
17, granite rock
18. carbon
19.8,20. muscovite
21. poor conductor
22. zypsum
23. mineral
24. light yellow
25. mining based industry
26. nature
27. wheat and cotton
28. granite
29. fine.

Match the column A with column B.

Column A	Column B
a) In igneous rocks	i) crosion resistant rock
b) Sedimentery rocks	ii) porous sedimentary rocks
c) Basalt is highly	iii) mainly from basalt
d) Sand remains loose and light	iv) crystalline structure is found
e) Shale is widely used	i) heat and electricity
f) Petrolium is available only in the	ii) are highly permeable
g) Constracting dams in a limestone	iii) of calcium sulphate
h) Black soil is made	iv) when it is dry
i) Gypsum is a hydrated crystal	i) terrain is not the right thing to do
j) Mics is a poor conductor of	ii) in making roof-tiles of buildings

Answer:
a) In igneous rocks crystalline structure is found.
b) Sedimentery rocks are highly permeable.
c) Basalt is highly erosion resistant rock.
d) Sand remains loose and light when it is dry.
e) Shale is widely used in making roof-tiles of buildings.
f) Petrolium is available only in the porous sedimentary rocks.
g) Constracting dams in a limestone terrain is not the right thing to do.
h) Black soil is made mainly from basalt.
i) Gypsum is a hydrated crystal of calcium sulphate.
j) Mics is a poor conductor of heat and electricity.

Very Short Questions& Answers : (1 mark for each question)

Question 1.
How can be igneous rock divided according to origin?
Answer:
According to origin igneous rock is of two types.

Question 2.
Name an extrusive igneous rock.
Answer:
Basalt.

Question 3.
Name a hypabyssal igneous rock.
Answer:
Dolorite

Question 4.
At what percent Silica is present in acidic rock?
Answer:
More than 60%.

Question 5.
What is the diameter of the particle of extrusive rock?
Answer:
‘ess than 1 mm.

Question 6.
At what amount basic oxide is present in acidic rock?
Answer:
More than 55%

Question 7.
How are the lasdforms developed with granite rock?
Answer:
Round shaped.

Question 8.
How are the land forms developed with basalt rock?
Answer:
Flat shaped.

Question 9.
What is the diameter of the particle of hypabyssal rocks.
Answer:
More than 3 mm.

Question 10.
Which rocks have high permeability?
Answer:
Sandstone.

Question 11.
In which rock layer mineral oil and natural gas are found?
Answer:
Only in porous sedimentary rock.

Question 12.
Name a sedimentary rock iron stone typed.
Answer:
Haematite.

Question 13.
What is rock?
Answer:
Rocks are homogenous or heterogenous aggregates of one or more minerals.

Question 14.
What minerals the granite rock is composed with?
Answer:
Granite rock is composed with quartz, feldsper. mica and hornblends.

Question 15.
What minerals the limestone is composed with?
Answer:
Limestone is composed with calcite.

Question 16.
What is petrology?
Answer:
The special branch of science which deals with the rocks and their characteristics is known as petrology.

Question 17.
What is mineralogy?
Answer:
The branch of science which deals with minerals is called mineralogy.

Question 18.
What is the other name of igneous rocks?
Answer:
The other name of igneous rock is primary rocks.

Question 19.
Why is the grains of extrusive igneous rock are generally fine?
Answer:
The grains of extrusive igneous rock are generally fine because lavas after coming over the surface are quickly cooled and solidified.

Question 20.
What are the different types of intrusive igneous rocks.
Answer:
The different types of intrusive igneous rocks are hypabyssal and plutonic.

Question 21.
What type of rock is dolerite?
Answer:
Dolerite is one type of hypabyssal igneous rock.

Question 22.
How are crystals formed in igneous rocks?
Answer:
Crystals are formed as the atoms of the mineral water which remain in like veins after cooling of the rock.

Question 23.
Name some crystals.
Answer:
Some crystals are quartz. topaz, calcite. diamond.

Question 24.
What is the shape of the crystal?
Answer:
Crystals are either crystal or hexagonal in shape.

Question 25.
Give an example of intermediate rock? What amount of basic acid is present in it.
Answer:
An example of intermediate rock is andesite in whiç basic oxide is 45-35%.

Question 26.
At what amount of Silica is present in peridotite rock?
Answer:
More than 45% of silica is present in peridotite.

Question 27.
What type of rock is kimberlite.
Answer:
Kimberlite is ultra basic rocks.

Question 28.
What is the diameter of Granite rock?
Answer:
The diameter of granite rock is more than 3 mm.

Question 29.
What are the rock forming minerals of basalt?
Answer:
The chief constituent minerals of basalt are feldspar, olivin and pyroxene.

Question 30.
What is the diameter of the particle of Micro-diorite?
Answer:
The diameter of the particle of micro-diorite is 1-3 mm.

Question 31.
What is permeability?
Answer:
Permeability means penetration of liquid and gaseous substances through the rock.

Question 32.
What is porosity?
Answer:
Porosity means the ratio between the voids and total volume of a given rock mas.

Question 33.
Give an example of pyroelastic rock.
Answer:
An example of pyroelastic rock is tuff.

Question 34.
Name a chemically formed sedimentary rock.
Answer:
A chemically formed sedimentery rock is Gypsum.

Question 35.
What is diatom?
Answer:
Diatom is organically formed sedimentary rock.

Question 36.
Name a calcareous sedimentery rock.
Answer:
Limestone.

Question 37.
What is the scientific name of limestone?
Answer:
Calcium Carbonate.

Question 38.
How is limestone used?
Answer:
Limestone is used as a raw material in making cement and in iron and steel industry.

Question 39.
With which stone the Khajuraho temple is made?
Answer:
The Khajuraho temple is made up of sandstone.

Question 40.
Which rock is used to make roof tiles?
Answer:
Slate is used to make roof tiles.

Question 41.
How is slate formed ‘slab?
Answer:
Under tremendous pressure slab metamorphoses to form slate.

Question 42.
What is phyllite?
Answer:
Phyllite is one type of slate.

Question 43.
Into which peat coal is transformed?
Answer:
Peat coal is transformed into Graphite.

Question 44.
Which rock is used for making black board.
Answer:
Slate is used for making black board.

Question 45.
Which rock is used for the construction of road?
Answer:
Metamorphic rock, Granite is used for the construction of road.

Question 46.
Name an acidic rock.
Answer:
An acidic rock is Basalt.

Question 47.
Is the Decan plateau is the part of Decan trap?
Answer:
The dalite like land from with flat top at Panchagani Mahabaleshwar region is the part of Decan trap of Decan plateau.

Question 48.
What is Stalactites and Stalagmites?
Answer:
Stalactites and Stalagmites are limestone cave.

Question 49.
Where is granite rock found?
Answer:
Granite rock is found in entire Chotanagpur region including Ranchi.

Question 50.
Why is constructing dams and reservoirs in a limestone terrain is not the right thing to do?
Answer:
It is because rivers or rain water can crode limestone by solution. So the dam may easily crack.

Question 51.
In which region multistoried buildings and excessive length of road are not advisable?
Answer:
Multistoried buildings and excessive length of road are not advisable in limestone terrains.

Question 52.
What is the colour of ortho claye?
Answer:
Pink.

Question 53.
Name the rock forming minerals.
Answer:
Silicon, Oxygen.

Question 54.
Which mineral is used for making ornaments and cutting glass and stone?
Answer:
Quartz.

Question 55.
What is the main element of Plagioclase feldspar?
Answer:
The main element of plagioclase feldsper is Sodium.

Question 56.
What is the element of orthoclase?
Answer:
The main element of orthoclase is Potassium.

Question 57.
What is the use of feldspar?
Answer:
Feldspar is used in glass and ceramic industry.

Question 58.
Name a soft mineral.
Answer:
Zypsum.

Question 59.
What is Malı’s scale?
Answer:
Mah’s scale of hardness measures the hardness of minerals.

Question 60.
What is the hardness of corundum measured in Mah’s scale?
Answer:
The hardness of Corundum in Mah’s scale is 9.

Question 61.
How is the soil in the region with Gypsum?
Answer:
The soil is soft light yellowish in the region with Gypsum.

Question 62.
Name a soil with excessive mineral.
Answer:
Laterite soil and red soil.

Question 63.
Why is the soil, made up of granite, red?
Answer:
This is because the oxide of iron present in this soil at high amount.

Question 64.
What type of soil found in the desertic area of Rajasthan?
Answer:
Sandy soil.

Question 65.
Where is Mangrove forest found?
Answer:
Mangrove forest is found at the sea coast with saline soil.

Short Questions & Answers : (2 marks for each question)

Question 1.
Mention one difference of homogeneus and heterogeneus mixture.
Answer:
In homogeneus mixture all elements remain in equal ratio everywhere but in heterogeneus mixture all the elements lie in equal ratio in different places.

Question 2.
What is fossil? In which rock fossil is found?
Answer:
Marine plants and animals sometimes come within the beds of the sediments during compaction of layers to form sedimentery rock. Later dead remains of the organism leave their imprint into the layers of sediment after being solidified. This is called fossils.

Question 3.
What is rock cycle?
Answer:
In nature the formation of rocks and transformation of rocks have occured in cycling way in a specific method. The complete cyclic process of formation of rocks and their changes frum one type to the other is called the rock cycle.

Question 4.
What is regolith?
Answer:
Natural agents like river wind, rainfall, sea-waves, glacier etc. degrade rocks and minerals over a long time to form loose deleres of rock. This delere’s then interacts naturally with water air and organic matter to form soil. This delere’s of degraded rocks is called regolith.

why the Chotanagur Plateau is called ‘the store house of minerals’.
Answer:
Chotanagpur Plateau in India is rich in minerals like iron, copper, bauxite, manganese, dolomite etc. So it is called the storehouse of minerals’.

Question 6.
What is limestone?
Answer:
Limestone is a calcareous sedimentary rock. It is not generally soluble in water. But it gets readily dissolved in rainwater or acid solutions when it is transformed to calcium bicarbonate. Limestone may be white, grey, green or blackish in colour.

Question 7.
What is sandstone?
Answer:
Sandstone is a sedimentary rock rich in sand. It is resistant to erosion in spite of being highly porous and permeable. Architects use it in making epitaphs and monuments. It is yellow, orange, red, pink, white or grey in colour.

Question 8.
What is Marble?
Answer:
Marble is the metamorphosed form of lime stone. It is smoothy, glittery and attractive. It is available in a wide variety of colours including white, green, grey, yellow and blue. It is extensively used by architects.

Question 9.
What is slate?
Answer:
It is the metamorphosed form of mudstone or shale. It is smooth and biuish grey to black in colour. It is arranged into thin layers and can be easily broken. They are used in making oof tiles and blackboards and can be used as a surface for writing.

Question 10.
What is gneiss?
Answer:
This is a hard and resistant rock. The minerals in it are often arranged in bands. So this is called a banded rock. Extarcting a certain mineral from it is thus convenient. This rock is widely used to make roads and in other constructions.

Question 11.
What is quarz?
Answer:
Quartz is very hard, often whitish and hexagonal crystals. It is the main constituent of granite and Basalt. These rocks are very resistant to erosion due to the presence of quartz in them. It is used as stone cutter, glass cutter and in ornaments.

Question 12.
What is mica?
Answer:
Mica is lustrous, smooth, flaky and brittle in nature. It may be of the 1 , hite Muscovite or black Biotite varieties. Its presence gives granite its luster. Mica is a conductor of heat and electricity. It is used in preparing electrical goods.

Question 13.
What is shale?
Answer:
It is a sedimentary rock rich in clay. It is blackish grey in colour. Thin layers are seen in it. It is soft snd brittle rock. This rock is widely used in making roof-tiles of buildings.

Long Questions & Answers : (3 marks for each question)

Question 1.
Write a short note on Igneous Rock.
Answer:
It is also known as Primary rocks as these were the first rocks to originate on earth. This is also called primary rock. According to origin igneous rock is of two types Intrusive and Extrusive igneous rocks. Extrusive igneous rocks are generally fine grained besause lava after coming over the surfsce, is quickly cooled and solidified e.g-basalt, obsedian. When the rising magma foes not reach the earth’s surface, butis cooled and solidified below the surface of the earth, it is called intrusive igneous rock e.g-granite, dolerite.

Question 2.
Write a short note on sedimentary rock.
Answer:
Sediments and debris derived from the source through erosion snd transportation by natural agents of erosion like river, glacier, wind, sea waves are deposited under the water. Thus this types of rocks are called sedimentary rocks. Chalk, sandstone, mudstone are the example of sedimentary rocks. Layer and mud cracks are found in this rocks. Fossils are found in this rocks. These rocks are porous and also fragile. This type of rocks are highly permeable. Different sedimentary rocks have different degree of erosion resistant capacity. Sedimentary rock is the store house of coal, petroleum and natural gas. On the basis of composition sedimentary rocks are classifed into three groups i) mechanically formed sedimentary rocks, ii) Chemically formed sedimentary rocks, iii) Organically formed sedimentary rocks. Sedimentary are also classified according to the origin. Those are : i) Clastic rocks. ii) Non-clastic rocks.

Question 3.
Write a short note on metamorphic rock.
Answer:
Metamorphic rocks are formed by changing the physical and chemical characters of igneous and sedimentary rocks due to influence of great heat and pressure.
Metamorphic rocks may be crystalline. When an igneous change into metamorphic rocks, it is smoother, more lustrous and more crystalline. When a sedimentary rocks changes into metamorphic rocks it becomes less brittle. Besides, great heat and pressure erase out the fossils in a sedimentary rocks during metamorphism. Marble, slate are common metamorphic rocks.

Question 4.
What is rock cycle? Explain.
Answer:
The magma of asthenosphere comes out on the earth surface after eruption and flows of lava. Then cools to form igneous rock, or cools and solidify in the earth chamber to form igneous rocks. In due course of time the igneous rocks get eroded and accumulate under the sea, lake, ocean. After a long period of time this sediment changes this sedimentary rocks then this igneous rocks or sedimentary rocks change into metamorphic rock due to great heat, pressure or chemical reaction. Later for tiectonic movement the rocks may be brough back to interior of this earth where they melt and recycle as magma. Origin of rocks andtheir transformations and metamorphosis goes on in a cycle. The complete recycle process of formation of rocks and there change from one type to other is called the rock cycle.

Question 5.
What is the influence of mineral in soil?
Answer:
The influence of mineráls in nature is very distinct. The surface of the soil rich in iron and bauxite is very hard and red in colour. On the other hand soil, rich in Zypsum is soft and yellow in colour. Soil, rich in soft calcite, is erosion-prone. The places, where the mineral oil is found, are made up of porous, permiable sedimentary rocks. The soil with exclusive miniral is not fit for agriculture.

Question 6.
Write about formation of soil from rocks.
Answer:
For the action of different natural agents like river, wind, rainfall, ocean current, glacier current, the rock forming minerals are eroded and exist as the rock particle which mixes with water, air and different organic matter later and forms soil. The soil made up of basalt rock is black and is found in the Decan plateau region of India. The sandy soil is form in this that region with sandstone.

The colour of the soil is light, yellowish to grayish brown. The soil is not fit for agriculture. Sandy oil is found in the desertic region Rajasthan. In alluvial soil grains of the minerals are very fine. This type of soil is very fit for agriculture. The soil of North Indian plain is some in nature. The soil which is enrich with iron and Aluminium oxide excessively is called Laterite soil. This type of soil is not fertile. Laterite soil is found in Chota Nagpur and Meghalaya plateaus. Saline soil is found at the sea coast. Mangrove vegetation grows in this soil. This soil is found in the Sundarban region of West Bengal.

Question 7.
What is Karst Topography?
Answer:
There are natural caves in Cherrapunji-Mawsynram. Narrow, pointed, rocky structures hang from the seiling in these caves. These are limestone caves. The lime formations hanging from the roof are called Stalactites. Sometimes similar lime formations may rise from the cave floors. They are called Stalagmites. Rising Stalagmites and drooping Stalactites may join to form limestone pillars. This typical assemblage of landform is called Krast Topography.

Question 8.
Write three characteristics of igneous rocks.
Answer:
Three characteristics of igneous rocks-
i. Joints and cracks are very common in these rocks, so these are highly permeable.
ii. Crystaline structure is found.
iii. The Colour of these rocks vary from light to dark.

Question 9.
Write three characteristics of sedimentary rocks.
Answer:
Three characteristics of sedimentary rocks-
i. Layers and mudcracks are found in this type of rocks.
ii. Different sedimentary rocks have different capacity to resist c.osion.
iii. Reserves of coal, petroleum and natural gas are found within these rocks.

Question 10.
Write three characteristics of metamorphic rocks.
Answer:
Three characteristics of metamorphic rocks-
i. Metamorphism usually hardens igneous and sedimentary rocks.
ii. Igneous rocks get smoother, morelustrous and more crystalline with metamorplifsm.
iii. Sedimentary rocks become less brittle when metamorphosed.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 8 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 2 Unstable Earth offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Question Answer – Unstable Earth

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers : (1 mark for each question)

Question 1.
J. T. Wilson introduced the word ‘Plate’ in-
i) 1965
ii) 1906
iii) 1970
iv) 1955
Answer:
i) 1965

Question 2.
Machenziae and Parker gave information on plate movement in-
i) 1967
ii) 1990
iii) 1965
iv) 1960
Answer:
ii) 1965

Question 3.
The vivid explanation of the plate tectonic theory was given by-
i) W. J. Morgan
ii) J. T. Wilson
iii) Alfred Wegener
Answer:
i) W. J. Morgan.

Question 4.
Asthenosphere lies –
i) 500-600 km below the crust
ii) 300-400 Km below the crust
iii) 200-300 kmbelow the crust
iv) 100-200 Km below the crust.
Answer:
iv) 100-200 Km.

Question 5.
Krakatua volcano has become active after-
i) 200 years
ii) 400 ycars
iii) 500 years
iv) 300 years
Answer:
i) 200 years.

Question 6.
The percentage of active volcano in the earth-
i) 10%
ii) 15%
iii) 20%
iv) 30%
Answer:
ii) 15%

Question 7.
The percentage volcanocs of the world are located in the middle of the plate on hot spot About-
i) 2%
ii) 3%
iii) 5%
iv) 8%
Answer:
iii) 5%.

Question 8.
The focus of the earthquake is located at the depth of –
i) 50-100 Km
ii) 100-150 Km
iii) 150-300 Km
iv) 200-250 Km
Answer:
i) 50-100 Km.

Question 9.
San Francisco was almost completely destroyed in a devastating earthsuake in-
i) 1910
ii) 1912
iii) 1904
iv) 1906
Answer:
1906

Question 10.
Percentage of earthquakes on the earth occur in the Pacific belt
i) 60%
ii) 70%
iii) 20%
iv) 40%
Answer:
ii) 70%.

Question 11.
Every year the powerful volcanic activities in the continental area are more than-
i) 20
ii) 10
iii) 40
iv) 50
Answer:
iv) 50.

Question 12.
The eruption of mount Pole occured in-
i) 1906
ii) 1202
iii) 1908
iv) 1905
Answer:
i) 1906.

Question 13.
Enormous loss of life and property took place due to the eruption of Mount St Helen in-
i) 1975
ii) 1980
iii) 1991
iv) 1900
Answer:
ii) 1980.

Question 14.
At the time of eruption many people die for-
i) cancer
ii) asthma
iii) suffocation
Answer:
iii) suffocation.

State whether True or False : (1 mark for each question)

1. The earth crust is made up of 18 small plate.
2. The outer mantle is located 300-400 Km. deep under the earth crust.
a. The temperature of asthenosphere is 1500° C.
4. The fold mountains are called ‘Young’.
5. The tectonic plates moved on asthenosphere.
6. popa of Mayanmar is a active volcano.
7. Primary wave is the fastest seismic wave and reaches the earth’s surface before all other waves.
8. The interior of the earth is still very hot.
9. Example of old fold mountain is Rocky.
10. Volcanism and earthquake are examples of sudden earth novements.
Answer:
1. false
2. false
3. true
4. true
5 true.
6. false
7. true
8. true
9. false
10. true.

Fill in the blanks : (1 mark for each question)

1. The temperature of asthenosphere is _______.
2. ______ is the deepest trench of the earth.
3. The divergent plate margin is called _______ plate margin.
4. The mountains are formed more than ______ years ago.
5. When the magma flows on the earth crust it is called ______.
6. The mountains like Himalaya Alps are formed ______ lack years ago.
7. ______ of earth is active volcano.
8. _______ is an alternative source of energy.
9. The epicentre of earthquake is ______ km deep.
10. In year ______ earth quake occur in
11. In 1906 the magnitude of the earthquake was _______.
12. ______ city was destructed in earthquake.
13. Earthquake takes place in earth at _________.
14. _____people had lost their life in Tsunami.
15. Damage and destruction was caused in ______ countries of South-East Asia.
16. On 26th January 2001 in _______ of Gujarat almost one lakh people lost their lives for severe earthquake.
17. Sudden of ______ earth the houses are broken.
18. Most of the active _______surround Pacific ocean as a ring.
19. The ring of earthquake in India is generally _________.
20. The magnitude of earthquake is measured by _________.
21. From the epicentre of the earthquake two types of wave spread out along the _____
22. Almost each and every ______ is earthquake prone.
23. Most of the focus of the earth quake located at the depth of _______ km.
24. ________ of N.ars is the highest voleanoes of the solar system.
25. A type of dense viscous lava comes out from the volcanoes of Indonesia which is known as _____ in Hawaiean language.
Answer:
1. 1500° C
2. Mariana
3. constructive
4. 3 – 4 millions of years
5. lava
6. 40
7. 15% Neutron
8. Geothermal energy
9. 50-100
10. 1955 kolce of Japan
11. 8.5
12. Sunfrancisco
13. 20%
14. 36000
15. 111
16. Bhuj
17. temor
18. Volcanoes
19. Himalaya mountain region
20. Seismograph
21. earth crust
22. margin of the plate
23. 50-100
24. Olympus Mars.
25. Aa.

Match the column A with column B.

Columu A	Column B
a. There are 6 major	i. at a rate of 10 cm/year
b. The earth’s crust is made of	ii. occur in Pacific Ring of Fire
c. Sometimes two plates move towards	iii. and 20 minor plates
d. Pacific Ocean plate is moving	iv. cannot be forecasted
e. The interior of the earth	v. due to an earthquake
f. 70 percent of all earthquake on the earth	vi. each other and collide
g. Unlike other natural disasters, an eartquake	vii. a few rigid and solid plates
h. Sometimes coastal land may be submerged	viii. is still very hot

Answer:
a) There are 6 major and 20 minor plates.
b) The earth’s crust is made of a few rigid and solid plates.
c) Sometimes two plates move towards each other and collide.
d) Pacific Ocean plate is moving at a rate of 10 cm / year.
e) The interior of the earth is still very hot.
f) 70 percent of all earthquake on the earth occur in Pacific Ring of Fire.
g) Unlike other natural disasters an eartquake cannot be forecasted.
h) Sometimes coastal land may be submerged due to an earthquake.

Very Short Questions & Answers : (1 mark for each question)

Question 1.
Which scientist introduced the term ‘Plate’?
Answer:
In 1960 Canadian geophysicist – J. T. Wilson introduced the term ‘Plate’.

Question 2.
Who gave information on plate movement?
Ans:
In 1967 Mekensil and Parker gave information on Plate movement.

Question 3.
Who gave vivid explanation of the Plate tectonic theory?
Answer:
In 1967 W. J. Morgan and Le Pichon gave vivid explanation of the plate tectonic theory.

Question 4.
What is the deepest trench of the world? In which ocean does it lie?
Answer:
The deepest trench in the world is Mariana trench. It lies in Pacific ocean.

Question 5.
How is Alps mountain formed?
Four in one (viii)-24
Answer:
Alps mountain is formed when African and Eurasian plates converged to each other.

Question 6.
Name the main fold mountain of the world.
Answer:
Most of the fold mountains of the world have formed for convergence of the continental plates. These are Applachian Ural Aravalli etc

Question 7.
What is Volcanic mountain?
Answer:
The mountains those are formed by deposition of volcanic material is called volcanic mountain. Example-Fujiyama of Japan.

Question 8.
When did the volcanism start?
Answer:
Volcanism started millions of years ago?

Question 9.
In which countries volcanism have occured?
Answer:
Volcanism have occured in Japan Italy India Indonesia etc.

Question 10.
How is the ‘process affecting earth’s crust’ is classified?
Answer:
The process affecting earth’s crust is classified into the types – (i) Endogenetic process (ii) Exogenetic process.

Question 11.
What is lava?
Answer:
The melted viscous substance of the earth’s interior is called magma and when it comes out on the earth surface it is called lava.

Question 12.
Which is the highest volcano of the solar system?
Answer:
Olympus Mons of the Mars is the highest (27 Km) volcano of the solar system.

Question 13.
What percent volcano on the earth is active?
Answer:
15% volcanoes on the earth is active.

Question 14.
What is earthquake?
Answer:
When energy trapped in the blastic interior of the earth is suddenly released the earth crust experience temors which is called earthquake.

Question 15.
In which year devastating earthquake occured?
Ans:
Devastating earthquake occured in 2004 300000 lives were lost and enormous damage causc d over 11 countries in south east Asia.

Question 16.
What is Seismograph?
Answer:
A Seisomograph is the instrument measuring the magnitude of an earthquake.

Question 17.
In which year earthquake occured in Chili?
Answer:
In 1960 earthquake occured in Chili.

Question 18.
What was the level of the scale of the earthquake of Chili??
Answer:
The level of the level of the scale was 8.5.

Question 19.
At what percent the earthquakes occur in the Mid Continental Belt?
Answer:
20% earthquakes occur in the Mid Continental Belt.

Question 20.
Name the volcanoes of ‘Pacific Ring of Fire’?
Answer:
The volcanoes of Pacific Ring of Fire are Fujiyama (Japan) Pinatubo (Philippines), Krakatau (Indonesia) St. Helen (USA) Popocate peti (Maxico) Cotopaxi (Equador) ete.

Question 21.
What is the similarity between volcanism and earthquake?
Answer:
Volcanism and earthquake are both sudden manifestations of endogenetic forces.

Question 22.
What contribute to an area being more prone to disasters?
Answer:
Worldwide increase of population unplanned urbanization construction of heavy multistoried buildings roads dams and reserviors and illegitimate mining – all contribute to an area being more prone to disasters.

Question 23.
How can earthquake form natural harbour?
Answer:
Due to earthquake sometimes coastal land may be submerged due to an earthquake thereby forming an natural harbour.

Question 24.
Give an example where mud island emerged from under the water due to earthquake.
Answer:
A ‘mud island’ has emerged from under the water off the Karachi coast.

Long Questions & Answers : (3 marks for each question)

Question 1.
Write a short note on voleanism.
Answer:
From the time of the creation of the earth the volcanic erruption is occuring for millions of years. At the time of volcanic erruption the hot matter materials ash gases etc comes out from the openings of the earth. After frequent erraption lava is accumulated around the mouth of the volcano forming a cone shaped mountain. This type of mountain is called volcanic mountain as it is formed by deposition of the volcanic material. For example – Fujiyama of Japan Vesuvious of Italy Barren of India Krakatoa of Indonesia. In different geological time the temperature of earth’s atmosphere has been controlled by the process of volcanisation and finally has reached present favourable condition.

Question 2.
How volcanism takse place?
Answer:
The interior of the earth is still extremely hot. Naturallyb rocks are supposed to melt in 2000° C temperature at mantle. But for the extreme pressure of the upper layer the melting point is increased. Thus the rocks melts partly become slipping and flows like plastic. In some part of outer mantle the rocks melts completely. The density of the melted rock is lower. It is lighter than other partially melted rocks of the surrounding. The pressure and the melting point of magma decreases proportionally with the rising upward of magma. The liquid portion of magma turns into gas and water vapours under extreme pressure. Then the magma comes out to the earth’s surface through the opening of earth crust.

Question 3.
How is the earth quake formed?
Answer:
Almost all plate margin in the earth are highly earthquake prone and so all the volcanoes and the centres of earthquake are lie at same place. Besides natural causes like tectonic slides earthquake can also occurs from artificial or non natural causes like digging of underground pits mines and tannels construction of reservoirs and bomb explosion.

Question 4.
What is Contiuental Drift Theory?
Answer:
According to the continental Drift Theory of Alfred Wegener-about 300 million years ago all the present day landmasses were united as a supercontinunt called pangea. Later on it began to break apart and the pieces direted in different directions. Actually the continental crust was floating over oceanic crust. But the Continental Drift Theory could not fully explain the causes of earthquake or formation of oceans countries and mountains volcanism.

Question 5.
What is the divergent plate margła?
Answer:
When two oceanic plates move away from each other hot molton magma comes upward from the earth’s interior and new oceanic crust and mid oceanic ridges are formed from the hot molten magma after getting cooled and solidified. This is called divergent plate margin.

Question 6.
What is Mariana trench?
Answer:
For the moving towards of each other of continental and oceanic plate heavy oceanic plate get submerged under the continental plate. As the result deep oceanic trench is developed in this way. Mariana trench of the Pacific is the deepest trench of the world.

Question 7.
What is divastating plate margin?
Answer:
When the molten materials come out from the interior along the plate margins several volcanoes and volcanic islands are formed along the subduction plate margin. As the earth quake and earth movements are the regular phenomena in this areas of the crust. This type of plate margin is called divastating plate margin.

Question 8.
What is Seismic waves?
Answer:
Energy generated by an eartinquake spreads out in the form of waves from the focus and the epicenter to other parts of the earth just like the radial surge of waves after a stone is dropped on water. These waves are called Seismic waves.

Question 9.
Classify the Seismic waves?
Answer:
Seismic waves are of three types.
a) Primary wave : It is the fastest seismic wave (6 Km / sec) and reaches the earth’s surface before all other waves. This wave travels through solid liquid and gaseous media through a push and pull process.
b) Secondary wave : It reaches the earth’s surface immediately after the primary wave (3-5 Km . sec ). This wave can not travel through liquid and gaseous media. It travels only through solids.
c) Surface waves or level waves: Two types of this wave (3-4 Km / sec) spread out from the epicenter of the earthquake along the eart’s surface. These waves are responsible for most of the damages caused by eartquakes.

WBBSE Class 7 History Question Answer West Bengal Board

WBBSE Class 7 History Book Solutions West Bengal Board in English Medium

• Chapter 1 The Idea of History
• Chapter 2 Some Aspects of Indian Political History: A.D. 7th Century to 12th Century
• Chapter 3 Some Aspects of Indian Society, Economy and Culture: A.D. 7th Century to 12th Century
• Chapter 4 The Delhi Sultanate: Turko-Afgan Rule
• Chapter 5 The Mughal Empire
• Chapter 6 Towns, Traders and Trade
• Chapter 7 Lifestyle and Culture: Sultanate & Mughal Era
• Chapter 8 The Crisis of the Mughal Empire
• Chapter 9 India Today: Government, Democracy and Self Governance

WBBSE Class 7 History Book Solutions West Bengal Board in Hindi Medium

• Chapter 1 इतिहास की अवधारणा
• Chapter 2 भारतीय राजनैतिक इतिहास की विभिन्न धाराएँ (700-1200)
• Chapter 3 भारतीय समाज, अर्थनीति एवं संस्कृति की विभिन्न धाराएँ (700-1200 ई०)
• Chapter 4 दिल्ली सल्तनत तुर्की अफगान शासन
• Chapter 5 मुगल साम्राज्य
• Chapter 6 नगर, व्यापारी और व्यवसाय
• Chapter 7 जीवन यात्रा और संस्कृति सल्तनत और मुगल काल
• Chapter 8 मुगल साम्राज्य का संकट
• Chapter 9 सरकार, गणतंत्र और स्वायत्त शासन

WBBSE Class 7 Solutions

WBBSE Class 8 History Question Answer West Bengal Board

WBBSE Class 8 History Book Solutions West Bengal Board in English Medium

• Chapter 1 The Idea of History
• Chapter 2 Rise of Regional Powers
• Chapter 3 Establishing the Colonial Authority
• Chapter 4 The Nature of Colonial Economy
• Chapter 5 Reaction of Colonial Rule: Co-operation and Revolt
• Chapter 6 The Beginning of Nationalism
• Chapter 7 Nationalist Ideals and Their Evolution
• Chapter 8 From Communalism to the Partition
• Chapter 9 Constitution of India: Democratic Structure and Citizen’s Rights

WBBSE Class 8 History Book Solutions West Bengal Board in Hindi Medium

• Chapter 1 इतिहास परिचय
• Chapter 2 प्रादेशिक शक्तियों का उत्थान
• Chapter 3 औपनिवेशिक सत्ता की प्रतिष्ठा
• Chapter 4 औपनिवेशिक अर्थनीति का स्वरूप
• Chapter 5 औपनिवेशिक शासन का प्रभाव, सहयोग और विद्रोह
• Chapter 6 राष्ट्रीयतावाद का प्रारंभिक विकास
• Chapter 7 भारत के राष्ट्रीय आंदोलन का आदर्श और परिवर्तन
• Chapter 8 साम्प्रदायिकता के कारण देश का विभाजन
• Chapter 9 भारत का संविधान गणतंत्र की रूपरेखा और नागरिकों के अधिकार

WBBSE Class 8 Solutions

WBBSE Class 7 Geography Question Answer West Bengal Board

WBBSE Class 7 Geography Book Solutions West Bengal Board in English Medium

• Chapter 1 Earth’s Revolution
• Chapter 2 Determination of the Location of a Place on the Earth’s Surface
• Chapter 3 Air Pressure
• Chapter 4 Landforms
• Chapter 5 River
• Chapter 6 Rock and Soil
• Chapter 7 Water Pollution
• Chapter 8 Soil Pollution
• Chapter 9 Continent of Asia
• Chapter 10 Continent of Africa
• Chapter 11 Continent of Europe

WBBSE Class 7 Geography Book Solutions West Bengal Board in Hindi Medium

• Chapter 1 पृथ्वी की गति
• Chapter 2 धरातल पर किसी स्थान की स्थिति का निर्धारण
• Chapter 3 वायु दबाव
• Chapter 4 भू-आकृति
• Chapter 5 नदी
• Chapter 6 चट्टान और मिट्टी
• Chapter 7 जल प्रदूषण
• Chapter 8 मिट्टी प्रदूषण
• Chapter 9 एशिया महादेश
• Chapter 10 अफ्रीका महादेश
• Chapter 11 यूरोप महादेश

WBBSE Class 7 Solutions

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 8 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 1 Interior of the Earth offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Question Answer – Interior of the Earth

Textbook Page no. 1

Question 1.
What lies underneath the hard surface on which we stand?
Answer:
There are different things lies underneath the hard surface. They are gold mine, coal mine, hat spring volcanoes etc.

Question 2.
Has anybody ever seen the interior of the earth?
Answer:
It is not possible to see the interior of the carth. But we can somehow feel the warm water of hot spring, gold mine. coal mine and from that we can estitaate a bit what may be in the interior of the earth.

Question 3.
How much one has to dig up to see the centre of the earth?
Answer:
One has to dig up 6370 km to see the centre of the earth.

Question 4.
How far has it be possible to know the interior of the earth?
Answer:
It has become possible to guess how is the interior of the earth.

Question 5.
Why does density vary in different layers of the interior of the earth?
Answer:
The density of substances that lie near the centre more. At the time of the creation of the earth more dense and hot substances accumulate near the centre of the earth due to the gravitational force. Specially iron and nickel rotate around the centre of the earth. Comperatively lighter substances like aluminium and silicon come upword. Generally more we go near the centre of the earth more we feel the pressure extended by the materials. So as the pressure increases the density also increased. Thus the density varies in different layers of the interior of the earth.

Textbook Page no. 2

Question 1.
Why can we not go near the centre of the earth?
Answer:
It is not possible to dig up 6370 km to go near thic centre of the earth !

Question 2.
Why couid we not collect any information directly about the earth’s interior?
Answer:
We can not enter in the earth’s interior easily. So it is not possible to collect information about earth’s interior directly.

Textbook Page no. 6

Question 1.
Explain the convection current in asthenosphere with the help of simple experiment.
Answer:
The layer of asthenosphere is very weak. Substances of this layer are molten and soft in nature. Due to exsessive heat and pressure the rocks are here in a state of viscosity-just like melted asphalt or molasses. Comperatively light materials come upwards when heated geothermally, and allow the heavier one to go downward. Thus the convection current occurs in asthenosphere.

Question 2.
what is the difference between magma and lava?
Answer:
Magma: Magma is the melted and liquid form of mixture of gas and vapour due to excessive pressure and temperature of earth chamber.
Lava: Lava is the loot molten semiliquid magma that comes out through the opening of earth surface.

Question 3.
You have an idea about the exterior and interior of the earth Which one attracts you more and why?
Answer:
I like the exterior of the carth as it is possible to be observed and analyzed.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Question Answer West Bengal Board – Interior of the Earth

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers : (1 mark for each question).

Question 1.
The core of the earth is almost-
i) 3500 km
ii) 5300 km
iii) 6300 km
ii) 3700 km
Answer:
i) 3500 km.

Question 2.
The average temperature of core is almost-
i) 3000°C
ii) 4060°C
iii) 5000°C
iv) 6000°C
Answer:
iii) 5000°C.

Question 3.
In between 30-700 km of the mantle is known as-
i) nifesima
ii) crofesima
iii) outer core
iv) inner core
Answer:
ii) crofesima

Question 4.
Concard discontinuity is lying-
i) above SIAL
ii) below SIM
iii) between SIAL and SIMA
iv) below SIAL
Answer:
iii) between SIAI, and SIMA

Question 5.
The temperature of mantle is-
i) 1000°-2000°
ii) 3000°-4000°C
iii) ii) 4000°-5000° C
iv) 2000°-3000°
Answer:
iv) 2000°-3000°C.

Question 6.
The upper layer of the earth’s crust is-
i) SIMA .
ii) SIAL
Answer:
ii) SIAL.

Question 7.
The outer most part of the earth is very-
i) thick
ii) thin
Answer:
ii) thin.

Question 8.
Greater part of the earth consists of –
i) Hydrogen
ii) Oxygen
ii) Nitrogen
Answer:
ii) Oxygen.

Question 9.
The density of the matter near the centre of the earth is-
i) more
ii) less
Answer:
i) more

Question 10.
The earth originated almost-
i) 640 crore years ago
ii) 540 crore years ago
iii) 460 crore years ago
Answer:
iii) 460 crore years ago

State wliether True or False : (1 mark for each question)

1. It is an casy task to collect information of earth’s interior.
2. Temperature in carth’s interior increases at the rate of abott 10°C / 33 meters depth.
3. Regarding to the earth’s depth 12 km depth is negligible..
4. Lava comes out through the hot spring.
5. There is a pool of fire in the interior of the carth.
6. Sometimes there are severe treamous due to tremendous cyclone.
7. There are few countries where the electricity is generated from geothermal energy.
8. The volume of the matter increases with the increasing of the temperature.
9. SIAL lies above SIMA or oceanic crust.
10. Conrad discontiunity is lying in between SIAL and SIMA.
11. Greater part of the earth crust consists of Silicon.
12. The rocks of the earth crust is rich in minerals.
13. 47% of earth crust is covered with oxygen.
14. Scientists have found only two layers in the earth interior.
15. Mantle lies below the crust.
Answer:
1. false
2. false
3. true
4. false
5. true
6. false
7. false
8. true
9. true
10. true
11. false
12. true
13. true
14. fale
15. true.

Fill in the blanks : (1 mark for each question)

1. The earth’s _______ is divided into layers.
2. Scientist have collected information regarding earth’s interior by matching the movement of the _______ .
3. _______ discontinuity line lies in between mantle and core.
4. The _______ encircles the inner core.
5. The two layers composed of different elements and varied density determind by _______.
6. _______ is lying in between SIAL and SIMA.
7. The radius of the earth is _______ km.
8. The distance between earth-surface and the _______ is 6370 km.
9. World’s decpest gold mine located in _______ Africa is only 3-4 km deep.
10. Sometime the earth shakes for tremendous _______ .
11. The earth has been created almost _______ years ago.
12. Hot semi-liquid comes out through the mouth of _______ .
13. Hot spring is found at _______ in West Bengal.
14. _______ is one type of energy.
15. In many countries of the world _______ is genereted from heat energy.
16. _______ lulfils their 30% demand of electircity from geothermal energy.
17. The _______ generates more electricity from geothermal energy in the world.
18. The using of _______ can be reduced by using thermal energy to produce electricity.
19. The average density of the matter is _______ gram / cubic cm near the centre of the earth.
20. In respect of _______ satellites average density of the earth is 5.5 gram / cubic c m.
21. Theof _______ the matter near the centre of the earth is more.
22. _______ matter always precipitates underneath.
23. Light matters _______ upwards.
24. During the origin of the earth the very hot and denser matters move towards the earth’s centre due to _______ pull.
25. Especially ________ and Nickel start rotating the centre of the earth.
26. In general to pressure of _______ increases with the increase of depth towards earth’s interior.
27. Earth’s _____ is divided into layers of varied densities and characteristics.
28. Scientists have collected information regarding earth’s interior by watching the movement of the seismic ______.
29. The average depth of the carth’s crust is ____ km below the occeans and _____ km beneath the continents.
30. _______ lies over the SIMA or ocennic crust.
31. _______ of the crust are rich in various minerals.
32. _______ lies at the top of the crust.
Answer:
1. interior
2. seismic waves
3. gutenberg
4. Outer core
5. discontinuity line
6) Conrad discontiunity
7. 6700 km
8. core
9. South
10. earth quake
11. 460
12. Volcano
13. Bakreswar
14. Geo-thermal heat
15. electricity
16. Iceland
17, United States of America
18. fossil fuel
19. 11
20. artificial
21. density
22. Heavy
23. float
24. gravitational
25. iron
26. matters
27. interior
28. waves
29. 5 km and 60 km
30. SIAL
31. Rocks
32. Sail.

Match the following : (1 mark for each question)

a) Match the column A with column B.

Column A	Column B
a) Moho lies between	i) into layers like an onion
b) Uppermost layer is compared	ii) out of the carth’s interior
c) Conrad discontinuity	iii) near the surface
d) Earth’s interior is divided	iv) $5100 \mathrm{~km}$ to $6370 \mathrm{~km}$ deep
e) In hot springs boiling water emerges	v) the crust aud the mantle
f) Lighter elements float upward	vi) is between SIAL and SIMA
g) The inner core is nearly	vii) axis of the earth in semi-solid state
h) The outer core rotates around the	viii) with the skin of sn apple

Answer:
a) Moho lies between the crust and the mantle.
b) Uppermost layer is compared with the skin of sn apple.
c) Conrad discontinuity is between SIAL and SIMA.
d) Earth’s interior is divided into layers like an onion.
e) In hot springs boiling water emerges out of the earth’s interior.
f) Lighter elements float upward near the surface.
g) The inner core is nearly 5100 km to 6370 km deep.
h) The outer core rotates around the axis of the earth in semi-solid state.

Very Short Questions & Answers : (1 mark for each question)

Question 1.
What is the radius of the earth?
Answer:
The radius of the earth is 6370 km.

Question 2.
What is the distance between the surface and the core of the earth?
Answer:
6370 km. is the distance between the surface and the core of the earth.

Question 3.
What is the depth of the deepest mine of the world?
Answer:
The depth of the deepest mine of the world 3-4 km.

Question 4.
What is the rate of increasing temperature in the earth’s interior?
Answer:
The temperature in the earth’s interior increases at the rate of about 1°C / 33 meters depth,

Question 5.
Which is the artificial deepest hole of the world?
Answer:
The artificial deepest hole of the world is the hole in kala peninsula of north western Russia measuring a depth of 12 km.

Question 6.
What comes out from the hot spring?
Answer:
Hot water comes out from the hot spring.

Question 7.
What comes out form the mouth of the volcanoes?
Answer:
Hot molten semi-liquid lava comes out from the mouth of the volcano.

Question 8.
When was the earth created?
Answer:
The earth was created almost 460 crore years ago.

Question 9.
What sappens to the matter if the temperature is increased?
Answer:
On heating the solid matter converts into liquid and expands in volume.

Question 10.
Where in the earth the temperature and the pressure both are excessive?
Answer:
in the interior of the earth.

Question 11.
Where in West Bengal hot spring is situated?
Answer:
Hot spring is situated at Bakreswar of West Bengal.

Question 12.
What is called this type of water?
Answer:
This type of water is called ground water.

Question 13.
What is geo-thermal heat?
Answer:
Geo-thermal heat is one type of energy.

Question 14.
What can be generate from geo-thermal energy?
Answer:
Electricity can be generated from geo-thermal energy.

Question 15.
What percent of the demand of electricity is fulfilled from geo-thermal energy in Ireland?
Answer:
Almost 30%.

Question 16.
Which country of the world uses most amount of geo-thermal energy to generate electricity?
Answer:
The United States of America.

Question 17.
The use of which substance can be reduced by generating electricity by using geo-thermal energy?
Answer:
The use of fossil fuel can be reduced.

Question 18.
What is the average density of earth crust?
Answer:
Only 2.6 to 3.3 gram / cubic cm.

Question 19.
What is the average density of matter near the centre of the earth?
it Answer: Almost 11 gram / cubic cm.

Question 20.
What is the average density of earth in respect of artificial satellites?
Answer:
5.5 gram / cubic cm.

Question 21.
Which wave can not pass through liquid or semi liquid medium?
Answer:
S wave can not pass through liquid or semi liquid medium.

Question 22.
What is increased with the increasing of pressure on the matter?
Answer:
Density increases.

Question 23.
Which layer of earth is present just below the earth crust?
Answer:
Mantle is present just below the earth crust.

Question 24.
Who wrote the famous science fiction of earth?
Answer:
Jule Verne.

Question 25.
Where is the layer SIMA situated?
Answer:
SIMA situated beneath the ocean.

Question 26.
What does SIMA consist of ?
Answer:
The layer SIMA consists of Silicon (Si) and Magnesium (Mg).

Question 27.
What the SIMA made up of?
Answer:
It is made up of basalt like ignious rock.

Question 28.
Where is the layer SIAL situated?
Answer:
SIAL is situated above SIMA.

Question 29.
What is the uppermost layer of the eartherust?
Answer:
The uppermost layer of the earthcrust is Soil.

Question 30.
Which gas is present covering most of the part of earth crust?
Answer:
Oxygen.

Question 31.
What is the second element of earth crust?
Answer:
Silicon is the second element of earth crust.

Question 32.
Which line seperates the two different elements and density layers?
Answer:
Discontinuity line.

Question 33.
Which line presents in between SIAL and SIMA?
Answer:
conrad discontinuity.

Question 34.
What is the temperature of mantle?
Answer:
2000°-3000°C.

Question 35.
W ist are the tnain elements of mantle?
Answer:
Nickel Ctromium, Magnesium and Silicon.

Question 36.
What is the meaning of the word asthenosphere?
Answer:
weaker layer.

Question 37.
How thick is the core?
Answer:
The core is 3500 km. thick.

Question 38.
What is the average temperature of the core?
Answer:
Almost 5600°C.

Question 39.
What is the density of core?
Answer:
Almost 9.1 to 13.1 gram / cubic cm.

Question 40.
What is the depth of inner core?
Answer:
5100 km to almost 6370 km.

Question 41.
What is the depth of outer core?
Answer:
2900 km to almost 5100 km.

Question 42.
Which line present between the mantle and the core?
Answer:
Gutenberg discontinuity.

Short Questions & Answers : (2 marks for each question)

Question 1.
What is magma?
Answer:
Due to enormous pressure and temperature the substances of the earth’s interior remain liquid, being mixed with gas and vapour is called magma.

Question 2.
What is lava?
Answer:
When hot molten magma of the earth’s interior, comes out through the cracks and joints on the earth’s surface, it is called lava.

Question 3.
In what state the mattrers remain if the pressure and temperature both are excessive in the interior of the earth?
Answer:
If the temperature in the interior of the earth increases the matter melts into liquid and expands in volume. On the other hand with the increasing of the pressure the volume decreases.

Question 4.
What is Geo-thermal energy?
Answer:
Geo-thermal heat is one type of energy. The heat of the earth gradually transferred to the earth crust. This heat is ealled Geo-thermal energy.

Question 5.
What is density?
Answer:
Density is the measure of mass present in unit voiume of substance.

Question 6.
What is the Earth core?
Answer:
The innermost layer of the carth lies encircles the centre of the earth is known as the Earth core.

Question 7.
What is a NIFE?
Answer:
The layer of the mantle that made up of Nickel and Ferrum is known as NIFE.

Question 8.
How is the Earth core divided?
Answer:
The Earth core is divided into two parts (i) inner core and (ii) outer core.

Long Questions & Answers : (3 marks for each question)

Question 1.
What is Seismic waves?
Answer:
The scientists have collect information about the earth interior by watching the movement of the seismic wave. The seismic wave passes through different substances. Sometimes it is rapid sometimes it is slow. There are two types of waves. One is P and another is S. P wave can pass through either solid or liquid. But S wave can not pass through liquid or semi-liquid materials.

Question 2.
What do you know by the term ‘Inner core’?
Answer:
The layer of earth lies surrounding the centre of the earth is known as inner core; the depth of the layer is about 5100 km to 6370 km. This layer has the maximum amount of pressure, temperature and density. Due to very high pressure all the substances remain here in solid state.

Question 3.
What is the ‘Outer core’?
Answer:
The layer that encles the inner core is called the Outer core. The depth of the outer core is 2900 km to 5100 km. Pressure, temperature and density is comparatively lesser than inner core. It rotates around the axis of the earth in semi-liquid state. Being in a viscous state the ferrum in the layer develops an electro-magnetic field for very high velocity from which the magnetism of the earth is formed.

Question 4.
What is the ‘mantle’?
Answer:
Below the crust there is mantle. The temperature of the mantle is 2000,3009°C. Density is 3.4 to 5.6 gram / cube cm. The main elements of the layer are iron, silicon, chromium, nickel and magnesium.

WBBSE Class 8 Geography Question Answer West Bengal Board

WBBSE Class 8 Geography Book Solutions West Bengal Board in English Medium

• Chapter 1 Interior of the Earth
• Chapter 2 Unstable Earth
• Chapter 3 Rocks
• Chapter 4 Pressure Belts and Winds
• Chapter 5 Cloud and Rain
• Chapter 6 Climatic Regions
• Chapter 7 Human Activities and Environmental Degradation
• Chapter 8 Some Neighbouring Countries of India and Its Relationship with Them
• Chapter 9 North America
• Chapter 10 South America
• Chapter 11 Oceania

WBBSE Class 8 Geography Book Solutions West Bengal Board in Hindi Medium

• Chapter 1 पृथ्वी का आंतरिक भाग
• Chapter 2 परिवर्तनशील पृथ्वी
• Chapter 3 चट्टान
• Chapter 4 चापवलय और वायु प्रवाह
• Chapter 5 मेघ – वर्षा
• Chapter 6 जलवायु क्षेत्र
• Chapter 7 मनुष्य के कार्य-व्यापार एवं परिवेश का ह्रास
• Chapter 8 भारत के पड़ोसी देश और उनके साथ संबंध
• Chapter 9 उत्तरी अमेरिका
• Chapter 10 दक्षिणी अमेरिका
• Chapter 11 ओशोनिया

WBBSE Class 8 Solutions

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Life Science Book Solutions Chapter 5D Biodiversity and Conservation offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 5D Question Answer – Biodiversity and Conservation

Short Snswer Type Questions : 2 Marks

Question 1.
What are the objectives of conservation.
Answer:
The objective behind conservation of living resources are as follows :

1. To maintain essential ecological processes and life supporting system.
2. To preserve the diversity of species or the range of genetic material found in the world’s organisms.
3. To ensure sustainable utilisation of species and ecosystems which support millions of rural communities as well as major industries.

Question 2.
How are forests useful for the protection of wall?
Answer:
Forests protect land by :

1. preventing soil erosion by wind and water and
2. by checking the velocity of wind or raindrops striking the ground and reducing dislodging of the soil particles.
3. The root systems firmly hold the soil.

Question 3.
State the role of forest in retaining sub-soil water.
Answer:
Role of forests in retaining sub-soil water :
(i) Forests add humus to soil which absorbs water during rains. It does not allow it to evaporate or run of quickly.

Question 4.
What steps are required for conservation of forest.
Answer:
Steps for conservation of forests :

1. Discourage the use of firewood, by providing alternative sources of energy like biogas etc.
2. Limit felling of trees for timber, combined with tree plantation.
3. Adopting modern forest management practices like optimization of silviculture, use of irrigation, fertilizers, bacterial and mycorrhizal inoculation, control of weeds, breeding of new varities and use of biotechnology.

Question 5.
Distinguish between the following :
Answer:

Question 6.
What is biodiversity?
Answer:
The variety of living organisms in an ecosystem is called biodiversity. The exact number of species in the world is not known. The taxonomists have described about 1.4 million species. But taxonomists estimate that there are 4 to 31 million more species. Much of these species are unnoticed.

Question 7.
What is MAB?
Answer:
Man and biosphere programme is an international biological programme of UNESCO (United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation) which was started in 1971 but was introduced in India in 1986. MAB has studied human environment, impact of human interference and pollution on biotic and abotic environment and conservation strategies for the present as well as future.

Question 8.
What do you mean by hotspots of biodiversity?
Answer:
The concept of hotspots was developed by Norman Myers in 1988. These areas are rich in species diversity with high endemism and priority areas for in situ conservation because these areas are under constant threat. Endemism is the situation where particular species confined to a particular area and not found anywhere else. The key criteria for determining a hot spot are
(i) Number of endemic species.
(ii) Degree of threat which is measured in terms of habitat loss.

Question 9.
Name the hotspots present in the Indian territory?
Answer:
There are four hotspots in India.

1. East Himalaya : India’s Hotspot -1
2. Indo-Burma : India’s Hotspot -2
3. Western Ghats and Sri lanka : India’s Hotspot -3
4. Sundaland : India’s Hotspot -4

Question 10.
Write about the causes of destruction of biodiversity?
Answer:
Causes of destruction of biodiversity :
The biodiversity is threatened all over the world. Acid rain, pollution, urban development and agriculture are present everywhere. The expanding human populations destroy the habitat. It is the main threats to biological diversity.

Humans are exploiting about 40% net primary production on the earth. They convert the natural areas into agricultural land. They destroy the native species. The loss of habitat destroys thousands of native plants and animals.

Long Answer Type Questions : 5 Marks

Question 1.
How is the preservation of wildlife important for human progress?
Answer:

1. Economic value : Provide diverse variety of food materials.
2. In argiculature : Wildlife provides variations. Using these in breeding programmes man has been able to produce high yielding and disease resistant varieties of crop plants.
3. In animal husbandry and fishery : Breeding of high yielding disease and stres resistance breeds of animals and better quality fishes has been possible by introduction and hybridization.
4. In modern medicine and surgery : Selection and development of strains of anibiotic producing microoganisms. Identification of medicines and drug producing plants like Cinchona and Rauwolfia.
5. Development of biofertilizers : Use of Nostoc, Anabaena and Azospirllium has been possible as a result of study of naturally growing microorganisms.
6. Biological control of pests and pathogens: Cactoblatis cactorum used to control growth of cacti in Australia, has been possible through identification of wildly occuring insects.

Question 2.
What are the needs for conservation?
Answer:

1. Maintenance of balance of nature
2. Economic value
3. Scientific value
4. Aesthetic value – enjoyment of the beauty of nature
5. Culural value
6. Protection of our civilization
7. Evolutionary responsibility

Question 3.
What are the strategies for conservation of wildlife?
Answer:
i. Forest fires-natural and man-made

ii. Hunting as sport e.g. disappearance of Dodo a unique bird of Mauritius and Cheetah from India.

iii. Deforestation and habitat destruction: Due to the conversion of habitat of wildlife for human settlement, crop lands, grazing grounds, plantation, mining, dams reservoirs, harbours.

iv. Introduction of exotic species: Causes competition, predation, habitat destruction, transmission of diseases, e.g. introduction of goats and rabbits in the Islands of Pacific and Indian Ocean have destroyed habitats of plants, birds and reptiles.

v. Over-exploitation of natural resources: Killing of animals for hides and skin, meat and flesh, aphrodisiacs and decoration pieces. Collection of rare plants of wild origin for pharmaceuticals, perfumes, cosmetics and for museum collections. Students inadvertently destroy rare plants and insects during excursions for collections.

Question 4.
Write the importances of biodiversity?
Answer:
Importance of the following biodiversity :

1. Forests hold back flood waters and recycle CO₂ and nutrients.
2. Insects pollinate crops and control insect pests.
3. The subterranean organisms promote soil fertility through decomposition.
4. Many of these undescribed species will provide new food crops, petroleum substitutes, new fibres and pharmaceuticals. All of these functions require large healthy populations.
5. Large populalions promote the genetic diversity.

This diversity is required for the survival of the species in the changing environment. The genetic diversity is lost forever. The zoologists are trying to save endangered species. But they are able to save only a tiny portion of genetic pool.

Question 5.
What are the causes for the extinction of wildlife?
Answer:
Causes for the extinction of wildlife :
Natural calamities : Many species of wildlife have become depleted or extinct because of natural calamities, such as earthquakes, floods, droughts, fire and epidemics.
Depriving of natural habitat: A major cause of the extinction of wildlife is human activity. Conversion of vast areas of grasslands and forests into agricultural lands have deprived wildlife of their natural habitats.

Deforestation : Wherever civilization advances, forests are destroyed. Forests were cleared to obtain building material, fuel or land for agriculture.

Hunting : Hunting for sport or for animal products led to large scale endangerment and extinction of many species of animals. Tigers and leopards were killed for their skins, rhinoceros for their horns, elephants for their tusks, musk deer for the perfumed pods under their bellies, black bears for their gall bladder, alligators for their skin used in the making of fancy luggage and shoes and snakes for making belts and purses. Fantastic price are obtained in the underground markets.

Question 6.
Write about in situ conservation.
Answer:
In situ conservation : It is conservation and protection of the whole ecosystem and its biodiversity at all levels in order to protect the threatened species. Two alternate methods are being used to save biodiverstiy, hotspots and protected areas.
Hotspots : They are areas with high density of biodiversity or mega diversity which are also the most threatened ones. Ecologically hotspots are determined by four factors.

• Number of species/species diversity.
• Degree of endemism.
• Degree of threat to habitat due to its degradation and fragmentation.
• Degree of exploitation.

Myers (1988) initially identified 12 hotspots with 14% of plant species in an area of only 0.2%. Four more hotspots were added by Myers (1991). Today the number of hotspots identified by ecologists is 34 , covering an area less than 2% of land surface with about 20% of human population living there. India has three hotspots Indo-Burma, Himalayas and Western Ghats – Sri Lanka. India is even otherwise a country of mega diversity with 2.4% of land area and having 8.1% ‘of global diversity. Major centres of biodiversity are Agasthyamalai hills, Silent valley and Amambalam reserve. There is high degree of endemism as well as richness of species of flowering plants, amphibians, reptiles, some mammals and butterflies. Indo-Burma hotspot extends from Bhutan to Myanmar covering most of north-east. Valleys of this region are rich in endemic species, it has been an active centre of evolution of flowering plants, being rich in primitive angiosperm genera (e.g., Magnolia, Betula) and primitive angiosperm families (e.g., magnoliaceae, winteraceae).

Protected areas : They are ecological/biogeographical areas where biological diversity along with natural and cultural resources is protected, maintained and managed through legal or other effective measures. They are delimited on the basis of biological diversity, e.g. cold desert (Ladakh and Spiti), hot desert (Thar), wetland (Assam), saline swampy area (Sundarbans) etc. Protected areas include national parks, sanctuaries and biosphere reserves.

National parks: They are areas maintained by government and reserved for betterment of wildlife. Cultivation, grazing, forestry and habitat manipulation are not allowed.

Sanctuaries : They are tracts of land with or without lake where wild animals/ fauna can take refuge without being hunted. Other activities like collection of forest products, harvesting of timber, private ownership of land, tilling of land etc. are allowed. India has 448 wildlife sanctuaries.

Biosphere reserves : They are multipurpose protected areas which are meant for preserving genetic diversity in representative ecosystems of various natural biomes and unique biological communities by protecting wild populations, traditional life style of tribals and domesticated plant/animal genetic resources. Creation of biosphere reserve was initiated in 1975 under MAB programme of UNESCO. Till May 2002,408 biosphere reserves had been established in 94 countries. In India, 14 potential sites were identified in 1979 by Core Advisory Group. They are also notified as national parks. Each biosphere reserve has

Core or Natural Zone : No human activity is allowed. The area is undisturbed and has legally protected ecosystem.

Buffer Zone : It surrounds the core area. Limited human activity is allowed like resource use strategies, research and education.

Transition Zone (Manipulation Zone) : It is the outermost or peripheral part of biosphere reserve where an active cooperation is present between reserve management and local people for activities like settlements, cropping, recreation, forestry and other economic uses without disturbing ecology. Transition zone has different parts like forestry, agriculture, tourism and restoration regions. Restoration region is degraded area which is selected for restoration to near natural form.

Importance of biosphere reserves includes :

1. Restoration – Biosphere reserves help in restoration of degraded ecosystems and habitats.
2. Conservation – They are means of conserving genetic resources, species, ecosystems and landscapes without uprooting the local people.
3. Development – They ensure culturally, socially and ecologically sustainable economic development.
4. Monitoring – There is a regular monitoring of development and conservation progress.
5. Education and research – Each biosphere reserve supports education of information about research, restoration, conservation and development aspects at the national and global levels.

Sacred forests and lakes – Sacred forests (= sacred groves) are forest patches around places of worship which are held in high esteem by tribal communities. They are the most undisturbed forest patches (island of pristine forests), which are often surrounded by highly degraded landscapes. They are found in several parts of India, e.g.- Karnataka, Maharashtra, Rajasthan. Not a single branch is allowed to be cut from these forests. As a result many endemic species which are rare or have become extinct elsewhere can be seen to flourish here.

Question 7.
Write about ex situ conservation :
Answer:
Ex situ conservation : It is conservation of threatened plants/animals in places outside their natural homes. Ex situ conservation includes offsite collections and gene banks. The two are also a source of genetic material for breeders and genetic engineers.

Offsite collections : They are live collections of wild and domesticated species in botanical gardens, zoological parks, wildlife safari parks, arboreta (approx arboretums = arboretums) etc. Currently, there are more than 1500 botanical gardens and arboreta (gardens with trees and shrubs) having more than 80,000 species. Many of them have seed banks, tissue culture facilities and other in situ technologies.The number of zoos/ zoological parks is more than 800 . They have about 3000 species of mammals, birds, reptiles and amphibians. Most of them have well managed captive breeding programmes. As a result many animals which have become extinct in the wild continue to be maintained in zoological parks.

Gene banks : They are institutes that maintain stocks of viable seeds (seed banks), live growing plants (orchards), tissue culture and frozen germplasm with the whole range of genetic variability.

Seed banks : Seeds are of two types, orthodox and recalcitrant. Orthodox seeds are those seeds which can tolerate reduction in moisture content (upto 5%), anaerobic conditions and low temperature of -10° to -20°C or even lower for prolonged periods, e.g. cereals, legumes. At intervals the seeds are allowed to germinate, form plants and develop fresh seeds for storage. Recalcitrant seeds are those seeds which get killed on reduction of moisture and exposure to low temperature, e.g., tea, cocoa, jackfruit, coconut. They can be stored for shorter duration after treatment with fungicides in rooms having humid air and normal oxygen.

Orchards : Plants with recalcitrant seeds are grown in orchards where all possible strains and varieties are maintained, e.g. litchi, oil palm, rubber tree etc. .

Tissue culture – It is carried out through callus formation, embryoids, pollen grain culture and shoot tip culture for those plants which are either seedless, have recalcitrant seeds, variable seed progeny or where clone is to be maintained. The method is useful in maintaining a large number of genotypes in small area, rapid multiplication of even endangered species and for hybrid rescue. Shoot tip culture maintains virus free plants. It is used for international exchange of germplasm in vegetatively multiplied cultivars, e.g., banana, potato.

Cryopreservation : Preservation at -196°C (liquid nitrogen) can maintain tissue culture, embryos, animal cells/tissues, spermatozoa indefinitely. The cryopreserved material is revived through special technique when required.

Question 8.
Give a list of some important wild animal on india.
Answer:

Question 9.
List some National Parks of India
Answer:

Question 10.
Compare National park, sanctuary and biosphere reserve.
Answer:

National park	Sanctuary	Biosphere reserve
1. Hitched to the habitat for particular wild animal species like tiger, lion, angul, rhino etc.	Generally species-oriented as Citrus, pitcher plant, Great Indian Bustard.	Not hitched to anyone, two or more species, but to the whole ecosystem i.e. totality of all forms of life i.e., ecosystem oriented.
2. India, the size range is 0.04 to 3162 sq. km. Most common (in about 40%) is 100 to 500. km. In 15% is 500 to 1000sq. km.	Size range.is 0.61 to 7818 sq. km. Most common (in about 40%) is 100 to 500 sq. km. In 25% is 500 to 1000 sq. km.	Size range over 5670 sq. km.
3. Boundaries circumscribed by legislation.	Boundries not sacrosanct.	Boundaries circumscribed by legislation.
4. Except the buffer zone, no biotic interference.	Limited biotic interference.	Except of buffer zone, no biotic interference.
5. Tourism permissible.	Tourism permissible.	Tourism normally not permissible
6. Research and scientific management lacking	Lacking	Managed
7. So far no attention to genepools and conservation.	So far no attention.	Attention given

Question 11.
Give a list of some important sanctuaries in India.
Answer:

Name, location and area (in sq. km.)	Important animals found
1. Annamalai Sanctuary, Coimbatore (Tamil Nadu), 958	Elephant, tiger, panther, gaur, sambhar, spotted deer, sloth bear, wild dog, barking deer.
2. Jaldapara Sanctuary, Madarihat (West Bengal), 1,155	Rhino, elephant, tiger, leopard, gaur, deer, sambhar, different kinds of birds.
3. Keoladeo Ghana Bird Sanctuary, Bharatpur (Rajastnan) (Earlier it was once the duck shooting ground of a king), 29	Siberian crane, storks, egrets, herons, spoon bill etc. Drier parts of this marshy sanctuary have spotted deer, black buck, sambhar, wild boar, blue bull, python. This sanctuary is famous for aquatic birds.
4. Sultanpur Lake Bird Sanctuary, Gurgaon (Haryana), 12	Crane, sarus, spotbill, duck, drake, green pigeon, wild boar, crocodile, python.
5. Bir Moti Bagh Wildlife Sanctuary, Patiala (Punjab), 8.3 Mandi (Himachal Pradesh), 213	Nilgai, wild boar, hog deer, black buck, blue bull, jackal, peafowl, partridge, sparrow, myna, pigeon, dove.
6. Shikari Devi Sanctuary,	Black bear, snow leopard, flying fox, barking deer, musk deer, chakor, partridge.
7. Dachigam Sanctuary Srinagar, (Jammu and Kashmir), 89	Hangul or Kashmiri stag, musk deer, snow leopard, black bear, brown bear.
8. Mudumalai 11. wildlife Sanctuary Nilgiri (Tamil Nadu), 520	Elephant, gaur, sambhar, chital, barking deer, mouse deer, four homed antelope, langur, giant squirrel, flying squirrel, wild dog, wild cat, civet, sloth bear, porcupine, python, rat, snake, monitor lizard, flying lizard.
9. Nagarjuna Sagar Sanctuary Guntur, Kamool and Nalgonda (Andhra Pradesh), 3, 568 km	Tiger, panther, wild boar, chital, nilgai, sambhar, black buck, fox, jackal, wolf, crocodile.
10. Periyar Sanctuary, Idduki (Kerala), 777 km	Elephants, gaur, leopard, sloth bear, sambhar, bison, black · langur, hornbill, egret. It is famous for elephants.
11. Chilka Lake Bird Sanctuary, Balagaon (Odisha) (Largest brackish water lagoon in Asia), 900 km	An oasis of birds like water fowls ducks, crane’s, golden plovers, sand pipers, flamingoes.
12. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary, Kamrup (Assam)	Tiger, panther, rhino, gaur, wild buffalo, sambhar, swamp deer, golden Tangur, wild dog, wild boar.

Question 12.
Make a list of some Biosphere reserves in India.
Answer:

Biosphere Reserve	State
1. Nilgiri (First biosphere reserve established in India (1986)]	Karrnnataka
2. Nanda Devi(1988)	Uttaranchal
3. Gulf of Mannar	Tamil Nadu
4. Agasthyamalai	Kerela.
5. Sundarbans	West Bengal
6. Panchmari	M.P
7. Manas	Assam
8. Kanchenjunga	Sikkim
9. Nokrek (Tura range)	Meghalaya
10. Great Nicobar	Andaman and Nicobar
11. Similipal	Odisha
12. Dibru Saikhowa	Assam
13. Dehang Debang	Arunachal Pradesh
14. Achanakmar – Amarkantak	Chhattisgarh

Question 13.
State the environmental problems of Sundarban.
Answer:
The threats to the mangrove eco-system are arising partly due to biotic pressure from the surrounding environment and partly due to human induced or natural changes in the upper catchments. These can be outlined as below

• Reduced flow of sweet water into Sundarban mangrove system
• Extension of non-forestry land use into mangrove forest
• Straying of tiger into villages along the western boundary of Sundarban
• Demand for small timber and fuel wood for local consumption
• Poaching of tiger, spotted deer, wild boar, marine turtles, horse shoe crab etc
• Uncontrolled collection of prawn seedlings
• Uncontrolled fishing in the water of reserve forests
• Continuous trampling of river/creek banks by fishermen and prawn seed collectors
• Chemical pollution through marine paints and hydrocarbons
• Long international border along the Eastern boundary of Indian Sundarban
• Organizational and infrastructure deficiencies

Question 14.
What do you mean by JFM?
Answer:
Joint Forest Management often abbreviated as JFM is the official and popular term in India for partnerships in forest movement involving both the state-forest departments and local communities. The policies and objectives of Joint Forest Movement are detailed in the Indian comprehensive National Forest Policy of 1988 and the Joint Forest Movement Guidelines of 1990 of the Government of India.

Although schemes vary from state to state and are known by different names in different Indian languages. Usually a village committee known as the Forest Protection Committee (FPC) and the Forest Department enter into a JFM agreement. Villagers agree to assist in the safeguarding of forest resources through protection from fire, grazing, and illegal harvesting in exchange for which they receive non-timber forest products and a share of the revenue from the sale of timber products.

Question 15.
What do you mean by PBR?
Answer:
People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR) : One of the mandates of the biodiversity board is to prepare biodiversity registers for each LSG involving the local communities. Biodiversity registers are being prepared with the help of the local people and hence referred as People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR).
Preparation of biodiversity register is an attempt to realize the biodiversity at

local self government level, states and the whole country. Identification of biological resources and documentation is one of the prerequisites for the Register preparation which can lead to new discoveries and development of new commercial products, patenting of such products, equitable distribution of benefits, if any, and through this paving the way for a new economic order in the country through biodiversity conservation.

PBR is not simply a register with names of species and their distribution in a given area. It is a comprehensive data base recording people’s traditional knowledge and insight of the status, uses, history, ongoing changes and forces driving these changes on the biological diversity resources of their own localities. This will also provide information on the current utilization patterns of biodiversity, its economic benefits to the local communities. The registers form a baseline data for future management strategies required for the sustainable utilization of biodiversity in a decentralized manner. Further, it helps equitable sharing of benefits arising out of commercial utilization of biodiversity resources and knowledge on their uses. The biodiversity register offers conservation, protection of IPR and the traditional knowledge.

Multiple Choice Questions : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Rare endangered and endemic taxa can be found intact and flourishing in
(a) sacred groves
(b) tropical forest
(c) oases
(d) buffer zone of biosphere reserve.
Answer:
(a) sacred groves

Question 2.
Antilope cervicapra/Black Buck is
(a) vulnerable
(b) endangered
(c) critically endangered
(d) extinct in the wild.
Answer:
(a) vulnerable

Question 3.
Susceptibility to extinction is due to
(a) large body size
(b) small population
(c) high trophic level
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 4.
World Conservation Union maintains
(a) red data book
(b) red list
(c) pink list
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b)

Question 5.
Keoladeo Ghana National Park is situated in
(a) Bihar
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) West Bengal
Answer:
(b) Rajasthan

Question 6.
First biosphere reserve was established in 1986 at
(a) Nilgiri
(b) Nanda Devi
(c) Rann of Kutch
(d) Sundarbans
Answer:
(a) Nilgiri

Question 7.
Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve is found in
(a) Uttaranchal
(b) Assam
(c) Himachal Pardesh
(d) Andhra Pardesh.
Answer:
(a) Uttaranchal

Question 8.
Symbol of WWF is
(a) Tiger
(b) Rhododendron
(c) White bear
(d) Giant panda.
Answer:
(d) Giant panda.

Question 9.
National Forest Policy was enunciated in
(a) 1972
(b) 1978
(c) 1982
(d) 1988
Answer:
(d) 1988

Question 10.
Social Forestry Programme was started in
(a) 1970
(b) 1976
(c) 1968
(d) 1985
Answer:
(b) 1976

Question 11.
Forest destruction results in
(a) loss of wild life
(b) floods and drought
(c) soil erosion
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 12.
Tiger is not a resident in which one of the following National park?
(a) Sundarbans
(b) Gir
(c) Jim Corbett
(d) Ranthambhor
Answer:
(b) Gir

Question 13.
Chipko movement was launched for the protection of
(a) forests
(b) livestock
(c) wetlands
(d) grasslands
Answer:
(a) forests

Question 14.
Which one of the following is a pair of endangered species?
(a) Garden lizard and Mexican poppy
(b) rhesus monkey and sal tree
(c) Indian peacock and carrot grass
(d) hornbill and Indian aconite
Answer:
(d) hornbill and Indian aconite

Question 15.
If the Bengal tiger becomes extinct
(a) hyenas and wolves will become scarce
(b) the wild areas will be safe for man and domestic animals
(c) its gene pool will be lost for ever
(d) the populations of beautiful animals like deers will get stabilized.
Answer:
(d) the populations of beautiful animals like deers will get stabilized.

Question 16.
One of the ex situ conservation methods for endangered species is
(a) wildlife sanctuaries
(b) biosphere reserves
(c) cryopreservation
(d) national parks
Answer:
(c) cryopreservation

Question 17.
Biosphere reserves differ from national parks and wildlife sanctuaries because in the former
(a) human beings are not allowed to enter
(b) people are an integral part of the system
(c) plants are paid greater attention than the animals
(d) living organisms are brought from all over the world and preserved for posterity
Answer:
(b) people are an integral part of the system

Question 18.
Red Data Book is concerned with
(a) red pigmentation of plants
(b) red algae
(c) endangered species
(d) exotic species
Answer:
(c) endangered species

Question 19.
The chipko movement for conservation of forests was started in 1972 in
(a) North Kanara district
(b) Silent Valley
(c) Sundarbans
(d) Tehri-Garhwal
Answer:
(d) Tehri-Garhwal

Question 20.
Which of the following plant is an endangered species in India?
(a) Lycopodium sp.
(b) Pinus roxburghii
(c) Hydrua
(d) Cedrus deodara.
Answer:
(a) Lycopodium sp.

Question 21.
Under the umbrella of social forestry a system has been launched in which agriculture and forestry are involved. Select the name of the system
(a) block cutting system
(b) jhum cultivation system
(c) taungya system
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) taungya system

Question 22.
Which of the following birds is on the verge of extinction in India?
(a) Peacock
(b) Pintail ducks
(c) Hornbill
(d) Great Indian Bustard
Answer:
(d) Great Indian Bustard

Question 23.
Germplasm conservation at liquid N₂ temperature is
(a) stratification
(b) cryopreservation
(c) scarification
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) cryopreservation

Question 24.
Which one of the following the first national park in India?
(a) Kanha national park
(b) Periyar national park
(c) Corbett national park
(d) Bandipur national park
Answer:
(a) Kanha national park

Question 25.
Deforestation causes
(a) water pollution
(b) soil erosion
(c) noise pollution
(d) soil pollution
Answer:
(b) soil erosion

Question 26.
Which national park is the new home of the Indian one-horned rhinoceros ?
(a) Dudhwa
(b) Corbett
(c) Kanha
(d) Bandhavgarh
Answer:
(a) Dudhwa

Question 27.
Which was the first national park established in India?
(a) Kanha
(b) Jim corbett
(c) Kaziranga
(d) Gir
Answer:
(a) Kanha

Question 28.
List of endangered species was released by
(a) IUCN
(b) BBC
(c) WCC
(d) UN
Answer:
(a) IUCN

Question 29.
A threatened species category included
(a) only endangered species
(b) only vulnerable species
(c) endangered and rare species
(d) endangered, vulnerable and rare species
Answer:
(d) endangered, vulnerable and rare species

Question 30.
and are combination of Agroforestry
(a) Fodder crops, fibre crop
(b) Food crops, fibre crop
(c) Trees, grasses
(d) Food crops, tree crop
Answer:
(d) Food crops, tree crop

Question 31.
A non-renewal source of energy is
(a) Wild life
(b) Fossil fuels
(c) Water
(d) Forest
Answer:
(b) Fossil fuels

Question 32.
A plant endemic to India is
(a) Banyan
(b) Ginkgo
(c) Sequoia
(d) Triticum
Answer:
(a) Banyan

Question 33.
A recent technique for the study of vegetation is
(a) Ground photography
(b) Remote sensing
(c) Field work
(d) Observation
Answer:
(b) Remote sensing

Question 34.
A renewable exhaustible natural resource is
(a) Forest
(b) Coal
(c) Petroleum
(d) Minerals
Answer:
(a) Forest

Question 35.
A species restricted to a given area is
(a) Endemic species
(b) Allopatric species
(c) Sympatric species
(d) Sibling species
Answer:
(a) Endemic species

Question 36.
According to IUCN red list, what is the status of Red Panda (Ailurus fulgens)
(a) Critically endangered
(b) Endangered species
(c) Vulnerable species
(d) Extinct species
Answer:
(b) Endangered species

Question 37.
Agroforestry and social forestry both include
(a) Production forestry
(b) Commercial forestry
(c) Afforestation
(d) Plantation of trees
Answer:
(d) Plantation of trees

Question 38.
An endangered bird is
(a) Passenger Pigeon
(b) Pink-headed duck
(c) Great Indian Bustard
(d) Vulture
Answer:
(c) Great Indian Bustard

Question 39.
An endangered species from the following
(a) Azardirachta
(b) Rosa indica
(c) Rauvolfia serpentina
(d) Acacia arabica
Answer:
(c) Rauvolfia serpentina

Question 40.
An example of ex-situ conservation is
(a) Seed bank
(b) Sacred groves
(c) National parks
(d) Wildlife sanctuary
Answer:
(a) Seed bank

Question 41.
An exhaustible renewable resource is
(a) Coal
(b) Solar energy
(c) Fresh water
(d) Petroleum
Answer:
(c) Fresh water

Question 42.
An inexhaustible and renewable source of energy is
(a) Wood
(b) Natural gas
(c) Fossil fuel
(d) Hydropower
Answer:
(d) Hydropower

Question 43.
Antíropogenic extinction occurs due to
(a) Earthquakes
(b) Floods
(c) Changing environmental conditions
(d) Human activities
Answer:
(d) Human activities

Question 44.
Biogas is which type of natural resources
(a) Renewable
(b) Inexhaustible
(c) Non-conventional
(d) Both(a) and(c)
Answer:
(a) Renewable

Question 45.
Chipko Movement is an example of forest conservation through
(a) Tehri-Garhwal district
(b) Uttaranchal
(c) Public awareness and participation
(d) Political issue
Answer:
(c) Public awareness and participation

Question 46.
Chipko movement is related to
(a) Forest conservation
(b) Soil conservation
(c) Water conservation
(d) Wetland conservation
Answer:
(a) Forest conservation

Question 47.
Chipko movement was launched for protection of
(a) Forests
(b) Grasslands
(c) Wetlands
(d) Livestocks
Answer:
(a) Forests

Question 48.
Conservation of species in its natural habitat is
(a) In-situ
(b) Ex-situ
(c) In-vitro
(d) Both(b) and(c)
Answer:
(a) In-situ

Question 49.
Deforestation brings about
(a) Soil erosion
(b) Weed control
(c) Decreased drought
(d) Increased sunlight
Answer:
(a) Soil erosion

Question 50.
Deforestation is caused due to
(a) Silviculture
(b) Construction of roads
(c) Rainfall
(d) Plantation of trees
Answer:
(b) Construction of roads

Question 51.
Deforestation is the major causal agent of
(a) Depletion of natural resources
(b) Environmental pollution
(c) Desertification of habitat
(d) Genetic erosion
Answer:
(c) Desertification of habitat

Question 52.
Deforestation will decrease
(a) Soil erosion
(b) Land slides
(c) Soil fertility
(d) Rainfall
Answer:
(d) Rainfall

Question 53.
Development of botanical garden is what type of conservation
(a) Ex-situ
(b) A common
(c) An easy
(d) In-situ
Answer:
(a) Ex-situ

Question 54.
Ex-situ conservation is carried out in
(a) Sanctuary
(b) National park
(c) Biosphere reserve
(d) Zoo
Answer:
(d) Zoo

Question 55.
Extensive planting of trees to increase forest cover is called
(a) Deforestation
(b) Agroforestry
(c) Social forestry
(d) Afforestation
Answer:
(d) Afforestation

Question 56.
For mapping, Remote sensing equipment is mounted on
(a) Aircraft and satellite
(b) Ship and spacecraft
(c) Satellite and spacecraft
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Aircraft and satellite

Question 57.
Forests control drought by
(a) Preventing soil erosion
(b) Increasing oxygen
(c) Increasing humidity and rainfall
(d) Preventing floods
Answer:
(c) Increasing humidity and rainfall

Question 58.
Fresh water present on earth is
(a) 97.5%
(b) 0.01%
(c) 2.5%
(d) 1.97%
Answer:
(c) 2.5%

Question 59.
Fresh water problem arises due to
(a) Globally available stocks are insufficient
(b) Uneven distribution on earth
(c) No regeneration of required quantity through natural hydrological cycle
(d) Anyone of the above
Answer:
(d) Anyone of the above

Question 60.
Gamma and X-rays are not used for remote sensing because
(a) They are absorbed by object
(b) They are reflected by object
(c) They are absorbed by layer of atmosphere
(d) They are not absorbed
Answer:
(c) They are absorbed by layer of atmosphere

Question 61.
Geo-stationary satellites
(a) Rotate very fast
(b) Are located near the earth
(c) Are stationary
(d) Rotate with speed equal to that of earth
Answer:
(d) Rotate with speed equal to that of earth

Question 62.
Human dominated biosphere is called
(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Hemisphere
(d) Noosphere
Answer:
(d) Noosphere

Question 63.
In a National Park protection is provided to
(a) Entire ecosystem
(b) Flora and fauna
(c) Fauna only
(d) Flora only
Answer:
(b) Flora and fauna

Question 64.
In India, common type of forest is
(a) Tropical thorn forests
(b) Sal and Teak forests
(c) Tropical moist deciduous forest
(d) Tropical dry deciduous forest
Answer:
(d) Tropical dry deciduous forest

Question 65.
Inexhaustible resource among the following is
(a) Minerals
(b) Solar energy
(c) Plants
(d) Fossil fuels
Answer:
(b) Solar energy

Question 66.
INSAT system is type of
(a) Satellite
(b) Geo-stationary satellite
(c) Sun-synchronous satellite
(d) Orbital satellite
Answer:
(b) Geo-stationary satellite

Question 67.
Islands have higher number of endemic species as they are separated from land masses by
(a) Deserts
(b) Mountains
(c) Large expanses of water
(d) Valleys
Answer:
(c) Large expanses of water

Question 68.
It is not a protected forest
(a) Reserve forest
(b) Sanctuary
(c) Core of biosphere
(d) Orchard
Answer:
(d) Orchard

Question 69.
IUCN stands for
(a) Indian Union of chemical Nomenclature
(b) Indian Union of Conservation of Nature
(c) International Union for Conservation of Nature
(d) International Union for Conservation of Nutrients
Answer:
(c) International Union for Conservation of Nature

Question 70.
Life supporting zone of earth’s surface is
(a) Lithosphere
(b) Biosphere
(c) Stratospere
(d) Ecotene
Answer:
(b) Biosphere

Question 71.
Main cause of extinction of species from tropical areas is
(a) Afforestation
(b) Deforestation
(c) Pollution
(d) Soil erosion
Answer:
(b) Deforestation

Question 72.
Main source of water to soil is
(a) Rainfall
(b) River
(c) Canals
(d) Lakes
Answer:
(a) Rainfall

Question 73.
Maximum use of fresh water is in
(a) Agriculture
(b) Domestic use
(c) Industry
(d) Pisciculture
Answer:
(a) Agriculture

Question 74.
More than 70% of world’s fresh water is contained in
(a) Ponds
(b) Glaciers and polar ice caps
(c) Green land
(d) Oceans
Answer:
(b) Glaciers and polar ice caps

Question 75.
Most effective controlling flood is
(a) Deforstation
(b) Constructing dams
(c) Reforestation
(d) Dagging canal
Answer:
(c) Reforestation

Question 76.
Most of the endangered species are victims of
(a) Acid rain
(b) Competition with exotic species
(c) Over hunting
(d) Habitat Destruction
Answer:
(d) Habitat Destruction

Question 77.
Natural resource which have definite cycle is
(a) Exhaustible Non-renewable
(b) Inexhaustible
(c) Non conventional
(d) Exhaustible Renewable
Answer:
(d) Exhaustible Renewable

Question 78.
Natures hydrogical cycle involves
(a) Evaporation, condensation
(c) Evaporation, precipitation
(b) Condensation, precipitation
(d) Evaporation, condensation and precipitation
Answer:
(d) Evaporation, condensation and precipitation

Question 79.
Out of total amount of water, the water found in seas and oceans is about
(a) 70%
(b) 90%
(c) 97%
(d) 85%
Answer:
(c) 97%

Question 80.
Planned management of natural resources is
(a) Not possible
(b) Not easy
(c) called conservation
(d) Called depletion
Answer:
(c) called conservation

Question 81.
Plantation of trees along with monocot crops is known
(a) Agroforestry
(b) Silviculture
(c) Social forestry
(d) Afforestation
Answer:
(a) Agroforestry

Question 82.
Planting of trees on unused farm land, rail and road sides etc. is called
(a) Commercial forestry
(b) Agroforestry
(c) Social forestry
(d) Reforestation
Answer:
(a) Commercial forestry

Question 83.
Planting of trees, shrub sand others in between crop plants for commercial exploitation and stabilization of soil is
(a) Taungya system
(b) Social forestry
(c) Agroforestry
(d) Production plantation
Answer:
(c) Agroforestry

Question 84.
Plants of endangered species are conserved through
(a) Herbarium
(b) Gene library
(c) Gene bank
(d) Reducting pollution
Answer:
(c) Gene bank

Question 85.
Population of species decreasing over a period called as
(a) Extinct
(b) Eliminated
(c) Endangered
(d) Rare
Answer:
(c) Endangered

Question 86.
Radiations not useful in remote sensing are
(a) UV radiations
(b) Microwave
(c) Ultrasonic waves
(d) Infra-red radiations
Answer:
(c) Ultrasonic waves

Question 87.
Red Data Book contains information about
(a) Red coloured insects
(b) Red eyed bird
(c) Red coloured fishes
(d) Endangered plants and animals
Answer:
(d) Endangered plants and animals

Question 88.
Red Data Book deals with
(a) Maintains and publish list of endangered and endemic species
(b) Maintains and publish list of Plants that are extinct
(c) Maintains and publish list off Animals that are extinct
(d) Maintains and publish list of dangerous species
Answer:
(a) Maintains and publish list of endangered and endemic species

Question 89.
Reforestation is
(a) Plantation of forests
(b) Plantation forests in deforested areas
(c) Cutting down of forests
(d) Management of forests
Answer:
(b) Plantation forests in deforested areas

Question 90.
Remote sensing involves the use of
(a) EMR
(b) NMR
(c) ESR
(d) SSR
Answer:
(a) EMR

Question 91.
Resources which are available in unlimited quantity are
(a) National resources
(b) Exhaustible resources
(c) Inexhaustible resources
(d) Natural resources.
Answer:
(c) Inexhaustible resources

Question 92.
Serious threat to wild life is
(a) Habitat destruction
(b) International trade
(c) Introduction of exotic species
(d) Over-exploitation
Answer:
(a) Habitat destruction

Question 93.
Shifting cultivation is also known as
(a) Taungya system
(b) Shum cultivation
(c) Social forestry
(d) Plant cultivation
Answer:
(b) Shum cultivation

Question 94.
Solar energy is which type of natural resources
(a) Renewable
(b) Non-renewable
(c) Exhaustible
(d) Inexhaustible
Answer:
(d) Inexhaustible

Question 95.
Taungya is practice of
(a) Shifting cultivation
(b) Agroforestry
(c) Production forestry
(d) Both A and B
Answer:
(d) Both A and B

Question 96.
The base on which remote sensors are mounted is termed as
(a) Camera
(b) Energy source
(c) Platform
(d) Scanner
Answer:
(c) Platform

Question 97.
The endangered fauna is
(a) The Great Indian Bustard
(b) Viviparous toad
(c) Forest owl
(d) Kashmiri stag
Answer:
(a) The Great Indian Bustard

Question 98.
The function of tree plantation is celebrated through
(a) Environment day
(b) Vanikaran
(c) Social forestry programme
(d) Vasant Mahotsav
Answer:
(c) Social forestry programme

Question 99.
The human activities resulting in endangered species are
(a) Poaching
(b) Deforestation
(c) Forest fires
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 100.
The life supporting gases such as O₂, CO₂ and N₂ are primarily concentrated in
(a) troposphere
(b) exosphere
(c) homosphere
(d) stratosphere
Answer:
(a) troposphere

Question 101.
The main reserve of fresh water on earth surface is
(a) Ground water
(b) Rivers
(c) Lakes
(d) Polar ice caps and glaciers
Answer:
(d) Polar ice caps and glaciers

Question 102.
The management of resources on earth which maintains the balance between human requirements and other species is
(a) Conservation
(b) Industrialization
(c) Diversity of ecosystem
(d) Geological diversity
Answer:
(a) Conservation

Question 103.
The natural cause for extinction of species is
(a) Floods
(b) Hunting
(c) Industrialization
(d) Destruction of natural habitats
Answer:
(a) Floods

Question 104.
The natural resources available in limited quantity at global level is
(a) Non-renewable
(b) Renewable
(c) Exhaustible
(d) Inexhaustible
Answer:
(c) Exhaustible

Question 105.
The natural resources which are continuously consumed by man but are replenished by nature with a reasonable period of time is called
(a) Exhaustible
(b) Inexhaustible
(c) Exhaustible renewable
(d) Exhaustible non-renewable
Answer:
(c) Exhaustible renewable

Question 106.
The percentage of evaporation of water from land and ocean surface are respectively
(a) 16 and 84%
(b) 84 and 16%
(c) 65 and 35%
(d) 60 and 40%
Answer:
(a) 16 and 84%

Question 107.
The restricted distribution of species in small area called
(a) Biome
(b) Niche
(c) Endemism
(d) Ectosphere
Answer:
(c) Endemism

Question 108.
The vehicle used to carry the sensor in remote sensing is
(a) Camera
(b) Shuttle
(c) Scanner
(d) Platform
Answer:
(d) Platform

Question 109.
There is decrease in because of deforestation
(a) Soil erosion
(b) Global warming
(c) Rainfall
(d) Drought
Answer:
(c) Rainfall

Question 110.
Which has caused maximum damage to Indian forests
(a) Selective harvesting
(b) Block cutting
(c) Taungya cultivation
(d) Jhum cultivation
Answer:
(d) Jhum cultivation

Question 111.
Which of the following acts as a main source of ground water?
(a) Rain
(b) River
(c) Ocean
(d) Canals
Answer:
(a) Rain

Question 112.
Which of the following soil is the best for plant growth?
(a) Loamy soil
(b) Clay
(c) Gravel
(d) Sandy soil
Answer:
(a) Loamy soil

Question 113.
Which of the following species is endemic?
(a) Vanda
(b) Drosera sp
(c) Gnetum ula
(d) Ginkgo biloba
Answer:
(d) Ginkgo biloba

Question 114.
Which one is not an exhaustible resource
(a) Solar energy
(b) Coal
(c) Rainfall
(d) Wind power
Answer:
(b) Coal

Question 115.
Which one is not endangered species?
(a) Bald Eagle
(b) Giant Panda
(c) Podophyllum
(d) Mergosa
Answer:
(d) Mergosa

Question 116.
Which one of the following in endangered species?
(a) Cuscuta
(b) Nepenthes
(c) Datura
(d) Butea sps.
Answer:
(b) Nepenthes

Question 117.
The recent technique used for study of vegetation is
(a) Remote sensing
(b) Field works
(c) Ground photography
(d) Observation
Answer:
(a) Remote sensing

Very Short Answer Type Questions : 1 Mark

Question 1.
What is the total number of Hotspot situated in the world?
Answer:
34.

Question 2.
Who many hotspots present in India.
Answer:
4

Question 3.
Write the two causes of loss of biodiverity.
Answer:
(i) Hunting and poaching. (ii) Land use pattern.

Question 4.
Name two natural calamities due to loss of biodiversity.
Answer:
(i) Earthquakes, (ii) Tsunami.

Question 5.
Name two exotic species causing loss of biodiversity.
Answer:
Parthenium (Plant) Pesiplaneta americana.

Question 6.
Name two mangrove forests in India.
Answer:
(i) Sundarban mangrove forest.
(ii) Andaman mangrove forest.

Question 7.
How many types of conservation there are?
Answer:
Two types- (i) In-situ conservation, (ii) Ex-situ conservation.

Question 8.
Name one National Park in West Bengal.
Answer:
Jaldapara National Park.

Question 9.
Name one Sanctuary in West Bengal.
Answer:
Chapramari Sanctuary.

Question 10.
Name one Reserve forest in West Bengal.
Answer:
Bauxa Reserve forest.

Question 11.
Name one Biosphere reserve in West Bengal.
Answer:
Sundarban Biosphere reserve

Question 12.
Give two examples of ex-situ conservation.
Answer:
Zoological garden, Botanical garden.

Question 13.
What is the temperature for cryopreservation.
Answer:
-196° C

Question 14.
What is the full form of JFM
Answer:
Joint Forest Management.

Question 15.
Where and when JFM was started in India?
Answer:
Arabari forest in West Midnapur in 1971.

Question 16.
What is PBR?
Answer:
People’s Biodiversity Register.

Question 17.
Name one Tiger Project in West Bengal.
Answer:
Sundarban Tiger Project.

Question 18.
Name one Rhino Project in West Bengal.
Answer:
Jaldapara Sanctuary One-horned Rhinoceros Reserve Project.

Question 19.
Name one Lion Reserve Project.
Answer:
Lion Reserve Project in Gir Forest.

Question 20.
Name the Crocodile Reserve Project in West Bengal.
Answer:
Bhagabatpur Crocodile Reserve Project.

Question 21.
Name one Red Panda Reserve Project in West Bengal.
Answer:
Singalila National Project : Red Panda Reserve Project; Darjeeling.’

Question 22.
Which Logo is used for Red Panda conservation.
Answer:
WWF-N.

Fill in the blanks with suitable words :

1. The species of plants and animals which have disappeared from the face of the earth are said to be ___________.
2. Gene for resistance against a pest on rice, brown plant hopper (Nilaparvata lugens) was identified from old varieties of rice from ___________.
3. About ___________ plant species and ___________ vertebrate species are threatened with extinction.
4. Species of plants and animals which are in danger of becoming extinct or have become rare and are at risk are known as ___________ species.
5. Species of plants and animals which have been reduced to a critical level and are in immediate danger of becoming extinct are known as ___________ species.
6. Species of plants and animals which have been severely depleted and are likely to move into endangered category are known as ___________ species.
7. Species of plants and animals which occur in small populations restricted to localised areas or are thinly scattered over more extensive range are known as ___________ species.
8. Conservation is concerned with plants, animals, micro-organisms and their ___________.
9. The rice pest that threatened the entire rice cultivation is ___________ ___________ (Scientific name)
10. Over-fishing is depleting the ___________ living resources.
11. In the ___________ zone of biosphere reserves, no human activity is permitted.
12. In ___________ zone of bíosphere reserves, large number of human activities are allowed.
13. Only ___________ Indian Bustard birds are still living.
14. There are ___________ National Parks in our country.
15. ___________ Forestry Programme aims at planting trees for aesthetic purposes in urban settlements.
Answer:
1. extinct
2. Kerala
3. 25,000 ; 1,000
4. threatened
5. endangered
6. vulnerable
7. rare
8. environment
9. Nilaparvata lugens
10. marine
11. core
12. manipulation
13. 800
14. 66
15. Urban.

State whether the following statements are True or False. If False, then write the correct statement

Question 1.
California condor, the largest flying birds, is being affected by human cleanliness.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Forests play an important role in reducing atmospheric pollution.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Agroforestry Programme aims at reviving forests on barren agricultural land.
Answer:
False. Agroforestry Programme aims at reviving ancient practice of using same land for farming, forestry and animal husbandry.

Question 4.
The Great Indian Bustard, inhabitant of semiarid areas of Rajasthan, Gujarat and Maharashtra is considered as a rare bird.
Answer:
False. The Great Indian Bustard, inhabtant of semi-arid areas of Rajasthan, Gujarat and Maharashtra is a highly endangered bird.

Question 5.
In manipulation zone of biosphere reserve, limited human activity is allowed.
Answer:
False. In buffer zone of biosphere reserve limited human activity is allowed.

Question 6.
In a sanctuary, protection is given only to animals.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
In-situ protection refers to the conservation of wildlife in zoos and botanical gardens.
Answer:
False. In-situ protection refers to the conservation of wildlife in their natural habited.

Question 8.
Uttarakhand Biosphere Reserve includes Silent valley in north western Himalayas.
Answer:
False. Uttarakhand Biosphere Reserve includes Valley of Flowers in northwestern Himalayas.

Question 9.
Silent valley is located in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
False. Silent Valley is located in Kerala.

Question 10.
Tropical rain forests are the most productive forest types in the world.
Answer:
True.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Life Science Book Solutions Chapter 5C Environment and Human Population offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 5C Question Answer – Environment and Human Population

Short Answer Type Questions : 2 Marks

Question 1.
What environmental damage are caused by mercury poliution? What are the main sources of mercury pollution?
Answer:
Mercury is a metal that when present in the water of rivers, lakes and seas contaminates fish, crustaceans, molluscs and other living organisms. The mercury accumulates along the food chain and, in each following trophic level, the amount of the metal within the individuals is higher. When humans eat contaminated animals, they also become contaminated and severe nervous system injuries may result from it. The main sources of mercury pollution are gold mining and the use of substances derived from it in industry and agriculture.

Question 2.
Besides mercury, which other heavy metals cause toxic pollution?
Answer:
Examples of other heavy metals that cause toxic pollution are lead, cadmium and chromium.

Question 3.
What are persistent organic poliutants (POPs)?
Answer:
POPs, or persistent organic pollutants, are toxic substances formed from organic compounds. POPs are produced in several industrial processes, such as the production of PVC, paper whitened by chlorine, herbicides, insecticides and fungicides, as well as in the incineration of waste. Examples of POPs are dioxins, furanes, chlordane, DDT, dieldrin, heptachlor, toxaphene and hexachlorobenzene.

POPs are toxic and highly harmful since, like the heavy metals, they are bioaccumulative, meaning that they are not broken down by the body and accumulate even more in each following trophic level of the food chain. In humans, POPs can cause cancer and nervous, immune and reproductive disorders.

Question 4.
Is the upward movement of warm air good or bad for the dissipation of pollutants?
Answer:
The upward movement of warm air is a natural method of dispersing pollutants. The air near the ground is hotter because the sun heats the soil and the soil heats the air nearby. Since it is less dense, the warm air tends to move towards higher and colder strata of the atmosphere. Such movement helps to disperse pollutants.

Question 5.
Why does thermal inversion increase air pollution? What harm can thermal inversion cause to humans?
Answer:
Thermal inversion confines a layer of pollutants at low altitude, which otherwise would have been dispersed by the natural upward movement of warm air. The solid particles present in the atmosphere cause health problems, such as the exacerbation of asthma and other pulmonary diseases, coughing, respiratory unease and eye discharges. Over time, pollution can also trigger the appearance of cardiovascular and neoplastic diseases.

Question 6.
What are the health consequences of air pollution?
Answer:
Air pollution increases the risk of respiratory and heart disease in the population. Both short and long term exposure to air pollutants have been associated to health impacts. More severe impacts affect people who are already ill. Children, the elderly and poor people are more susceptible.

Question 7.
What is pathogen pollution?
Answer:
Pathogen pollution refers to the introduction of disease-causing microbes(pathogens) and/or their hosts (infected individuals) to new locations around the world. European bird species, including pigeons and the house sparrow, for example, introduced West Nile virus to the United States.

Question 8.
What is an emerging infectious disease (EID)?
Answer:
EIDs include diseases that have jumped from wildlife populations to humans, diseases that have become more frequent, and diseases that are entirely new to science. Examples of EIDs include HIV/AIDS, West Nile virus, and SARS. Lung diseases are some of the most common medical conditions in the world. Tens of millions of people suffer from lung disease in the U.S. Smoking, infections, and genetics are responsible for most lung diseases. The lungs are part of a complex apparatus, expanding and relaxing thousands of times each day to bring in oxygen and expel carbon dioxide. Lung disease can result from problems in any part of this system.

Question 9.
Write the health effect on air pollution.
Answer:
Air Pollution Effects :

1. Reduced lung functioning
2. Irritation of eyes, nose, mouth and throat
3. Asthma attacks
4. Respiratory symptoms such as coughing and wheezing
5. Increased respiratory disease such as bronchitis
6. Reduced energy levels
7. Headaches and dizziness
8. Disruption of endocrine, reproductive and immune systems
9. Neurobehavioral disorders
10. Cardiovascular problems
11. Cancer
12. Premature death.

Question 10.
Write the health effect on water pollution.
Answer:
Water Pollution Effects :

1. Waterborne diseases like typhoid,jaundice,cholera
2. Hepatitis, encephalitis, gastroenteritis, diarrhoea, vomiting, and stomach aches
3. Cancer, including prostate cancer and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
4. Hormonal problems that can disrupt reproductive and developmental processes
5. Damage to the nervous system
6. Liver and kidney damage
7. Damage to the DNA

Question 11.
Write the health effect on soil pollution.
Answer:
Soil Pollution Effects :

1. Lead in soil is especially hazardous for young children causing developmental damage to the brain
2. Mercury can increase the risk of kidney damage; cyclodienes can lead to liver toxicity
3. Causes neuromuscular blockage as well as depression of the central nervous system
4. Also causes headaches, nausea, fatigue, eye irritation and skin rash
5. Causes cancers including leukaemia

Long Answer Type Questions : 5 Marks

Question 1.
What do you mean by overpopulation? Write its causes.
Overpopulation
Answer:
Overpopulation is an undesirable condition where the number of existing human population exceeds the carrying capacity of Earth.Overpopulation is caused by number of factors. Reduced mortality rate, better medical facilities, depletion of precious resources are few of the causes which results in overpopulation. It is possible for a sparsely populated area to become densely populated if it is not able to sustain life.
Causes of Overpopulation
Decline in the Death Rate : At the root of overpopulation is the difference between the overall birth rate and death rate in populations. If the number of children born each year equals the number of adults that die, then the population will stabilize.

Better Medical Facilities : Following this came the industrial revolution. Technological advancement was perhaps the biggest reason why the balance has been permanently disturbed. Science was able to produce better means of producing food, which allowed families to feed more mouths.

More Hands to Overcome Poverty : For thousands of years, a very small part of the population had enough money to live in comfort. The rest faced poverty and would give birth to large families to make up for the high infant mortality rate.

Families that have been through poverty, natural disasters or are simply in need of more hands to work are a major factor for overpopulation.

Technological Advancement in Fertility Treatment : With latest technological advancement and more discoveries in medical science, it has become possible for couple who are unable to conceive to undergo fertility treatment methods and have their own babies.

Immigration : Many people prefer to move to develop countries like US, UK, Canada and Australia where best facilities are available in terms of medical, education, security and employment. The end result is that those people settle over there and those places become overcrowded.

Lack of Family Planning : Most developing nations have large number of people who are illiterate, live below the poverty line and have little or no knowledge about family planning. Getting their children married at an early age increase the chances of producing more kids.

Question 2.
Write the effects and solution of overpopulation.
Answer:
Effects of Overpopulation
Depletion of Natural Resources : The effects of overpopulation are quite severe. The first of these is the depletion of resources. The Earth can only produce a limited amount of water and food, which is falling short of the current needs. Most of the environmental damage being seen in the last fifty odd years is because of the growing number of people on the planet.

Degradation of Environment : With the overuse of coal, oil and natural gas, it has started producing some serious effects on our environment. Rise in the number of vehicles and industries have badly affected the quality of air. Rise in amount of CO₂ emissions leads to global warming. Melting of polar ice caps, changing climate patterns, rise in sea level are few of the consequences that we might we have to face due to environment pollution.

Conflicts and Wars : Overpopulation in developing countries puts a major strain on the resources, it should be utilizing for development. Conflicts over water are becoming a source of tension between countries, which could result in wars. It causes more diseases to spread and makes them harder to control. Starvation is a huge issue facing the world and the mortality rate for children is being fuelled by it. Poverty is the biggest hallmark we see when talking about overpopulation.

Rise in Unemployment : When a country becomes overpopulated, it gives rise to unemployment as there fewer jobs to support large number of people. Rise in unemployment gives rise to crime as people will steal various items to feed their family and provide them basic amenities of life.

High Cost of Living: As difference between demand and supply continues to expand due to overpopulation, it raises the prices of various commodities including food, shelter and healthcare. This means that people have to pay more to survive and feed their families.
Solutions to Overpopulation

Better Education : One of the first measures is to implement policies reflecting social change. Educating the masses helps them understand the need to have one or two children at the most. Families that are facing a hard life and choose to have four or five children should be discouraged. Family planning and efficient birth control can help in women making their own reproductive choices.

Making People Aware of Family Planning : As population of this world is growing at a rapid pace, raising awareness among people regarding family planning and letting them know about serious after effects of overpopulation can help curb population growth.

Tax Benefits or Concessions : Government of various countries might have to come with various policies related to tax exemptions to curb overpopulation. One of them might be to waive of certain part of income tax or lowering rates of income tax for those married couples who have single or two children.

Knowledge of Sex Education : Imparting sex education to young kids at elementary level should be must. Most parents feel shy in discussing such things with their kids which result in their children going out and look out for such information on internet or discuss it with their peers. Mostly, the information is incomplete which results in sexually active teenagers unaware of contraceptives and embarrassed to seek information about same. It is therefore important for parents and teachers to shed their old inhibitions and make their kids or students aware of solid sex education.

Question 3.
Describe about the Lung Diseases Affecting the Airways
Answer:
The trachea (windpipe) branches into tubes called bronchi, which in turn branch to become progressively smaller tubes throughout the lungs.
Diseases that affect the airways include :
Asthma : The airways are persistently inflamed and may occasionally spasm, causing wheezing and shortness of breath. Allergies, infections, or pollution can trigger asthma’s symptoms.

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) : Lung conditions defined by an inability to exhale normally, which causes difficulty breathing.

Chronic bronchitis : A form of COPD characterized by a chronic productive cough.

Emphysema : Lung damage allows air to be trapped in the lungs in this form of COPD. Difficulty blowing air out is its hallmark.

Acute bronchitis : A sudden infection of the airways, usually by a virus.
Cystic fibrosis : A genetic condition causing poor clearance of mucus from the bronchi. The accumulated mucus results in repeated lung infections.

Question 4.
Describe about the Lung Diseases affecting the air sacs (Alveoli).
Answer:
The airways eventually branch into tiny tubes (bronchioles) that dead-end into clusters of air sacs called alveoli. These air sacs make up most of the lung tissue. Lung diseases affecting the alveoli include :
Pneumonia : An infection of the alveoli, usually by bacteria.
Tuberculosis: A slowly progressive pneumonia caused by the bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Emphysema results from damage to the fragile connections between alveoli. Smoking is the usual cause. (Emphysema also limits air flow, affecting the airways as well.)

Pulmonary edema : Fluid leaks out of the small blood vessels of the lung into the air sacs and the surrounding area. One form is caused by heart failure and back pressure in the lungs’ blood vessels ; in another form, direct injury to the lung causes the leak of fluid.

Lung cancer has many forms, and may develop in any part of the lungs. Most often this is in the main part of the lung, in or near the air sacs. The type, location, and spread of lung cancer determine the treatment options.

Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS): Severe, sudden injury to the lungs caused by a serious illness. Life support with mechanical ventilation is usually needed to survive until the lungs recover.

Pneumoconiosis : A category of conditions caused by the inhalation of a substance that injures the lungs. Examples include black lung disease from inhaled coal dust and asbestosis from inhaled asbestos dust.

Question 5.
Describe about the Lung Diseases affecting the interstitium.
Answer:
The interstitium is the microscopically thin, delicate lining between the lungs’ air sacs (alveoli). Tiny blood vessels run through the interstitium and allow gas exchange between the alveoli and the blood. Various lung diseases affect the interstitium:
Interstitial lung disease (ILD) : A broad collection of lung conditions affecting the interstitium. Sarcoidosis,idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, and autoimmune disease are among the many types of ILD.
Pneumonias and pulmonary edemas can also affect the interstitium.

Question 6.
Describe about the Lung Diseases affecting blood vessels.
Answer:
The right side of the heart receives low-oxygen blood from the veins. It pumps blood into the lungs through the pulmonary arteries. These blood vessels can suffer from disease, as well.

Pulmonary Embolism (PE) : A blood clot (usually in a deep leg vein,deep vein thrombosis) breaks off, travels to the heart, and is pumped into the lungs. The clot lodges in a pulmonary artery, often causing shortness of breath and low blood oxygen levels.

Pulmonary hypertension : Various conditions can lead to high blood pressure in the pulmonary arteries. This can cause shortness of breath and chest pain. When no cause is identified, the condition is called idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension.

Question 7.
Describe about the Lung Diseases affecting the pleura.
Answer:
The pleura is a thin lining that surrounds the lung and lines the inside of the chest wall. A tiny layer of fluid allows the pleura on the lung’s surface to slide along the chest wall with each breath. Lung diseases of the pleura include :
Pleural effusion : Fluid collects in the normally tiny pleura space between the lung and the chest wall. Pneumonia or heart failure is usually responsible. If large, pleural effusions can impair breathing, and should be drained.
Pneumothorax : Air may enter the space between the chest wall and the lung, collapsing the lung. To remove the air, a tube is typically inserted through the chest wall.
Mesothelioma : A rare form of cancer that forms on the pleura. Mesothelioma tends to emerge several decades after asbestos exposure.

Question 8.
Describe about the Lung Diseases affecting the chest wall.
Answer:
The chest wall also plays an important role in breathing. Muscles connect the ribs to each other, helping the chest to expand. The diaphragm descends with each breath in, also causing chest expansion.
Obesity hypoventilation syndrome : Extra weight on the chest and abdomen makes it difficult for the chest to expand. Serious breathing problems can result.
Neuromuscular disorders : Poor function in the nerves controlling the respiratory muscles causes difficulty of breathing. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and myasthenia gravis are examples of neuromuscular lung disease.

Multiple Choice Questions : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Who among the following are resource creating factors as well as resources themselves?
(a) Animals
(b) Plants
(c) Human beings
(d) Nature
Answer:
(c) Human beings

Question 2
In which of the following instances does a natural event like a flood or Tsunami become a “disaster”?
(a) Only when they affect a crowded village or town
(b) When the natural events are of great intensity
(c) When they happen in the environment
(d) When they affect large uninhabited areas
Answer:
(a) Only when they affect a crowded village or town

Question 3.
The numbers, distribution, growth and characteristics of which of the following provide the basic background for understanding and appreciating all aspects of the environment?
(a) Natural resource
(b) Population
(c) Flora
(d) Fauna
Answer:
(b) Population

Question 4.
Why is it important to know how many people are there in a country, where do they live, how and why their numbers are increasing and what are their characteristics?
(a) Population is the pivotal element in social studies
(b) To exploit the natural resources of the country
(c) Human beings are producers and consumers of resources
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Human beings are producers and consumers of resources

Question 5.
From which of the following do we get information regarding the population of our country?
(a) Text books
(b) Survey of India
(c) Census
(d) Geological Survey of India
Answer:
(c) Census

Question 6.
Which of the following is a major concern of study about the population of a country?
(a) Population size and distribution
(b) Population growth and processes of population change
(c) Characteristics or qualities of the population
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 7.
The average number of persons per unit area, such as a square kilometre, is termed as which of the following?
(a) Population distribution
(b) Population density
(c) Absolute population
(d) Population growth
Answer:
(b) Population density

Question 8.
Which of the following reasons is responsible for uneven population distribution in India?
(a) Variations in topography or relief in different parts of India
(b) Variations in climate and rainfall distribution
(c) Variations in the rate of industrialisation and urbanisation
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 9.
When did the National Population Policy come into effect?
(a) 2001
(b) 1947
(c) 1952
(d) 2000
Answer:
(d) 2000

Question 10.
The unfavourable alteration of environment due to human activities is termed as
(a) ecological disturbance
(b) catastrophe
(c) ecological degradation
(d) pollution
Answer:
(d) pollution

Question 11.
Which of the following is the best indicator of SO₂ pollution
(a) bryophyte
(b) pteridophyte
(c) lichen
(d) algae
Answer:
(c) lichen

Question 12.
Heavy dust can cause
(a) leaf blights
(b) opening of stomata
(c) closure of stomata
(d) browning of leaves
Answer:
(c) closure of stomata

Question 13.
Which of the following is the major cause of pollution
(a) Plants
(b) man
(c) fungi
(d) hydrocarbon gases
Answer:
(d) hydrocarbon gases

Question 14.
Minamata disease was caused by pollution of water by
(a) mercury
(b) lead
(c) tin
(d) methyl isocyanate
Answer:
(a) mercury

Question 15.
BOD stands for
(a) biotic oxidation demand
(b) biological oxidation demand
(c) biological oxygen demand
(d) biochemical oxygen demand
Answer:
(c) biological oxygen demand

Question 16.
A river with high BOD value is
(a) highly polluted
(b) highly clean
(a) highly productive
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) highly polluted

Question 17.
5 June is observed as
(a) world forest day
(b) world environment day
(a) world wildlife day
(d) world population day
Answer:
(b) world environment day

Question 18.
Cement factory labourers are prone to
(a) leukemia
(b) bone marrow disease
(c) asbestosis
(d) cytosilicosis
Answer:
(d) cytosilicosis

Question 19.
Noise is measured using sound meter and the unit is
(a)) hertz
(b) decibel
(c) joule
(d) sound
Answer:
(b) decibel

Very Short Answer Type Questions : 1 Mark

Question 1.
What is overpopulation?
Answer:
For a period of time, excess population in an area.

Question 2.
Which gas mostly causes global warming?
Answer:
CO₂

Question 3.
Which situation causes scarcity of food?
Answer:
Overpopulation.

Question 4.
Mention two situation due to over population.
Answer:
Deforestation, shrinkage of Agricultural land.

Question 5.
Mention two diseases of water borne.
Answer:
Hepatitis, Typhoid.

Question 6.
Name two diseases of food borne,
Answer:
Cholera, Aspergilosis.

Question 7.
Mention two ariborne diseases.
Answer:
Influenza, Pneumonia.

Question 8.
What is the cause of minamata disease?
Answer:
Due to excess amount of mercury.

Question 9.
Name two lung diseases.
Answer:
Asthma, Bronchitis.

Question 10.
Name the agent causing cancer.
Answer:
Carcenogen.

Question 11.
Name two causative agents for lung cancer.
Answer:
Pesticides, Food adulteration, smoke from industry.

Question 12.
Name two agents for Asthma.
Answer:
Pollens, dust, fungus.

Question 13.
Name the disease due to lead pollution.
Answer:
Dislexia.

Question 14.
Name the causative agent of Aspergilosis.
Answer:
Fungus.