Class 10

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Life Science Book Solutions Chapter 1A Sensitivity and Response in Plants offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1A Question Answer – Sensitivity and Response in Plants

Short Answer Type Questions : 2 Marks

Question 1.
Why is a system of control and co-ordination essential in living organisms?
Answer:
Following are the reasons.

1. Increase the chances of survival by responding to stimuli.
2. Different body parts function as a single unit.
3. To maintain homeostasis.

Question 2.
How is the movement of leaves of the sensitive plant different from the movement of a shoot towards light?
Answer:
The movement of leaves of the sensitive plant (e.g. Mimosa pudica or touch me-not) occurs in response to touch or contact stimuli. It is a growth independent movement (nastic movement). The movement of shoot towards light is called phototropism. This type of movement is directional and is growth dependent.

Question 3.
Write differences between nastic and tropic movements.
Answer:

Characters	Nastic movement	Tropic movement
1. Growth	Growth Independent movements	Growth dependent movements
2. Time of Action	Immediate	Slow
3. Response to Stimules	non-directional	directional
4. Response for action	change in turgor	cell division
5. Alternate name	nastics	tropism
6. Examples	folding of leaves of touchme-not (Mimosa), opening and closing of stomata	phototropism, geotropism, hydrotropism, chemotropism

Question 4
What is chemotropism?
Answer:
Directional movement of a plant/or its part in response of chemicals is called chemotropism. e.g. growth of the pollen tube towards the ovule is a chemotropic movement due to which fertilization of flower takes place.

Question 5.
Give examples of geotropism.
Answer:
(i) Roots move in the direction of gravity (positive (+ve) geotropism)
(ii) Shoots move (up) against direction of gravity (negative (-ve) geotropism)

Question 6.
How does phototropism occur in plants?
Answer:
The growth movement in plants in response to light stimulus is known as phototropism. The shoots show positive phototropism and the roots show negative phototropism. This means that the shoots bend towards the source of light whereas the roots bend away from the light source.
For Example : The flower head of sunflower is positively phototropic and hence is moves from east to west along with the sun.

Question 7.
Write the responses of stem and root due to light and gravity.
Answer:

Part of plant	Response to light	Response to gravity
Stem	Positive phototropism (grows towards the light)	Negative geotropism (grows against the force of gravity)
Root	Negative phototropism (grows away from the light)	Positive geotropism (grows in the direction of the force of gravity)

Question 8.
Differentiate between Autonomic and Paratonic movements.
Answer:
The movements induced by some internal causes are called autonomic movement. The movement induced by external stimuli is called Paratonic movement.

Question 9.
What is phototropism? How is it caused?
Answer:
The tropic movement of the part of plant in response to stimulus of light is called phototropism. It is caused due to differential growth of part of plant like root, stem.

Question 10.
What is meant by diaphototropic?
Answer:
Leaves also show response to light. They twist their petioles and plane their faces (upper sides) at right angles to the light. They are diaphototropic or transversely phototropic.

Question 11.
What is Cholodny and Went theory of phototropism?
Answer:
Cholodny and Went theory suggested that the phototropic response occurs due to unequal distribution of auxin (IAA).

Question 12.
What is Cholodny and Went theory of geotropism?
Answer:
This theory suggests that differential growth in geotropism is caused due to unequal distribution of auxin (IAA) in the upper and lower halves of the shoot.

Question 13.
What are Seismonastic movements?
Answer:
The shock movements are called Seismonastic. It occurs in mimosa. When the leaves of mimosa, (touch me not) is touched, the leaflet folds together. This response takes within a few seconds.

Question 14.
What are Haptonastic movements?
Answer:
The nastic movements occur due to stimulus of touch are called Haptonastic movements. Haptonastic movements occur in the leaves of Drosera and Dionaea.

Question 15.
Are the development and growth of plants only influenced by plant hormones?
Answer:
Physical and chemical environmental factors, like intensity and position of light in relation to the plant, gravitational force, temperature, mechanical pressures and chemical composition of the soil and the atmosphere, can also influence the growth and development of plants.

Question 16.
What are plant tropisms?
Answer:
Tropisms are movements caused by external stimulus. In Botany the studied plant tropisms are : phototropism (tropism in response to light), geotropism (tropism in response to the earth gravity) and thigmotropism (tropism in response to mechanical stimulus).

Question 17.
To which direction does the growth of one side of a stem, branch or root induce the structure to curve?
Answer:
Whenever one side of a stem, branch or root grows more than the other side, the structure curves towards the side that grows less.

Question 18.
What is phototropism?
Answer:
Phototropism is the movement of plant structures in response to light. Phototropism may be positive or negative. Positive phototropism is that in which the plant movement (or growth) is towards the light source and negative phototropism is that in which the movement (or growth) is inverse, away from the light source.

Phototropism relates to auxins since the exposition of one side of the plant to light makes these hormones concentrate in the darker side. This fact makes the auxin action upon the stem to be positive, i.e., the growth of the darker side is more intense and the plant arcs towards the lighter side. In the root (when submitted to light, in general experimentally) the auxin action is negative (over the positive range), the growth of the darker side is inhibited and the root curves towards this side.

Question 19.
What are the types of plant geotropisms? Why do the stem and the root present opposite geotropisms?
Answer:
The type of geotropisms are the positive geotropism, that in which the plant grows in favour of the gravitational force, as for example in roots, and the negative geotropism, that against the gravitational force, for example, in the stem. Root geotropism and stem geotropism are opposed due to different sensitivities to auxin concentration in a horizontal position (parallel to the ground) and naturally auxins concentrate along their bottom part.

Under this condition it is observed that the stem grows upwards and the root grows downwards. This happens because in the stem the high auxin concentration in the bottom makes this side grow (longitudinally) more and the structures arc upwards. In the root the high auxin concentration in the bottom inhibits the growth of this side and the upper side grows more making the root to curve downwards.

Question 20.
What is thigmotropism?
Answer:
Thigmotropism is the movement or growth of the plant in response to mechanical stimuli (touch or physical contact), as when a plant grows around a supporting rod. It occurs for example in grape and passionfruit vines, coiling of tendrils and steams, haustoria in Cuscuta etc.

Question 21.
What will happen if apical bud is removed?
Answer:
Removal of apical bud shows lateral branching. This is because auxins control apical dominance and apex inhibits the growth of axillary buds.

Question 22.
What do mean by paratonic movement?
Answer:
Plants have the capacity of changing their position, in response to external or internal stimuli which are known as plant movements. The movements which occur due to internal stimuli are called autonomic movements and those that occur due to external stimuli are called paratonic movements.
Nepenthes (pitcher plant) is an insectivorous plant. In this, the leaf lamina is modified to form a pitcher and leaf apex froms a coloured lid.

Question 23.
If a tree flowers thrice in a year (Oct., Jan and July) in Northern India, then it is said to be photo and thermo-intensitive. Why?
Answer:
Flower formation is a transitional phase in the life cycle of plant. During flowering, vegetative shoot apex is converted into reproductive shoot apex. The physiological mechanism for flowering is controlled by 2 factors ; photoperiod or light period, i.e., photoperiodism and low temperature, i.e., vernalization.

Question 24.
Explain thigmonastic movement with the example of the ability of the Venus Flytrap to capture insects.
Answer:
Thigmonastic movements are exhibited by some insectivorous plants such as Dionaea, venus Flytrap, Drosera etc. These plants have tentacles, which are sensitive to the stimulus of touch. In the case of the venus flytrap turgor pressure changes, occur in which hydrogen ions are rapidly pumped into the walls to cells on the outside of each leaf in response to the action potentials from the trigger hairs. The protons apparently loosen the cell walls so rapidly that the tissue actually becomes flaccid so that cells quickly absorb water, causing the outside of each leaf to expand and the trap to snap shut.

Question 25.
What do you mean by movement of locomotion and movement of curvature?
Answer:
Movement may be of two types, movement of locomotion and movement of curvature. Movement of curvature is movement of individual parts in relation to other parts. Curvature movement may be growth movements and turgor movements. Growth movements are caused by differential growth in different parts of an organ. Opening of floral buds into flowers is such a type of growth movement. Mostly floral bud opening shows thermonastic movement i.e. opening and closing are controlled by temperature. Sometimes movements are controlled by presence or absence of light, e.g. Oxalis.

Question 26.
What is the cause of leaflet movement in Desmodium?
Answer:
The leaflet of the Desmodium plant automatically goes up and down with the loss and gain of turgidity of the lateral leaflets. As the leaflets go down, they lose turgidity, become light and go up.

Question 27.
What is Clinostat?
Answer:
The geotropic movement demonstrated in the laboratory by an instrument is called Clinostat.

Question 28.
What is seismonasty?
Answer:
The movement which is induced by stimuli like touch, shock, shaking etc is called seismonastic movement or Seismonasty.

Question 29.
What is nastic movement?
Answer:
The movement of a plant organ that has no relation to the direction of stimulus but has a relation with the intensity of stimulus is called nastic movement.

Question 30.
What is geotropic movement?
Answer:
The movement of curvature of plant organ that is induced by force of gravity is called geotropic movement.

Question 31.
What is hydrotropic movement? Give example.
Answer:
The movement of curvature of plant organ in response of water stimulus is called hydrotropic movement. E.g. Root is positively hydrotrophic and stem is negatively hydrotropic.

Question 32.
Write two difference between tropic and nastic movement.
Answer:

Tropic movement	Nastic movement
i. This movement is related to growth.	i. This movement is related to turgor.
ii. The movement bears relation to the direction of stimulus.	ii. The movement bears relation to the intensity of stimulus.

Question 33.
Design an experiment to demonstrate hydrotropism.
Answer:
Take two small beakers and label them as A and B. Fill beaker A with water. Now make a cylindrical-shaped roll from a filter paper and keep it as a bridge between beaker A and beaker B, as shown in the figure. Attach a few germinating seeds in the middle of the filter paper bridge. Now, cover the entire set-up with a transparent plastic container so that the moisture is retained.

Observation : The roots of the germinating seeds will grow towards beaker A. This experiment demonstrates the phenomenon of hydrotropism.

Question 34.
Describe the phototropic movement of plants.
Answer:
Movement of plant parts in response to light stimulus is called phototropic movement.

Question 35.
How could you proof that stems are phototropic?
Answer:
If the stem of a plant grows towards the direction of light, then it is called positively phototropic and if the root position grows away from the direction of light, this is negatively phototropic.

Question 36.
What are stimulus and irritability?
Answer:
Stimulus: The change in environmental conditions which produced appreciable effect in plant is called stimulus.
Irritability : The response to stimuli is called Irritability.

Question 37.
What is the function of receptors in our body? Think of situations where receptors do not work properly. What problems are likely to arise?
Answer:
Functions of receptors :
They sense the external stimuli such as heat or pain.
They also trigger an impulse in the sensory neuron which sends message to the spinal cord.

When the receptors are damaged, the external stimuli transferring signals to the brain are not felt. For example, in the case of damaged receptors, if we accidentally touch any hot object, then our hands might get burnt as damaged receptors cannot perceive the external stimuli of heat and pain.

Long Answer Type Questions : 5 Marks

Question 1.
List the different movements of plant in a tabular form.
Answer:

Question 2.
What do you mean by spontaneous and induced movement?
Answer:
Spontaneous movement : There are plant movements which take place spontaneously without any external stimuli. These movements are described spontaneous or autonomic movements.
Induced movement : Some plant movements are caused in response to certain stimuli and they are said to be induced or plant movement which take place spontaneously, without any irritability and sensitivity of protoplasm.

Question 3.
What do you mean by movement of locomotion?
Answer:
Movements of the whole plant body or of an organ or of material within the plant cell which occur in responses to inherent factors and are free and spontaneous are said to be movements of locomotion. Examples : cyclosis (streaming of protoplasm), oscillatory movements of Oscilatoria, Motility of zoospores.

Question 4.
What do you mean by growth and curvature movement?
Answer:
These movements are brought about by unequal growth on different sides of an organ.
These are of the following types :
A. Nutation : The side of the supporting organ that is in contact of the support grows at a slower rate than the opposite side. This brings about a curvature which helps the supporting organ is spiralling or twinning around the support.

B. Nastic : These movements occur due to differences in the rate of growth on the two opposite surface of a plant organ. When the movement occurs due to faster growth on the upper surface of the organ, it is said to be epinastic movement and when on the lower surface of the growing organ, it is known as hyponastic movement.

Examples : Opening of floral buds and circinately coiled leaves are good examples of nastic movements.

Question 5.
How lateral leaflets move in Indian telegraph plant?
Answer:
These movements occurs due to periodic variations in the turgidity of cells of an organ.
The example is Indian telegraph plant, Desmodium gyrans, where up and down movements of the two lateral leaflets occur in a rhythmic manner.

These leaflets periodically drop down and rise up. This happens due to the presence of large thin walled motor cells at the bases of the leaflets.
When these cells lose water into neighbouring cells, they collapse and the leaflets drop down, and when they regain water, they become turgid and leaflets acquire their upright position.

Question 6.
Describe phototropism with an experiment.
Answer:
These curvature movements occur when a plant is provided with artificial or natural light only from one direction. Stems which generally show a curvature towards the source of light are said to be positively phototropic. Roots which grow away from the source of light are called negatively phototropic.

Question 7.
Describe geotropism with an experiment.
Answer:
Growth movements induced by stimulus of gravity are said to be geotropism. Primary roots always grow downward in the direction of gravity and thus are positively geotropic, whereas the main shoots grow upward away from the gravity and are thus negatively geotropic.

The secondary lateral roots are shoots show a weaker response to gravity and thus take up a position at an angle to the gravitational stimulus and are called diageotropic.
Demostration of geotropism : Geotropism can be demonstrate in the laboratory with the instrument known as Clinostat. It can allow a potted plant fixed on it to rotate at a definite speed.
Two clinostats are taken and a potted plant on each is fixed on a horizontal position.

One clinostat is rotated and the other is kept stationary. Observations made after sometime will show that the shoot of the plant fixed on the stationary clinostat bends upwards showing negative geotropism and the root bends downwards showing positive geotropism. But their is no bending in the root and shoot of the plant fixed on the rotating clinostat. This is due to the fact that gravitational stimulus is not unilateral as it affects the sides of the rotating organs equally.

Negative geotropic response of shoots :

1. Shoots which are negatively geotropic grow vertically and it helps the plant to complete for light and Carbon dioxide.
2. The flowers are brought into an advantageous position for pollination through insects or wind.
3. Seed dispersal may be more effective on long and vertical stem.

Positive geotropic response of roots :

1. It causes roots to grow downwards into the earth where they can anchor the plant firmly in the soil.
2.  It causes them to obtain water and minarals salts.
3. Lateral roots, not positively geotropic grow at right angles or slightly downwards from the main root. This enables a large volume of soil to be exploited and helps to anchor the plants securely.

Question 8.
Explain hydrotropism with an experiment.
Answer:
Growth movements in response to unilateral stimulus of water are known as hydrotropism.
Roots are positively hydrotropic as they bend towards the source of water.

Question 9.
What do mean by phototactic movement?
Answer:
The tactic movements are in response to unidirectional light. Examples : Free swimming algae, zoospores, gametes when swim towards the diffused light are said to be positively phototactic and when they move away from the strong light, they are called negatively phototactic.

Question 10.
What do you mean by nastic movement? Describe different types of nastic movement.
Answer:
The movement can be due to the changes in turgor or changes in growth.
Depending upon the nature of stimuli, these movements are of following types :
(A) Nyctinasty
(B) Chemonasty
(C) Seismonasty
A. Nyctinasty
These movements of plant organs occur in response to day and night and thus are also known as sleep movements.
Photonastic : If this movement when induced by change in light intensity. Examples: Flower of Oxalis, Portulaca, Nicotiana, Oenothera etc.

Thermonastic : This movements is induced by change in temperature intensity. Example : Tulip and Saffron (Crocus)
A temperature rise of only 36 degrees is enough to begin to open a crocus.

B. Chemonasty : This movement occurs in response to some chemical stimulus. eg. Strong chemonasty is exhibited by long peripheral tentacles of sundew leaves(Drosera) which respond to the presence of organic nitrogenous compounds by bending towards the middle of leaf.

C. Seismonasty :
These movements are in response to shock by a touch stimulus. Example : Neptunia, Biophylum, Mimosa pudica, Begonia, Mytinia etc.

Question 11.
Give a brief account of turgor movement shown by Mimosa pudica.
Answer:

• These base of the petiole is swollen (Pulvinus) and similar but smaller pulvinus are present at the base of each leaflet.
• Lower half thin walled and upper half thick walled.
• If the terminal pinnule is struck a blow or touched, the stimulus is conducted to its base and then other pinnules.
• This stimulus causes fall in turgor of lower cells due to loss of water.
• Upper half retains turgidity.
• Turgid half presses flaccid lower half/leaf droops.
• When the touch stimulus is removed regains turgidity.

Question 12.
Difference between nastic and tropic movement?
Answer:
Nastic Movement : Nastic movements are non-directional responses to stimuli (e.g. temperature, Humidity, light, irradiance). The movement can be due to changes in turgor or changes in growth. Nastic movements differ from tropic movements in that the direction of tropic responses depends on the direction of the stimulus, whereas the direction of nastic movement is independent of the stimulus. The rate or frequency of these responses increases as intensity of the stimulus increases. An example of such a response is the opening and closing of flowers (photonastic response). Nastic responses are usually associated with plants.’

Tropism Movement : ‘A tropism (from Greek, tropos, to turn) is a biological phenomenon, indicating growth or turning movement of a biological organism, usually a plant, in response to an environmental stimulus’. In tropisms, this response is dependent on the direction of the stimulus’ (as opposed to nastic movements which are non-directional responses). Viruses and other pathogens also affect what is called ‘host tropism’ or ‘cell tropism’, in which case tropism refers to species, or specific cell types within those species. The word tropism comes from the Greek trope (‘to turn’ or ‘to change’). Tropisms are usually named for the stimulus involved (for example, a phototropism is a reaction to light) and may be either positive (towards the stimulus) or negative (away from the stimulus).

Multiple Choice Questions : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Tropic movements are
(a) In response to light
(b) In response of gravity
(c) Uni-directional
(d) Non-directional
Answer:
(c) Uni-directional

Question 2.
Stimulus is
(a) A physical force
(b) Energy
(c) Changed environment
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Changed environment

Question 3.
Irritability is
(a) Respond to stimulus
(b) Non respond to stimulus
(c) Changes within body
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Respond to stimulus

Question 4.
Respond to stimuli in plants is taken by
(a) Nervous system
(b) Growth movement
(c) Hormonal movement
(d) Turgor pressure.
Answer:
(b) Growth movement

Question 5.
Movement of whole plant in response to external stimuli is called
(a) Tropic movement
(b) Tactic movement
(c) Nastism
(d) Hyprotropism
Answer:
(b) Tactic movement

Question 6.
Root always
(a) Moves towards light
(b) Moves towards soil
(c) Moves towards surface of the soil
(d) Showing geotropism
Answer:
(d) Showing geotropism

Question 7.
Stems are always
(a) Geotropic
(b) Phototropic
(c) Hydrotropic
(d) Chemotropic
Answer:
(b) Phototropic

Question 8.
Roots response towards the force of gravity is the display of
(a) Positive geotropism
(b) Negative geotropism
(c) Both of them
(d) None of above
Answer:
(a) Positive geotropism

Question 9.
In hyponasty the bud will remain
(a) Close
(b) Open
(c) Semi-open
(d) Wilt
Answer:
(a) Close

Question 10.
The leaves and petals follow the growth pattern with respect to movement is
(a) Epinasty
(b) Hyponasty
(c) Nutation
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Epinasty

Question 11.
If the movement is towards the stimulus the response is
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) No response
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Positive

Question 12.
The leaves of mimosa require a specific time to regain its turgidity i.e.
(a) 5 minutes
(b) 10 minutes
(c) 8 minutes
(d) 12 minutes
Answer:
(b) 10 minutes

Question 13.
Movement of leaves of sensitive plant, Mimosa pudica are due to
(a) Thermonasty
(b) Seismonasty
(c) Hydrotropism
(d) Chemonasty
Answer:
(b) Seismonasty

Question 14.
Twinning of tendrils is due to
(a) Thigmotropism
(b) Seismonasty
(c) Heliotropism
(d) Diageotropism
Answer:
(a) Thigmotropism

Question 15.
Removal of apical bud results in
(a) formation of new apical bud
(b) elongation of main stem
(c) death of plant
(d) formation of lateral branching
Answer:
(d) formation of lateral branching

Question 16.
The closure of lid of pitcher in pitcher plant, is due to
(a) parotomic movement
(b) autonomous movement
(c) turgor movement
(d) tropic movement
Answer:
(a) parotomic movement

Question 17.
The twinning of tendrils around a support is a good example of
(a) phototropism
(b) chemotropism
(c) nastic movements
(d) thigmotropism
Answer:
(d) thigmotropism

Question 18.
If a tree flowers thrice in a year (Oct., Jan. and July) in Northern India, it is said to be
(a) photo and thermo-insensitive
(b) photo and thermo-sensitive
(c) photosensitive but thermo-insensitive
(d) thermosensitive but photo-insensitive
Answer:
(a) photo and thermo-insensitive

Question 19.
The closing and opening of the leaves of Mimosa pudica is due to
(a) seismonastic movement
(b) chemonastic movement
(c) thermonastic movement
(d) hydrotropic movement
Answer:
(a) seismonastic movement

Question 20.
The ability of the Venus Flytrap to capture insects is due to
(a) Specialized “muscle-like” cells
(b) Chemical stimulation by the prey
(c) a passive process requiring no special ability on the part of the plant
(d) rapid turgor pressure changes.
Answer:
(d) rapid turgor pressure changes.

Question 21.
Opening of floral buds into flowers is a type of
(a) autonomic movement of variation
(b) paratonic movement of growth
(c) autonomic movement of growth
(d) autonomic movement of locomotion.
Answer:
(c) autonomic movement of growth

Very Short Answer Type Questions : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Stimulus is __________.
Answer:
Energy.

Question 2.
Irritability is __________.
Answer:
Respond to stimulus

Question 3.
Respond to stimuli in plants is taken by __________.
Answer:
Growth movement

Question 4.
Movement of whole plant in response to external stimuli is called __________.
Answer:
Tactic Movement

Question 5.
Root always __________.
Answer:
Showing Geotropism

Question 6.
Stems are always __________.
Answer:
Geotropic

Question 7.
Give one eg. of seismonastic movement in Plant.
Answer:
Mimosa pudica

Question 8.
Name the secondary plant organs where transversely geotropic movement is found.
Answer:
Rhizomes

Question 9.
Write the types of tropic movement.
Answer:

• Phototropic movement
• Geotropic movement
• Hydrotropic movement

Question 10.
Flowers of Tulip shows what type of nastic movement?
Answer:
Thermonastic movement.

Question 11.
The Plant movement away from light is also called __________.
Answer:
Geotropism.

Question 12.
The ‘Touch me not’ plant exhibits __________.
Answer:
Seismonastic movement.

Question 13.
A free swimming alga.
Answer:
Chlamydomonas.

Question 14.
Clinostat demonstrates __________.
Answer:
Geotropism

Question 15.
Stem bends towards light, what type of movement it is ?
Answer:
Phototropic movement.

Question 16.
When a sensitive plant is touched, it drops its leaves. What type of movement it is?
Answer:
Seismonastic movement.

Question 17.
Who discovered the sensitivity of plant?
Answer:
J.C. Bose.

Question 18.
Which type of movement show in volvox?
Answer:
Phototropic.

Question 19.
Chemonastic movement is found in __________.
Answer:
Desmodium

Question 20.
Which type of movement found in Tulip?
Answer:
Thermonastic.

Question 21.
What is the name of Indian Telegraph plant?
Answer:
Desmodium.

Question 22.
Which movement is exhibited by Mimosa pudica?
Answer:
Seismonastic movement.

Question 23.
What is response to a stimuli?
Answer:
Responding to a stimulus is the faculty of sensitivity.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 6 Satellite Imagery and Topographical Map offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Question Answer – Satellite Imagery and Topographical Map

Answer in short : 2 Marks

Question 1.
Name the three phases in preparing satellite imageries.
Answer:
Space segment, sensor segment and ground segment.

Question 2.
What is the importance of topographical maps ?
Answer:
Topographical maps give a pictographic representation of the original region with the help of various signs and symbols. It helps to understand the correlation between physical and cultural features of the area.

Question 3.
What is the main difference in preparing a topographical map and satellite imagery?
Answer:
Satellite imageries are prepared from photos taken by satellite sensors. Topographical maps are prepared by field survey.

Question 4.
What do you mean by ‘grand samples’ or ‘reference data’?
Answer:
To extract useful informations from satellite imageries, some information needs to be collected from the ground itself. This is known as ‘ground samples’ or ‘reference data’.

Question 5.
Mention the steps in acquiring satellite imageries.
Answer:
The steps in acquiring satellite imageries are :

1. Collection of ground samples
2. Image acquisition
3. Processing of satellite imagery
4. Creation of map.

Question 6.
What is a topographical map ?
Answer:
The map that represents the physical as well as cultural features of a place at a time with the help of certain colours and conventional symbols, is called a topographical map.

Question 7.
Where is blue colour used in a toposheet ?
Answer:
Blue colour is used in a toposheet to represent perennial rivers, tanks, reservoirs, ponds etc.

Question 8.
Where is red colour used in a toposheet ?
Answer:
In a toposheet red colour is used to represent roads and settlements.

Question 9.
What are satellite imageries?
Answer:
The images prepared by information sent by the satellites imageries. These are prepared by reading and representing the signals sent by the satellites with the help of high technological know-how.

Question 10.
What is a sensor?
Answer:
A sensor is a specialised camera that is installed in a satellite in order to take photographs of the earth.

Question 11.
What is a platform ?
Answer:
The place where the artificial satellite is installed in space, is called a platform. Question 12. How many kind of sensors are there?
Answer: Sensors can be of two kinds – the active sensors and the inactive sensors.

Question 13.
What are active sensers?
Answer:
The sensors that work on their own to generate energy and capture photograps of any item or a region, are called active sensors. Eg-Radar, Radio meter, Ledon, etc.

Question 14.
What are inactive sensors?
Answer:
The sensors that depend on the reflection of sunlight for preparation of images are called inactive sensors. They do not possess any electro-magnetic force. EgPhotographic camera, electronic camera, multispectral camera, etc.

Question 15.
What is Remote sensing ?
Answer:
Remote sensing is the method of collecting information of a place or region without physically reaching there.

Question 16.
What is Landsat?
Answer:
Landsat is a very special kind of satellite launched by the NASA, USA. So far, 8 satellites of this series have been launched. (Landsat 1-8). Landsat 1 was launched in 1972 and Landsat 8 was launched in 2013.

Question 17.
What is IRS ?
Answer:
IRS stands for Indian Remote Sensing Satellite. So far, 20 satellites have been launched by India for preparing satellite imageries and other purposes, of which 11 are of IRS series. The latest of this series launched in 2013 is SARAL.

Question 18.
What do you mean by False Colour Composite or FCC ?
Answer:
The satellite imageries represent the various features of the earth’s surface (rivers, forest, roadways, railways, etc.) in different colours other than their original natural colours. This is known as False Colour Composite. Initially they may seem to confuse, but actually they help to bring out the details of a region more accurately.

Answer in brief : 3 Marks

Question 1.
What are the merits of satellite imageries ?
Answer:
The merits of satellite imageries are :

1. They can give synoptic view of the earth (23 cm × 23 cm maps) as well as represent huge areas (30,000 sq km)
2. Information of resources and physical processes working in rugged and difficult terrains can be acquired easily.
3. Clear images can be taken ever under cloud cover.
4. Information collected is digital and that can be easily analysed by computers.
5. Weather forecasts can be gathered.

Question 2.
What are the demerits of satellite imageries?
Answer:
The demerits of satellite imageries are :

1. Images cannot be taken in cloud cover without microwave sensors.
2. Critical survey of very minute areas is not possible.
3. Actual size or height of an object cannot be determined accurately.
4. Similar objects lying side by side are difficult to assess.
5. The whole process of acquiring images is very expensive:

Question 3.
What are the characteristics of topographical maps ?
Answer:
Topographical maps are a special type of maps, where physical and man made features are shown together. The characteristics are :

1. They are prepared in precise scales. Hence location and size of objects can be represented accurately.
2. Relief and drainage patterns are represented along with the cultural features like settlements, schools, temples, mosques, railway lines, PO etc. This helps to understand the correlation between physical and cultural features.
3. The economic conditions of a region can be understood.

Question 4.
What are the characteristics of satellite imageries?
Answer:
The characteristics of satellite imageries are:

1. They can supply complete weather information and imagery of a full hemisphere at a time.
2. Imageries can also be obtained in segments for detailed descriptions.
3. They help in resource surveys.

Question 5.
What are the uses of satellite imageries?
Answer:
The different uses of satellite imageries are:

1. They are used for weather forecasting.
2. They are used to monitor agricultural yield and their quality.
3. They help to gather information about other planets and special objects in order to conduct advanced researches on them.

Question 6.
Mention the various scales on which topographical maps may be constructed.
Answer:

Question 7.
List the importances of toposheets.
Answer:
The importances of toposheets are:

1. It helps to understand and study the physical characteristics of the region.
2. It helps to understand and analyse the different cultural features (roads, settlements, etc.) of the same area with respect to physical features.
3. It helps to plan for economic development.
4. It helps to analyse the relation between man and nature.

Question 8.
What are the characteristics of a topographical map representing a plain area?
Answer:
The characteristics of a topographical sheet representing a plain area are :

1. The contour value is around 100 m, and the contour lines are placed far away from each other.
2. Lesser number of contour lines seen on the map area.
3. The rivers are usually perennial and meandering. They contain sandbars and may cause flood.
4. Forest were hardly present. Much areas lie under agriculture.
5. All kinds of transport and communication are available.
6. Huge population and large settlements are seen in the junctions or nodal points.

Question 9.
What are the characteristics of topographical sheets representing plateau areas?
Answer:
The charateristics of topographical sheets representing plateau area are :

1. The contour value lies between 300-900 m and they are medium areas.
2. The rivers are straight in the hilly region and start meandering beyond that.
3. Numerous non-perennial rivers can be seen spreading like branches of trees.
4. Badlands, monadnocks, alluvial caves, mountain ridges, etc. can be seen.
5. Dense reserves and protected forests can be seen.
6. Small clusters of settlements in the plain regions and dispersed settlements in hilly regions are seen.

Question 10.
What are the characteristics of topographical sheets representing hilly regions.
Answer:
The characteristics of topographical sheets representing hilly regions are :

1. The contour values lies above 900 m. and are closely spaced. They look like concentric circles.
2. Conical hills, dormal hills, I and V shaped Valleys, cliffes, spurs, ridges, etc. can be seen.
3. In maps of glacial regions, presence of morain can be seen.

Question 11.
Name the features usually shown in a topographical map.
Answer:
The features represented in a topographical map are :

1. Relief – Relative height, slope, ruggedness, landform.
2. Rivers – Main and tributary rivers, drainage patterns, drainage density.
3. Vegetation – Natural forests, Protected and Reserved forests.
4. Settlements – Settlement patterns, density of settlements.
5. Transport and communications – Railways, roadways, telegraph and telephone lines, etc.

Question 12.
What is a Transect Chart ?
Answer:
Transect chart is an illustration drawn based in the topographical map, representing the relation between physical and cultural or man made features of the same region. They help in understanding the inter-relationship between the physical and cultural features. They also help in planning for development of the area.

Question 13.
What is Spectral Resolution?
Answer:
In Satellite imageries, the images created by the refracted light rays from the space coming perpendicular to the earth’s surface are called ‘Spectral Resolution’.

Question 14.
What is Spatial resolution?
Answer:
In satellite imageries, the images created by the refracted light rays falling horizontally on any place or item on the earth’s surface, are called spatial resolution.

Answer in details : 5 Marks

Question 1.
State the differences between satellite imageries and topographical maps.
Answer:

Satellite imageries	Topographical maps
i. Prepared from photos captured by satellite sensors.	i. Prepared by field survey.
ii. Represent landforms and other features as they look originally.	ii. Represent landforms and other features by conventional symbols.
iii. Images of difficult terrains can be taken easily.	iii. Very difficult to conduct survey on rugged terrain.
iv. Modern concept depending on sophisticated technology.	iv. Traditional way of mapping a surveyed area.
v. Special training is needed to read satellite imageries.	v. Knowledge of conventional signs is enough to understand topographical maps.
vi Takes much less time for preparation.	vi. Takes much time in survey and preparation of maps.
vii. Quite expensive.	vii. Comparatively less expensive.
viii. Weather conditions influence quality of images.	viii. Weather conditions to do influence the quality of maps.
ix. Digital images are acquired.	ix. Normal maps are prepared.
x. Images are used for study of regions as well as weather forecasting.	x. Only study of regions is possible. No weather forecasting is possible in this system.

Question 2.
Discuss the steps in acquiring satellite imageries.
Answer:
The different steps in acquiring satellite imageries are :
i. Collection of ground samples : To extract useful information from satellite imageries, some information needs to be collected from the ground itself. This is called ‘ground samples’ or ‘reference data’ of ‘field data’. This helps to verify what the satellite sensors are detecting.

ii. Image acquisition : Images are captured by the desired sensor chosen as per requirements.
iii. Processing of satellite imagery : Once the imagery is acquired, analysts typically go through a series of steps to prepare imagery for analysis.
iv. Creation of map : Once the mathematical relationship between the satellite data and the field data has been developed, it is applied to all pixels in the imagery to create a map. These maps are then put into the Geographical Information System (GIS).

Question 3.
Discuss the importances of Satellite imageries.
Answer:
The importances of satellite imageries are:

1. Satellite imageries give every detail of a region with maximum accuracy.
2. Information regarding landform, slope, ruggedness, presence of resources, etc. can easily available from satellite imageries.
3. The imageries can be acquired for multiple uses.
4. They are prepared very fast and are very useful.
5. In order to prepare the imageries, we don’t need to go physically to original places.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) 1 Mark

Question 1.
Satellite imageries are produced in India by
(A) ISRO
(B) NATMO
(C) ISI
(D) IIRS
Answer:
(A) ISRO

Question 2.
Information gathered by satellites are
(A) Digital
(B) Mechanical
(C) Thematic
(D) IIRS
Answer:
(A) Digital

Question 3.
Images cannot be taken in cloud cover without
(A) Solar cells
(B) Microwave sensors
(C)Flood lights
(D) Mathematical
Answer:
(B) Microwave sensors

Question 4.
The actual height of places above sea land are represented by
(A) Spot height
(B) Layer colouring
(C) Hectre
(D) Contours
Answer:
(A) Spot height

Question 5.
In a topographical map, relief is shown by
(A) Layering
(B) Hachuring
(C) Hill shading
(D) Contours
Answer:
(D) Contours

Question 6.
In a topographical map, settlements are represented by ___ colour.
(A) Red
(B) Black
(C) Brown
(D) Green
Answer:
(A) Red

Question 7.
Which one is used for storing data in computers?
(A) Magnetic tape
(B)VDU
(C) Floppy disc
(D) Joy Stick
Answer:
(D) Joy Stick

Question 8.
Satellite imageries are produced in USA by
(A) ISRO
(B) SPOT
(C) LANDSAT
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) LANDSAT

Question 9.
The term ‘Topography’ has originated from
(A) Greek
(B)Spanish
(C) French
(D) Latin
Answer:
(A) Greek

Question 10.
The physical and cultural characteristics of a place can be known from a
(A) Mouza map
(B) Topo map
(C) Weather map
(D) Political map
Answer:
(B) Topo map

Question 11.
The term ‘Topography’ means
(A) Description of river
(B) Discription of region
(C) Political conditon
(D) Description of weather
Answer:
(B) Discription of region

Question 12.
Topographical maps are read with the help of
(A) Graph
(B) Colours
(C) Conventional symbols
(D) Scale
Answer:
(C) Conventional symbols

Question 13.
The lines that represent height in a topographical map are called
(A) Contours
(B) Isobars
(C) Isohyets
(D) Isotopes
Answer:
(A) Contours

Question 14.
The contours in a topomap are drawn in
(A) Blue
(B) Black
(C) Red
(D) Brown
Answer:
(D) Brown

Question 15.
R.F. of a degree sheet of map is
(A) 1: 10,00,000
(B) 1: 2,50,000
(C) 1: 1,00,000
(D) 1: 50,000
Answer:
(B) 1: 2,50,000

Question 16.
Height of any place measured from the Mean Sea Level is called
(A) Point
(B) Spot height
(C) Bench Mark
(D) Survey station
Answer:
(D) Survey station

Question 17.
The total number of topographical maps constructed to represent the whole earth is
(A) 2232
(B) 2222
(C) 2322
(D) 3222
Answer:
(B) 2222

Question 18.
The contour interval in a topomap is
(A) 1 m or 5 m
(B) 10 m or 20 m
(C) 30 m or 50 m
(D) 50 m or 100 m
Answer:
(B) 10 m or 20 m

Question 19.
The 4° × 4° maps are called _____ in India.
(A) Inch sheet maps
(B) Degree sheet maps
(C) Foot sheet maps
(D) Million sheet maps
Answer:
(D) Million sheet maps

Question 20.
Satellite imageries are captured with the help of
(A) Camera
(B) Light
(C) Rays
(D) Sensors
Answer:
(D) Sensors

Question 21.
The location where the artificial satellites are set in the space is called
(A) Spot
(B) Sensor
(C) Platform
(D) Location
Answer:
(C) Platform

Question 22.
A satellite imagery is a
(A) Picture of the satellite
(B) Picture of the earth
(C) Picture of space
(D) Picture constructed with the help of information collected by the satellite.
Answer:
(D) Picture constructed with the help of information collected by the satellite.

Question 23.
What is the scale of a map representing 2 cm to 1 km ?
(A) 1: 10,000
(B) 1: 20,000
(C) 1: 50,000
(D) 1: 1,00,000
Answer:
(C) 1: 50,000

Question 24.
With the help of what does the sensor of a satellite take the photos of the surface?
(A) Rotation
(B) Oxygen
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Radiated heat
Answer:
(D) Radiated heat

Question 25.
An example of a sensor used in satellites is
(A) MISS
(B) LISS
(C) DISS
(D) TISS
Answer:
(B) LISS

Question 26.
The electro-magnetic waves that help satellites to capture photographs is received from the
(A) Moon
(B) Earth
(C) Sun
(D) Electric current
Answer:
(C) Sun

Question 27.
Remote Sensing was started in India in
(A) 1952
(B) 1962
(C) 1972
(D) 1982
Answer:
(B) 1962

Question 28.
The National Remote Sensing Agency (NRSA) is located in India in
(A) Kolkata
(B) Delhi
(C) Bhopal
(D) Hyderabad
Answer:
(D) Hyderabad

Question 29.
Blue colour in a topographical map depicts
(A) Settlement
(B) Water bodies
(C) Forest
(D) Hills
Answer:
(B) Water bodies

Question 30.
In a 1: 50,000 toposheet, the map number can be like
(A) 45 D/10
(B) 45 D
(C) 45 NW
(D) 45 SE
Answer:
(A) 45 D/10

Question 31.
The Map no. of the toposheet is written in the
(A) NE and SW of the map
(B) Middle of the map
(C) Top left side of the map
(D) Bottom left side of the map
Answer:
(A) NE and SW of the map

Question 32.
The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of a Million Sheet map is
(A) 4° latitude × 4° longitude
(B) 30′ latitude × 30′ longitude
(C) 1° latitude × 1° longitude
(D) 2° latitude × 2° longitude
Answer:
(A) 4° latitude × 4° longitude

Fill in the blanks : 1 Mark

1. Geostationary satellites are placed in an orbit at an altitude of _______ above the equator.
2. _______ satellites are mostly used for weather forecasting and communication purposes.
3. If the scale of the map is 1 cm = 1 km, the R F will be _______.
4. If the scale of the map is 2 inches to one mile, the R F will be _____.
5. Aerial photography came into practice in ________.
6. LISS-I, LISS-II and LISS-III are _______.
7. The inclination of the axis of the camera between _______ and angular position is known as tilt.
8. Photo images are drawn through aeroplanes on ________ projection.
Answer:
1. 36000 km
2. geostationary
3. 1: 1,00,000
4. 1: 31680
5. 1839
6. Sensors
7. Vertical
8. Central

State True or False : 1 Mark

1. The international series of topographical maps are also known as inch sheets. [ ]
2. The height of a place measured with respect to the sea level is known bench mark. [ ]
3. Larger the scale, smaller is the map. [ ]
4. NOAA is an artificial satellite. [ ]
5. OSM is the ‘Open Series Map’ [ ]
Answer:
1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True

Answer in few words : 1 Mark

Question 1.
What is the phase of sending the satellite to space and settling it in orbit called?
Answer:
Space segment.

Question 2.
What is the phase where the cameras in the satellite sense and take photographs of the target region?
Answer:
Sensor segment.

Question 3.
What is the phase where the satellite imagery is prepared finally?
Answer:
Ground segment.

Question 4.
What kind of features does a topographical map represent?
Answer:
Natural as well as artificial features.

Question 5.
Who produces topographical maps in India ?
Answer:
The Survey of India.

Question 6.
Where is the head office of the Survey of India located ?
Answer:
Dehradun, Uttaranchal.

Question 7.
What is a ‘Statement scale’ ?
Answer:
A scale where the ratio between ground distance and map distance is put in a statement.

Question 8.
What is a ‘Representative Fraction’?
Answer:
A scale where the relation between the ground distance and map distance is represented by a ratio. e.g. 1: 50,000

Question 9.
What is a linear scale?
Answer:
A graphical representation of the scale mentioned in statement or ratio.

Question 10.
What are the type of different satellite imageries ?
Answer:
Geo-stationary satellite and Sun-synchronus satellite.

Question 11.
What scale map is a topographical map?
Answer:
Large scale map.

Question 12.
Which maps are constructed with the help of conventional symbols that are common internationally?
Answer:
Topographical maps.

Question 13.
How are perennial rivers represented in a toposheet?
Answer:
With the help of blue colour.

Question 14.
How are non-perennial rivers represented in a toposheet?
Answer:
With the help of black colour.

Question 15.
Which colour represents roads and settlements in a toposheet?
Answer:
Red.

Question 16.
How is height represented in a toposheet?
Answer:
With contour lines drawn in brown.

Question 17.
What is represented by yellow colour in a toposheet?
Answer:
Agricultural land.

Question 18.
Which concern controls artificial satellites in India ?
Answer:
ISRO.

Question 19.
LISS, PAN, WiFS etc. are names of what ?
Answer:
Sensors used in satellites.

Question 20.
What are maps representing small areas on large paper called ?
Answer:
Large scale maps.

Question 21.
What are maps representing huge areas on small paper called ?
Answer:
Small scale maps.

Question 22.
What are the cameras used in satellites called ?
Answer:
Scanners.

Question 23.
When was INSAT 1A launched ?
Answer:
10th April, 1982.

Question 24.
What is a Radar?
Answer:
An active sensor of a satellite.

Question 25.
What is the smallest bit of a soft copy called ?
Answer:
Pixel.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 5.10 Transport and Communication System in India offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 5.10 Question Answer – Transport and Communication System in India

Answer in short: 2 Marks

Question 1.
List the different modes of transport.
Answer:
Roadways, railways, waterways, ropeways, pipelines, underground railways.

Question 2.
What is the Golden Quadrilateral ?
Answer:
The four important metropolitan cities of India, i.e. Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata have been inter-connected by four 6-lane National Highways. This is known as the Golden Quadrilateral. The total length of the Highways is 5,846 km.

Question 3.
What is the North-South Corridor?
Answer:
The National Highway that connects Srinagar in the north to Kanyakumari in the south, via Salem and Cochin, is known as the North-South Corridor. This is about 4000km long.

Question 4.
What is the East-West Corridor?
Answer:
The National Highway that connects Silchar (Assam) in the east to Porbandar (Gujarat) in the west is known as the East-West Corridor. This is about 3,300 km long.

Question 5.
What are inland waterways?
Answer:
Inland waterways lie within the country and connect various places through rivers, lakes, ponds or other waterbodies within the country.

Question 6.
What are international waterways ?
Answer:
International waterways connect two or more countries across the sea or ocean or along a river.

Question 7.
What is the importance of ropeways ?
Answer:
Ropeways help to connect two different places in a hilly region lying in two different hills. This reduces the physical distance between the places and also reduces the efforts of going upslope and downslope from one place to another.

Question 8.
What is the importance of pipelines?
Answer:
Pipelines help to transport liquid items, eg – mineral oil from mine areas to factories or from oil tanker ships to storage places can be done by pipelines. This reduces the risk of wastage and accidents.

Question 9.
What is the use of underground railways ?
Answer:
Underground railways, also known as tube railways or metro railways help to connect short distances through underground railway tracks. They are very fast and sophisticated.

Question 10.
What do you mean by communication?
Answer:
Communication refers to the process of getting in touch with people without actually moving from one place to another. This can be done with the help of telephone, radio, television, fax, internet, newspaper etc.

Question 11.
What are the different uses of cell phones?
Answer:
Cell phone is a modem mode of communication. It is portable to use and easy to handle. It can be used for calling, messaging, radio and television services, camera, GPS etc.

Question 12.
Name the different fields where internet can be used.
Answer:
Internet can be used in education, culture, medical treatment, trade, commerce, political issues etc. Internet helps to bring the world at the door steps.

Question 13.
What do you mean by transport ?
Answer:
The method of movement of goods and passenger from one place to another by physical displacement is called transport.

Question 14.
What are International roadways?
Answer:
Roadways that lie across the boundaries of adjacent or neighbouring countries are called International roadways.
e.g. :Kolkata-Dhaka roadway,
Raxaul-Kathmandu roadway,
Lahore-Amritsar – Delhi roadway, etc.

Question 15.
Classify the different type of roads found in India.
Answer:
(a) National highways
(b) State highways
(c) District road
(d) Village roads
(e) Border roads
(f) Expressways
(g) International roads.

Question 16.
What is the North-South Corridor?
Answer:
The North-South corridor is the National highway of India that connects Sri Nagar in the North to Kanyakumari in the south, touching Kochi and Salem. It runs for about 4000km.

Question 17.
What is the East-West corridor ?
Answer:
The East-West corridor is the National Highway that connects Porbandar in Gujarat in the west to Silchar in Assam in the east. It runs for about 3,300km.

Question 18.
How many trains ply in India per day?
Answer:
By 2013-14 Railway year book, in India, more than 21,000 trains ply daily, of which 13,000 are passenger trains.

Question 19.
How many passengers travel by trains everyday in India ?
Answer:
In India, according to 2013-14 Railway year book, about 2 crore 30 lakh passengers travel by trains everyday and reach more than 8,000 stations.

Question 20.
What is ‘Shipping Lane’ ?
Answer:
The particular routes taken by the cargo ships while transporting goods through the oceans are called ‘shipping lanes’.

Question 21.
What is ‘Shipping Line’ ?
Answer:
The companies whose ships and vessels ply in the oceans are called ‘Shipping lines’.

Question 22.
What kind of inland waterways are seen in India ?
Answer:
(a) Riverways
(b) Canals
(c) Lakes.

Answer in brief : 3 Marks

Question 1.
State the economic importances of transportation system.
Answer:
The economic importances of transport system are:

1. Utilisation of natural resources,
2. Movement of agricultural and industrial raw materials to factories and the finished products to markets,
3. Internal and international trade,
4. Increase of national income,
5. Regional specialisation of economic activities and employment etc.

Question 2.
What are the political importances of transport system ?
Answer:
The political importances of transport system are :

1. Security of the country,
2. National integration,
3. Rescue during disasters and accidents and distribution of food and relief,
4. Connecting remote comers of the country to developed areas to bring about overall development.

Question 3.
What are the social importances of transport system ?
Answer:
The social importances of transport system are :

1. Exchange of culture and education,
2. Urbanization and improvement of standard of living,
3. Removal of regional disparities.

Question 4.
List the importances of roadways.
Answer:
The importances of roadways are :

1. Different type of roads can be built to connect difficult and inaccessible regions.
2. They are beneficial for short distances.
3. Building and maintenance cost of roadways is lower than other modes.
4. Different types of vehicles can ply on roads.
5. They can be used anytime.

Question 5.
List the importances of railways.
Answer:
The importances of railways are :

1. Railways are faster than roadways and save time,
2. They help to connect distant places,
3. They can carry huge amount of goods and huge number of passengers at a time,
4. Once established, cost of maintenance is less,
5. They help to transport industrial and agricultural raw material as well as finished products,
6. They help to increase National income.

Question 6.
What are the advantages of waterways ?
Answer:
The advantages of waterways are:

1. They are cheap and have no cost of maintenance except dredging occasionally,
2. Huge volume of cargo can be transported at a time,
3. They enable national and international trade, exchange of culture and cordial relations with other countries,
4. The cause minimum pollution.

Question 7.
What are the importances of airways ?
Answer:
The importances of airways are:

1. They are the fastest mode of transport,
2. They can connect far off lands inspite of difficult terrain or presence of oceans in between.
3. They help in intemational trade, commerce, exchange of culture and maintaining cordial relations amongst countries.

Question 8.
What is internet?
Answer:
Internet is a mode of communication which connects the whole world like a net through computers. It is very useful in searching information of any kind through websites, sending letters or other information through e-mails, contacting several people throughout the world at a time through social network sites, etc. It is very helpful in education, culture, medical treatment, trade, commerce, political issues etc. Internet has helped to bring the world at the door steps.

Question 9.
List the problems of roadways in India.
Answer:
The various problems of roadways in India are :

1. Construction and maintenance of roadways incur a lot of cost.
2. India being a country of numerous rivers, cost of constructing roads increases manifolds for constructing bridges, lockgates and culverts over rivers.
3. Most of the roads are highly curved and not enough wide.
4. Road conditions become poor during the rainy season.
5. Traffic jams created on roads result in wastage of time, energy and money.
6. Roadways need constant maintenance and attention in order to give proper service.

Question 10.
What are the importances of ropeways?
Answer:
The importances of ropeways are :

1. This is very suitable for hilly regions and mine areas.
2. They attract many tourists in hill stations and act as a good source of national income.
3. Ropeways save both time and energy while transporting goods or passengers.
4. Trade and commerce through ropeways become very easy.
5. Relief materials can be sent very fast through ropeways during disasters and calamities.

Question 11.
List the importances of pipelines.
Answer:
The importances of pipelines are :

1. Pipelines are used to transport liquid materials like water, oil, natural gas, acids, etc. in different parts of India.
2. Pipelines can be constructed in landmass as well as in water bodies.
3. Pipelines save time and money for transportation.
4. Wastage of goods or resources is minimum.
5. Cost of maintenance is also low.

Question 12.
What are the problems of transportation through pipelines ?
Answer:
The problems of transportation through pipelines are :

1. Primary cost of construction is high.
2. Each type of product must be transported in a different pipeline.
3. Only liquid materials can be transported.
4. Lack of resources may keep the pipelines unused for long times.
5. Pumping machines and generators are needed.
6. Difficulties arise in repairing the pipelines constructed underground.

Answer in details : 5 Marks

Question 1.
Compare the roadways to railways.
Answer:

Roadways	Railways
i. They are the oldest mode of transport.	i. They have been developed after roadways.
ii. They are easy to build.	ii. They are difficult to build.
iii. Less cost of building and maintenance.	iii. High cost of building but less cost of maintenance once built.
iv. Many types of vehicles can ply.	iv. Only trains can ply.
v. Can be used at any time.	v. Trains ply at fixed times.
vi. Suitable for short distances.	vi. Suitable for long distances.
vii. Suitable for small bulk of goods and passengers.	vii. Suitable for huge bulk of goods and passengers.
viii. Used to connect different modes of transport as well.	viii. Does not connect different modes of transport.
ix. Comparatively slower.	ix. Comparatively faster.

Question 2.
Compare between transport by airways and waterways.
Answer:

Airways	Waterways
i. Fastest mode of transport.	i. Slowest mode of transport.
ii. High cost of aircrafts and fuel but no cost of maintenance of the airways.	ii. High cost of vessels and fuel but no cost of maintenance except dredging at times.
iii. Bulk of cargo and passengers can be transported.	iii. Bulk of Cargo and passengers is much more than airways.
iv. Very costly.	iv. Comparatively cheap.
v. Suitable for prishable products.	v. Not suitable for perishable products.
vi. Causes air pollution.	vi. Level of pollution is very less.
vii. Requires huge vaccant lands for constructing runways and terminals.	vii. Requires land only for construction of the ports, but usually vast warehouses and godowns are built nearby.

Question 3.
Discuss the role of transport system in the economic development of a country.
Answer:
Transport is a very impertant service sector that plays an immense role in the economic development of the country.

1. It helps to transport excess agricultural products to regions of scarcity.
2. Success of any type of agriculture depends much on transport system.
3. Transport plays an important role in modernisation of agriculture.
4. Decentralisation of different activities and organisations is dependent on transport.
5. It helps to increase national income.
6. It helps in collection of revenue from different sectors.
7. It helps in mobilising labour.
8. It helps in management and spread of an industry worldwide.
9. It helps in globalisation of different products.
10. It helps in coming up of new settlements and urbanization of rural areas.
11. It helps to remove regional disparities and inequalities.
12. Administrative works become easy with the help of population.
13. Transport system helps to maintain National Integration.

Question 4.
Describe the Golden Quadrilateral.
Answer:
The quadrilateral created by joining the four metropolitan cities of India i.e., Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai by roadways, is called the golden quadrilateral. The project was taken up by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAl) in 1999 on 2nd January. The main aim of the project was to construct 6-lane roads connecting these cities. Length of the roads constructed between the cities is as follows :

1. Delhi to Mumbai – 1419km.
2. Mumbai to Chennai -1240km.
3. Chennai to Kolkata – 1668km.
4. Kolkata to Delhi – 1453km. The project was completed in 2011.

Question 5.
Differentiate between the Transport system and the Communication system.
Answer:

Transport System	Communication System
i. Physical displacement of goods and passengers occur.	i. No physical displacement of goods and passengers.
ii. Deals with transport of goods and people only.	ii. Deals with exchange of news, informations, orders, decisions, etc.
iii. Several means of communication are – bus, lorry, train, tram, boat, ship, rocket, helicopter, etc.	iii. Several means of communication are – post, telephone, telegraph, telex, mobile phone, internet, e-mail, etc.
iv. A comparatively slow system.	iv. A comparatively fast system.
v. Chances of accident is very high.	v. Chances of accident is almost negligible.
vi. Cost of transportation is high.	vi. Cost of communication is quite low.

Question 6.
What are the problems of airways in India?
Answer:
The different problems of airways in India are :

1. Number of air routes in India is quite less.
2. Airways do not yet connect all the countries of the world to India.
3. Many big cities are not connected with airways.
4. The huge cost of air transport keep the common people away from it.
5. The airways are often not fed with other connecting transport systems adequately.
6. The fuel used in aircrafts is not available in India in huge amounts. It has to be imported.
7. The Indian airways companies face tremendous competition from the international airways companies.
8. Number of modern aircrafts and multi-speciality airports is quite less.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Transport is needed to carry
(A) Goods
(B) Passengers
(C) Goods and passengers
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Goods and passengers

Question 2.
The oldest mode of transport is
(A) Railways
(B) Roadways
(C) Airways
(D) Waterways
Answer:
(B) Roadways

Question 3.
National Highways run between
(A) States
(B) Districts
(C) Metropolitans
(D) Towns
Answer:
(A) States

Question 4.
The National Highways connect
(A) Districts
(B) Cities
(C) Countries
(D) States
Answer:
(D) States

Question 5.
The National Highway connecting Srinagar and Kanyakumari is called the
(A) Golden triangle
(B) East-West corridor
(C) North-South corridor
(D) Bermuda triangle
Answer:
(C) North-South corridor

Question 6.
International waterways are found in
(A) Oceans
(B) Lakes
(C) Rivers
(D) Ponds
Answer:
(A) Oceans

Question 7.
National waterways are actually
(A) International waterways
(B) Inland waterways
(C) Local waterways
(D) Seaways
Answer:
(B) Inland waterways

Question 8.
The most speedy mode of transport is
(A) Ropeway
(B) Airway
(C) Railway
(D) Roadway
Answer:
(B) Airway

Question 9.
There are – international airports in India
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 13
Answer:
(C) 12

Question 10.
The Indira Gandhi International Airport is in
(A) Mumbai
(B) Kolkata
(C) Chennai
(D) Delhi
Answer:
(D) Delhi

Question 11.
The Chhatrapati Shivaji International airport is in
(A) Mumbai
(B) Delhi
(C) Kolkata
(D) Chennai
Answer:
(A) Mumbai

Question 12.
The ropeways are best for
(A) Plains
(B) Plateaus
(C) Hilly regions
(D) Deserts
Answer:
(C) Hilly regions

Question 13.
Which is a mode of communication ?
(A) Radio
(B) Car
(C) Airport
(D) Railway station
Answer:
(A) Radio

Question 14.
Internet works through
(A) Newspapers
(B) Computers
(C) GPS
(D) E-mails
Answer:
(B) Computers

Question 15.
The most recent mode of communication is
(A) Internet
(B) Roadways
(C) Radio
(D) Fax
Answer:
(A) Internet

Question 16.
The best mode of transport to cover long distances over land is :
(A) Roadways
(B) Railways
(C) Airways
(D)Waterways
Answer:
(B) Railways

Question 17.
In length of railways in the world, India ranks :
(A) 1 st
(B) 2 nd
(C) 3 rd
(D) 4 th
Answer:
(D) 4 th

Question 18.
The longest railways in India is :
(A) Northern railway
(B) Southern railway
(C) Eastern railway
(D) Western railway
Answer:
(A) Northern railway

Question 19.
Railways were started in India in :
(A) 1850
(B) 1851
(C) 1852
(D) 1853
Answer:
(D) 1853

Question 20.
Total length of railways in India is :
(A) 64,000km
(B) 65,000km
(C) 66,000km
(D) 67,000km
Answer:
(B) 65,000km

Question 21.
Head Quarters of Indian railway is located in :
(A) Delhi
(B) Kolkata
(C) Mumbai
(D) Bangalore
Answer:
(A) Delhi

Question 22.
The head quarters of Eastern railway is located in :
(A) Kolkata
(B) Bhubaneswar
(C) Guwahati
(D) Asansol
Answer:
(A) Kolkata

Question 23.
The headquarters of Western railway is located in :
(A) Bhopal
(B) Delhi
(C) Goa
(D) Mumbai
Answer:
(D) Mumbai

Question 24.
The longest National Highway of India is :
(A) NH-1
(B) NH-7
(C) NH-5
(D) NH-2
Answer:
(B) NH-7

Question 25.
The state highways are maintained by :
(A) Central govt.
(B) State govt.
(C) Local govt.
(D) Municipality
Answer:
(B) State govt.

Question 26.
The North-South corridor joins Srinagar with :
(A) Kanyakumari
(B) Digboi
(C) Chennai
(D) Vizag
Answer:
(A) Kanyakumari

Question 27.
Number of state highways present in West Bengal is :
(A) 12
(B) 15
(C) 17
(D) 19
Answer:
(D) 19

Question 28.
The length of inland waterways in India is :
(A) 14,500km
(B) 15,000km
(C) 15,500km
(D) 16,000km.
Answer:
(A) 14,500km

Question 29.
The largest port of India is :
(A) Kolkata
(B) Chennai
(C) Kandla
(D) Mumbai
Answer:
(D) Mumbai

Question 30.
The tax-free port of India is :
(A) Murmagaon
(B) Kochi
(C) Kandla
(D) Vizag
Answer:
(C) Kandla

Question 31.
The main tea exporting port of India is
(A) Paradweep
(B) Kandla
(C) Vizag
(D) Kolkata
Answer:
(D) Kolkata

Question 32.
A totally hightech and computer controlled port of India is
(A) Navseva
(B) Kolkata
(C) Murmagaon
(D) Chennai
Answer:
(A) Navseva

Question 33.
Metro rail runs in how many cities in India ?
(A) 8
(B) 7
(C) 6
(D) 5
Answer:
(C) 6

Question 34.
The busiest road of India is :
(A) NH-7
(B) G. T. Road
(C) NH-34
(D) NH-35
Answer:
(B) G. T. Road

Question 35.
The highest road of the world is :
(A) NH-7
(B) NH-2
(C) Leh-Lasa road
(D) Jammu-Kashmir road
Answer:
(C) Leh-Lasa road

Question 36.
The longest navigable river of India is :
(A) Ganga
(B) Brahmaputra
(C) Indus
(D) Godavari
Answer:
(A) Ganga

Question 37.
Highest density of roadways is in :
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Gujarat
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
(A) Maharashtra

Question 38.
Movement of goods and passengers from one place to another is called:
(A) Communication
(B) Movement
(C) Travel
(D) Transport
Answer:
(D) Transport

Question 39.
The northern and southern corners of India are connected by the :
(A) National Highways
(B) North-South corridor
(C) East-West corridor
(D) Golden Quadrilateral
Answer:
(B) North-South corridor

Question 40.
The eastern and western corners of India are connected by the
(A) Golden Quadrilateral
(B) East-West Corridor
(C) National highways
(D) District roads
Answer:
(B) East-West Corridor

Question 41.
The first metro rail in India was started in
(A) Delhi
(B) Bangalore
(C) Mumbai
(D) Kolkata
Answer:
(D) Kolkata

Question 42.
The largest national waterway of India is
(A) Brahmaputra waterway
(B) Allahabad Haldia waterway
(C) Mahanadi waterway
(D) Ernakulam-Kollam waterway
Answer:
(B) Allahabad Haldia waterway

Question 43.
The longest pipeline of India is between
(A) Nunmati-Siliguri
(B) Hajira-Vijaypur – Jagdishpur
(C) Barauni-Haldia
(D) Kandla-Mathura
Answer:
(B) Hajira-Vijaypur – Jagdishpur

Question 44.
Lowest transport cost is incurred by :
(A) Railways
(B) Roadways
(C) Waterways
(D) Pipelines.
Answer:
(D) Pipelines.

Question 45.
The office of the Inland Waterways Authority of India is located in :
(A) Kolkata
(B) Allahabad
(C) Noida
(D) Delhi
Answer:
(C) Noida

Fill in the blanks : 1 Mark

1. The ________ air transport in India provides off-shore and on-shore services to ONGC.
2. ________ is the deepest land-locked and protected port in India.
3. The National Highway ________ is known as the Sher Shah Suri Marg.
4. The Indian Railways are the ________ largest railway system in the world running with electricity.
5. The Indian railways have been divided into ________ zones.
Answer:
1. Pawan Hans
2. Vishakhapatnam
3. NH-1
4. Fourth
5. 18

State True or False : 1 Mark

1. The most important commodity in India’s internal trade is coal. [ ]
2. The Kolkata port is famous for exporting iron ore. [ ]
3. The Jawaharlal Nehru port is a port functioning with modern technologies. [ ]
4. The Namma Metro plies in Hyderabad. [ ]
5. Computers are the means of modern communication system. [ ]
Answer:
1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True

Answer in few words : 1 Mark

Question 1.
What do you mean by ‘Transportation’?
Answer:
Movement of goods and people from one place to another.

Question 2.
Name the different modes of land surface transport.
Answer:
Roadways, railways.

Question 3.
Which is the oldest mode of transport?
Answer:
Roadways.

Question 4.
What are International waterways ?
Answer:
Waterways that connect two or more countries across the sea or ocean or along a river.

Question 5.
Name some major seaports of India.
Answer:
Vizag, Chennai, Paradweep, Mumbai, Kandla, Kochi etc.

Question 6.
Name the airport in Kolkata.
Answer:
Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose International Airport.

Question 7.
What are underground railways also called ?
Answer:
Tube railways or metro railway.

Question 8.
Name some modes of communication.
Answer:
Telephone, radio, television, fax, internet, newspaper etc.

Question 9.
How do mobiles or internet communicate from one place to another?
Answer:
Through satellites.

Question 10.
What are letters written through internet called?
Answer:
e-mail.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 5.9 Population of India offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 5.9 Question Answer – Population of India

Answer in short : 2 Marks

Question 1.
What do you mean by population growth ?
Answer:
Population growth refers to the increase in number of people residing in a particular place over a particular period of time.

Question 2.
What things are affected by population growth ?
Answer:
Population growth affects the socio-economic aspects of the country. It influences the levels of development, economic status, nature of utilisation of resources, etc.

Question 3.
What do you mean by sustainable development ?
Answer:
Sustainable development refers to the process of meeting human development goals while sustaining the ability of natural systems to provide resources and services upon which the economy and society depend. It is the organising principle for sustaining finite resources necessary to provide for the needs of future generations.

Question 4.
How do climate and relief affect the distribution of population in India?
Answer:
Relief : Plain land is more attractive for people rather than mountainous or plateau regions due to ease of economic activities like agriculture, industry, transport, etc.
Climate : Regions having moderate or maritime climate attract population much more rather than harsh and extreme climates. Eg – the coastal plains of Kerala are much more populated than the rugged himalayan ranges.

Question 5.
How does the presence of minerals influence population distribution in India?
Answer:
Presence of mineral resources boost the growth of industries. Availability of jobs attracts much population in these regions. Eg.- Chotanagpur Plateau.

Question 6.
What is the influence of transport and communication system and presence of ports on population distribution?
Answer:
Regions with good transport facilities and communication networks attract population for trade, commerce and other activities. Presence of ports boosts the transport system by waterways. Also, ports provide employment to a huge population at different levels.

Question 7.
What do you mean by urbanization ?
Answer:
Urbanization is the process of development of towns and cities from village due to high growth rate of population, availability of modern facilities of livelihood and easier and better means of life. It is the process of conversion of rural areas into urban areas.

Question 8.
How does scope of employment influence the process of urbanization?
Answer:
Rural areas cannot provide work to a large population due to various limitations. Scope of employment is comparatively higher and varied in urban areas. Hence, much population is attracted towards towns and cities, leading to more urbanization.

Question 9.
How does urbanization cause accommodation problems ?
Answer:
The rapidly growing population in the urban areas becomes difficult to house in the already existing set-up of the area. Hence, growth of slums and downtrodden areas are seen in the fringes of towns and cities.

Question 10.
How does proportion of unemployed population increase in urban areas?
Answer:
People from rural areas come to urban areas in search of employment. But the urban areas also have certain limitations in providing employment to the people. Hence, a huge portion of the expecting population remains unemployed and the proportion of the total unemployed population gradually increases.

Question 11.
What do you mean by Census?
Answer:
Census is the method of counting the total population of a particular region and calculating the birth rate, death rate, growth rate, along with the literacy rate, economic and social aspects etc.

Question 12.
What do you mean by the ‘growth rate of population’?
Answer:
The increase in population over a period of time due to the difference in birth and death rates is called ‘the growth rate of population’.

Question 13.
What is ‘overpopulation’?
Answer:
The condition where the total population of a country is more than the amount of available resources, is called overpopulation.

Question 14.
What is ‘underpopulation’?
Answer:
The condition where the total population of a country is less than the amount of available resources is called underpopulation.

Question 15.
What is optimum population ?
Answer:
The condition where the total population of a country is in parity with the total amount of resources available, is called optimum population.

Question 16.
What do you mean by density of population?
Answer:
The total population residing in a unit area of a country or a state or region, is known as the density of population.

Question 17.
What do you mean by negative growth rate of population ?
Answer:
In countries where the death rate is greater than the birth rate, population decreases rather than increases over time. This is known as the negative growth rate of population.

Question 18.
What do you mean by zero growth rate of population?
Answer:
The condition where the birth rates and death rates of population of a country are equal, the absolute population does not increase and rather remains constant over a period of time. This is known as the zero growth rate of population.

Question 19.
What is sex ratio?
Answer:
The ratio of the total number of females to every 1000 males of a country is known as the sex ratio.

Question 20.
What is ‘decadal growth rate of population’?
Answer:
The rate of growth of population over 10 years or between two consecutive census years is known as the ‘decadal growth rate of population’.

Question 21.
What is yearly growth rate of population?
Answer:
The rate of growth of population over a time period of one year is known as the yearly growth rate of population. It can be calculated by dividing the decadal growth rate by 10 .

Question 22.
What is Crude Birth Rate?
Answer:
The number of live children born in a country in a year with respect to every 1000 people, is known as the Crude Birth Rate or CBR.

Question 23.
What is Crude Death Rate ?
Answer:
The number of people dying every year in a country with respect to every 1000 people, is known as the Crude Death Rate or CDR.

Question 24.
What is Infant Mortality Rate ?
Answer:
The number of infants dying in a year in a country to every 1000 live children born in the same year is known as the Infant Mortality Rate or IMR.

Question 25.
What do you mean by the dependent population?
Answer:
The number of people lying within the age group of 0-14 years and over 60 years is known as the dependent population.

Question 26.
What is ‘dependency ratio’?
Answer:
in The ratio between the dependent population and the rest of the population of the country on which they depend, is called the dependency ratio.

Question 27.
What is normal increase of population?
Answer:
The increase of population of a country over a period of time due to difference between birth and death rates of population is known as the normal or natural increase of population.

Question 28.
What is ‘Birth rate’?
Answer:
The number of live children born in a country in a year to every 1000 people of the country, is known as the Birth rate.

Question 29.
What is ‘Death rate’?
Answer:
The number of people dying in a year in a country in every 1000 people of the country is known as Death rate.

Question 30.
What is Age-sex ratio ?
Answer:
The ratio between the males and females of different age groups of a country is known as the age-sex ratio.

Question 31.
What do you mean by ‘Life Expectancy’ ?
Answer:
The expected age till which a child may live, is known as the Life Expectancy. In 2013 , the life expectancy in India was 67.5 years.

Question 32.
What do you mean by literacy rate?
Answer:
The percentage of population of a country that can read and write in any language, calculated over a period of 10 years or census years, is known as the literacy rate. According to census of 2011, literacy rate of India is 73.0%

Question 33.
What is a ‘town’?
Answer:
According to the census definition, any area that lies under the municipal or notified Area, consists of a population of at least 5000 or density of population is at least 400 per sq km., and at least 75% people are engaged in nonagricultural works, is called a town. In some cases, all the criteria may not be fulfilled due to some exceptional qualilites.

Question 34.
What is a city ?
Answer:
An urban centre whose population lies within 1 lakh to 10 lakhs is known as a city.

Question 35.
What is a Metro city ?
Answer:
An urban centre whose population is more than 10 lakhs is known as a metro city. In India, according to the 2011census, there are 44 metrocities.

Question 36.
What is a Mega city ?
Answer:
An urban centre whose population is more than 50 lakhs is known as a mega city. Eg.- greater Kolkata, greater Mumbai etc.

Question 37.
What is a statutory town ?
Answer:
A town that is governed by a municipality, corporation, cantonment board or Notified Town Area Committee is known as a Statutory town.

Question 38.
What is a ‘Smart City’ ?
Answer:
A ‘Smart City’ is one where the old and new problems regarding service sectors are solved with the help of information and technological methods. They are also sometimes called Digital Cities as the service related problems are tried to be solved with the help of information technology digitally.

Answer in brief : 3 Marks

Question 1.
What is the need for sustainable development?
Answer:
The need for sustainable development are as follows :

1. Maintain a balance between population and available resources.
2. Development of economic, social, cultural, ecological and geographical aspects of the country.
3. Eradication of poverty.
4. Maintain a balance between environment and development.
5. Eradication of social evils and indisciplines.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Density of population ?
Answer:
Density of population refers to the number of people residing in one unit area, i.e. 1 sq. km. It is calculated by :

Density of population is only a quantitative information. It does not give any idea about the economic standard of the country or the level of resource utilisation.
India’s density of population is 382 persons per sq. km. according to the 2011 census.

Question 3.
How does urbanization cause problems of sewage and garbage disposal?
Answer:
Urbanization leads to rapid increase in population in the urban centres which leads to several problems. One such problem is regarding sewage and garbage disposal. The huge volume of disposable solid and liquid wastes generated by the huge population is difficult to handle with the present sewage systems of the urban areas. Thus, waste dumps and water logging of drains occur in urban areas. The problems are even severe in slum areas. This leads to spread of diseases due to unhygienic conditions.

Question 4.
What do you mean by population explosion ?
Answer:
The condition of high rate of increase of population of a country over a small period of time is called ‘Population explosion’. Usually, if the yearly growth rate of population exceeds 2 \%, it may result in population explosion. Causes of population explosion are :

1. Improvement in medical science and control of epidemic diseases.
2. Improvement in agriculture, industry, transport and communication services.
3. Scope of employment in different sectors.
4. Women education and consciousness etc.

Question 5.
What are the causes of high birth rates in India ?
Answer:
The causes of high birth rates in India are:

1. Lack of education and culture.
2. Male dominated society does not entertain the women’s wish regarding bearing children.
3. Religious beliefs.
4. Improvement in medical science and control of infant mortality rates, infanticides etc.

Question 6.
What are the causes of reduction of death rates in India ?
Answer:
The causes of reduction of death rates in India are :

1. Improvement in medical science, availability of ICU, Ventilation, Oxygen Cylinders, Surgical treatments, etc.
2. Forecast of natural disasters like earthquakes, tsunamies, floods, droughts, etc.
3. Development of transport and communication system.
4. Availability of healthy and hygienic food.
5. Increase in family income, level of education and standard of living.

Question 7.
Mention the criteria set by the Census of India to designate a place as a town.
Answer:
The criteria set by the Census of India to designate a place as a town are :

1. Population of at least 5000 .
2. Population density of at least 400 persons per sq. km.
3. At least 75% of males must be engaged in non-agricultural occupations.
4. The administration will be conducted by Municipal boards, Corporation, Cantonment Board, Notified Area etc.

Question 8.
What are the main functions carried out by urban centres in India ?
Answer:
The urban centres of India mainly carry out the economic activities of secondary, tertiary, quanternary and quinary sectors. The various functions of these urban centres are :

1. Industrial activities
2. Service activities
3. Administrative activities
4. Jobs in different offices
5. Business and commerce
6. Educational and research works
7. Security and developmental services
8. Transport and communication services.

Answer in details : 5 Marks

Question 1.
Discuss the factors that influence distribution of population in India.
Answer:
The population of India is not equally distributed all over the country. The main factors that influence the regional distribution of population are :
◊ Relief : Plain land is more attractive for population rather than mountains or plateaus due to ease of economic activities like agriculture, industry, transport, etc.

◊ Climate : Regions having moderate or marine climate attract population much more rather than harsh and extreme climates. Eg.- Coastal plains of Kerala, Gangetic plains, etc.

◊ Soil : Agriculture depends on the quality of soil. Hence fertile regions attract more population rather than the infertile regions.

◊ Mineral resources and industry : Presence of mineral resources boosts the growth of industries. Availability of jobs attracts much population in these regions. Eg.- Chotanagpur plateau.

◊ Transport and Communication : Regions with good transport facilities and communication networks attract population for trade and commerce and other economic activities. Hence, population concentrates near big railway junctions, ports, transport bottle necks etc.

◊ Rivers : The river basins have always been the cradle of ancient civilisations. Availability of water for drinking, household, navigation, agriculture etc., formation of fertile alluvial soil, attracts population.

◊ Natural vegetation : Moderately forested regions attract population for economic activities like wood collection, wax, honey etc. Dense forests like equatorial rainforests as well as treeless regions like the Thar desert in Rajasthan, both repel population.

◊ Economic and political conditions : People concentrate in regions where there is economic and political stability rather than regions of disturbances.

◊ Others : Centres of religious (Mathura, Puri), historical (Agra), educational (Santiniketan), tourism (Darjeeling), interests etc. also attract population.

Question 2.
Discuss the causes of urbanization in India.
Answer:
The different causes of urbanization in India are:

1. Limited size of agricultural land : The limited size of agricultural land in India cannot provide employment to the whole rural population. Hence, unemployment, poverty and other problems push the rural population to the urban centres.
2. Change in thought : The mentality of rural people is also changing. They wish to settle in urban areas for educational facilities, trade, commerce, industrial jobs etc.
3. Free lifestyle : Urban life is much liberal and free from superstitions. Rural people thus tend to settle in urban areas.
4. Employment : Scope of employment is much higher and varied in urban areas. Hence, rural population is attracted towards urban areas.
5. Entertainment : Urban areas have much more scope for entertainment and relaxation. This attracts much rural population.

Question 3.
Discuss the problems of urbanization in India.
Answer:
The major problems faced due to urbanization in India are :
◊ Unplanned growth of urban areas : Rapid concentration of population in urban areas lead to unplanned and non-systematic growth of towns and cities.

◊ Accommodation : The rapidly growing population is difficult to house in the already existing urban areas. Hence, growth of slums and downtrodden areas occur in the fringes of towns and cities.

◊ Availability of water : The amount of water available is not sufficient for the rapidly growing population. Hence, scarcity of water occurs.

◊ Unemployment : A huge section of rural population comes to urban areas in search of work. But all of them do not get employment. Hence, the total percentage of unemployed population in urban areas increases.

◊ Sewage and garbage disposal : The volume of disposable solid and liquid wastes generated by the excess population is difficult to handle with the present sewage systems of urban areas. Thus waste dumping and water logging of drains are common, especially in slum areas.

◊ Insufficient transport, education, medical and other facilities : The available transport, education, medical and other facilities are not enough for the rapidly growing population.

◊ Pollution and environmental degradation : Overpopulation causes high rates of pollution and misuses and over-uses of resources cause environmental degradation.

Question 4.
What are the positive and negative effects of population growth on the economy of the country?
Answer:
Population growth exerts both positive and negative effects on the economy of the country.
Positive effects :

1. Increase in population increases the number of labours. Thus, extraction of resources and production capacity increases.
2. Demand for more and more labour increases with increasing rate of production.
3. Increase in size of population helps to increase the size of the market. Demand for utility as well as luxury goods increases.
4. Increase in production increases the national income of the country.
5. Increase in population leads to increase in productive population.
6. Increase in population makes the economy more dynamic.

Negative effects :

1. Increase in population may lead to a shortage of food. This may lead to malnutrition, famine and spread of diseases.
2. Increase in population tends to lower the rate of economic development.
3. Infant mortality rates may rise due to food shortage, famines etc.
4. Increase in population tends to lower the rates of savings and thus investments.
5. Rates of unemployment, underemployment etc. increase.
6. Rates of foreign loans increase.

Question 5.
How does the increase in population hamper sustainable development in India ?
Answer:
Increase in population at very high rates cause many hindrances in the sustainable development of a country’s economy. In India, the problems caused by high rates of population increase are :
◊ Exhaustion of fossil fuels : Increase in population leads to excessive use of fossil fuels, which is reducing their amount from the nature as well as causing pollution.

◊ Fast rates of Urbanisation : Urban centres are developing at a faster rate to house the growing population. This in turn is increasing social insecurity, crime and degradation of value system. Also, this increases the use of green house gases and causes global warming and environmental degradation along with climatic changes.

◊ Destruction of forests : Increase in population demands more food for survival. Hence, the forests are being destroyed to create more agricultural fields. Forests are also cleaned for establishment of industries.

◊ Social problems : Rapid increase in population leads to growth of slum areas, hampers the sewage system, causes insufficient arrangement of service, transport, communication, medical, water supply, education and employment facilities.

Question 6.
What steps should be taken for sustainable development in India ?
Answer:
The steps that must be taken for sustainable development in India are :
◊ Population control : Growth rate of population must be controlled with the help of knowledge, education, science and technology in order to maintain a parity between population and available resources.

◊ Proper utilisation of resources : Proper and rational utilisation of resources, use of renewable resources more than non-renewable resources, etc. must be promoted.

◊ Save the fund resources: Renewable and flow resources must be used more instead of non-renewable and fund resources in order to save them for future generations.

◊ Environmental Consciousness : The environmental degradation must be taken care of. New forests must be created by planting more and more trees. Soil erosion must be prevented. Pollutions of all levels must be controlled.

◊ Eradication of poverty : Scope of employment must be increased so that people can earn a proper living.

◊ Decentralisation policies : Industries and administrative functions must be decentralised and distributed over a large area. So that the in-migrating population of the cities can be distributed outwards properly.

Question 7.
Discuss the causes of rapid growth of population in India.
Answer:
The causes of rapid growth of population in India are:

1. High birth rates : The high birth rate of children in India (about 21.34% in 2001) leads to the increase in the absolute population.
2. Low death rates : Improvement in medical and social sciences have lowered the death rates considerably. Thus, the absolute population increases.
3. Migration : In-migration from the neighbouring countries of Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, etc. increases the size of the population of India.
4. Marriage at a low age : Marriage at a low age increases the probability of more and more child birth.
5. Poverty : People believe that increase the number of family members will increase the number of earning members and hence help to eradicate poverty.
6. High infant mortality rates : High infant mortality rates especially in rural areas tend to lead to more child birth out of fear.
7. Joint family : Security and care of children in joint families lead to high rates of child birth.
8. Illiteracy : Illiteracy leads to superstitions and religious beliefs regarding child birth.
9. Wish for a male child : More and more chances are taken in child birth for the wish of a male child.
10. Govt. policies : In many cases, the govt. is reluctant regarding the high birth rates and have not framed proper policies necessary to control the growing population.

Question 8.
Classify India according to the distribution of population density over the country.
Answer:
India can be classified into five regions with respect to distribution of population density.
i. Very high density of population (over 1001 persons per sq. \mathbf{k m ) : The states under this category are – West Bengal, Bihar, Kerala, and Union Territories of Pondicherry, Chandigarh, Daman and Diu. Amongst them, West Bengal has the highest density of population. Presence of fertile lands for agriculture, scope of industrial development, transport and communication skills make the areas densely populated. The Union Territories are important administrative units.

ii. High density of population (601-1000 persons per sq. km) : The regions under this category are – Uttar Pradesh, Tamil nadu, Punjab, Haryana, Goa, Dadra, Nagar Haveli, etc. Amongst them, Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh have the highest density of population.

iii. Medium density of population (401-600 persons per sq. km) : The regions under this category are – Assam, Tripura, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Gujarat, Odisha, etc. Jharkhand and Odishsa are rich in minerals. Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka are good in agriculture. Assam is rich in tea cultivation and oil reserves.

iv. Low density of population (301-400 persons per sq. km) : Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Chattisgarh, Jammu and Kashmir, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Sikkim, Uttaranchal, etc belong to this category. Lack of plain lands, adverse climatic conditions, lack of fertile lands, lack of employment facilities make these regions less dense in population.

v. Very low density of population (less than 50 persons per sq. km ) : Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Andaman and Nicobar islands, etc. fall in this category. Rugged relief, infertile soil, lack of agriculture, adverse climate, dense forests, etc. make these regions so less populated.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)

Question 1.
Our population was 121.02 crore according to the census :
(A) 1971
(B) 1981
(C) 1991
(D) 2011
Answer:
(D) 2011

Question 2.
The state has the highest population… :
(A) Kerala
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) West Bengal
(D) Bihar
Answer:
(B) Uttar Pradesh

Question 3.
The life expectancy in India is :
(A) more in the case of males
(B) more in the case of females
(C) equal in the case of males and females
(D) not comparable in the case of males and females as it keeps changing
Answer:
(A) more in the case of males

Question 4.
What is the number of females per thousand males as per the census?
(A) 967
(B) 937
(C) 936
(D) 940
Answer:
(D) 940

Question 5.
Where is the sex ratio lowest ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Sikkim
Answer:
(B) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Question 6.
Which among the following States supports the maximum percentage of tribal population?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Sikkim
(D) Nagaland
Answer:
(D) Nagaland

Question 7.
The percentage of literates in India is :
(A) lower among males than females
(B) lower in urban areas than in rural
(C) higher among males
(D) is almost equal among males and females
Answer:
(C) higher among males

Question 8.
Which union territory has the highest literacy rate?
(A) Delhi
(B) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Pondicherry
Answer:
(C) Chandigarh

Question 9.
The lowest rate of literacy occurs in :
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer:
(D) Arunachal Pradesh

Question 10.
Put the following in correct descending order of density of population as per the 1981 census : (I) Bihar (II) West Bengal (III) Kerala (IV) Uttar Pradesh
(A) III, II, IV, I
(B) I, II, III, IV
(C) III, II, IV, I
(D) II, III, I, IV
Answer:
(B) I, II, III, IV

Question 11.
What is the reason for the higher percentage of female workers in rural areas compared to the towns and cities in India ?
(A) Rural females are uneducated
(B) There are more employment opportunities for females in rural areas than in towns
(C) Rural women are more educated and job- oriented
(D) Subsistence agriculture forces women to take to work
Answer:
(D) Subsistence agriculture forces women to take to work

Question 12.
Which city has the largest population?
(A) Greater Bombay
(B) Delhi
(C) Kolkata
(D) Madras
Answer:
(C) Kolkata

Question 13.
The percentage increase in population in the decade 2001-2011
(A) 25 %
(B) 24 %
(C) 23 %
(D) 17.64 %
Answer:
(D) 17.64 %

Question 14.
Which of the following States has more women than men ?
(A) Sikkim
(B) Kerala
(C) Maharashtra
(D) None
Answer:
(B) Kerala

Question 15.
One of the chief effects of urbanization in India is :
(A) overcrowding in cities
(B) more jobs available
(C) lower standard of living
(D) stagnant agriculture
Answer:
(A) overcrowding in cities

Question 16.
Among the following, the most urbanised community in India is :
(A) Muslim
(B) Hindu
(C) Parsi
(D) Gujarati
Answer:
(C) Parsi

Question 17.
In India, how is the trend of urbanization illustrated ?
(A) Urbanization of many villages
(B) Employment opportunities in cities increasing
(C) Cities increasing in size at the cost of small towns
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Cities increasing in size at the cost of small towns

Question 18.
Which is India’s most urbanized State ?
(A) Kerala
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Punjab
(D) Karnataka
Answer:
(B) Maharashtra

Question 19.
Which of the following would you consider a reason for India having a high “dependency” ratio?
(A) High rate of population growth
(B) Number of old people is high
(C) Large portion of population (nearly 42 %) in the age group 0-14 years
(D) Manpower is less
Answer:
(C) Large portion of population (nearly 42 %) in the age group 0-14 years

Question 20.
How many towns have been listed according to the 1981 census ?
(A) About 4000
(B) About 3700
(C) About 3500
(D) About 4500
Answer:
(A) About 4000

Question 21.
Which of the following combination of rivers and cities situated on their banks is wrong?
(A) Lucknow – Gomti
(B) Ayodhya – Saryu
(C) Badrinath-Aloknanda
(D) Vijayawada – Narmada
Answer:
(D) Vijayawada – Narmada

Question 22.
The percentage of working population of India engaged in agriculture is about
(A) 80
(B) 70
(C) 60
(D) 50
Answer:
(B) 70

Question 23.
Population of India has grown rapidly after 1921, mainly because
(A) Death rate has declined steeply
(B) Birth rate has increased rapidly
(C) Indians have returned from Burma, Sri Lanka and other countries.
(D) The number of persons migrating from India has declined.
Answer:
(A) Death rate has declined steeply

Question 24.
In 2011 the average age in India is
(A) 68.89 %
(B) 65.63 %
(C) 72.36 %
(D) 70-48 %
Answer:
(A) 68.89 %

Question 25.
Sex-ratio in India was always in favour of :
(A) Males
(B) Females
(C) Both sexes
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Males

Question 26.
The first census for the whole of India was taken in
(A) 1872
(B) 1881
(C) 1890
(D) 1901
Answer:
(C) 1890

Question 27.
The largest number of working population in India are engaged in
(A) Agriculture
(B) Pasture
(C) Mining
(D) Industry
Answer:
(B) Pasture

Question 28.
The highest density of population is in
(A) Sikkim
(B) West Bengal
(C) Bihar
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(C) Bihar

Question 29.
Density of population in Kerala per 8 q . km is
(A) 555
(B) 859
(C) 828
(D) 698
Answer:
(B) 859

Question 30.
Density of population in West Bengal per sq. km is
(A) 1029
(B) 1102
(C) 2013
(D) 2598
Answer:
(A) 1029

Question 31.
With respect to population, Lakshadweep comes under
(A) Very high density region
(B) High density region
(C) Medium density region
(D) Low density region
Answer:
(A) Very high density region

Question 32.
Which of the following states of India recorded the lowest density of population?
(A) Sikkim
(B) Nagaland
(C) Mizoram
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer:
(D) Arunachal Pradesh

Question 33.
_______ recorded the highest density of population.
(A) West Bengal
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Assam
Answer:
(B) Bihar

Question 34.
The lowest population was recorded in
(A) Sikkim
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Nagaland
Answer:
(A) Sikkim

Question 35.
The most urbanised state of India is _______
(A) Kerala
(B) Punjab
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Karnataka
Answer:
(C) Maharashtra

Question 36.
In which state do women out-number men ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Kerala
(C) Punjab
(D) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(B) Kerala

Fill in the blanks : 1 Mark

1. The word ‘Census’ is of ________ origin.
2. The Union Territory of _________ has very low density of population.
3. The Union Territory of ________ is the most densely populated.
4. High ______ leads to rapid increase in population in India.
5. _______ in known as the Pink city of India.
6. The word ‘urban’ comes from the French word _______.
7. Presently the number of megacities in India is ________.
8. Density of population is the ratio between total population and ________ of a region.
9. Zero population growth occurs where birth rate and death rate are
10. The largest megacity of India is _________.
Answer:
1. Latin
2. Andaman & Nicobar Islands
3. Delhi
4. birth rate
5. Jaipur
6. Orbis
7. 53
8. Total area
9. Same
10. Mumbai

State True or False : 1 Mark

1. The economies of urban centres are non-agricultural. [ ]
2. Optimum population is seen in the developing countries. [ ]
3. India is an over-populated country. [ ]
4. Chennai is known as the gateway of India. [ ]
5. Mumbai is the largest business city of India. [ ]
6. Rate of child death is highest in Kerala. [ ]
7. An Urban centre with population more than 1 lakh is called a class I city. [ ]
8. India is a developing country. [ ]
9. About 25 % of India’s total population line in Urban centres. [ ]
10. Shantiniketan is a cultural town in West Bengal. [ ]
Answer:
1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True
6. False
7. True
8. True
9. False
10. True

Answer in few words : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Which organisation records the population of India ?
Answer:
The Census of India.

Question 2.
What is the total population of India ?
Answer:
1,21,05,69,573 according to 2011 census.

Question 3.
What is the decadal growth rate of population?
Answer:
17.7 % according to 2011 census.

Question 4.
What is the density of population of India ?
Answer:
382 persons per sq. km.

Question 5.
What is the sex ratio of India ?
Answer:
943 (females per 1000 males)

Question 6.
What is the average literacy rate in India ?
Answer:
73 %

Question 7.
Mention the literacy rate of males and females in India.
Answer:
Male – 80.9%, Female – 64.6%

Question 8.
What is the level of life expectancy in India ?
Answer:
65.96 years.

Question 9.
Which relief regions are usually most populated ?
Answer:
Plain lands.

Question 10.
Which regions are usually scarcely populated ?
Answer:
Deserts and rugged mountainous regions.

Question 11.
Which soil regions attract more population?
Answer:
Fertile alluvial soil regions.

Question 12.
Where did the civilisations first grow in ancient times?
Answer:
River basins.

Question 13.
Why do people concentrate around forests ?
Answer:
For economic activities like collection of wood, wax, honey etc.

Question 14.
Name some places that attract huge population due to religious factors.
Answer:
Mathura, Puri, Varanasi etc.

Question 15.
Name some places that attract huge population due to historic factors:
Answer:
Agra, Murshidabad.

Question 16.
Name some educational centres.
Answer:
Santiniketan, Aligarh, Nalanda etc.

Question 17.
Name some tourist centres that attract large population.
Answer:
Kashmir, Shimla, Nainital, Digha etc.

Question 18.
What is the process of increase of population by huge numbers called?
Answer:
Population explosion.

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Question Answer West Bengal Board

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Book Solutions West Bengal Board in English Medium

Chapter 1 Control and Coordination Living Organisms

• Chapter 1A Sensitivity and Response in Plants
• Chapter 1B Response and Chemical Coordination in Plant Hormones
• Chapter 1C Response and Chemical Coordination in Animal Hormones
• Chapter 1D Response and Physical Coordination in Animal Nervous System
• Chapter 1E Locomotion as a Type of Response in Animals

Chapter 2 Continuity of Life

• Chapter 2A Cell Division and Cell Cycle
• Chapter 2B Reproduction
• Chapter 2C Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
• Chapter 2D Growth and Development

Chapter 3 Heredity and Some Common Genetic Diseases

• Chapter 3A Heredity
• Chapter 3B Some Common Genetic Diseases

Chapter 4 Evolution and Adaptation

• Chapter 4A Evolution
• Chapter 4B Survival Strategies: Adaptation

Chapter 5 Environment, Its Resources and Their Conservation

• Chapter 5A Nitrogen Cycle
• Chapter 5B Environmental Pollution
• Chapter 5C Environment and Human Population
• Chapter 5D Biodiversity and Conservation

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Book Solutions West Bengal Board in Hindi Medium

• Chapter 1 सजीवों में नियंत्रण व समन्वय
  • Chapter 1A पौधों में संवेदन तथा अनुक्रिया
  • Chapter 1B पादप हार्मोन तथा जन्तु हार्मोन
  • Chapter 1C जन्तुओं में होने वाले प्रतिचार और भौतिक समन्वय : तंत्रिका तंत्र
  • Chapter 1D प्रचलन
• Chapter 2 जीवन की निरंतरता
  • Chapter 2A कोशिका विभाजन
  • Chapter 2B प्रजनन तथा वृद्धि
• Chapter 3 आनुवांशिकता एवं सामान्य आनुवांशिक रोग
• Chapter 4 क्रम विकास एवं अनुकूलन
  • Chapter 4A क्रम विकास
  • Chapter 4B अनुकूलन
• Chapter 5 वातावरण एवं इसके संसाधन तथा उनका संरक्षण

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Syllabus West Bengal Board 2024

Chapter 1 Control and Co-ordination in Living Organisms

Chapter 1A Sensitivity and Response in Plants:
Discussions should include the following along with relevant diagrams: Living organisms exist in changing environments. Some changes are favourable and advantageous, while others are unfavourable or harmful. Sensitivity is the ability of organisms to detect change and respond to it. Changes that are detected and lead to responses are termed stimuli. Stimulus is a kind of energy. All living organisms respond to stimuli of one kind or another. Many stimuli arise externally from an organism, but others from an organism’s internal environment. As most plants are anchored organ¬isms, plant responses are less evident than those of animals. Rapid movements by plants are extremely rare. Generally, plant responses are slow growth movements or turgor movements. Explain plant sensitivity and response citing movements in mimosa and Desmodium. Brief mention of the contribution of Acharya Jagdish Chandra Bose in discovering the sensitivity of plants. Brief mention of plant movement as a response to stimuli. Types of plant movement: Tactic, Phototactic, Tropic: Phototropic, Hydrotropic, Geotropic, Nastic: Photonastic, Thermonastic, Seismonastic, Chemonastic (Brief mention of the stimuli and response in each case and one or two examples of each with relevant diagrams.) Comparison between Tactic, Tropic, and Nastic movements in Tabular form.

Chapter 1B Response and Chemical Co-ordination in Plants – Hormones:
A brief discussion on plant hormones as substances responsible for sensitivity and response in plants. Also mention hormones as plant growth substances mentioning the phenomena of apical and lateral growth, flowering, bud break, germination of seeds, and tropic movement in plants. Brief mention of the source, mode of transport, functioning, and fate of hormones in plants. Brief mention of the origin, chemical constituent (mention C, H, O, N only), and the role (as mentioned below) of Auxin, Gibberellin, and Cytokinin in plants with relevant diagrams. Auxin: Promotes apical dominance and inhibits lateral bud growth, cell division and cell enlargement, root growth at very low concentrations, fruit growth, and control of tropic movement. Gibberellin: Breks seed and bud dormancy, elongation of internodes, fruit growth. Cytokinin: Promotes cell division, and lateral bud growth, delays leaf senescence. Chemical names of synthetic hormones are not to be mentioned. The terms synthetic auxin and synthetic gibberellin can be used. Mention the role of synthetic hormones – rooting of cutting, dealy of pre-harvest fruit crop, artificial auxin as herbicide, developing parthenocarpic fruits.

Chapter 1C Response and Chemical Co-ordination in Animals – Hormones:
Briefly mention the erection of body hair, maintaining a constant level of glucose in the blood, combating stress, maintaining blood pressure, controlling BMR, control growth and secretion of reproductive glands in animals. Briefly mention the need for regulatory chemical molecules namely hormones for controlling these functions. Explain the source (endocrine glands), chemical nature, mode of transport, functioning, and fate of hormones; Explain the role of the hormone as messenger and regulator (feedback control with an example – TSH and Thyroxine). Mention the differences between plant hormones and animal hormones (in tabular form). Hypothalamus: Controls hormonal secretions of the anterior pituitary gland & produces the hormones of the posterior pituitary gland (ADH and Oxytocin). They remain stored in the posterior pituitary gland and released later on. Pituitary: ACTH, GH, TSH, GTH (FSH, LH, ICSH, LTH/Prolactin), ADH, Thyroid: Thyroxine, Adrenal: Adrenalin, Nor- adrenalin, Endocrine Pancreas: Insulin, Glucagon, Gonads: Testes – Testosterone, Ovary – Oestrogen, Progesterone. The name of endocrine glands, their location, the hormones secreted, and their role in the human body are to be mentioned. Causes and symptoms of the following hormonal disorders are to be mentioned separately – dwarfism, diabetes insipidus, goiter, and diabetes mellitus. A diagram of the human body is to be provided to show the location of the endocrine glands mentioned above. Mention the difference between endocrine and exocrine glands based on the following features (in tabular form): (i) Presence or absence of ducts, (ii) Place of action, (iii) Product secreted.

Chapter 1D Response and Physical Coordination in Animals – Nervous System:
Explaination in brief about neural control and coordination with examples from daily life, setting the stage for introducing neurons, nerves, and the nervous system. One example may be running: leg muscles need extra supplies of glucose and oxygen – Lungs breathe faster and deeper and the heart pumps rapidly to supply oxygen and glucose to the muscles quickly – the brain detects changes in oxygen and carbon dioxide content of the blood and sends nerve impulses to the diaphragm, intercostal muscles, and heart. The coordination of different systems is thus brought by the nervous system. Discussions should include the following along with relevant diagrams: Irritability or sensitivity is a characteristic feature of all living organisms. It refers to their ability to respond to a stimulus. The stimulus is received by a receptor. It is transmitted by means of nerves. Finally, an effector (muscle and gland) brings about a response. Between the receptors and effectors are the conducting cells of the nervous system, termed neurons. These are the basic structural and functional units of the nervous system. They are spread throughout the organism forming a complex communication network. Some common examples may be given to illustrate the pathway: Stimuli – Receptor – Nervecentre – Effector – Response (e.g. opening the door at the sound of a knock on the door/ doorbell). Mention the difference between the mode of action of hormones and the nervous system. Explain the structure and function of different parts of neurons (in tabular form with diagrams); Mention the neuroglia as supporting cells of the nervous system. A brief explanation of types of neurons – Sensory, Motor, Adustor/lntemeurone. A brief explanation of the inter-relationship between neurons, nerve fibers, and nerves (with diagram). Brief mention of Afferent, Efferent, and Mixed nerves with one or two examples of each. Brief mention of the formation of ganglia from the cell bodies of neurons and functions of ganglia. A brief explanation of location and function (Mention the role of neurotransmitter in the transmission of nerve impulse. Detailed mechanism of transmission of nerve impulse across the synapse not to be mentioned.) Central nervous system: Brain and spinal cord. Peripheral nervous system: Cranial and spinal nerves. Autonomic nervous system: Sympathetic and Parasympathetic (In dendrogram format – Mention the types of nervous system along with the main parts of the brain and their regions). Cerebral cortex, Thalamus, Hypothalamus, Mid-brain, Pons, Cerebellum, Medulla oblongata, Spinal cord (only location and one or two functions in brief in tabular form with diagram showing their locations). Brief mention of the location and function of Meninges and CSF. A brief explanation of reflex action with examples; Types – Inborn and acquired (with examples); Components of Reflex Arc with diagram (Receptor, Sensory neuron, Nerve Centre, Motor Neurone, Effector); Importance of different reflexes in everyday life – (i) Blinking eye (ii) Coughing (iii) Sneezing Eye (Outline structure and function in tabular form with a diagram showing different parts). Brief mention of binocular vision in humans and how it differs from monocular vision.

Chapter 1E Locomotion as a Type of Response in Animals:
Discussions should include the following along with relevant diagrams (for near and distant vision). Example from one daily life situation (Role of accommodation in case of pedestrians and vehicle drivers to avoid road accidents by taking note of obstacles, traffic signals, and road directions). The curvature of the lens can be modified to some extent by the ciliary muscles. The change in curvature of the lens can thus change its focal length. Accomodation is the ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length. The eye adjusts the shape of the lens to keep objects in focus. Looking at distant objects: Ciliary muscles relaxed – Lens becomes thin – focal length of the lens increases. Looking at objects closer to the eye: Ciliary muscles contract – increasing curvature of the eye lens – Lens becomes thick – focal length of the lens decreases. Brief mention of the loss of power accommodation and in this context mention myopia, hyperopia, presbyopia, and their corrective measures (lenses used for correction) with diagrams. Cataract Brief explanation and corrective measure.

Chapter 2 Continuity of Life

Chapter 2A Cell Division and Cell Cycle:
Discussions should include the following along with relevant diagrams of DNA double helix (ribbon diagram), chromatin reticula, and chromosomes. Inside the nucleus of a cell, Fine reticulum-like structures are woven like threads around each other structures are DNA. DNA is a large biomolecule. The DNA remains in folded or partly open condition inside the nucleus, which is then termed as Chromatin Reticulum. In the folded condition, the DNA is wound tightly around proteins. This folded structure of DNA is termed a Chromosome. Chromatin reticula and chromosomes are actually different folding states of DNA molecules. Specific parts of the DNA carry the code for producing specific proteins which ultimately lead to the expression of different characters in an organism. Each of these parts of DNA is termed a Gene. Autosome and Sex Chromosome – Brief explanation with reference to humans. Mention the number of chromosomes in body cells and gametes in humans and briefly explain haploid and diploid states with reference to humans. Briefly explain the following in tabular form with diagrams Chromatid, Primary constriction or Centromere, Secondary constriction, oatelite, Telomere. Briefly mention DNA, RNA, and Proteins (Mention Purine and pyrimidine, 5C-Sugar, Phosphoric Acid, Histone, and non-histone proteins) – Structure and formula not to be included. Brief mention of euchromatin and heterochromatin. Brief discussion on the role of following cell organelles in cell division. Structural details not be mentioned, (i) Nucleus – it is the seat of the chromosomes that are to be divided, (ii) Cen- trosome and microtubule – Formation of spindle fibre, (iii) Ribosome – Helps in protein synthesis, (iv) Mitochondria – Supply energy required for cell division. Brief explanation of cell division and its significance (Growth, Reproduction, Repair). Amitosis, Mitosis, and Meiosis -Brief explanation mentioning the site of occurrence of each type with diagrams. Brief mention of the events (G,, S, G2, M) of the cell cycle with diagram and significance of the cell cycle (Mention that the loss of control at different points in the cell cycle results in uncontrolled cell division leading to formatting of tumor sometimes may becomes malignant and may result in cancer). Brief explanation with diagrams of different stages of Mitosis in plant and animal cells (Karyokinesis & its stages and Cytokinesis). Mention the difference between plant and animal mitosis based on the following features: (i) Formation of spindle fiber; (ii) Process of cytokinesis; Mention the significance of mitosis-growth, cell replacement & repair (eg. skin), regeneration (eg. legs in crustacean and arms in starfish), reproduction. Brief introduction of homologous chromosomes, sister and non-sister chromatid. A brief explanation of the following features of meiosis with the help of relevant diagrams: Separation of homologous chromosomes in Meiosis I as opposed to the separation of chromatids in Mitosis; separation of chromatids in Meiosis II (just like Mitosis); Reduction in chromosome number; Crossing over (exchange or segments between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes). (The stages of meiosis are not mentioned.) The significance of meiosis is to be mentioned (maintenance of constant chromosome number of a species, producing variation in organisms, formation of gametes, alternation of generation). The basic differences between mitosis and meiosis are to be mentioned in tabular form based on the following features – (i) site of occurence; (ii) nature of division of chromosomes (equational as opposed to reductional); (iii) number of cells produced.

Chapter 2B Reproduction:
Discussions should include the following along with relevant examples: Reproduction is the production of a new generation of individuals of the same species. It is one of the fundamental characteristics of living organisms. Reproduction is not necessary to maintain the life of an individual organism, unlike essential life processes like nutrition, respiration, or exertion. But reproduction is essential for the continuation of species. A brief explanation of the modes of reproduction with one or two examples of each – Asexual and sexual. Difference between asexual and sexual reproduction based on the following features: (i) Number of parents; (ii) Production of gametes; (iii) Dependence on mitosis or meiosis; (iv) Nature of offspring. Only the types are to be mentioned with examples and diagrams in tabular form. Detailed process not to be mentioned. Fission (Amoeba and Plasmodium), budding (Yeast and Hydra), fragmentation (Spirogyra), spore formation (Bryophyta, Pteridophyta, Fungi), and regeneration (Planaria). A brief explanation of vegetative propagation with diagrams and one example of each type. Detailed process not to be mentioned. Types of vegetative propagation (brief explanation with one example of each): Natural – Root: Fleshy root (Sweet potato); Stem; Offset (Water hyacinth); Leaf: Adventitious bud (Bryophyllum). Artificial – Cutting, Grafting, and Micropropagation. Discussion on micropropagation should include only the following: ‘Micro’ refers to the small size of the material used, usually isolated cells or small pieces of tissue. The material is grown in special culture solutions (with added nutrients and plant hormones, particularly auxins and cytokinins), so the process is also known as tissue culture. Basically, it is the propagation of plants by tissue culture. This process ensures rapid propagation of desired varieties of plants. Brief explanation with a schematic diagram of alternation of generation with one example from germ. Discussions should include the following with relevant diagrams: (i) Different parts of a flower – sepals, petals, stamens, and carpels; (ii) Stamens and carpels – the reproductive parts of a flower containing germ cells; (iii) Stamen – male reproductive part; produces pollen grains of yellowish colour; (iv) Carpel – female reproductive part; consists of stigma, style, and ovary; ovary contains ovules and each ovule has an egg cell. A brief explanation of pollination and its types (self and cross-pollination) with examples and diagrams. Merits and demerits of self and cross-pollination in tabular form are to be mentioned based on the following – (i) the necessity of agents and (ii) the emergence of new characters in the offspring. A brief explanation of agents of pollination with one common example of each in tabular form – air (paddy), water (hydrilla), insect (mango), and bird (shimul). Discussions should include the following with relevant diagrams: Pollen grains transferred from the stamen to the stigma – male germ cells produced by pollen grain fuses with female gamete present in ovule – fusion of germ cells (fertilization) – zygote – divides several times to form embryo within the ovule – ovule gradually converts into seed and the ovary grows and ripens to form a fruit – seed contains future plant or embryo which develops into a seeding under appropriate conditions (Double fertilization and development of endosperm not to be mentioned). Discussions should include the following with relevant diagrams: Growth is a fundamental characteristic of all living organisms. The growth of an organism consists of a permanent and more or less irreversible increase in size and shape, commonly accompanied by an increase in solid matter, dry mass, and amount of cytoplasm. It is basically an irreversible increase in dry mass of living material. The development could be described as an increase in complexity. Starting with an individual cell, the growth of a multicellular organism can be divided into three phases – (i) Cell division – an increase in cell number as a result of mitosis and cell division; (ii) Cell enlargement – and irreversible increase in cell size as a result of uptake of water or the synthesis of living material; (iii) Cell differentiation – the specialization of cells; in its broad sense, the growth also includes this phase of cell development. Briefly mention the five phases of human development namely infancy, childhood, adolescence, adulthood, and senescence or late adulthood.

Chapter 3 Heredity and Common Genetic Disease

Chapter 3A Heredity:
Discussions should include the following with relevant examples: Members of a family share many similarities in appearance, such as height, eye color, and hair colour. People may also note that there are differences in the manner in which characteristics are inherited by offspring. Offsprings do not look exactly like their parents. An Austrian monk, Gregor Johann Mendel performed a series of simple experiments and discovered how heredity worked. Heredity is the transmission of characteristics or traits from one generation to another through reproduction. Sometimes alteration may occur in chromosome structure or number or there may be an alteration in a gene due to a change in DNA composition. This phenomenon is termed mutation. This permanent change in chromosome or DNA may result in a difference in the expression of characters, termed variation. A brief explanation of variation with suitable examples from human-free and attached ear lobe, roller, and normal tongue. Explain key terms associated with heredity with proper examples – (i) Characteristics or traits, (ii) Allele, (iii) Locus, (iv) Unit of inheritance (Factor/Gene), (v) Monohybrid and dihybrid Cross, (vi) Homozygous and heterozygous organisms, (vii) Hybridization, (viii) Pure and hybrid, (ix) Parental generation, (x) Filial generations (F,, F ), (xi) Dominant and recessive characteristics, (xii) Phenotype and genotype (Explain through sample cross). Mendel’s work on the pea plant is to be mentioned. Explanation of cross-pollination as practiced by Mendel (eg. removing another from a flower of a plant and transferring pollen grains from a flower of another plant to that flower with the help of a brush) with the help of proper diagrams. Reasons behind Mendel’s success to be mentioned. The seven pairs of contrasting characters as chosen by Mendel to be mentioned in tabular form with diagrams. Explanation of Mendel’s experiments on Heredity (Monohybrid and Dihybrid Cross) with examples from Pea plant and Guineapig using checkerboard. Explaining deduction of Mendel’s Laws (Law of Segregation and Law of Independent Assortment) with reference to pea plant and guineapig. A brief explanation of incomplete dominance using the four O’Clock (Mirabilis jalapa) flower as an example. A brief explanation of the Process of sex determination in man with special emphasis on the role of the father in determining the sex of the offspring.

Chapter 3B Some Common Genetic Diseases in Population:
Symptoms and causes (autosome/sex chromosome) of thalassemia, hemophilia, and colour blindness are to be mentioned briefly. Discussions should include the following, Thalassemia is a type of genetic disorder where haemoglobin is produced in decreased amounts. The decreased amount of haemoglobin in the blood causes anemia, which reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. It also results in iron overload, either from the disease itself or from frequent blood transfusions. Iron overload may cause damage to the heart, liver, and endocrine system. The damage is characterized by excessive deposits of iron. Mention the role of genetic counseling in preventing thalassemia before marriage in families that carry the thalassemia trait.

Chapter 4 Evolution and Adaptation

Chapter 4A Evolution:
Discussions should include the following with relevant examples. The word evolution means change of life forms over a period of time. It is the central most important idea in biology that complex living organisms evolved from relatively simple ones. Evolution is the cause of biodiversity on earth. Brief outline of the chemical origin of life mentioning Miller and Urey’s experiment. Following evolutionary events to be mentioned with the help of schematic diagram (Not to be elaborated and time frame not to be mentioned): Formation of earth – origin of life – the origin of unicellular life – photosynthetic bacteria begin to release oxygen into the atmosphere – origin of multicellular organisms – fish-like vertebrates evolve land plants evolve, drastically changing earth’s landscape and creating new habitats – four-limbed vertebrates move on to the land. Lamerckism and Darwinism as put forward by Lamarck and Darwin respectively, to be explained with examples. Brief explanation of the evidence of evolution with examples and diagrams: Paleontological: Fossil history of Horse – increase in size, lengthening of limbs and feet, reduction of lateral digits, increase in length and thickness of the third digit; Comparative anatomy (examples to be mentioned): (i) Analogous and Homologous structures – convergent and divergent evolution to be mentioned; (ii) Vestigial organs; (iii) Structure of vertebrate heart (Fish, am-phibia, reptile, bird and mammal). Comparative embryology – At comparable stages of development, the vertebrate embryos all possess the following- external branchial grooves (visceral clefts) in the pharyngeal region and a series of internal paired gill pouches, segmental myotomes (muscle blocks) evident in the rail-like structure.

Chapter 4B Survival Strategies:
Adaptation: Discussions should include the following; A behaviour is an action carried out by an organism under the control of the nervous system in response to environmental cues or to the actions performed by an organism. A cue may be an odor, sound, or visual! signal. Put more simply, behaviour is what an animal does. Behavior allows animals to survive and reproduce and is, thus, critical to the evolutionary process. Adaptation is a modification in the form, physiological functioning or behavior of an organism over generations in response to environmental change in order to survive and reproduce in a particular environment. Adaptive character or adaptation evolves in a population of organisms by the process of natural selection. Brief mention of following adaptive features: (i) Morphological – Cactus (Conversion of leaf into spine or reduction in the number of Leaf); swim bladder of fish and air sac of bird; (ii) Physiological – Mechanism of salt adaptation in Sundri; Camel’s ability to withstand extreme water loss and the shape of RBC in Camel, (iii) Behavioural (Mention the following survival strategies with diagrams. Not to be elaborated further): Problem-solving in Chimpanzees: Chimpanzees pull leaves of a tree branch and then stick the branch into the entrance of a termite nest to “fish” for food. They also crack open nuts using pieces of wood in a “hammer and anvil” technique. They are even observed to eat the leaves of medicinal plants when infected with certain parasites. Communication in Honeybees: Honeybees go out to locate food sources. A honeybee returns to the hive after successfully locating a source of food, she performs the set of maneuvers on a honeycomb that resembles a figure 8 while waggling her abdomen. Based on the way she is dancing and the duration of her dance, other bees are able to leave the hive and quickly locate the food source.

Chapter 5 Environment, Its Resources and Their Conservation

Chapter 5A Nitrogen Cycle:
Discussions should include the following with relevant diagrams: Stages of the nitrogen cycle: (i) Nitrogen Fixation: Atmospheric, biological, and industrial (ii) Ammonification(iii) Nitrification (iv) Denitrification. Discussion should include the following: Human activities such as the use of fertilizers greatly increase the amount of nitrogen that is cycling between the living world and the soil, water, and atmosphere. This may result in Increased global concentrations of nitrous oxide (N2O), a potent greenhouse gas, in the atmosphere as well as increased regional concentrations of other oxides of nitrogen (including nitric oxide, NO) that may cause air pollution; Substantial acidification of soils and of the waters of streams and lakes in several regions.

Chapter 5B Environmental Pollution:
Discussions should include the following with relevant examples: Pollution is an undesirable change in the physico-chemical and biological characteristics of the biosphere that has adverse effects on living organisms and the environment. Mention the causes and effects of Air, Water, Soil, and Noise pollution in tabular form: Air pollution – Cause: Greenhouse gases, SPM Effect: Acid rain and its consequences, Lung disease; Water pollution – Cause: Agricultural runoff, pathogenic organisms; Effect: Disease (cholera, typhoid, etc.), Eutrophication; Soil pollution – Cause: Pathogenic organisms, Chemicals (fertilizers, pesticides, herbicides, etc.); Effect: Effect on human (through direct contact with soil or via inhalation of soil contaminats), Biological magnification; Noise pollution – Cause: Vehicle, Industry; Effect: Effect on human (ear and heart), effect on animals.

Chapter 5C Environment and Human Population:
Problems to be mentioned: over-exploitation and depletion of natural resources, deforestation and loss of ecosystems, shrinking of agricultural land, shortage of fresh water, air and water pollution, changes in atmospheric condition and global warming, destruction of wetland and its consequences, scarcity of food. Discussions should include a brief explanation of the environmental causes behind Lung diseases and cancer. Lung diseases; Asthma – a condition in which breathing is difficult; environmental triggers for asthma include naturally occurring triggers such as animal dander, plant pollen, dust & mold and manmade triggers such as chemicals. Bronchitis – inflammation of the airways of the lungs, can be caused by breathing in of certain chemicals or smoke; welders, firefighters, and smokers are some of the people at risk. Cancer: Cancers have been linked to environmental toxins (poisons). Pesticides, herbicides, and radioactive substances have the potential to cause cancer. Smokers are at increased risk for developing lung cancer. Tobacco chewers are at increased risk of developing oral cancer.

Chapter 5D Biodiversity and Conservation:
Explanation of biodiversity and its importance (with relevant diagrams and pictures) namely in producing food, drugs & medicines, maintenance of ecological balance, climate control, economic importance (construction of the house and household furniture, production of paper, gum, resin, wax, leather, silk, wool, pearl etc.), influence on art and literature. Discussions should include the following: Four of the 34 globally identified biodiversity hotspots are in India. These hotspots are the Eastern Himalayas, Indo-Burma, Western Ghats, and Srilanka, Sundaland. The reasons behind the loss of biodiversity to be mentioned (with relevant examples pictures and diagrams) – the destruction of habitat due to changes in land use patterns, hunting and poaching, global warming and climate change, pollution, over-exploitation, natural calamities, the introduction of exotic species. The following factors are to be mentioned: Destruction of mangroves due to urbanization, agriculture, freshwater crisis, destruction of habitat, pollution, disbalance in prey-predator number, and submergence of islands due to rising sea level. Brief explanation of the terms – in-situ and ex-situ conservation, in-situ Conservation – National park, sanctuary, Reserve Forest, and Biosphere Reserve. [One or two characteristics with two examples of each type (one from West Bengal and one from the rest of India) in tabular form] ex-situ Conservation – Zoological Garden, Botanical Garden, and Cryopreservation. (Mention two characteristics with relevant examples for each). Discussions should include the following: Joint Forest Management (JFM): It was instituted by the Government of India. The pioneer project started in West Bengal in 1971 for the restoration and management of degraded Sal forests by the local inhabitants of the Arabari forest in the district of West Midnapore in West Bengal. It was initiated to meet the demands of the people and save forests from destruction. It involves the participation of common people in the protection and management of forests. People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR): It is a documented register prepared with the involvement of local people containing comprehensive information on the availability and knowledge of the local biological resource, their use, and the traditional folklore knowledge associated with them. Mention briefly with pictures of the conservation efforts of Tigers, Rhinoceros, Lions, Crocodile and Red Panda in India. Mention the name and place of one of the projects undertaken for each of their conservation.

First Summative Evaluation: 40
Month of Evaluation: April
Internal Formative Evaluation: 10

• Chapter 1 Control and Coordination in living organisms
• Chapter 2 Continuity of Life
  • Chapter 2A Cell Division and Cell Cycle

Second Summative Evaluation: 40
Month of Evaluation: August
Internal Formative Evaluation: 10

• Chapter 2 Continuity of Life
  • Chapter 2B Reproduction
  • Chapter 2C Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
  • Chapter 2D Growth and Development
• Chapter 3 Heredity and Some Common Genetic Diseases
• Chapter 4 Evolution and Adaptation

Third Summative Evaluation: 90
Month of Evaluation: December
Internal Formative Evaluation: 10

• Chapter 5 Environment, Its Resources and Their Conservation

Note: Along with this theme, 4 themes from the first and second summative evaluations are to be included.

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Blueprint for 1st Summative Evaluation (Total Marks – 40)

Theme	Group A	Group B	Group C	Group D	Total Marks	Total Questions
	MCQ 1 Mark	VSAQ 1 Mark	SAQ 2 Marks	LAQ 5 Marks
Chapter 1	1 × 5 = 5	1 × 5 = 5	2 × 3 = 6	5 × 2 = 10	26	15
Chapter 2A	1 × 3 = 3	1 × 4 = 4	2 × 1 = 2	5 × 1 = 5	14	9
Total	8	9	8	15	40	24

Group A – MCQ: All questions are compulsory. There will be no alternative for MCQ.
Group B – VSA: Out of 11 questions, 9 questions are to be attempted. One (1) extra question is to be set from each theme. VSA questions may be of four types – answer in one word or in one sentence, fill in the blanks, true/false, and match column A with column B. In column matching two points are to be kept in mind – (i) For each correct matching one (1) mark is allotted, (ii) There should be at least one (1) extra option in Column B.
Group C – SA: Out of 6 questions, 4 questions are to be attempted. One (1) extra question is to be set from each theme.
Group D – LA: 3 questions are to be attempted. Alternative question from the same theme is to be set for each question. 5 marks can be given as a whole or can be divided into 3 + 2 or 2 + 3.

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Blueprint for 2nd Summative Evaluation (Total Marks – 40)

Theme	Group A	Group B	Group C	Group D	Total Marks	Total Questions
	MCQ 1 Mark	VSAQ 1 Mark	SAQ 2 Marks	LAQ 5 Marks
Chapter 2B,2C,2D	1 × 3 = 3	1 × 2 = 2	2 × 1 = 2	5 × 1 = 5	12	7
Chapter 3	1 × 3 = 3	1 × 2 = 2	2 × 2 = 4	5 × 1 = 5	14	8
Chapter 4	1 × 3 = 3	1 × 2 = 2	2 × 2 = 4	5 × 1 = 5	14	8
Total	9	6	10	15	40	23

Group A – MCQ: All questions are compulsory. There will be no alternative for MCQ.
Group B – VSA: Out of 9 questions, 6 questions are to be attempted. One (1) extra question is to be set from each theme. VSA questions may be of four types – answer in one word or in one sentence, fill in the blanks, true/false, and match column A with column B. In column matching two points are to be kept in mind – (i) For each correct matching one (1) mark is allotted, (ii) There should be at least one (1) extra option in Column B.
Group C – SA: Out of 8 questions, 5 questions are to be attempted. One (1) extra question is to be set from each theme.
Group D – LA: 3 questions are to be attempted. Alternative question from the same theme is to be set for each question. 5 marks can be given as a whole or can be divided into 3 + 2 or 2 + 3.

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Blueprint for 3rd Summative Evaluation (Total Marks – 90)

Theme	Group A	Group B	Group C	Group D	Total Marks	Total Questions
	MCQ 1 Mark	VSAQ 1 Mark	SAQ 2 Marks	LAQ 5 Marks
Chapter 1	1 × 3 = 3	1 × 5 = 5	2 × 3 = 6	5 × 1 = 5	19	12
Chapter 2	1 × 3 = 3	1 × 5 = 5	2 × 2 = 4	5 × 1 = 5	17	11
Chapter 3	1 × 3 = 3	1 × 3 = 3	2 × 2 = 4	5 × 1 = 5	15	9
Chapter 4	1 × 3 = 3	1 × 3 = 3	2 × 2 = 4	5 × 1 = 5	15	9
Chapter 5	1 × 3 = 3	1 × 5 = 5	2 × 3 = 6	5 × 2 = 10	24	13
Total	15	21	24	30	90	54

Group A – MCQ: All questions are compulsory. There will be no alternative for MCQ.
Group B – VSA: Out of 26 questions, 21 questions are to be attempted. One (1) extra question is to be set from each theme. VSA questions may be of four types – answer in one word or in one sentence, fill in the blanks, true/false, and match column A with column B. In column matching two points are to be kept in mind – (i) For each correct matching one (1) mark is allotted, (ii) There should be at least one (1) extra option in Column B.
Group C – SA: Out of 17 questions, 12 questions are to be attempted. One (1) extra question is to be set from each theme.
Group D – LA: 6 questions are to be attempted. Alternative question from the same theme is to be set for each question. 5 marks can be given as a whole or can be divided into 3 + 2 or 2 + 3.
The question pattern is indicative of the Madhyamik Examination.

WBBSE Class 10 Solutions

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 5.8 Industries in India offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 5.8 Question Answer – Industries in India

Answer in short : 2 Marks

Question 1.
What is the importance of transport to industries ?
Answer:
Transport helps to carry raw materials, labour and other essential things from the source to the industry and also the finished products to the market.

Question 2.
What do you mean by ‘pure raw material’?
Answer:
Pure raw materials are those whose weight does not reduce in the process of production of finished goods. Eg. – 100 kg of raw cotton mill yield 100 kg of cotton clothe.

Question 3.
What do you mean by ‘impure raw materials’ ?
Answer:
Impure raw materials are those whose weight reduces considerably in the process of production of finished goods. Eg.- 100 kg of iron ore will not yield 100 kg of pure iron. It depends on the percentage of iron content of the ore.

Question 4.
Classify the different kinds of industries.
Answer:

• Agro-based
• Animal-based
• Forest-based
• Mineral-based
• Industrial raw material based.

Question 5.
What is Food Processing Industry?
Answer:
The industry where agro-based raw materials are used to produce easily usable, attractive and long-lasting food items, is called Food Processing Industry. Eg.Dairy, fruit juice, jams, potato chips, etc.

Question 6.
Where are most of the cotton textile mills concentrated in India ?
Answer:
Most of the cotton textile mills in India are concentrated in Maharashtra, Gujarat, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Question 7.
Name the important centres of cotton textile industry in Maharashtra.
Answer:
The important cotton textile centres of Maharashtra are – Solapur, Pune, Kolhapur, Satara, Wardha, Nagpur, Aurangabad, Amravati and Salgaon. But Mumbai is the most important centre with 63 mills of the total 122 mills of Maharashtra being located here.

Question 8.
Why is Ahmedabad called the Manchester of India ?
Answer:
Ahmedabad is the the largest centre of cotton textile industry in India. It alone houses 73 mills out of the 118 mills present in Gujarat. Thus, it is compared with the largest cotton textile centre of the world, and is called the Manchester of India’.

Question 9.
Name some important cotton textile centres of the south.
Answer:
Coimbatore (Manchester of the South), Chennai, Madurai, Tirunelveli, Salem, Perambur, Tuticorin, etc.

Question 10.
Why is paper industry called a forest-based industry ?
Answer:
The raw materials for paper industry come from coniferous trees, bamboos, sabai grass etc. which are all forest products. Thus the paper industry is called a forest-based industry.

Question 11.
Why is coal an essential raw material for the iron and steel industry?
Answer:
Coal is converted to coking coal, which is very essential for melting iron ore and extracting pure iron or pig iron. This iron is then further used to produce several things. Extraction of pure iron would be impossible without coal. Hence, coal is very essential for the iron and steel industry.

Question 12.
Write a short note on the iron and steel plant of Bhadravati.
Answer:
The Visveswaraya Iron and Steel Ltd. located at Bhadravati is the first steel plant developed outside the coal belt of eastern India. The plant was first started by using charcoal as a source of fuel. Now it is using hydro-power obtained from the Jog hydel power station. All raw materials (iron ore from Kemangundi, limestone from Bhandigudda, manganese from Shimoga) are available within a radius of 50 km from Bhadravati.

Question 13.
Write a short note on Salem Steel Plant.
Answer:
Salem steel plant started commerical production from March 1982. It is located very near to the iron ore fields of salem. The power comes from Neyveli Thermal Project. This plant is designed to produce stainless steel sheets and coils.

Question 14.
Name some important automobile companies of India.
Answer:

1. Hindustan Motors Ltd. in Uttarpara, West Bengal.
2. Premier Automobiles Ltd. in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
3. Standard Motor Products Ltd and Ashok Leyland Ltd. in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
4. Maruti Udyog Ltd. in Gurgaon, Haryana.
5. Tata Engineering and Locomotive Company (TELCO) in Jamshedpur, Jhankhand.
6. Mahindra and Mahindra Ltd. in Mumbai, Maharashtra.

Question 15.
Where were steam locomotives manufactured in India in the preindependence period?
Answer:
In the pre-independence period, steam locomotives were assembled and partly manufactured in Ajmer and Kanchanpara.

Question 16.
Write a short note on Diesel Locomotive works at Varanasi.
Answer:
Diesel Locomotive Work (DLW) in Varanasi started assembling locomotives from imported components. The first locomotive coach was commissioned in January 1964. DLW now produces broad gauge and meter gauge diesel locos with the help of indigenous components.

Question 17.
Write a short note on TELCO.
Answer:
The Tata Engineering and Locomotive Works (TELCO) is a private sector unit and is located at Jamshedpur in Jharkhand. It was set up in 1951 for production of steam locomotives. But since 1970, the production of steam locomotives has been stopped and other locomotives are manufactured.

Question 18.
Name the regions where petro-chemical projects are being implemented in India.
Answer:
Some regions where petro-chemical projects are being implemented in India are :

1. Hazira, Jamnagar and Bharuch in Gujarat.
2. Chennai in Tamil Nadu.
3. Mangalore in Karnataka.
4. Visakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh,
5. Haldia in West Bengal.
6. Auraiya in Uttar Pradesh.

Question 19.
What do you mean by ‘Information Technology’?
Answer:
Information Technology is the application of computers and telecommunication equipments to store, retrieve, transmit and manipulate data in the context of a business or other enterprises.

Question 20.
In how many segments is the IT industry in India divided ?
Answer:
The IT industry in India is divided into 4 major segments :
(a) IT services
(b) Business process management
(c) Software products and engineering services
(d) Hardware.

Question 21.
What are ‘foot loose industries’?
Answer:
The industries which produce some volume of finished products as the raw materials used, can be located at the centres of raw materials, centres of production or at the market. These are called foot loose industries. Eg. – Cotton textile.

Question 22.
What are ‘Down stream industries’?
Answer:
The industries which use the finished products of big industries as their own raw materials are called ‘Down stream industries. Eg.- Synthetic fibre from petroleum.

Question 23.
What are ‘Acillary industries’ ?
Answer:
The industries which supply their finished products to support the growth of other related industries are called the ‘Ancillary Industries’. Eg. – Ancillary industries for the automobile industry are – tyre industry, battery industry, glass industry, etc.

Question 24.
What is an industrial region?
Answer:
A region where many types of industries grow beside each other due to facilities of raw materials, market, demand, labour supply, mutual interdependence, etc. is called an ‘industrial region’.

Question 25.
Name the largest and oldest iron and steel centres of India.
Answer:
(i) The largest iron and steel industry of India is in Bhilai, Chattisgarh.
(ii) The oldest iron and steel industry of India is in Burnpur-Kulti (IISCO) in West Bengal.

Question 26.
What is the impact of climate on cotton textile industry?
Answer:
Raw cotton can be easily spun into threads in moist climate. Dry climate makes the threads too dry and causes them to break. This produces clothes of inferior quality.

Question 27.
Which city of West Bengal is called the ‘Glassgow of India’?
Answer:
Howrah in West Bengal is called the ‘Glassgow of India’. Glassgow in Britain is the largest town and centre for numerous engineering centres in Scotland. Similarly, Howrah also houses the maximum number of engineering centres and other factories in West Bengal.

Question 28.
Name two centres in India manufacturing railway wagons.
Answer:
(i) Muzaffarpur of Bihar
(ii) Dumdum in West Bengal.

Question 29.
Why is the iron and steel industry called the backbone industry ?
Answer:
Iron and steel is such an important industry that all industries producing the smallest of items like safety pins to large items like railway engines require raw materials from them. Thus, it is called the backbone industry.

Question 30.
Why is Chennai known as the ‘Detroit of India’ ?
Answer:
Detroit in USA is the largest centre of manufacturing automobiles in the world. Similarly, Chennai produces about 35-40% of the automobiles produced in India. Thus, Chennai is called the ‘Detroit of India’.

Answer in brief : 3 Marks

Question 1.
Name the centres where cotton mills have developed in the Northern Zone.
Answer:
The major centres where cotton mills have developed in the Northern zone are :

1. Uttar Pradesh – Kanpur, Lucknow, Aligarh, Agra, Bareilly, Meerut.
2. Punjab – Amritsar, Ludhiana, Phagwara.
3. Haryana – Bhiwani, Hissar, Rohtak.
4. Rajasthan – Pali, Hilwara, Udaipur, Jaipur, Ajmer.
5. Delhi

Question 2.
Write a short note on the growth of paper industry in India.
Answer:
The first Paper mill was established in 1840 in Serampore, Hooghly, by Willam Carry, but unfortunately it was closed down. The modern paper mill was first established in Bally, Howrah. Presently there are 379 paper mills in India. Production capacity is 60.20 lakh tonnes (2004). Newsprint, which is mainly used for printing of newspaper is produced about 12.40 lakh tonnes.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Chittaranjan Locomotive works (CLW).
Answer:
The Chittaranjan Locomotive Works (CLW) was established in Chittaranjan in Burdwan district of West Bengal in 1948. The extensive level of land with hard soil of Chittaranjan area is a most suitable site for the erection of the plant. Steam locomotives were manufactured here initially. But since 1972, the production of steam locomotives has been discontinued and their place has been given to electric locomotives.

Question 4.
What are the factors that influence the location of chittaranjan Locomotive Work?
Answer:
The factors that influence location of Chittaranjan Locomotive Works are :

1. Availability of steel from nearby steel plants.
2. Availability of hydel power from Mython and thermal power from Durgapur.
3. Cheap local labour.
4. Location of Chittaranjan near rail junctions.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Petro-chemical industry?
Answer:
Petro-chemicals are essentially the chemicals and compounds derived from petroleum resources. The industry which deals with such chemicals and compounds is called Petro-chemical industry. These chemicals are used in a wide range of articles, such as, synthetic fibres, plastic, famous and non-famous metals, synthetic rubber, dye-stuffs, insecticides, drugs, synthetic detergents, pharmaceuticals, etc.

Question 6.
Write about IT industry in India.
Answer:
India is the world’s largest sourcing destination for the IT industry. The industry employs about 10 million Indians and contributes significantly to the social and economic transformation of the country. It energises the higher education sector, especially in engineering and computer science. The Indian IT industry is divided into 4 major segments – (a) IT services (b) Business process management (c) Software products and engineering services (d) Hardware. Indian IT’s core competencies and strengths have placed it on the international canvas, attracting investments from major countries. Eg. – the software and hardware industry attracted 13,788.56 million between April 2000 and December 2014.

Question 7.
Discuss the causes of growth of paper industry in India.
Answer:
The causes of growth of paper industry in India are :

1. Availability of raw materials from forest (Eg.- coniferous trees, bamboo, sabai grass)
2. Availability of other materials needed for the industry, Eg.- chemicals, dyes, bleaches, etc.
3. Availability of ample water.
4. Availability of hydal power as well as thermal power to run the plants.
5. Cheap and ample labour.
6. Demand for newsprint, books and copies by the huge population.

Question 8.
Classify raw materials according to their sources.
Answer:
Raw materials can be classified according to their sources as :

1. Agro-based : These are the raw materials that come from agriculture. Eg.- tea, jute, sugarcane, cotton etc.
2. Mineral-based : These are raw materials that come from minerals excavated from the earth. Eg. – coal, iron ore, bauxite etc.
3. Forest-based : These are raw materials that come from forests. Eg. – wood for paper industry, rubber latex, pulp for matchstick, cardboard industry etc.
4. Animal-based : These are raw materials that come from animals. Eg.- wool, fur, skin, meat for food processing industries, hooves and horns etc.

Question 9.
Name the major iron and steel centres of India.
Answer:

Centre	Region	State
i. TISCO	Jamshedpur	Jharkhand
ii. Rourkela Steel Plant	Rourkela	Odisha
iii. Daitari Steel Plant	Daitari	Odisha
iv. Hindustan Steel limited	Durgapur	West Bengal
v. IISCO	Kulti-Burnpur	West Bengal
vi. Bhilai	Durg district	Chattisgarh
vii. Visakhapatnam Steel Project	Visakhapatnam	Andhra Pradesh
viii. Vijaynagar Steel Plant	Hospet	Karnataka
ix. Salem Steel Plant	Salem	Tamil Nadu

Question 10.
What are the causes of growth of the Iron and Steel centre at Bhilai?
Answer:
The iron and steel centre at Bhilai was established in 1960 with Russian collaboration. The advantages which supported the growth of this centre are :

1. Iron ore comes from Dalli Rajhara only 100 km away.
2. Coal comes from Kobra mines 225 km away. Some high quality coal also comes from Jharia 750 km away.
3. Manganese comes from Balaghat and Bhandara 200 km away.
4. The nearby reservoir of Tendula supplies the requisite water.
5. Power comes from Korba region.
6. The Visag port is situated 450 km away.

Question 11.
Discuss the causes of development of the Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) at Jamshedpur.
Answer:
The Tata Iron and Steel Company was set up in Jamshedpur by Jamshedji Tata in 1911. The causes for its development are :

1. Iron ore comes from the mines of Gurumahisani, Badampahar, Sulaipat, Bonai and Keonjhar of Odisha and from Noamundi, Guwa, Pansiburu, Budaburu of Singhbhum district of Odisha only 75-100 km away.
2. Coal comes from Jharia and Korba mines 200 km away.
3. Manganese comes from West Singhbhum, Keonjhar and Bonai.
4. Limestone and dolomite comes from Gangpur and Birmitrapur.
5. Water is acquired from Subarnarekha and Kharkai rivers.
6. The Kolkata port is only 250 km away.

Question 12.
Why is Durgapur of West Bengal known as the ‘Ruhr of India’ ?
Answer:
The Ruhr region of Germany is famous for housing a huge number of iron and steel industries based on the iron ore and coal found nearby. Similarly, in Durgapur of West Bengal, numerous iron and steel centres have come up based on coal mines of Jharia, Raniganj, Asansol nearby. Thus, it is known as the ‘Ruhr of India’.

Question 13.
List the importances of petro-chemical industry.
Answer:
The importances of petro-chemical industry are :

1. This industry uses the petroleum to the fullest to manufacture several things. Thus, the cost of production becomes less.
2. Ancillary industries and downstream industries also grow along with petro-chemical industries. e.g. – synthetic fibre, plastic, polymer etc.
3. It is based on high skill and technological know-how. Hence, development of the industry is fast.
4. It is based on advanced researches and have scope for further researches.
5. It plays an important role in the economic development of a country.
6. It helps in creating more and more resources.

Answer in details : 5 Marks

Question 1.
Discuss the factors that influence the location of any industry.
Answer:
The factors that influence the location of any industry are :

1. Raw materials : All industries need raw materials to begin their production. Nature of raw materials influences the location of the industry. Eg.- Iron and Steel plants are set up in regions near iron and coal mines.
2. Transport : Raw materials need to be transported to factories and finished products to markets.
3. Market : Location of a market influences location of an industry, as all finished goods need to be reached to the market for business and commerce.
4. Labour : No industry can run without labour. A location for the industry is chosen where labour will be available at cheap rates.
5. Capital : Industries tend to grow where rich people concentrate, and investors are eager to invest.
6. Water : Water is essential for all industries. Eg.- Availability of water guides location of jute industries.
7. Power or electricity : No industry can run without power or electricity. Thus, a location is chosen where power can be easily reached.
8. Others : The other factors which influence the location of industries are – climate, environmental conditions, relief, govemment rules and regulations, etc.

Question 2.
Discuss the factors of localisation of cotton textile mills in Western India.
Answer:
The factors that influence the localisation of cotton textile mills in Wesern India are :

1. Raw material (i.e. cotton) available from the black soil region of Western and Central India.
2. Hot humid climate helps in growth of cotton and making of threads.
3. Presence of ports at Mumbai, Kandla, Surat, etc. helps in international trade.
4. Availability of hydel power from Ukai, Veera, etc., thermal power from Dhubran, atomic power from Kakrapara,Tarapore, etc.
5. Good network of railways and roadways connecting all important centres of the country.
6. Availability of capital from business communities residing in the western part of India.
7. Ample labour at cheap rates.
8. High demand of cotton products in local and foreign markets.

Question 3.
Why are iron and steel industries concentrated in eastern India ?
Answer:
Most of the iron and steel plants of India, such as Jamshedpur, Burnpur, Durgapur, Rourkela, Bhilai and Bokaro are located in Jharkhand, West Bengal, Odisha and Chattisgarh. The causes for the concentration of iron and steel plants in eastern India are :
i. Iron ore : About 80 % of India’s iron ore is available in this region. The major mines are – (a) Noamundi, Guwa, Budaburu, Pansiraburu of Singhbhum district, Jharkhand. (b) Gurumahisani, Badampahar, Sulaipat and Bonai of Mayurbhanj district and Bagiyaburu of Keonjhar district, Odisha.

ii. Coal : About 97% of India’s coal is mined in this region. The steel plants of Kulti, Burnpur, and Durgapur get their coal from the mines in Raniganj and Asansol. The steel plants of Jamshedpur, Bokaro and Rourkela get their coal from Jharia, Bokaro, Ramgarh and Giridih in Jharkhand.

iii. Other raw materials : Limestone, dolomite, manganese, etc. are collected from Kalahandi, Gangpur and Karaput of Odisha. Other raw materials like chromium, tungsten, nickel, etc. are easily collected from Chotanagpur plateau.

iv. Water : The rivers Damodar, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, etc. supply ample water required in the steel plants.

v. Transport : The network of roadways and railways in eastern India help in trade and commerce. The ports at Kolkata, Haldia and Paradweep help in international trade.

vi. Power Supply : Thermal power is acquired from Bokaro and Durgapur thermal power plants. Hydel power is acquired from power projects at Hirakud, Mythan, Panchet and Tilaiya.

vii. Labour : Cheap and skilled labour are easily available from West Bengal, Jharkhand, Odisha and Bihar.

viii. Market : Iron and steel from eastern India meets the demands of eastern, central and northern India, as well as foreign countries.

Question 4.
Discuss about the Petro-chemical industry of India.
Answer:
Petro-chemical industry derives its raw materials essentially from petroleum, along with other chemicals. It is required for the production of a wide variety of items like synthetic fibres, plastics, ferrous and non-ferrous metals, dye, paints, insecticides, drugs, pharmaceuticals, etc.

The first petro-chemical complex was established by Union Carbide India Ltd’ at Trombay in 1966. ‘National Organic Chemical Industries Ltd’ was set up in Thane in 1968. The Udex Plant at Kayali Refinery for the production of benzene and toluene was commissioned in 1969. The Indian Petro-Chemical Corporation Ltd, was the first public sector enterprise incorporated in March, 1969. The IPCL’s mega petrochemical complex at vadodara was commissioned in 1973. In Gujarat, Jamnagar is the largest private petro-chemical industry. Petrofils Corporation Ltd (PCL) is a joint sector company of the Government of India and Weaver’s Co-operative societies. It manufactures polyester filament yarn and nylon filament yarn. The Bongaigaon Petro-Chemicals Ltd. is set up at Bongaigaon adjacent to the oil refinery.

These are only a few of the petro-chemical plants established in India. The growing demand of petro-chemical products in daily life has led the government to sanction several mega petro-chemical complexes in public and private sectors. As a result, petro-chemical projects are being implemented in Hazira, Jamnagar and Bharuch in Gujarat, Chennai in Tamil Nadu, Mangalore in Karnataka, Visakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh, Haldia in West Bengal and Auraiya in Uttar Pradesh.

The petro-chemical industry contributes 14% of the production of the entire manufacturing sector. It also shares 14 % of the total export volume of India.

Question 5.
Discuss the problems, solutions and prospects of cotton textile industry in India.
Answer:
The problems of cotton textile industry in India are :

1. Lack of best quality long staple cotton.
2. Old and obsolete machineries.
3. High cost of production due to lack of modernisation.
4. Huge number of sick and closed mills.
5. Competition with artificial fibre.
6. Competition in the international market.
7. Labour disputes and problems with the management.
8. Irregular power supply etc.

The solutions taken up for solving these problems are:

i. The ‘National Cotton Textile Corporation’ and the ‘Cotton Textile Export Development Organisation’ has been built to look after the different issues in cotton textile industry.
ii. New machines and better infrastructure are being used to replace the old. The prospects of cotton textile industry in India are –

1. There is a huge internal market for cotton textile in India itself due to the huge population.
2. Demand for cotton textile is always high, as India is basically a warm country.
3. There is a good demand of Indian cotton textile in the world.
4. The international market can be increased yet more by improving on the quality of cotton textile even more.

Question 6.
Why has the petro-chemical industry developed on the western side of India?
Answer:
The causes of development of petro-chemical industry in western India are :

1. The western part of India has many oil reserves. The requisite crude oil comes from the mines in Bombay High Basin, Aliabet, Ankleshwar, Cambay, Kallol, etc.
2. The crude oil can be easily processed in the refineries of Koyali, Jamnagar etc.
3. Many ports are present on the western coast of India, which helps in import of more crude oil and export of finished petro-chemical products.
4. The rich communities residing in the nearby areas invest in the industries built there.
5. There is high demand of petro-chemical products in Western India.

Question 7.
What are the problems of petro-chemical industry in India ?
Answer:
The problems of petro-chemical industry in India are :

1. Petroleum mines in India are not sufficient to meet the demands in the country. About 60% of crude oil has to be imported from other countries.
2. The cost of petro-chemical products is increasing rapidly.
3. Lack of multiple use of petroleum products due to lack of technological know how.
4. Lack of enough capital restricts the development of the industry.
5. The geneal population of India does not possess buying capacities to use petrochemical products of high qualities.
6. Petro-chemical industry causes much air pollution.
7. The products are not biodegradable, hence cause, pollutions in all levels of the environment after discarding.
8. Lack of research work to find out other uses and cheap methods of manufacturing petro-chemical products.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) 1 Mark

Question 1.
The largest steel plant of the country is :
(A) Bhilai
(B) Bokaro
(C) Rourkela
(D) Durgapur
Answer:
(A) Bhilai

Question 2.
The Bhadravati Steel Plant is the only plant which is managed by a State Government. Which is that State Govt.?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Odisha
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Karnataka
Answer:
(D) Karnataka

Question 3.
The first shore-based integrated steel project in India is coming up at-
(A) Ernakulam
(B) Tuticorin
(C) Visakhapatnam
(D) Mangalore
Answer:
(C) Visakhapatnam

Question 4.
Which of the following is wrongly matched about steel plants and country of collaboration/assistance?
(A) Rourkela (Odisha) – West Germany
(B) Durgapur (West Bengal) – United Kingdom
(C) Bokaro (Bihar) – U.S.S.R.
(D) Bhilai (M.P.) – United Kingdom
Answer:
(D) Bhilai (M.P.) – United Kingdom

Question 5.
Which of the following iron and steel plants get coking coal from Jharia?
(A) Bokaro and Burnpur
(B) Durgapur and Jamshedpur
(C) Bhilai and Rourkela
(D) All of them
Answer:
(D) All of them

Question 6.
Where is the Ambassador car manufactured ?
(A) Mahindra and Mahindra (Pune)
(B) Premier Automobiles (Bombay)
(C) Standard Motors (Madras)
(D) Hind Motors (Calcutta)
Answer:
(D) Hind Motors (Calcutta)

Question 7.
India is the world’s largest sugarcane producer, but second to Cuba in sugar production because
(A) nearly half the sugarcane in India is used to produce ‘gur’ and uncrystallised brown sugar.
(B) Indian sugarcane has a lower sucrose content than that from Cuba.
(C) The sugar refining method is not good in India.
(D) There is less demand for white sugar in India.
Answer:
(A) nearly half the sugarcane in India is used to produce ‘gur’ and uncrystallised brown sugar.

Question 8.
Which industry provides jobs to the maximum number of people?
(A) Iron and steel
(B) Cotton textiles
(C) Sugar industry
(D) Tea processing
Answer:
(B) Cotton textiles

Question 9.
Heavy engineering industries are located in :
(A) Jamshedpur-Asansol
(B) Bombay-Pune
(C) Kanpur and Lucknow
(D) Bangalore and Madras
Answer:
(A) Jamshedpur-Asansol

Question 10.
Which of the following steel plants was started with Russian collaboration?
(A) Bhilai
(B) Durgapur
(C) Rourkela
(D) Bhadravati
Answer:
(A) Bhilai

Question 11.
Tata Iron and Steel Company is located at :
(A) Calcutta
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Bumpur
(D) Kulti
Answer:
(B) Jamshedpur

Question 12.
Bombay is famous for:
(A) Sugar Industry
(B) Plastic Industry
(C) Cotton Textile Industry
(D) Heavy Electrical industry
Answer:
(C) Cotton Textile Industry

Question 13.
Bhilai is associated with :
(A) Cotton Industry
(B) Silk Industry
(C) Iron and Steel Industry
(D) Sugar Industry
Answer:
(C) Iron and Steel Industry

Question 14.
Bokaro is located in :
(A) Maharashtra
(B) West Bengal
(C) Odisha
(D) Jharkhand
Answer:
(D) Jharkhand

Question 15.
Which of the following cities is called the Manchester of India :
(A) Ahmedabad
(B) Coimbatore
(C) Sholapur
(D) Kanpur
Answer:
(A) Ahmedabad

Question 16.
The first cotton mill in India was started at :
(A) Mysore
(B) Kolkata
(C) Madras
(D) Bombay
Answer:
(B) Kolkata

Question 17.
The first H.M.T. factory was started at :
(A) Pinjore
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Madras
(D) Bangalore
Answer:
(D) Bangalore

Question 18.
Iron and steel products is obtained mainly from public sector plants, because :
(A) Huge capital investment is needed
(B) Private sector plant is not making profit
(C) It is the policy of the Government to have basic industries in public sector
(D) Production involves foreign collaboration
Answer:
(C) It is the policy of the Government to have basic industries in public sector

Question 19.
The latest plant producing stainless steel is located at :
(A) Visakhapatnam
(B) Salem
(C) Hospet
(D) Bokaro
Answer:
(B) Salem

Question 20.
Capacity for building large ships is at :
(A) Visakhapatnam
(B) Cochin
(C) Kolkata
(D) Goa
Answer:
(C) Kolkata

Question 21.
Daitari is known for its :
(A) Silk industry
(B) Textile industry
(C) Steel plant
(D) Jute industry
Answer:
(C) Steel plant

Question 22.
Salem steel plant is located in :
(A) A. P.
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala
Answer:
(B) Tamil Nadu

Question 23.
The leading state in sugar production in India is:
(A) U.P.
(B) Bihar
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(A) U.P.

Question 24.
Motorcycles are produced at:
(A) Faridabad
(B) Ballabhgarh
(C) Bombay
(D) Bangalore
Answer:
(A) Faridabad

Question 25.
Automobiles are produced at :
(A) Kolkata
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Hyderabad
Answer:
(A) Kolkata

Question 26.
Bangalore is famous for :
(A) Iron and Steel Industry
(B) Aluminum industry
(C) Aircraft industry
(D) Copper industry
Answer:
(C) Aircraft industry

Question 27.
The Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd. is famous for :
(A) Engineering industry
(B) Chemical industry
(C) Automobile industry
(D) Chemical fertilizer industry
Answer:
(A) Engineering industry

Question 28.
The main exporters of superfine clothe are :
(A) Sholapur and Coimbatore
(B) Bombay and Ahmedabad
(C) Madras and Calcutta
(D) Bangalore and Mysore
Answer:
(C) Madras and Calcutta

Question 29.
The percentage of mill produced clothe to be exported from India is :
(A) 15 per cent
(B) 10 per cent
(C) 12 per cent
(D) 8 per cent
Answer:
(B) 10 per cent

Question 30.
Diesel locomotives are manufactured at :
(A) Varanasi
(B) Gorakhpur
(C) Jamshedpur
(D) Barauni
Answer:
(A) Varanasi

Question 31.
Railway coaches are produced at :
(A) Perambur
(B) Kottayam
(C) Vellore
(D) Trichur
ANswer:
(A) Perambur

Question 32.
Ships are built in :
(A) Visakhapatnam
(B) Madras
(C) Calicut
(D) Goa
Answer:
(A) Visakhapatnam

Question 33.
In which state in India are the maximum number of cotton yarn and textile mills located?
(A) A. P.
(B) Gujarat
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(D) Tamil Nadu

Question 34.
India’s first sponge iron plate is at :
(A) Kothagudam*
(B) Kurnool
(C) Cudappah
(D) Kavaratti
[Kothagudam is in Andhra Pradesh. The sponge iron will act as a substitute for steel scrap and be used as feedstock for electric arc steel making.]
Answer:
(A) Kothagudam*

Question 35.
The main problem faced by manufacturing industries in India is the shortage of :
(A) Raw materials
(B) Market
(C) Power
(D) Labour
Answer:
(C) Power

Question 36.
Telephone cables are manufactured at :
(A) Patiala
(B) Madras
(C) Calcutta
(D) Asansol
Answer:
(D) Asansol

Question 37.
The main centre of chemical industry is :
(A) Bombay
(B) Calcutta
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Madras
Answer:
(A) Bombay

Question 38.
Transport aircrafts are produced at :
(A) Bangalore
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Kanpur
(D) Nasik
Answer:
(C) Kanpur

Question 39.
Aero-engines are produced at :
(A) Nasik
(B) Pune
(C) Koraput
(D) Mangalore
Answer:
(C) Koraput

Question 40.
Nasik produces :
(A) Air frames
(B) Aircraft wheels
(C) Electronic equipments
(D) Chemical goods
Answer:
(C) Electronic equipments

Question 41.
The first plant for heavy electrical engineering was started at :
(A) Bhopal
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Haridwar
(D) Nasik
Answer:
(A) Bhopal

Question 42.
Other heavy electrical engineering plants are located at :
(A) Hyderabad and Ranipur
(B) Nasik and Pune
(C) Lucknow and Bhubaneswar
(D) Durgapur and Asansol
Answer:
(A) Hyderabad and Ranipur

Fill in the blanks : 1 Mark

1. The Maruti Udyog Limited is located at ________.
2. In India, the first synthetic rubber factory was started at ________.
3. The _________ river provides water to the Tata Iron and Steel Company, Jamshedpur.
4. The army trucks-Shaktimaan and Nissan are manufactured at________.
5. _______ is the first Iron and Steel industry in India.
6. Scooters are manufactured with Japanese collaboration at ________.
7. _______ state is a leading producer of woolen textile.
Answer:
1. Gurgaon
2. Bareilly
3. Subarnarekha
4. Jabalpur
5. Bengal iron works
6. Pithampur
7. Punjab

State True or False : 1 Mark

1. Durgapur is the largest producer of Alloy steel in India. [ ]
2. Cotton textile industry is known as the root of all industries. [ ]
3. Ahmedabad is known as the ‘Manchester of South India’. [ ]
4. The Gardenreach Ship Builders is the only ship-building yard in West Bengal. [ ]
5. Haora is known as the ‘Detroit of India’. [ ]
6. Chennai is known as the ‘Silicon valley of India’. [ ]
7. Durgapur is known as the ‘Ruhr of India’. [ ]
8. The chief raw material of the petrochemical industry is naptha. [ ]
9. Cotton is a pure raw material. [ ]
10. The largest petrochemical industry is located at Haldia. [ ]
Answer:
1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. True
6. False
7. True
8. True
9. True
10. False

Answer in few words : 1 Mark

Question 1.
What is the most important factor for setting up an industry ?
Answer:
Availability of raw materials.

Question 2.
What are agro-based industries?
Answer:
Industries that collect their raw materials from agricultural products directly or indirectly. Eg-Sugar industry.

Question 3.
What are animal-based industries?
Answer:
Industries that collect their raw materials from animals. Eg.- Dairy industry, Lather industry.

Question 4.
What are forest-based industries ?
Answer:
Industries that collect their raw materials from forests. Eg.- Furniture, paper industry.

Question 5.
What are mineral-based industries?
Answer:
Industries that collect their raw materials from minerals mined in different regions. Eg.- Iron \& Steel industry.

Question 6.
What are industries dealing with preparing food items called ?
Answer:
Food processing industry. Eg. – Potato chips, tinned chicken items, etc.

Question 7.
What kinds of an industry is rice mills ?
Answer:
Agro-based and food-processing industry.

Question 8.
What kind of industry does preparation of soft drinks belong to ?
Answer:
Food processing.

Question 9.
Where was the first modern cotton mill set up in India ?
Answer:
Ghushuri (Fort Gloster) in Howrah.

Question 10.
How are cotton mills classified?
Answer:
Handloom and power loom.

Question 11.
Which state is the largest producer of cotton in India ?
Answer:
Maharashtra.

Question 12.
Which city is called the ‘Manchester of India’?
Answer:
Ahmedabad in Gujarat.

Question 13.
Which city is called the ‘Manchester of the south’ ?
Answer:
Coimbatore in Tamil Nadu.

Question 14.
Name the states in the eastern zone where cotton textile mills are concentrated.
Answer:
West Bengal, Jharkhand, Odisha, Bihar.

Question 15.
Name some animal-based industries.
Answer:
Meat processing, milk and milk products, fast food, fish and other sea food etc.

Question 16.
Name a forest-based industry.
Answer:
Paper industry.

Question 17.
Where was the first paper mill established in India ?
Answer:
Serampore in Hooghly, West Bengal.

Question 18.
How many paper mills are there in present India ?
Answer:
379 paper mills.

Question 19.
Where was the first iron and steel plant set up in India ?
Answer:
Kulti in West Bengal (1864).

Question 20.
Where was the first integrated iron and steel plant set up in India ?
Answer:
Jamshedpur (1907).

Question 21.
Where is the Bhadravati iron and steel plant located?
Answer:
Karnataka.

Question 22.
Name some major iron ore mines of Jharkhand.
Answer:
Noamundi, Guwa, Budaburu, Pansiraburu.

Question 23.
Name some major coal mines in Jharkhand.
Answer:
Jharia, Bokaro, Ramgarh, Giridih.

Question 24.
Name some important limestone mines.
Answer:
Kalahandi, Gangpur, Koraput in Odisha.

Question 25.
Where does the Bhadravati steel plant acquire its hydel power from ?
Answer:
Jog hydel power station.

Question 26.
Where is the Hindustan Motors Ltd. located ?
Answer:
Uttarpara, West Bengal.

Question 27.
Where is the Maruti Udyog Ltd. located ?
Answer:
Gurgaon in Haryana.

Question 28.
What is chittaranjan (WB) famous for ?
Answer:
Locomotive factory.

Question 29.
Where is ‘Diesel Locomotive works (DLW) located?
Answer:
Varanasi.

Question 30.
What is TELCO ?
Answer:
Tata Engineering and Locomotive Works, located at Jamshedpur, Jharkhand.

Question 31.
Which industry uses Naptha as an essential raw material ?
Answer:
Petro-chemical.

Question 32.
Where is the longest private petro-chemical industry located ?
Answer:
Jamnagar in Gujarat.

Question 33.
Name some industries associated with Information Technology.
Answer:
Computer hardware, software, electronics, semi-conductors, internet, telecom equipments, etc.

Question 34.
Name some renowned IT companies.
Answer:
Cognizant, Dell, HCL, IBM, TCS, etc.

Question 35.
Which place is known as the Silicon Valley of India ?
Answer:
Bangalore.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 5.7 Agriculture in India offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 5.7 Question Answer – Agriculture in India

Answer in short : 2 Marks

Question 1.
What do you mean by subsistence agriculture?
Answer:
The practice of agriculture in which small land holdings are cultivated with primitive methods and tools, and the produce is almost entirely consumed by the family members of the farmers, with little surplus for sale, is called subsistence farming. This type of agriculture is mainly practised for survival.

Question 2.
Why is irrigation necessary in Indian agriculture?
Answer:
Indian agriculture mainly depends on the monsoon. Monsoon is very uncertain, irregular and unreliable. Hence, farmers have to depend on irrigation to avoid crop failures.

Question 3.
Why are food crops predominant in Indian agriculture?
Answer:
Since India is a highly populated country, the necessity to feed the large population gives food crops the first priority. More than 2/3 of total cropped area are devoted to cultivation of food crops.

Question 4.
Where do the major rice producing areas of India lie ?
Answer:
The most important rice producing areas of India are : the eastern Ganga plains, the Brahmaputra valley, the narrow coastal strips forming major parts of Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Cauvery deltas.

Question 5.
Name the states growing millets in India.
Answer:
Millets are grown in dry regions of Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Punjab and Haryana.

Question 6.
Mention the tea growing region of Assam.
Answer:
In Assam, most of the tea is grown in the valleys of rivers Brahmaputra and Surma. The main tea producing districts are : Derrang, Lakhimpur, Shibsagar, Nowgong, Goalpara, Kamrup and Cachar.

Question 7.
Mention the tea growing regions of West Bengal.
Answer:
In West Bengal, tea is grown in about 350 estates in the northern hilly region lying in Darjeeling, Jalpaiguri (Duars) and Kochbihar districts.

Question 8.
Where is tea grown in South India?
Answer:
In South India, tea is mostly grown in the hilly regions of Nilgiri, Cardamom, Palni and Anaimalai. They lie in the states of Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka.

Question 9.
In which districts of Karnataka does coffee grow the most?
Answer:
Coffee grows in almost 60 % of the cultivated area of Karnataka. The districts predominantly under coffee cultivation are : Kadun, Shimga, Hasan, Mysore and Chickmagalur (largest concentration of trees).

Question 10.
Classify cotton according to its fibre.
Answer:
Cotton can be classified into 3 categories according to the size of their fibres –

1. Long staple (length more than 3 cm ), also called Sea island cotton.
2. Medium staple (2.2-3 cm), also called American Upland cotton.
3. Short staple (less than 2.2 cm ), also called Indian cotton.

Question 11.
Where is cotton grown in Gujarat?
Answer:
Ahmedabad, Mahesana, Bharuch, Kaira, Vadodara, Sabarkanta, Surat, Panchmahals, Gohilwad, Amreli districts of Gujarat.

Question 12.
Name the cotton producing states of India.
Answer:
Gujarat (1st), Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Punjab.

Question 13.
Mention the sugarcane producing areas of India.
Answer:
In India, sugarcane is grown in Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, parts of Andhra Pradesh, Assam etc. The maximum sugarcane is grown in Uttar Pradesh (45 %) in the districts of Saharanpur, Muzaffarnagar, Meerut, Moradabad, Bijnore and Kheri.

Question 14.
What is Green Revolution ?
Answer:
Green Revolution is the name given to the project under which agricultural yield was tried to be increased remarkably by using high yielding variety of seeds, good fertilisers, irrigation, machine tools etc.

Question 15.
What are HYV seeds?
Answer:
Seeds that grow very fast and yield a huge produce are called High Yielding Variety or HYV seeds.

Question 16.
What is monocropping ?
Answer:
The agricultural fields that are not very fertile and have inadequate irrigation facilities, can produce only one crop in a year with the help of rainfall. This is known as monocropping. Eg.- Tea cultivation in Duars region of Jalpaiguri, Sugarcane cultivation in Uttar Pradesh, etc.

Question 17.
What is multiple cropping ?
Answer:
The process of growing two or more crops in a year with the help of irrigation, fertilisers, modern technology and HYV seeds is called multiple cropping.

Question 18.
What is inter-culture?
Answer:
Cultivation of two or three type of crops at a time in alternate series or rows is called inter-culture of crops.

Question 19.
Classify food crops according to seasons.
Answer:

Question 20.
What are cash crops ?
Answer:
The crops that are cultivated for trade and commerce and help to increase national income in high levels are called cash crops. Eg.- Tea, coffee, cotton, jute, etc.

Question 21.
What are Kharif crops?
Answer:
The crops that are planted in the beginning of the rainy season and harvested at the end of the winters are called kharif crops. Eg. – Aman rice, jute, sugarcane, cotton, etc.

Question 22.
What are Rabi crops?
Answer:
The crops that are planted in the beginning of the winter season and harvested at the end of spring are called Rabi crops. Eg.- Boro rice, wheat, potato, gram, mustard, etc.

Question 23.
What are fibre crops?
Answer:
The crops that yield fibre are called fibre crops. Eg.- cotton, jute, mesta, etc.

Question 24.
What is horticulture?
Answer:
The cultivation of fruits, vegetables, flowers, herbs, etc. in the fringe areas of large cities in farm houses, to be supplied to the markets of these large cities is called horticulture.

Question 25.
What are plantation crops ?
Answer:
Crops that are cultivated in well maintained fields in proper rows with the help of modern agricultural methods are called plantation crops. These crops once planted, yield returns for many years. Eg. – Tea, coffee, banana, etc.

Question 26.
What kind of relief is suitable for cultivation of rice?
Answer:
Plain lands are most suitable for cultivation of rice. Thus, rice grows best in river basins, deltas and low-lying coastal regions. In hilly regions, rice can be cultivated by cutting terraces on the hill slopes.

Question 27.
Name some high yielding variety of seeds of rice.
Answer:

1. IR – 8
2. Jaya
3. Ratna
4. Pankaj
5. Aditya
6. Padma
7. Kiran
8. Minikit

Question 28.
Mention two problems in the cultivation of rice in India.
Answer:
(i) Yield of rice per hectare is very less in India.
(ii) Crops often fail due to too much dependency on monsoon rainfall.

Question 29.
Name four highest rice producing states of India.
Answer:
According to Economic Survey, 2014-15, the highest rice producing states of India are –

State	Production (in metricton)	Percentage
i. West Bengal	153	14.4%
ii. Uttar Pradesh	146	13.7%
iii. Andhra Pradesh	130	12.2%
iv. Punjab	114	9.7%

Question 30.
Which region is known as the ‘Granary of India’?
Answer:
The north and north-western part of India including Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and Haryana is known as the ‘Granary of India’, as it produces the bulk of agricultural crops of India here. About 70-75 % wheat of India is produced here.

Question 31.
What are millets ?
Answer:
Millets are grass-like crops that produce coarse food grains. They are inferior crops that grow in hot and dry regions. Eg.- Jowar, Bajra, Ragi, etc.

Question 32.
What do you mean by ratooning’?
Answer:
In cultivation of sugarcane, the crops are harvested leaving about 1 foot of the stem in the ground. This cut-stem grows the new plant of sugarcane for the next season. This process of regrowth of plants from the same base is called ratooning. But ratooning does not give good yield after 2-3 years.

Question 33.
What kind of soil and temperature condition is necessary for sugarcane?
Answer:
Sugarcane grows best in loony soils rich in lime and salt. Black soil, red soil and alluvial soil is suitable for this. Temperature condition between 20°-40° C is required for sugarcane cultivation.

Question 34.
Name three sugarcane producing states of India.
Answer:
(a) Uttar Pradesh (1st)
(b) Maharashtra (2nd)
(c) Karnataka (3rd).

Question 35.
Name two beverage crops of India.
Answer:
Tea, Coffee.

Question 36.
Name three cotton producing states of India.
Answer:
(a) Gujarat (1st)
(b) Maharashtra (2nd)
(c) Telengana-Andhra Pradesh (3rd).

Question 37.
Name the tea producing states of India.
Answer:
(a) Assam (1st)
(b) West Bengal (2nd)
(c) Tamil Nadu (3rd)
(d) Kerala
(e) Himachal Pradesh.

Question 38.
When are the tea leaves picked from the trees?
Answer:
Tea leaves are picked after the commencement of the rainy season, when the tea trees start getting new leaves. In north India, the leaves are picked for 7-8 months. In south India, tea leaves are picked almost throughout the year.

Question 39.
When and why was the Tea Board set up in India ?
Answer:
The Tea Board of India was set up in 1953 for the following purposes –

• To provide long-term loans to the tea gardens.
• To distribute new machines on hire or purchase.
• To acquire fertilisers, new saplings, etc. at cheap rates.
• To establish new markets for tea.

Question 40.
Name two famous tea producing regions in Assam.
Answer:
(a) Brahmaputra valley
(b) Surma valley.

Question 41.
When are coffee seeds planted?
Answer:
Coffee seeds are planted in India from January to March. The plants grow and start producing coffee after 3-4 years.

Question 42.
Where is coffee grown best in India ?
Answer:
In India, coffee is best grown in the Chikmagalur and Kodagu districts of Karnataka. (about 80 % )

Question 43.
What are the problems of fragmented land holdings in agriculture in India ?
Answer:
The fragmented land holdings in India cause reduction of producing areas as much land is occupied to build boundaries and fences. Also, the small size of the land holdings create difficulties in use of modern equipments of agriculture.

Question 44.
Name two organisations that produce fertilisers in India.
Answer:
(i) Fertiliser Corporation of India Limited. (FCI).
(ii) Hindustan Fertiliser Corporation (HFC).

Question 45.
Name some modern equipments used in agriculture in India.
Answer:
Modem instruments used in Indian agriculture are – tractors, harvestors, power tillers, combines, etc.

Answer in brief : 3 Marks

Question 1.
How does the monsoon control the crop calendar of India ?
Answer:
Indian agriculture is highly dependent on monsoon rains. Choice of crops in different areas is directed by the availability of rainfall in those areas. Eg – Water loving crops like rice, jute etc. are cultivated in eastern in the dry western regions. Irregular and uncertain monsoons often result in crop failures. Hence, arrangements for irrigation is also very essential.

Question 2.
Name the major rice producing districts of Punjab and Haryana.
Answer:
Punjab : Ferozepur, Ludhiana, Patiala, Amritsar.
Haryana : Hisar, Ambala, Jind, Rohtak and Faridabad.

Question 3.
Discuss the favourable conditions for growing millets.
Answer:
Millets (jowar, bajra, ragi etc.) are inferior crops that can grow in arid regions. Temperature : The approximate temperature for growing millets is 25-32° C.
Rainfall : Millets can be grown in dry areas with rainfall 40-60 cm.
Soil type : Black soil and red loamy soil are best for growing millets.

Question 4.
What are the problems of coffee cultivation?
Answer:
The problems of coffee cultivation in India are –

1. Low production in the plantations.
2. Production fluctuates according to climatic conditions.
3. Great competition from Kenya, Columbia and Brazil.
4. Shortage of good quality coffee.

Question 5.
Name the countries to which India exports coffee.
Answer:
India exports coffee to USA, Canada, Japan, Kuwait, Australia, UK, Italy, Germany and Russia.

Question 6.
What are the problems of cotton cultivation in India ?
Answer:
The problems of cotton cultivation in India are:

1. Yield of cotton per hectare is very low.
2. Most of the cotton produced is of medium and short staple quality.
3. Insect and pest attacks are very common, which hamper production.

Question 7.
What are the favourable conditions for growing sugarcane?
Answer:
The favourable geographic conditions for growing sugarcane are:

• Temperature : Average annual temperature is 21-27° C.
• Rainfall : 75-100 cm.
• Soil : Sugarcane grows best in loamy soil, black soil and alluvial soil. It does not grow in alkaline soils.

The economic conditions needed for growing sugarcane are :

• Labour : Weeding, manuring, field preparation, planting and harvesting require much labour.
• Capital : Large capital is invariably needed to grow plantation crops.
• Fertilisers : Sugarcane is a soil exhausting crop. Hence good fertilisers are needed.

Question 8.
What were the effects of Green Revolution ?
Answer:
The profuse increase in agricultural produce with the help of modern agricultural methods and infrastructure is known as Green Revolution. The effect of Green Revolution are :

• Remarkable increase in production of food crops.
• Extension of agricultural land.
• Modernisation and mechanisation of agriculture.
• Employment and increase in Standard of living.
• Reduction in import of food grains.

Question 9.
List the problems of Indian agriculture.
Answer:
The major problems faced by Indian agriculture are :

• Small and fragmented land holding that reduce production.
• Inferior seeds, manures, fertilizers, biocides etc. fails to utilise the maximum producing capacity of fields.
• Lack of irrigation in many places leads to crop failures.
• Lack of mechanisation reduces rate of Production.
• Soil erosion reduces fertility by remaining the top soil.
• Inadequate storage facilities often damage the produced crop.
• Inadequate transport facilities hamper production and fail to reach the crops to markets in time.
• Scarcity of capital causes failure in achieving high levels of production.

Question 10.
What steps are taken to solve the problems of Indian agriculture?
Answer:
The various steps taken to solve the problems of Indian agriculture are :

1. New concepts like co-operative farming have been introduced to control fragmentation of land holdings.
2. Bank loans and insurances are made available at easy rates of interests so that farmers can buy high yielding seeds, better fertilisers, modern equipments etc.
3. More and more land are being brought under irrigation facilities to control crop failures.
4. Scientific researches are being conducted to find out better and surer methods of cultivation.
5. Crop management methods are practised according to available geographic conditions.
6. Storage facilities for seeds and finished crops are being provided.
7. New agricultural policies like Green Revolution are being introduced.

Question 11.
Mention the characteristics of Indian agriculture.
Answer:
The characteristics of Indian agriculture are :

1. Most of the agriculture practised in India is of subsistence agriculture type.
2. Agriculture is dependent on animal power.
3. The crop calendar is dependent on monsoon.
4. Food crops are grown much more than cash crops.

Question 12.
Discuss the importances of agriculture in Indian economy.
Answer:
The importances of agriculture in Indian economy are:

1. Agriculture provides employment to maximum population in India. (about 70 % )
2. It is a big source of National Income.
3. Agriculture provides food for the huge population of the country.
4. Agriculture provides raw materials to various agro-based industries. Eg. – cotton textile, sugar, flour mills, etc.
5. It directly as well as indirectly influences international trade. Eg.- India earns a lot of foreign exchange from the export of cotton textile, jute products, sugar, tea, coffee, spices, lax, raisin, wheat, tobacco, etc.
6. It also plays an important role in internal trade and commerce:

Question 13.
Compare between Subsistence agriculture and Commercial agriculture.
Answer:

Subsistence agriculture	Commercial agriculture
i. Practised for subsistence or meeting the demands of the family.	i. Practised for commercial purposes and for earning money.
ii. The land holdings are small and fragmented.	ii. The land holdings are of medium size.
iii. Main crops are rice, wheat, oil seeds etc.	iii. Main crops are tea, coffee, cotton etc.
iv. This is a primitive type of agriculture.	iv. This is comparatively a modern type of agriculture.
v. Generally food crops are cultivated.	v. Generally plantation crops like tea, jute, etc. are cultivated.
vi. Yield per hectare is low.	vi. Yield per hectare is high.

Question 14.
What are the main problems of wheat cultivation in India ?
Answer:
The main problems of wheat cultivation in India are :

1. Yield per hectare is very low. (only 2,424 kg per hectare compared to 6,246 kg per hectare in Japan.)
2. Cultivation is much dependent on monsoon rainfall.
3. Selling price of wheat is low, which often does not cover the total cost incurred in the cultivation process.
4. The land holdings are small and fragmented.
5. Lack of proper store houses and cold storages often result in spoiling of crops.

Question 15.
List the regions of rice cultivation in India.
Answer:

1. Wet regions of Western Himalaya : Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Uttarakhand.
2. Semi-arid regions of Ganga-Indus plains : Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar.
3. Dry semi-arid regions of Western India : Haryana, Rajasthan.
4. Wet plains of Ganga-Brahmaputra basin : West Bengal, Assam.
5. Wet regions of Eastern Himalaya : Meghalaya, Manipur, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Tripura.
6. Highlands of Central India : Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh.
7. Deccan plateau region : Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala.
8. Coastal plains : Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha.

Question 16.
Mention the steps taken to solve the problems of rice cultivation in India.
Answer:
The steps taken up to solve problems of rice cultivation in India are :

1. Irrigation facilities have been provided to most of the fields to reduce the dependence on monsoon rainfall.
2. The ICAR (Indian Council of Agricultural Research) has discovered and generated many types of HYV seeds, that help to increase yield and improve the quality of the crops.
3. Supply of power, transport, storage, etc. has also been taken care of.
4. Modernisation of agricultural processes, insurance facilities, abolision of middle men etc. have also been taken care of.

Question 17.
What are the problems of wheat cultivation in India ?
Answer:
The problems of wheat cultivation in India are :

1. Yield of wheat per hectare is quite low compared to world standards.
2. Use of HYV seeds is not popular among all the farmers.
3. Heavy pressure of population reduces per capita availability of land.
4. Fragmented and small land holdings reduce the area of production.
5. Lack of infrastructure and storage facilities after lead to spoiling of crops.

Question 18.
Why is cultivation of sugarcane less popular in south India rather than north India ?
Answer:
Sugarcane cultivation is less popular in South India compared to North India because :

1. In South India more land is devoted to food crops rather than cash crops like sugarcane.
2. Other cash crops like coffee, tobacco, groundnuts, etc. yield more returns than sugarcane.
3. Sugarcane plants start giving proper returns only after 2-3 years. Hence, farmers prefer growing crops that give quick returns.
4. Sugarcane is a soil exhaustive crop and expensive to maintain. Hence, farmers concentrate on growing cheap and easily growing crops.

Question 19.
What are the problems of sugarcane cultivation in India ?
Answer:
The problems of sugarcane cultivation in India are :

1. The sucrose content of the sugarcane plants grown in India is quite less.
2. Yield of sugarcane per hectare is quite low. (only 70 metric tonnes per hectare compared to 140 metric tonne per hectare in Java)
3. Land alloted for sugarcane cultivation in India is quite low.
4. Backdated and obsolete methods of sugarcane cultivation are still practised in India.

Question 20.
What are the problems of cotton cultivation in India ?
Answer:
The problems of cotton cultivation in India are :

1. Yield of cotton per hectare is only 266 kg in India, compared to 800 kg in the countries of Central Asia.
2. 66 % of cotton cultivated in India is of medium staple. Long staple cotton has to be imported from other countries.
3. The methods of cultivation are backdated and primitive.
4. Attack of insects on cotton balls is a big problem in India.
5. There is lack of proper trade policies, which fails to achieve desired business levels.

Question 21.
What are the problems of tea cultivation in India ?
Answer:
The problems of tea cultivation in India are:

1. The tea plantations have become much old and hence the yield of tea leaves have reduced.
2. The plantations are small in size and incur high cost of production.
3. Picking of young leaves and buds at a high rate decrease the rate of growth of the plants.
4. Soil erosion, loss of fertility and landslides in hilly regions often hamper tea cultivation.
5. Yield of tea per hectare is quite less compared to Uganda, Kenya, Zimbabwe, etc.

Question 22.
Why is Assam best suited for production of tea in India ?
Answer:
Assam is most suitable for production of tea in India because :

1. The suitable conditions needed for tea cultivation is present in Assam. Average rainfall of more than 200 cm and average temperature of 30° C is most suitable for tea growth.
2. Assam consists of loamy soil rich in iron podsol and humus in most of the places. This is the best soil for the growth of tea plants.
3. The gently sloping hilly regions and the foothills near the Brahmaputra valley give the best relief for the growth of tea.
4. The dense population of the region provide the labour force needed in the tea gardens and processing unit.

Answer in details : 5 Marks

Question 1.
Discuss the major characteristics of Indian agriculture.
Answer:
The major characteristics of Indian agriculture are :
i. Subsistence agriculture : Most parts of India have subsistence agriculture. The farmer owns a small plot of land and grows crops sufficient for his family only, with very less surplus for sale.

ii. Pressure of population : The teeming millions of population exert much pressure on agriculture for employment as well as food supply.

iii. Lack of mechanisation : Complete mechanisation has not been achieved yet. Animals’ force plays an important role in plouging, threshing and transporting of agricultural products.

iv. Use of irrigation : Indian agriculture mainly depends on monsoon, which is uncertain, irregular and unreliable. Hence, irrigation is a necessity. But only 1/3 of the cropped area is provided with perennial irrigation facilities.

v. Small size of land holdings : Laws of inheritance of property have caused fragmentation of large land holdings. This causes loss of cultivable land and reduces production significantly.

vi. Uncontrolled use of pesticides and chemict tertilizers : Use of pesticides, chemical fertilisers initially boosts agricultural produces, but damage the soil in the long run.

vii. Predominance of food crops : Since Indian agriculture has to feed a large population, 2/3 of the total cultivable land concentrate on production of food crops.

viii. Insignificant place of fodder crops : Although India has the largest population of livestock in the world, only 4% of land is under pastures. This is due to tremendous need for food crops. Hence, animals are not properly fed, and their productivity is low.

ix. Variety of food crops : India is a vast country with a variety of relief, climate, and soil conditions. Thus, a large variety of crops are grown all over the country depending upon suitable conditions.

x. Dependence on monsoon : Indian agriculture is highly dependent on monsoon rains. Choice of crops in areas is directed by the availability of rainfall in those areas. Eg-Rice and jute grows well in West Bengal, while Rajasthan grows millets.

Question 2.
Discuss the favourable geographic and economic conditions for growing rice.
Answer:
The favourable conditions for growing rice are:
(a) Geographical :

1. Temperature : During sowing period, average temperature must be of 16°- 20° C, and during maturity, between 18°-32° C.
2. Rainfall : Annual rainfall of 150-200 cm.
3. Soil : Fertile clayey and alluvial soil is quite ideal. A marshy soil is also suitable.

(b) Economic :

1. Labour : Rice is a labour intensive crop. It requires cheap and abundant labour.
2. Capital : A good capital is required for rice production.
3. Others : Other facilities required for rice cultivation are : Chemical fertilisers, irrigation facilities, high yielding seeds, pesticides etc.

Question 3.
Discuss the main rice producing areas of India.
Answer:
The main rice producing areas of India are :

1. West Bengal : West Bengal ranks 1st in rice production. The major districts producing rice are : Burdwan, Medinipur, North and South 24 parganas.
2. Andhra Pradesh : It ranks second in rice production. Guntur, Kurnool and Nellore districts are the leading producers.

3. Uttar Pradesh : It ranks 3rd in rice production. Major rice producing districts are Bahraich, Pilibhit and Kheri. Rice is also well grown in the Doon valley.
4. Tamil Nadu : It ranks 4th in rice production. The major districts are chennai, Madurai, Coimbatore and Thiruchirapalli. The Cauvery delta produces plenty of rice.
5. Bihar : Ranking 5th, Darbhanga and Purnea are the major producing districts.
6. Others : Other significant rice producing states are: Odisha, Punjab, Haryana, Assam, Madhya Pradesh, Kerala and Gujarat.

Question 4.
Describe the conditions favourable for growing wheat.
Answer:
The favourable conditions for growing wheat are :
(a) Geographical :

1. Temperature : Temperature should be around 155° C. Weather should be warm and moist during early stages and sunny and dry during stages of maturity and harvest.
2. There should be at least 100 frost-free days. Long gloomy or foggy weather is harmful for the crop.
3. Soils : Chernozem is the best suited soil. Also grows well in light clayey or heavy loamy soil.
4. Land : Well drained slightly rolling plains.

(b) Economic :

1. Irrigation : With facilities of irrigation, wheat can grow even in areas of less than 50 cm rainfall.
2. HYV seeds : High Yielding Variety of seeds like Larma-Rajo, Sonera-63, Sonera -64 , Sona-227, Sonalika-308 etc. increase yield.
3. Labour : Much labour is not needed due to quite mechanisation of production process.
4. Others : Other requirements for wheat cultivation are : modem farming equipments like tractors, harvestors, winnowers, threshers, elevators etc, transport facilities, good capital etc.

Question 5.
Name the major wheat producing districts of India.
Answer:
The districts of the states producing wheat are :
(i) Uttar Pradesh : Meerut, Saharanpur, Bulandshahar, Aligarh, Agra etc.

(b) Economic:

1. Labour : Much labour is needed for planting, seeding, transplanting, looking after, plucking of berries, loading and unloading and processing of coffee.
2. Fertilisers : Coffee is a soil exhausting perennial crop. Hence much fertilisers are required to maintain soil fertility.
3. Transport : Quick and smooth transport facilities are required.
4. Capital : All plantation crops require a good amount of capital.

Question 8.
What are the favourable conditions for growing cotton?
Answer:
The fovourable conditions for growing cotton are :
(a) Geographical :

1. Temperature : 23°-32° C with an average around 27° C.
2. Sunshine : Plenty of sunshine during the growing period and cooler conditions during harvest.
3. Rainfall : 50-80 cm of rainfall well distributed during the growing period. But rainfall is injurious after the budding period.
4. Frost : At least 200 frost-free days are required.
5. Soil : Black cotton soil or regur soil is the best for cotton.
6. Land : Flat or undulating land with good drainage and no water logging is good for cotton.

(b) Economic :

1. Labour : Much labour is required for planting, thinning of seedlings, hoeing, inspection of pests, picking of bolls etc.
2. Transport : Good transport system helps in carrying raw cotton to factories and finished products to markets.
3. Fertilisers and pesticides : Cotton is highly soil-exhaustive. Hence fertilisers are necessary to maintain soil fertility. Pesticides are used to control pest attacks.
4. HYV : High Yielding Variety of seeds like MCU-4, MCU-5, Hybrid-4, Sujata, Varalaxmi etc. help to raise yield of cotton per hectare.

Question 9.
Discuss the steps taken under Green Revolution.
Answer:
In 1964-65, the project taken up for the profuse increase in agricultural produce by the use of modern agricultural methods and infrastructure is known as the Green Revolution. The steps taken up for Green Revolution are :

1. Use of High Yielding Variety (HYV) of seeds
2. Use of irrigation
3. Chemical fertilisers
4. Insecticides and pesticides
5. Command Area development
6. Consolidation of fragmented land holdings
7. Land reclamation
8. Agricultural loans
9. Electrification of rural areas
10. Development of roads and markets
11. Use of agricultural equipments and machineries
12. Establishment of agricultural schools.

The main crops under Green Revolution are : wheat, rice, corn, jowar and potato. Wheat gave absolutely blasting results in Punjab and Haryana and brought about much prosperity of the states.

Question 10.
Why is the Ganga plains of Northern India famous for cultivation of rice?
Answer:
The northern plains of the Ganga basin is one of the best regions for growing rice because :

1. Soil : The region is a plainland, made up of silt, clayey and loamy soils. The nature of the soil is acidic and it has a good water holding capacity.
2. Climate : This region lies in the Hot Wet Tropical climatic region. Average rainfall of 100-250 cm is very suitable for rice growth.
3. Irrigation : The soft soil allows easy construction of wells and tubewells for irrigation. Also, several canals are drawn from the rivers to the adjacent fields.
4. Modern technology : After the Green Revolution in 1963-64, due of high yielding seeds, chemical fertilisers, insecticides, pesticides, new machines, etc. have been popularised. This has increased production levels.
5. Population : The high population of the region provides adequate and cheap labour.
6. Main food : Rice being the main food of a huge section of people, has high demand.
7. Infrastructure : Improved transport and communication systems, power supply, agro-based industries, etc. have boosted the cultivation of rice in this region.

Question 11.
What are the main problems of Indian agriculture?
Answer:
The main problems of Indian agriculture can be listed as follows :

1. Low yield of crops per hectare.
2. Great number of small and medium farmers as well as landless farmers.
3. Most of the farmers are not properly trained in agriculture.
4. Lack of use of modem technology in agriculture due to lack of knowledge of how to use it.
5. Lack of irrigation facilities.
6. Little use of HYV seeds.
7. Reduction of agricultural land due to high pressure of population.
8. Lack of godowns, cold storages, etc.
9. Very less amount of per capita land for agriculture.
10. Low price of agricultural product compared to cost of production.
11. Lack of loan and insurance facilities.
12. Damage of crops due to floods, droughts and other natural calamities.

Question 12.
Discuss the steps taken for improvement of agriculture in India.
Answer:
The steps taken for improvement of agriculture in India are :
(i) Increase in agricultural land : Agricultural land has been increased by bringing the barren, infertile and reclaimed lands under cultivation.
(ii) Per capita land : Per capita land of the farmers has been increased by stopping fragmentation of land and starting co-operative farming.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) 1 Mark

Question 1.
The most important rabi crop is
(A) Barley
(B) Jute
(C) Wheat
(D) Rice
Answer:
(D) Rice

Question 2.
Which region in India is known as the ‘Rice Bowl of India’?
(A) Indo-Gangetic Plain
(B) Krishna-Godavari Delta region
(C) North-east region
(D) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(B) Krishna-Godavari Delta region

Question 3.
What is the main advantage of transplantation method of sowing rice?
(A) This method ensures maximum utilisation of land
(B) It is helpful in achieving an economical use of water and a higher yield of grain
(C) It helps in early harvesting
(D) The draining of water from the field before harvesting is made easy
Answer:
(B) It is helpful in achieving an economical use of water and a higher yield of grain

Question 4.
Which of the following is the second most important crop of India?
(A) Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Jowar
(D) Bajra
Answer:
(A) Wheat

Question 5.
Wheat is not suitable for growing in the south because
(A) The winters there are too warm
(B) It is too humid in the south
(C) Rainfall is low there
(D) Dry conditions prevail in early summers
Answer:
(A) The winters there are too warm

Question 6.
The Green Revolution involved the use of high yielding varieties of seeds which require
(A) Less fertilizer and less water
(B) More fertilizer and less water
(C) Less fertilizer and more water
(D) More fertilizer and more water
Answer:
(D) More fertilizer and more water

Question 7.
The Kharif season beings
(A) With the onset of south-west monsoon
(B) At the end of the south-west monsoon
(C) In December
(D) In March
Answer:
(A) With the onset of south-west monsoon

Question 8.
Which of the following states is the leading producer of tea ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Sikkim
(C) Assam
(D) Karnataka
Answer:
(C) Assam

Question 9.
Percentage of food crops in total cropped area is :
(A) 80
(B) 75
(C) 85
(D) 70
Answer:
(B) 75

Question 10.
The crops of Kharif are :
(A) Wheat
(B) Barley
(C) Rice
(D) Peas
Answer:
(C) Rice

Question 11.
In rice production India’s position in the world is :
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fifth
Answer:
(B) Second

Question 12.
The largest producer of rice in India is :
(A) Bihar
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) West Bengal
(D) Karnataka
Answer:
(C) West Bengal

Question 13.
Cotton cultivation is widespread in Maharashtra and Gujarat, mainly because :
(A) It requires moderate rainfall
(B) It requires irrigation
(C) Regur soils retain moisture
(D) There is demand from local cotton mills
Answer:
(C) Regur soils retain moisture

Question 14.
Which of the following is the important cotton producing area of India?
(A) Indo-Gangetic Plain
(B) Deccan Trap
(C) Damodar Valley
(D) Yamuna Valley
Answer:
(B) Deccan Trap

Question 15.
Which state has the largest acreage under coffee?
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Odisha
Answer:
(A) Kerala

Question 16.
Cotton’s largest producer in India is :
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Punjab
(C) U.P.
(D) Gujarat
Answer:
(A) Maharashtra

Question 17.
India in production of cotton is :
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth
Answer:
(D) Fourth

Question 18.
Which state is first in coffee production ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Assam
(C) Odisha
(D) Karnataka
Answer:
(D) Karnataka

Question 19.
Sugarcane needs :
(A) Hot climate
(B) Cool climate
(C) Moderate climate
(D) Moist climate
Answer:
(D) Moist climate

Question 20.
The largest producer of sugarcane in India is :
(A) Bihar
(B) Punjab
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(D) Uttar Pradesh

Question 21.
Which of the following states has largest number of sugar mills ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Bihar
Answer:
(C) Uttar Pradesh

Question 22.
Assertion (A) : Production of food grains has increased in India in recent years. Reason (R) : The area under food grains has increased in recent years.
(A) A and R are correct and R explains A
(B) A and R are correct and R does not explain A
(C) A is correct but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Answer:
(C) A is correct but R is false

Question 23.
Rainfall of more than 30 cm per month for at least 3 consecutive months is suitable for the cultivation of :
(A) Paddy
(B) Sugarcane
(C) Sunn hemp
(D) Dhencha
Answer:
(A) Paddy

Question 24.
Rainfall of 10-20 cm per months for at least 3 consecutive months is suitable for the cultivation of :
(A) Bajra
(B) Wheat
(C) Pea
(D) None of these crops
Answer:
(A) Bajra

Question 25.
Large area in Gujarat, Maharashtra, A.P. and Karnataka is occupied by:
(A) Jowar
(B) Groundnut
(C) Cotton
(D) Bajra
Answer:
(A) Jowar

Question 26.
Cotton, wheat and millets are most predominant crops of regions receiving monthly rainfall during season as follows :
(A) 10-20 cm for 3-4 months
(B) 10-20 cm for 1 month
(C) 20-30 cm for 3-4 months
(D) 10-20 cm for 2 months
Answer:
(A) 10-20 cm for 3-4 months

Question 27.
Main crops of areas having rainy season during October to December are :
(A) Sugarcane, jute
(B) Paddy, cotton, millets
(C) Wheat, barley and gram
(D) Jowar, pea and lobia
Answer:
(B) Paddy, cotton, millets

Question 28.
Paddy, wheat, jowar, cotton and maize are the main crops of regions receiving monthly rainfalls of 10-20 cm and 20-30 cm for 2 months each during :
(A) Pre-monsoon
(B) Monsoon
(C) Post-monsoon
(D) Whole year
Answer:
(B) Monsoon

Question 29.
Paddy is grown as irrigated crop in areas having \mathbf{2 – 4 months rainy season from :
(A) May
(B) November
(C) September
(D) June
Answer:
(C) September

Question 30.
Major crops of the region having 6-8 months of rainy season beginning from March or April are under :
(A) Paddy and plantation crops
(B) Jute and forests
(C) Sugarcane and grasslands
(D) Tapioca and beans
Answer:
(A) Paddy and plantation crops

Question 31.
The Principal Rice Research Institute of India is located at :
(A) Patna
(B) Cuttack
(C) Kolkata
(D) Shillong
Answer:
(B) Cuttack

Question 32.
Sonalika is an important high yielding variety of :
(A) Rice
(B) Millet
(C) Wheat
(D) Tea
Answer:
(C) Wheat

Question 33.
The second largest tea producing state of India is :
(A) Assam
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Karnataka
(D)West Bengal
Answer:
(D)West Bengal

Question 34.
Tea is mainly exported through the port :
(A) Mumbai
(B) Chennai
(C) Paradeep
(D) Kolkata
Answer:
(D) Kolkata

Question 35.
Wheat cultivation requires rainfall between :
(A) 50-100 cm
(B) 100-150 cm
(C) 150-200 cm
(D) 200-250 cm
Answer:
(A) 50-100 cm

Question 36.
Rice cultivation require temperature between :
(A) 15°-20° C
(B) 20°-30° C
(C) 30°-35° C
(D) above 35° C
Answer:
(B) 20°-30° C

Question 37.
The Principal Tea Research Institute of India is located at :
(A) Kolkata
(B) Jorhat
(C) Chennai
(D) Mumbai
Answer:
(B) Jorhat

Question 38.
Cotton Research centre is located at :
(A) Kanpur
(B) Nagpur
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Coimbatore
Answer:
(B) Nagpur

Question 39.
Boll weevil, Pink boll-warm are insects of :
(A) Rice cultivation
(B) Wheat cultivation
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Cotton growing
Answer:
(D) Cotton growing

Question 40.
Central sugarcane research centre is located at :
(A) Kanpur
(B) Allahabad
(C) Lucknow
(D) Banaras
Answer:
(C) Lucknow

Fill in the blanks : 1 Mark

1. India has about ________ of the world’s rice cultivating area.
2. India has about ________ of the world’s wheat cutivating area.
3. The ideal temperature for the growth of bajra is ________ .
4. India is the ________ largest producer of jute in the world.
5. Over ________ percent of world’s cotton is produced in India.
6. The highest yield per hectare of jowar is found in the state of ________.
7. The highest yield per hectore of sugarcane has been recorded in the state of ________ .
8. ________ region is known as the rice bowl of India.
Answer:
1. 28%
2. 8%
3. 25°-35°C
4. Second
5. 8%
6. Maharashtra
7. Uttar Pradesh
8. Krishna-Godavari delta

State True or False : 1 Mark

1. The usage of black roasted tea is highest in India. [ ]
2. Coffee grows best in laterite soil. [ ]
3. Jhum cultivation is practised in the north-eastern states of India. [ ]
4. Tamil Nadu is known as the rice bowl of South India. [ ]
5. Aman rice is also known as Vadui. [ ]
6. Karnataka ranks first in highest yield of tea per hectore in India. [ ]
7. Corn is a rabi crop. [ ]
8. Saline soil is best suitable for growing tea. [ ]
9. Boll Weevil pests attack on the wheat crop. [ ]
10. Assam is famous for tea cultivation. [ ]
Answer:
1. True
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. False
6. False
7. False
8. False
9. False
10. True

Match the following : 1 Mark

immmmm
Answer:
immmmmm

Answer in few words : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Why is India called an agro-based country?
Answer:
Agriculture forms the base of the economy.

Question 2.
What kind of agriculture is seen in maximum parts of India ?
Answer:
Subsistence agriculture.

Question 3.
What leads to subsistence agriculture in India?
Answer:
High pressure of population.

Question 4.
What kind of crops are predominantly cultivated in India ?
Answer:
Food crops.

Question 5.
Which factor controls agriculture in India ?
Answer:
Monsoons.

Question 6.
What are the crops growing during summer and monsoon called ?
Answer:
Kharif crops.

Question 7.
What are the crops growing during winter called?
Answer:
Rabi crops.

Question 8.
Paddy belongs to which family of crops ?
Answer:
Grass family.

Question 9.
Where did rice originate first?
Answer:
China or India.

Question 10.
Which state produces about 15 % of rice of the country?
Answer:
West Bengal.

Question 11.
Where is the Central Rice Research Institute located?
Answer:
Cuttack, Odisha.

Question 12.
Rice is a predominant crop of which region of the earth?
Answer:
Tropical and sub-tropical region.

Question 13.
Wheat is a predominant crop of which region of the earth ?
Answer:
Temperate region.

Question 14.
Which is the best soil for growing wheat ?
Anis.
Chemozem.

Question 15.
Which state in India is the largest producer of wheat ?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh (27%).

Question 16.
Which state yields the highest amount of wheat per hectare?
Answer:
Haryana.

Question 17. Where is India’s Wheat Research Institute located ?
Answer:
Pusha, near Delhi.

Question 18.
Name some millet crops.
Answer:
Jowar, Bajra, Ragi.

Question 19.
Name a plantation beverage crop.
Answer:
Tea.

Question 20.
Which state of India ranks first in tea production?
Answer:
Assam (45%).

Question 21.
How many tea estates are there in Assam?
Answer:
About 750.

Question 22.
Which state ranks second in tea production ?
Answer:
West Bengal (20-25%).

Question 23.
Where are the tea research centres located in India ?
Answer:
Jorhat (Assam) and Coimbatore (Tamil Nadu)

Question 24.
Which is the largest coffee producing state in India ?
Answer:
Karnataka (65%).

Question 25.
Which soil is the most suitable for cultivation of cotton ?
Answer:
Black cotton soil, or regur.

Question 26.
Which is the largest cotton producing state in India ?
Answer:
Gujarat (28%).

Question 27.
Where is the Central Institute of Cotton Research located ?
Answer:
Nagpur in Maharashtra.

Question 28.
Name the countries to which India exports cotton.
Answer:
Japan, USA, Bangladesh and some European countries.

Question 29.
Name the countries from which India imports cotton.
Answer:
USA, Egypt, Iran, Sudan, Kenya, Tanzania etc.

Question 30.
To which family does sugarcane belong ?
Answer:
Grass family.

Question 31.
Which is the largest sugarcane growing state in India ?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh (45%)

Question 32.
When did the Green Revolution take place?
Answer:
1964-65.

Question 33.
Which states gave the best response to Green Revolution ?
Answer:
Punjab and Haryana.

Question 34.
Which crop gave the best result in Green Revolution ?
Answer:
Wheat.

Question 35.
Which method of farming can be used to stop fragmentation of land holdings?
Answer:
Co-operative farming.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 5.6 Natural Vegetation of India offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 5.6 Question Answer – Natural Vegetation of India

Answer in short : 2 Marks

Question 1.
Where wet deciduous forests are found in India ?
Answer:
Lower slopes of the Himalayas, Assam, West Bengal, Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka and the adjoining regions.

Question 2.
Mention the climatic conditions where dry deciduous forests grow.
Answer:
Dry deciduous forests are mostly found in areas having a mean annual temperature of 23°-27° C, an annual rainfall for 50-100 cm and humidity ranging from 51% to 58%.

Question 3.
Where tidal forests are found in India ?
Answer:
In India, Mangrove forests are found in Sundarbans (WB), the Mahanadi delta, Godavari delta, Krishna delta, Cauvery delta and the coasts of Andaman and Nicobar islands.

Question 4.
What is Social forestry?
Answer:
Social forestry is defined as ‘Forestry outside the conventional forests’. The barren or infertile lands near about villages are converted to forest lands after treating the soil. The villagers take care of the forest and plant trees of their choice, in order to meet their daily needs.

Question 5.
What is Agro-forestry?
Answer:
Agro-forestry is any sustainable land-use system that maintains or increases total yields by combining food crops with tree crops and livestock on the same land, either alternately or at the same time. This system is adopted for both ecological as well as economic benefits.

Question 6.
Name the major types of forest found in India.
Answer:
Major types of forest found in India are Tropical evergreen rain forests, Tropical deciduous forests [sub-divided into Dry deciduous and Wet deciduous], Semi desert and desert vegetation, Tidal or mangrove forests and Mountain forests.

Question 7.
What is a forest?
Answer:
Presence of a huge number of trees of different or same species in a particular area is known as a forest.

Question 8.
What is natural vegetation?
Answer:
Vegetation that grows with the help of natural entities like soil, water, sunlight, CO_2, without the interference of man, is known as natural vegetation.

Question 9.
Where are evergreen forests found in India ?
Answer:
Evergreen forests are found in India in :

1. Andaman and Nicobar islands.
2. Western slope of western ghats.
3. The north-eastern hilly region.
4. Terai-Duars region at the foothills of Himalaya.

Question 10.
Why have evergreen forests grown in the western slopes of the western ghats?
Answer:
The western slopes of the Western Ghats receive about 300-400 cm of rainfall from the Arabian Sea branch of the south-west monsoon. Thus this region is suitable for the growth of evergreen trees.

Question 11.
Why is there very little coniferous forests in India ?
Answer:
The main climatic condition needed for coniferous forests is long chilling winters and short cool summers. Only a few places in India enjoy this kind of a climate. Eg.- Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Sikkim, Darjeeling district of West Bengal. Hence, amount of coniferous forests in India is quite less.

Question 12.
Why does Jammu possess dense forests while Ladakh is bare, even though both are situated in the same state?
Answer:
Jammu and Ladakh both lie in the state of Kashmir. Jammu lies in the windward slope of the Pir Panjal range. It receives enough rainfall and hence has dense forests. On the other hand, Ladakh lies in the leeward side and rainshadow area of the mountains. Hence, vegetative growth is very less here due to lack of rainfall.

Question 13.
Where do coniferous forests lie in India ?
Answer:
Coniferous forests are found in India in the Eastern Himalayas (3000-4000 m) as well as the Western Himalayas (2000-4000 m).

Question 14.
Name some coniferous trees.
Answer:
Pine, fir, deodar, spruce, laurel, willow, elm, silver fir, etc.

Question 15.
What is ‘Green gold’?
Answer:
The Himalayan mountains are covered with dense forests from 500-4000 m altitude. This region is a very important part of the environment as it houses numerous rare and important species of plants and huge biomass. Thus, this forest is known as the ‘Green gold’.

Question 16.
What do you mean by conservation of forests ?
Answer:
The process of scientific and rational utilisation of forests and forest products along with securing them for future use by the next generations is called conservation of forests.

Question 17.
What do you mean by ‘Forest Management’ ?
Answer:
Maintenance of forests by government’s forest workers, NGOs and the local people together for a common interest, is known as ‘Forest Management’.

Question 18.
Name some trees of the evergreen forests of the tropical regions.
Answer:
Mehogany, Chaplas, Sissoo, Garjan, Rubber, Rosewood, Iron wood, Ablus etc.

Question 19.
Name some trees of the Tropical wet deciduous forests.
Answer:
Sal, Teak, Mango, Peeple, Neem, Kendu, Khayer, Arjun, Siris, Sandal wood, Palash, Mahua etc.

Question 20.
Name some tropical desert plants.
Answer:
Babul, Khayer, Palm, Cactus, Acacia etc.

Question 21.
What are Alpine meadws?
Answer:
The long stretches of grasslands that grow in the Himalayas at an altitude of 3,500-5,000 m are called Alpine meadows. They grow in the region between the tree line and the permafrost region.

Answer in brief : 3 Marks

Question 1.
What are the characteristics of wet deciduous or monsoon type forests?
Answer:
The characteristics of monsoon type or wet deciduous forests are :
(i) The trees shed their leaves in the dry season and grow new leaves by the rainy season.
(ii) Majority of the trees are broad-leaved and yield hard-wood.

Question 2.
What are the characteristics of Dry deciduous forests or scrubs?
Answer:
The characteristics of Dry deciduous forests are :

1. These forests consist of stunted trees and bushes which are widely scattered.
2. They fade away into scrubs and thorny bushes that are typical of desert region.
3. Trees are only 6 to 10 m high.
4. They have long roots which enable them to obtain water from deep underground.

Question 3.
Describe the desert and semi-desert vegetation.
Answer:
(i) The type of vegetation is thorny shrubs and bushes. These are called Xerophytic plants and have adaptations to withstand drought.
(ii) Some short coarse grasses grow here and there, where conditions are more drought like.

Question 4.
Describe the growth of tidal forests.
Answer:
Tidal forests or mangroves flourish in tide washed coastal areas where mud and silt have accumulated. The trees have different adaptations to support them in the wet soil. Eg – stilt roots, prop roots, buttress roots. Some breathing roots also pop out of the soil to allow the roots to acquire oxygen from the air.

Question 5.
What kind of forests grow on mountainous regions above 1500 m height?
Answer:
On mountainous regions above 1500 m height, temperate conifer trees such as pine, fir, oak, maple, deodar, laurel, spruce and cedar grow. At the yet higher altitudes, plants like rhododendrons and junipers are found. Beyond these vegetation belts, alpine grasslands appear upto the permanent snowfields.

Question 6.
List the regions where Wet deciduous forests grow in India.
Answer:
The various areas where Wet deciduous forests grow in India are :

1. Terai-Duars region at the foothills of the Himalaya.
2. Eastern slope of the Western Ghats.
3. Chotanagpur plateau.
4. Plains of the Western coasts
5. Plains of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Telengana. Karnataka and Kerala.

Question 7.
Name the areas where Dry deciduous forests grow in India.
Answer:
In India, Dry deciduous forests grow in :

1. Rain shadow area of the Western Ghats.
2. Highlands of Central India.
3. Eastern parts of Aravalli range.
4. Upper Ganga and Sutlej basins.
5. Several parts of the peninsular plateau.

Question 8.
List the regions where mangrove forest is found in India.
Answer:
In India, mangrove forest is found in :

1. Sundarban in the delta region of river Ganga.
2. Pimbavaram near Chidambaram of Tamil Nadu.
3. Bhitarkanika of Odisha in the Mahanadi delta.
4. Godavari and Krishna delta regions in Andhra Pradesh.
5. Cauvery delta region in Tamil Nadu.
6. Malabar coast of Kerala.
7. Kutch region of Gujarat.
8. Lower Luni valley of Rajasthan.
9. Khambat region of Gujarat.
10. Andaman and Nicobar islands.

Question 9.
Name the different trees found in different forests of the Himalayan region.
Answer:

Type of forest	Trees
i. Evergreen	Birch, maple, ash, chestnut, poplar, walnut, ablus, alder, chaplas, etc.
ii. Mixed deciduous	Sal, teak, sissoo, bamboo, cane, garjan, jarul, etc.
iii. Coniferous	Pine, fir, oak, birch, deodar, cedar, poplar, rhododendron, nuxvomica, magnolia, etc.
iv. Alpine	Grasslands and bushy trees like juniper, rhododendron, etc.

Question 10.
Where is desert vegetation found in India? Name the main species of trees.
Answer:
Desert vegetation is found in India in :

1. Thar desert region of Rajasthan.
2. Kutch and Kathiawar regions of Gujarat.
3. Deserted or arid regions of South Punjab.

The main species of trees are-khayer, babul, date palm, cactus, different kinds of grasses and bushy plants, etc.

Answer in details : 5 Marks

Question 1.
Describe briefly the forests of India.
Answer:
Forests in India can be broadly classified as follows:
i. Tropical Evergreen rainforests : These forests grow in regions of temperature 25°-27° C and rainfall 200-300 cm. These are very dense forests with tall broad leaved trees, and thick undergrowth. These forests are difficult to exploit for commercial purposes. Main species are – rosewood, iron wood, champa, gurjan chaplas etc. They are found in the windward slopes of western ghats, hilly regions of north-east India, West Bengal and Odisha.

ii. Tropical deciduous forests :
(a) Wet deciduous or monsoon type forests : This grows in regions of temperature 26°-27° C, rainfall 100-200 cm and humidity 60-80%. Majority of trees are broad-leaved and yield valuable hard wood. They shed their leaves in the dry season. Main species are teak, sal, sandalwood, deodar, bluegum, ebony, sisam, palash, arjun etc. They are found in the lower slopes of the Himalayas, Assam, West Bengal, Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka and adjoining areas.

(b) Dry deciduous forests : They are found in regions having temperature of 23°-27° C, rainfall 50-100 cm and humidity 51%-58%. These forests consist of stunted trees (6 to 10 m) and bushes that fade away into scrubs and thorny bushes. They have long roots that draw water from deep underground. Main species are – babul, wild palm, acacia etc.

iii. Semi desert and desert vegetation : These vegetations grow in very hot and arid regions with rainfall less than 50 cm. The trees are mostly thorny shrubs that can withstand drought. Some short coarse grass are also found. Main species are – cactus, babul, acacia etc. They are mostly found in Rajasthan, parts of Gujarat, Punjab etc.

iv. Tidal forests : They grow on the tide washed coastal plains where there is accumulation of mud and silt. They are also called Mangroves. They have supporting as well as breathing roots to help them survive in the soft moist and saline soil. Main species are sundari, keora, garan, hetal, hogla etc. They are found in the Sundarbans (WB) and deltas of rivers Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Cauvery and along the coast of Andaman and Nicobar islands.

v. Mountain forests : Mountain forests vary according to altitude (a) On the foothills of Himalayas upto 1500 m, evergreen trees such as sal, teak, bamboo and cane grow abundantly.

(b) On higher slopes of 1500 m-3500 m, temperature conifer trees like pine, fir, oak, maple, deodar, laurel, spruce, cedar etc grow. At higher altitudes, rhododendrons and junipers are found. Beyond this, the alpine grasslands appear and fade away near the permanent snow fields.

Question 2.
List the different uses of forests.
Answer:
The different uses of forests are :

1. Forests help to maintain the ecological balance of the earth.
2. Forests are the houses of numerous species of plants, animals, insects, birds etc.
3. The trees provide wood for various construction, industrial and domestic purposes.
4. They provide raw materials for paper, matchstick, cardboard, furniture and other industries.
5. Apart from wood, forests also provide with useful items like leaves, roots, gums, raisins, nuts, fruits etc.
6. Forests provide employment to many people directly and indirectly.

Question 3.
What is Forest Conservation ? What is its need ?
Answer:
‘Forest Conservation’ refers to the proper and need based utilisation of forests without hampering the environment and the species of plants and animals residing there. The needs for Forest conservation are :

1. To reduce soil erosion
2. To control floods and droughts
3. To control spread of deserts
4. To control global warming
5. To maintain the ecologial balance.
6. To conserve the species of plants and animals and prevent their extinction.

Question 4.
What methods can be taken up for Forest Conservation ?
Answer:
The different methods that can be taken up for forest conservation are :

1. Afforestation or re-planting of trees after deforestation, especially on hill slopes.
2. Prevention of felling of immature trees.
3. Converting forests into Reserve Forests in order to preserve flora and fauna.
4. Controlled grazing of animals on grasslands so that small and young plants and new grass are not hampered.
5. Protection from forest fires by removing dry branches and leaves.
6. Use of substitute fuel other than wood.
7. Use of modern equipments in felling of trees, so that other trees are not hampered.
8. Enactment of laws to prevent indiscriminate felling of trees.
9. Taking up programmes like ‘Van Mahotsav’ and planting of new saplings.
10. Increasing public consciousness.
11. Proper utilisation of forest resources without westage.

Question 5.
Differentiate between Social forestry and Agro-forestry.
Answer:

Social forestry	Agro-forestry
i. Barren and discarded land beyond the forested areas are taken care of by NGOs, voluntary organisations and local people to plant trees and grow a new forest.	i. Barren or infertile lands belonging to farmers are taken care of to grow trees for wood, green manure medicinal plants, fruits etc.
ii. Creation of new forests help to control soil erosion, maintain ecological balance, reclaim infertile land, supply useful forest products etc.	ii. Use of barren and infertile land belonging to farmers help in making the land economically fruitful. It also increases soil fertility, supplies important daily needs, prevents soil erosion, meets demand for fire wood, supplies fodder for animals etc.
iii. Such forests are grown in discarded lands beside agricultural plots, along railway lines and roadways, along river valleys, in religious places, schools, offices, etc. in burial grounds, crematories etc.	iii. Such forests are grown in the lands belonging to the farmers themselves, which have become infertile and unproductive.
iv. It is a co-operative and joint venture of NGOs, voluntary organisations and local people.	iv. It is generally a personal or social venture.
v. Available products are fruits, roots, fire wood, animal fodder, honey, wax, lax etc.	v. Available products are fire wood, wood for furniture, green manure, medicines, fruits etc.

Question 6.
Describe the characteristics of the evergreen forests.
Answer:
The characteristics of the evergreen forests are :

1. The trees do not shed their leaves altogether in one season. Hence the forest appears evergreen.
2. The forest is very dense.
3. The trees are very tall and highly branched.
4. The leaves of the trees are broad, thick and dark green in colour.
5. The trees occur in different layers in the forest, starting from tall trees to creepers.
6. The leaves create a canopy over the head of the forest and allow very little light to penetrate the forest.
7. The forest is moist and dingy. It holds the highest variety of flora and fauna.

Question 7.
Describe the characteristics of Wet deciduous forests.
Answer:
The characteristics of wet deciduous forests are :

1. The trees shed their leaves altogether in the dry season. Hence they are called deciduous.
2. The woods acquired from the deciduous trees are hard and highly valuable.
3. Most of the trees have straight trunks that are smooth and plain. But some trees may have rough surface of trunks.
4. The trees are highly branched.
5. Age rings are prominent in the trunks of the trees.

Question 8.
Describe the characteristics of Dry deciduous forests.
Answer:
The characteristics of dry deciduous forests are :

1. The main type of Vegetation found here is grasslands.
2. The trees are of short height (6-10 m tall).
3. The trees shed their leaves in the dry season.
4. The forest is bushy.
5. The forest is not dense and the trees are distributed haphazardly here and there.
6. These forests are known as Savannah forests of the Deccan plateau region of India due to predominance of grasslands.
7. The wood collected is mostly used as fire wood.
8. Sabai grass found here is used for making paper.
9. Leaves of several plants have much economic importances. Ex- Kendu leaves are used to make ‘biris’. Sal leaves are used to make plates and bowls.
10. Different kinds of raisins and gums are acquired from these forests.

Question 9.
What are the characteristics of desert vegetation of the tropical region?
Answer:
The charackeristics of tropical desert vegetation are :

1. The trees are provided with thorns and the leaves are usually very small.
2. The roots are very long in order to collect water from deep down into the soil.
3. Most of the trees have juicy stems and contain chlorophyll.
4. Average height of the trees is 6-10 m. They are mostly bushy in nature.
5. Most of the trees have leaves and branches covered or coated with cuticle, so as to prevent excess loss of water through transpiration.

Question 10.
Discuss about the mangrove forests found in India.
Answer:
Mangrove forests exist in the hot tropical and sub-tropical climatic regions along the coastal regions. The regions which receive 150 cm of rainfall and 26°-28° C temperature and are influenced by tides twice a day are most suitable for the growth of mangrove forests.
Characteristics :

1. The soil remains moist due to tidal action. Hence the trees are evergreen.
2. The trees grow several supporting roots like stilt roots, prop roots and buttress roots to hold them upright in the soft, moist soil.
3. The trees are also provided with breathing roots that pop out of the soil to trap oxygen directly from the air.
4. The trunks are juicy and are highly branched.
5. The trees are medium tall, woody and sometimes bushy.

Question 11.
Discuss the influence of climate on the natural vegetation in India.
Answer:
Climate plays the most important role in creating the natural vegetation of a region. The distribution of natural vegetation in India according to climatic conditions is discussed below :
i. High temperature and high rainfall : Evergreen forests grow in regions of temperature 20°-30° C and average rainfall of 200 cm. The regions of such forests are- (i) North eastern hilly region, (ii) Terai-Duars region of the foot hills of Himalaya, (iii) Andaman and Nicobar islands. (iv) Western slopes of Western Ghats.
Main species : Sissoo, Garjan, Rosewood, Mehogani, Chaplas, Iron Wood, Bamboo, Rubber, etc.

ii. High temperature and moderate rainfall: The regions having average temperature of 20°-30° C and average rainfall of 100-200 cm have deciduous types of forests. Regions : (i) Eastern slopes of Western Ghats, (ii) Madhya Pradesh, (iii) Jharkhand, (iv) Chattisgarh, (v) Uttar Pradesh, (vi) Odisha etc. Main species : Sal, Shimul, Teak, Mahua, Palash, Banyan, Peepal, etc.

iii. High temperature and low rainfall : The regions having average temperature of 25°-30° C and average rainfall 50-100 cm have grassland type of vegetation with short and bushy trees. Regions : (i) eastern parts of Rajasthan, (ii) Kutch and Kathiawar regions of Gujarat, (iii) Rain shadow areas of the Westen ghats. Main species : Sabai grass, other bushy trees.

iv. High temperature and very low rainfall : The region having average temperature around 40° C and average rainfall below 50 cm have desert type of vegetation with scarce distribution of thorny bushes.
Region : This kind of vegetation is seen in the Marusthali region of Rajasthan. Main species : Babul, Acacia, Cactus, etc.

v. Difference in rainfall according to altitude : In the mountainous region of the Himalayas, temperature goes on decreasing with increase in altitude. Also, distribution of rainfall varies with altitude. The series of forests thus developed from lower to higher altitudes are – Evergreen forests, Deciduous forests, Coniferous forests and Alpine forests till the treeline is reached.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) : 1 Mark

Question 1.
The minimum forest cover necessary to maintain ecological balance is
(A) 50% of the total land area
(B) 40% of the total land area
(C) 33% of the total land area
(D) 25% of the total land area
Answer:
(C) 33% of the total land area

Question 2.
Which state in India has the largest area under forests ?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Assam
Answer:
(B) Madhya Pradesh

Question 3.
How much area of the country is under forest :
(A) 23 per cent
(B) 25 per cent
(C) 30 per cent
(D) 40 per cent
Answer:
(A) 23 per cent

Question 4.
Coniferous forests in India are :
(A) 3 per cent
(B) 5 per cent
(C) 7 per cent
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) 3 per cent

Question 5.
Coniferous forests in India are found in :
(A) The Himalayas
(B) The Nilgiri Hills
(C) Annamalai Hills
(D) Western Ghats
Answer:
(A) The Himalayas

Question 6.
Broad leaf forests in India are :
(A) 75 per cent
(B) 97 per cent
(C) 90 per cent
(D) 80 per cent
Answer:
(B) 97 per cent

Question 7.
Largest non-reporting area in India is in
(A) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Nagaland
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Mizoram
Answer:
(A) Jammu and Kashmir

Question 8.
Of the total reporting area in the India the area under forests consitutes
(A) 21.6%
(B) 12.8%
(C) 10.7%
(D) 43.2%
Answer:
(A) 21.6%

Question 9.
The name of mangrove forest of the Ganga delta is
(A) Bhitarkanika
(B) Cudappa forest
(C) Sundarban
(D) Bharatnagar
Answer:
(C) Sundarban

Question 10.
Sundarban in West Bengal is the habitat of
(A) The tiger
(B) The elephant
(C) The lion
(D) The deer
Answer:
(A) The tiger

Question 11.
Kaziranga National Park is in
(A) Bihar
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Assam
(D) Manipur
Answer:
(C) Assam

Question 12.
Tropical Deciduous forests are found in areas of rainfall per year.
(A) 25 to 50 cm
(B) 50 to 100 cm
(C) 100 to 200 cm
(D) More than 200 cm
Answer:
(C) 100 to 200 cm

Question 13.
Lowland grasses occur in the plains of
(A) Punjab
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
(A) Punjab

Question 14.
The ‘Nilgiri and Annamalai Hills’ have got :
(A) Tropical type of Vegetation
(B) Deciduous forests
(C) Coniferous forests
(D) Evergreen forests
Answer:
(D) Evergreen forests

Question 15.
In India about _____ of the total land area is under forests.
(A) 50%
(B) 27%
(C) 22.3%
(D) 29%
Answer:
(C) 22.3%

Question 16.
The object of ‘Van Mahotsava’ in India is the____
(A) Cultivation of a large belt of trees
(B) To worship the trees
(C) To show reverence to the trees
(D) To stop felling the trees
Answer:
(A) Cultivation of a large belt of trees

Question 17.
________ is an evergreen tree
(A) Sissoo
(B) Teak
(C) Palash
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Sissoo

Question 18.
________ trees grow over the chotanagpur plateau
(A) Deciduous
(B) Evergreen
(C) Coniferous
(D) Alpine
Answer:
(A) Deciduous

Question 19.
Mangrove trees are found in the
(A) Deltas
(B) Deserts
(C) Plains
(D) Mountain
Answer:
(A) Deltas

Question 20.
In the Evergreen Forests, rainfall should be
(A) Scanty
(B) Heavy
(C) Moderate
(D) Altogether sparse
Answer:
(B) Heavy

Question 21.
Forest is a resource.
(A) Non renewable
(B) Renewable
(C)Fund
(D) Flow
Answer:
(B) Renewable

Question 22.
The lowest forest cover is seen in
(A) Asia
(B) Africa
(C) North America
(D) South America
Answer:
(A) Asia

Question 23.
The Bhitarkanika forest in Odisha is famous for
(A) Equatorial trees
(B) Coniferous trees
(C) Dry deciduous trees
(D) Mangrove trees
Answer:
(D) Mangrove trees

Question 24.
The state of India under largest forest cover is
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Chattisgarh
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
Answer:
(A) Madhya Pradesh

Question 25.
Highest percentage of forest is seen in
(A) Manipur
(B) Sikkim
(C) Nagaland
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer:
(B) Sikkim

Question 26.
Forest is a __________ resource.
(A) Social
(B) Personal
(C) National
(D) International
Answer:
(C) National

Question 27.
Mangrove forests are seen in
(A) Polar regions
(B) Desert regions
(C) Hilly regions
(D) Coastal regions
Answer:
(D) Coastal regions

Question 28.
__________ is called a natural sponge.
(A) Marshlands
(B) Forests
(C) Deserts
(D) Ozone layer
Answer:
(B) Forests

Question 29.
Type of forests found in saline soil is
(A) Mangrove
(B) Tundra
(C) Mediterranean
(D) Coniferous
Answer:
(A) Mangrove

Question 30.
Most of India’s forest cover is
(A) Evergreen
(B) Deciduous
(C) Bushy
(D) Coniferous
Answer:
(B) Deciduous

Question 31.
Gewa trees belong to
(A) Mangroves
(B) Deserts
(C) Deciduous forest
(D) Alpine forests
Answer:
(A) Mangroves

Question 32.
In India, the Forest Research Centre is in
(A) Dehradun
(B) Jodhpur
(C) Kolkata
(D) Indore
Answer:
(A) Dehradun

Question 33.
Type of forest found at the foothills of the Himalayas is
(A) Deciduous
(B) Evergreen
(C) Bushy
(D) Coniferous
Answer:
(B) Evergreen

Question 34.
Type of forest found in the rain shadow area of Western Ghats is
(A) Mangrove
(B) Coniferous
(C) Alpine
(D) Grasslands
Answer:
(D) Grasslands

Question 35.
In the Himalayan range, above 400 m altitude lies the
(A) Coniferous forest
(B) Alpine forest
(C) Mangrove forest
(D) Evergreen forest
Answer:
(D) Evergreen forest

Question 36.
In the Himalayan range, above 3000-4000 m lies the
(A) Deciduous forest
(B) Coniferous forest
(C) Alpine forest
(D) Mangrove forest
Answer:
(B) Coniferous forest

Question 37.
Type of Vegetation found in Andaman and Nicobar islands is
(A) Evergreen
(B) Deciduous
(C) Cactus
(D) Coniferous
Answer:
(A) Evergreen

Question 38.
Natural vegetation is mostly controlled by
(A) Relief
(B) Soil
(C) River
(D) Climate
Answer:
(D) Climate

Question 39.
An example of a coniferous tree is
(A) Pine
(B) Ebony
(C) Garan
(D) Sal
Answer:
(A) Pine

Question 40.
Wet deciduous forest is seen in an area of rainfall
(A) 200 cm
(B) 100-200 cm
(C) 50-100 cm
(D) 25-50 cm
Answer:
(B) 100-200 cm

Question 41.
The vegetation found in deserts is
(A) Halophytes
(B) Cactus
(C) Deciduous
(D) Evergreen
Answer:
(B) Cactus

Question 42.
Mangrove forests grow in Sundarbans due to
(A) Laterite soil
(B) Black soil
(C) Saline soil
(D) Red soil
Answer:
(C) Saline soil

Question 43.
Vegetation found in the chotanagpur plateau region is
(A) Evergreen
(B) Deciduous
(C) Coniferous
(D) Desert Type
Answer:
(D) Desert Type

Question 44.
The north eastern hilly region is covered with
(A) Evergreen forests
(B) Deciduous forests
(C) Alpine forests
(D) Mangrove forests
Answer:
(A) Evergreen forests

Question 45.
The type of forest found in the plateau region of West Bengal is
(A) Evergreen
(B) Dry deciduous
(C) Mangrove
(D) Wet deciduous
Answer:
(B) Dry deciduous

State True or False : 1 Mark

1. Champa, toon, garjan, etc. trees are mostly found in West Bengal and Assam. [ ]
2. Selva-type of vegetation is found in Orissa. [ ]
3. The largest reserve of Sal is found in the forests of the peninsular India. [ ]
4. Acacia, Euphorbia and Tamarix plants are caracteristic of hill forests. [ ]
5. The natural vegetation in the Deccan plateau is mainly controlled by rainfall. [ ]
6. Blood-worts are mostly found in western Himalayas. [ ]
7. The tropical plants which need continuous high temperature for growth are called microtherms. [ ]
8. Tamarix is a common plant of deciduous forests. [ ]
Answer:
1. True
2. False
3. False
4.False
5. True
6. True
7. False
8. False

Match the following :

List I	List II
A. Tropical evergreen forest	1. Andaman Island
B. Monsoon forest	2. Mizoram
C. Dry Savanna	3. South-West Andhra Pradesh
D. Mangrove	4. Sahyadris

Answer:

List I	List II
A. Tropical evergreen forest	2. Mizoram
B. Monsoon forest	4. Sahyadris
C. Dry Savanna	3. South-West Andhra Pradesh
D. Mangrove	1. Andaman Island

Answer in few words : 1 Mark

Question 1.
What do you mean by natural vegetation?
Answer:
Vegetation that grows with the help of soil, water, sunlight and other physical environment, without the interference of man.

Question 2.
Name some evergreen trees.
Answer:
Rosewood, champa, gurjan, chaplas, sissoo, iron wood, etc.

Question 3.
Mention the required rainfall and temperature levels for wet deciduous forests.
Answer:
Temperature 26°-27° C, rainfall 100-200 cm.

Question 4.
What are the main trees of wet deciduous forests ?
Answer:
Teak, sal, sandalwood, deodar, sisam, jackfruit, mahua, palash, arjun, bamboo etc.

Question 5.
Where are dry deciduous forests found in India ?
Answer:
Central deccan plateau, south-east of Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana, Parts of Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh.

Question 6.
What is the other name of Tidal forests ?
Answer:
Mangrove forests or Littoral forests.

Question 7.
Name some mangrove trees.
Answer:
Sundari, keora, goran, gewa, hogla, golpata, etc.

Question 8.
Where is semi-desert vegetation found in India ?
Answer:
Rajasthan, parts of Gujarat, Punjab, Karnataka.

Question 9.
Which factors influences natural vegetation the most?
Answer:
Climate.

Question 10.
What is the name of the process where man plants trees to build a forest?
Answer:
Afforestation.

Question 11.
In which year was the National Forest Policy of India taken ?
Answer:
1952.

Question 12.
How much portion of India’s total forest cover lies in West Bengal ?
Answer:
About 2.4%.

Question 13.
How tall does the bushy vegetation grow?
Answer:
Less than 3 m.

Question 14.
What kind of vegetation is found in the slopes of the Himalayan mountains?
Answer:
Coniferous forests.

Question 15.
Where is Alpine forest found in India ?
Answer:
Above 3000-5000 m altitude in the Himalayan range.

Question 16.
Name two mangrove forests of India.
Answer:
(i) Sundarban in West Bengal
(ii) Bhitarkanika in Odisha.

Question 17.
Name the first Reserved Forest of India.
Answer:
Jim Corbett National Park, Uttar Pradesh.

Question 18.
Why do halophytes need extra breathing roots ?
Answer:
The wet boggy soil does not allow them to breath within the soil.

Question 19.
To which direction will the forested zone of India shift due to global warming?
Answer:
Towards the north.

Question 20.
When was ‘Joint Forest Management’ started in India ?
Answer:
1989.

Question 21.
Why is the forest called a natural sponge?
Answer:
It absorbs CO₂ and releases O₂.

Question 22.
Which forest houses lions in India ?
Answer:
Gir forest of Gujarat.

Question 23.
How much land area of West Bengal lies under forests ?
Answer:
About 14%.

Question 24.
Where do mangrove forests grow ?
Answer:
River deltas and coastal areas.

Question 25.
Which tree of Karnataka is world famous ?
Answer:
Sandalwood tree.

Question 26.
What is the shape of the coniferous trees?
Answer:
Tall, conical, with very less branching.

Question 27.
When was Sundarban declared as the ‘World Heritage forest’?
Answer:
1989.

Question 28.
What are the most important means of forest conservation ?
Answer:
Afforestation and increasing consciousness of people.

Question 29.
Which Union Territory of India has the largest forest cover ?
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar islands.

Question 30.
What kind of trees are most found in India ?
Answer:
Dry deciduous trees.

Question 31.
How are forest fires caused ?
Answer:
Due to friction between the tree branches in the hot season in the torrid zone.

Question 32.
What special adaptations are seen in mangrove trees?
Answer:
Supporting roots and breathing roots.

Question 33.
What kind of a tree is rosewood?
Answer:
Evergreen tree.

Question 34.
What kind of trees grow in deserts?
Ans.
Xerophytas.

Question 35.
What are forests known as for their capability to control air pollution?
Answer:
Natural sponge.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 5.5 Soils in India offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 5.5 Question Answer – Soils in India

Answer in short : 2 Marks

Question 1.
What is Bhangar?
Answer:
Bhangar is the comparatively old alluvium found on the upper sides of river valleys. It is coarse and pebbly and a little less fertile. It contains ‘Kankar’ nodules in the sub-soil.

Question 2.
What is Khadar?
Answer:
Khadar is the relatively new, compact, fine and moist silt found in the flood plains and deltas. It is more sandy and free from ‘Kankar’ nodules and is very fertile.

Question 3.
What is the importance of Black soil ?
Answer:
Black soil is most suitable for cotton cultivation. It is also popularly known as black cotton soil. It is also good for sugarcane, wheat and groundnut. It is highly rich in minerals.

Question 4.
What are the features of Red Soils?
Answer:
Red soils develop on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of poor rainfall. It is more sandy and less clayey. It is reddish in colour due to its high iron content.

Question 5.
What are the characteristics of Saline soils ?
Answer:
Saline soils are black, heavy and highly acidic. They are more sandy and less clayey. They are saline due to oceanic influence. They contain 10-40% organic matter.

Question 6.
What are the characteristics of Mountain Soils ?
Answer:
Mountain soils vary according to altitudes. They are rich in iron but deficient in lime. They are rich in humus and acidic in nature.

Question 7.
What do you mean by Soil erosion?
Answer:
Soil erosion refers to the breaking of soil particles by wind, rain, waves, snow, etc. and their removal from the surface.

Question 8.
Mention the direct consequences of soil erosion.
Answer:
The direct consequences of soil erosion are removal of fertile soil, degradation of agricultural land and inferior quality of vegetation.

Question 9.
What are the indirect consequences of soil erosion?
Answer:
The indirect consequences of soil erosion are – floods, siltation, fall of ground water landslide, economic set backs etc.

Question 10.
What is Strip Cropping ?

Answer:
Strip cropping refers to cultivation of crops in strips across the slope of the moutains, in order to break the slope to reduce soil erosion.

Question 11.
Mention the areas where alluvial soil is found.
Answer:
Alluvial soil is found in the river basins of Ganga, Indus and Brahmaputra in northern India. In southern India, it is found in the plains and deltas formed by rivers Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Cauvery.

Question 12.
What are the characteristics of alluvial soil ?
Answer:
The main characteristics of alluvial soil are :

1. The soil is fine grained and is formed of sediments brought down by rivers.
2. The soil is rich in nutrients like calcium, phosphoric acid, lime and other substances.
3. It is rich in humus and potash.
4. It is very fertile and suitable for cultivation.

Question 13.
What are the types of alluvial soil ?
Answer:
Alluvial soil can be of two types – Bhangar and Khadar.

Question 14.
Why alluvial soil considered to be best for agriculture?
Answer:
Alluvial soil is rich in minerals and humus that is essential for crop growth. The soil is renewed every year by flooding of rivers. Hence, minerals get energy in the soil regularly. Thus it is most suitable for agriculture. Crops like rice, jute, vegetables and sugarcane grow very well in this soil.

Question 15.
Where is black soil found in India ?
Answer:
In India, black soil is found in the Deccan plateau, comprising Maharashtra plateau, Malwa plateau, Telengana-Rayaseema region of Andhra Pradesh, Northern parts of Karnataka, Gujarat and some parts of Tamil Nadu.

Question 16.
What are the characteristics of Black soil ?
Answer:

1. Black soil is black in colour.
2. It is also known as ‘Regur’ soil, derived from the latin work ‘Ragurgitare’.
3. The texture of the soil is clayey and water holding capacity of the soil is high.
4. The soil is sticky and hard.
5. It is rich in iron, calcium carbonate, potash and lime.

Question 17.
Why is Black soil rich in mineral content ?
Answer:
Black soil originates from basaltic rocks of lava plateaus. Hence, they are rich in minerals like iron, calcium carbonate, potash and lime. But it is poor in phosphates and organic matter.

Question 18.
Name the states of India where red soil is found.
Answer:
In India, Red soil is found in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and Jharkhand.

Question 19.
Which crops can be grown in Red soil ?
Answer:
Red soil is suitable for growing crops like rice, wheat, sugarcane, cotton, pulses etc.

Question 20.
Where is lateritic soil found in India?
Answer:
Lateritic soil is found in the hilly areas of the Western Ghats, Chotanagpur plateau and the hills of Meghalaya.

Question 21.
What crops grow in Laterite soil ?
Answer:
Laterite soil is not very suitable for agriculture. Crops like cashew, tapioca, cotton, wheat etc. grow in this soil.

Question 22.
Where is Desert soil found in India ?
Answer:
Desert soil is found in Western Rajasthan, Northem Gujarat and Southern Punjab.

Question 23.
Which crops grow well in saline soils ?
Answer:
Coconut, beetle nut etc. grow well in saline soils.

Question 24.
What crops grow well in mountain soils?
Answer:
Mountain soils are found in the Himalayan region. They are suitable for growing tea, fruits, rice, etc.

Question 25.
How does surface run-off affect soil ?
Answer:
Surface run-off is an important reason for soil erosion. Rate of erosion depends on amount of rainfall, duration, size of water droplets and condition of the land surface (open or covered with vegetation).

Question 26.
In which region does wind cause maximum soil erosion ?
Answer:
Wind causes much soil erosion in open, tree-less and arid regions. It is predominant in desert regions.

Question 27.
How is overgrazing responsible for soil erosion ?
Answer:
Overgrazing on pastures cause exposure of soil to agents of erosion due to removal of vegetative cover. Thus it speeds up soil erosion.

Question 28.
Name two natural phenomena that may cause soil erosion.
Answer:
Soil erosion can be caused due to landslides and forest-fires.

Question 29.
How does nature of rainfall affect soil ?
Answer:
Nature of rainfall can be beneficial or harmful to soil. Slow and light rainfall helps to recharge underground water by percolation of water. But torrential showers and big size of rain drops cause the soil to loosen and wash away, hence causing erosion.

Question 30.
Why is removal of top soil harmful ?
Answer:
The top soil is the most fertile part of the soil. It contains most of the essential nutrients and humus, which help in plant growth. Removal of top soil by erosion removes the fertility of the soil and reduces its capacity to support agriculture.

Question 31.
What is contour farming?
Answer:
In mountainous regions, a number of low or small dams are constructed across the slopes at equal heights. This prevents the rapid flow of water down the slopes, reducing soil erosion. This method of preventing soil erosion is called contour farming.

Question 32.
What is Gully ploughing ?
Answer:
In regions affected by gully erosion, dams can be built across gullies to prevent water flow. Plants can be planted along the dams to stop erosion.

Answer in brief : 3 Marks

Question 1.
Mention the major areas of India that have been affected by soil erosion.
Answer:
Soil erosion is predominant in tropical monsoon climatic regions, desert regions, mountainous regions etc.

The areas of India affected by soil erosion are :

1. Nilgiri hills due to intence potato cultivation without proper terracing.
2. Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh etc. due to gully erosion.
3. Punjab, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh etc. due to uncertain rainfall.
4. Rajasthan and Gujarat due to moving sand dunes and coastal soil erosion.

Question 2.
Discuss the direct consequences of soil erosion.
Answer:
The direct consequences of soil erosion are –
(a) Removal of fertile soil : Removal of humus and minerals from the soil surface makes it infertile.
(b) Degradation of agricultural land : Removal of essential minerals and humus from soil reduces its productivity and degrades agricultural land.
(c) Effects on Vegetation : Degradation of soil leads to inferior quality of vegetation due to lack of nutrients.

Question 3.
What are the indirect consequences of soil erosion ?
Answer:
The indirect consequences of soil erosion are :
(a) Floods : The eroded materials get deposited in the river valleys and raise the height of the river beds. Hence, carrying capacity of the channels get reduced, causing floods.
(b) Siltation : Regular deposition of sand, silt, clay, etc, in rivers, lakes, etc. causes formation of sand bars.
(c) Fall of ground water : Soil cover helps to absorb rain water gradually and recharge ground water. If soil cover is removed, water falls on hard rocky surface and slips away before absorption.
(d) Land slide : Soil erosion due to deforestation of mountain slopes causes rocks and boulders to loosen, resulting in landslides.
(e) Econonic set back: Agriculture suffers a lot due to soil erosion. This results in a severe economic set back.

Question 4.
Differentiate between Bhangar and Khadar soils.
Answer:

Bhangar	Khadar
i. Made up of old alluvium.	i. Made up of new alluvium.
ii. Comparatively old, coarse and less fertile.	ii. Relatively new, fine and fertile.
iii. Found in the upper sides of the river valleys.	iii. Found in the flood plains and deltas of rivers.
iv. Silt is pebbly and contains Kankar nodules.	iv. Silt is fine and free from Kankar nodules.
v. Soil is dry, porous and sandy.	v. Soil is moist, fine and compact.

Question 5.
Compare between Red soil and Laterite soil.
Answer:

Red Soil	Laterite Soil
i. Formed by less eluviation in comparatively drier and hot regions.	i. Formed by high eluviation and removal of silica from top soil by heavy rainfall.
ii. Found in tropical and sub tropical areas of less rainfall.	ii. Found in hot wet tropical regions.
iii. Usually formed by chemical reactions in soils due to excessive temperature.	iii. Usually formed by mechanical actions of eluviation.
iv. Found in Chotanagpur region.	iv. Found in small parts of Deccan plateau.
v. Mainly formed from granite and gneiss rocks.	v. Mainly formed from basalt and traces of granite.

Question 6.
Compare between Desert soil and Saline soil.
Answer:

Desert soil	Saline soil
i. Found in arid and semi arid regions of Western Rajasthan, Northern Gujarat and Southern Punjab.	i. Found along the eastern and western coasts of India.
ii. It is coarse and Sandy in texture (90-95% sand particles).	ii. It contains sandy as well as clayey soil particles.
iii. It contains high percentage of soluble salts.	iii. It contains 10-40 % of organic matter.
iv. It is highly alkaline in nature.	iv. It is highly acidic in nature.
v. It is poor in organic matter and not fertile.	v. It is saline in nature due to oceanic influence and not fertile.
vi. Crops like millets are grown.	vi. Crops like coconut and beetle nut are grown.

Question 7.
Write a short note on the regions that face severe soil erosion in India.
Answer:
Soil erosion is most predominant in regions where the agents of mechanical weathering are highly active. Eg. : Tropical monsoon climatic regions, desert regions, mountainous regions etc.
The scenario of soil erosion in India is as follows :

1. Potato cultivation without proper terracing in the Nilgiris has led to high erosion.
2. Gully erosion has affected regions in Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh etc.
3. Uncertain rainfall has speeded up erosion in Punjab, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh etc.
4. Coastal soil erosion and movement of sand dunes have affected Gujarat etc.

Answer in details : 5 Marks

Question 1.
Discuss the causes of soil erosion.
Answer:
The various causes of soil erosion are:

1. Surface runoff : Soil is highly eroded by surface runoff of rain water. Rate of erosion depends on amount of rainfall, duration, size of raindrops and condition of land surface (open or covered with vegetation).
2. Wind : Wind causes much soil erosion is open, tree-less and arid regions.
3. Topography : Level of soil erosion is higher on mountain slopes than on plain lands due to the effect of gravitational force.
4. Pressure of excessive population on land: Excessive population compels use of land for several social and economic activities, for which natural vegetation has to be cut off. This increases the level of soil erosion.
5. Over-grazing : Over-grazing on pastures causes exposure of soil to the agents of erosion due to removal of vegetative cover.
6. Unscientific mining : Unscientific mining may cause subsidence or collapse of land, leading to heavy rates of soil erosion.
7. Landslide : Landslides on mountain slopes expose soil to the agents of erosion.
8. Deforestation : Cutting down of trees loosen the top soil and increases the rate of erosion.
9. Nature of rainfall : Torrential showers and big drops of rain cause the top soil to loosen and wash away easily.
10. Methods of farming : Cultivation of the same crop every year reduces the quality of soil and tends to increase erosion.
11. Others : Phenomena like floods, droughts, volcanic activities, earthquakes, forest fires etc. also cause soil erosion.

Question 2.
Discuss the methods of Soil conservation.
Answer:
The different methods of soil conservation are :

1. Afforestation : More and more trees should be planted especially on open or barren lands.
2. Terracing : Terracing of mountain slopes reduces the gradient and prevents soil erosion by washing away.
3. Strip cropping : Cultivation of crops in strips across the slope of the mountains help in breaking the slope, hence reduces erosion.
4. Contour farming : In this method, a number of small dams are built at equal heights of mountain slopes. This prevents rapid flow of water along the slopes, thus reducing soil erosion.
5. Shelter belt : Planting tall trees across the direction of wind flow helps to reduce soil erosion.
6. Controllod grazing : Scope should be left for grasses to grow again in between grazing, so that the vegetative cover does not get removed totally.
7. Stopping shifting cultivation : Primitive methods like shifting cultivation (egJhum cultivation) on mountain slopes and forested lands must be stopped in order to prevent soil erosion.
8. Gully plouging : In regions affected by gully erosion, dams can be built across gullies to prevent waterflow. Trees can be planted along the dams to stop erosion.

Question 3.
Describe the different types of soils found in India.
Answer:
The different type of soils found in India are :
i. Alluvial soil : This is a very fertile soil found in the river valleys, flood plains and deltas of rivers Ganga, Indus, Brahmaputra, Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri etc. The soil is rich is calcium, phosphoric acid, lime, potash, humus etc. This soil is the best for agriculture.

ii. Black soil : Commonly known as Regur, this is a black, clayey, sticky and hard soil that originates from basaltic rocks of lava plateaus, especially the Deccan plateau region. It is good for growing cotton, sugarcane, wheat, groundnut etc.

iii. Red soil : This is a reddish infertile soil that develops from crystalline igneous rocks in areas of poor rainfall. It is found in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and Jharkhand.

iv. Laterite soil : This soil is found in areas of heavy rainfall in the Western Ghats, Chotanagpur and hills of Meghalaya. It is an infertile soil formed by leaching away of minerals from the top layers. Crops like cashew, tapioca, cotton, wheat etc. grow in very less amount in this soil.

v. Desert soil : This is a coarse, sandy, porous, infertile soil found in arid regions of Western Rajasthan, Northern Gujarat and Southern Punjab. It is poor in organic matter and rich in soluble salts.

vi. Saline soil : This is found along the eastern and western coastal regions of India. The soil is black, heavy, acidic and full of organic matter. It contains both sand and clay particles. It is saline due to oceanic actions.

vii. Mountain soil : This is an acidic soil rich in iron content but deficient of lime. This is found in the mountainous regions of the Himalaya. This is suitable for growing tea, fruits, rice etc.

Question 4.
How does the presence of different types of soil in different parts of India influence the economy of the county?
Answer:
India is a huge country and has different kinds of soil in different parts of the country. Each soil has its own characteristics, hence influences the economy differently.
i. Presence of alluvial soil in the river valleys, flood plains, delta regions etc. makes them highly fertile and promotes very high levels of agriculture. Thus, presence of this soil makes India basically an agricultural country.

ii. Apart from alluvial soil, the other soils present in the country are also used for growing crops. Different types of soil help in growing different kinds of crops. Hence, a variety of crops can easily be grown in India.

iii. The variety of soils produce a variety of crops, which help to need various demands of the economy. Some soils are used for growing food crops (eg. alluvial soil grows rice well). Some soils help to grow cash crops (eg. black cotton soil helps to grow cotton, sugarcane etc.) Some soils help to grow beverage crops (eg. mountain soils help to grow tea and coffee).

iv. Different types of soil have different structures and textures. Hence, the hardness of the land surface, the porosity, water holding capacity etc. of a region depend upon what kind of soil the region is made up of. This in turn influences other economic activities. Eg- building of roads, railway lines, high rise buildings etc. are dependent on the quality of the soil.

Question 5.
What are the necessities of soil conservation?
Answer:
The process of preventing soil erosion and degradation by natural as well as artificial methods is known as ‘soil conservation’. The necessities of soil conservation can be listed as follows :

1. The top soil must be protected from washing away so that essential nutrients are not lost due to erosion.
2. Removal of essential nutrients from soil reduces productivity of the land. Soil must be protected to prevent degradation of agricultural land.
3. Inferior soil will lead to inferior crops. Soils must be protected to ensure good crops with respect to quality and quantity.
4. Washing away of soils leads to blocking and raising of river beds. This leads to frequent flooding of the rivers. Hence soil erosion must be controlled to control flood.
5. Soil erosion leads to high levels of siltation and formation of sandbars. This may cause rivers to change directions and cause devastations. Hence soil erosion must be checked.
6. Soil helps to absorb rain water and recharge the underground water reserve. Erosion of soil will reduce seepage of water considerably.
7. Soil erosion due to deforestation on mountain slopes lead to landslides. Hence, protection of soil cover on mountain slopes is very essential.
8. Soil is a very important factor of economic development. It influences agriculture, industrial growth, construction of railways, roadways and buildings. Hence, loss of soil cover will lead to a set back in economic development.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) 1 Mark

Question 1.
The new alluvium found near the Ganga river is called
(A) Tarai
(B) Bhabar
(C) Khadar
(D) Bhangar
Answer:
(C) Khadar

Question 2.
Which state has very little alluvial soil area ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Haryana
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
Answer:
(C) Madhya Pradesh

Question 3.
Khadar soils are found
(A) In piedmont plains
(B) In flood plains
(C) Over low plateau
(D) Over steep slopes
Answer:
(B) In flood plains

Question 4.
The old alluvium of the river valleys of North Indian plains is known as
(A) Bhangar
(B) Khadar
(C) Bhur
(D) Bhabar
Answer:
(A) Bhangar

Question 5.
Laterite soil are found in the
(A) Rajasthan desert
(B) Chotanagpur plateau
(C) Ganga plain
(D) Punjab plain
Answer:
(B) Chotanagpur plateau

Question 6.
The alluvial soil is
(A) Dry, porous and sandy
(B) Black
(C) Brown
(D) Consistent of chemicals
Answer:
(A) Dry, porous and sandy

Question 7.
The Alluvial soil can
(A) Dry up in no time
(B) Contain moisture for long
(C) Be found on high mountains
(D) Turn into a rock which is a hardened mass
Answer:
(A) Dry up in no time

Question 8.
The fertility of the soil depends upon :
(A) Free availability of water
(B) Presence of chemicals and other elements
(C) Rotation of crops
(D) A single crop a year
Answer:
(B) Presence of chemicals and other elements

Question 9.
Alluvial Soil is that soil which :
(A) Comprises silt brought by the rivers
(B) Is sandy
(C) Is found on the mountains
(D) Is found in the forests
Answer:
(A) Comprises silt brought by the rivers

Question 10.
Black Soil is formed mostly on account of :
(A) Its continuous existence in hotter regions
(B) Non-availablity of enough water of the rivers
(C) The lava of the volcanoes
(D) The speedy flow of the rivers down the mountains
Answer:
(C) The lava of the volcanoes

Question 11.
Black Soil is :
(A) Porous, dry and sandy
(B) Sticky and compact
(C) Rocky in outlook
(D) Marshy in character
Answer:
(B) Sticky and compact

Question 12.
In India we can find Black soil in Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and _______ state:
(A) Bihar
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Odisha
(D) Maharashtra
Answer:
(D) Maharashtra

Question 13.
Red Soil is mostly find where we find :
(A) Proximity of the sea
(B) Proximity of the rivers
(C) Crystalline rocks
(D) Stratified rocks
Answer:
(C) Crystalline rocks

Question 14.
We find ‘Red Soil’ in :
(A) J & K State
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Assam
(D) Bengal and parts of Maharashtra
Answer:
(D) Bengal and parts of Maharashtra

Question 15.
Laterite Soil is formed :
(A) During the alternate periods of dry and wet weatheral spells
(B) Near the mountains and rivers
(C) Near the springs of water
(D) Near the rivers only
Answer:
(A) During the alternate periods of dry and wet weatheral spells

Question 16.
The largest and the most important of the soils in India is _________ soil.
(A) Laterite
(B) Black
(C) Red
(D) Alluvial
Answer:
(D) Alluvial

Question 17.
Red soils cover an area of _________ of the total cultivated area.
(A) 11 %
(B) 18%
(C) 15 %
(D) 20%
Answer:
(A) 11 %

Question 18.
These soils which are very porous are ________
(A) Brown soils
(B) Red soils
(C) Black soils
(D) Desert soils
Answer:
(D) Desert soils

Question 19.
The earth’s crust which consists of loose materials is generally called __________
(A) Rocks
(B) Oil
(C) Minerals
(D) Soils
Answer:
(D) Soils

Question 20.
With a lot of irrigation and manuring __________ soil can be used for cultivation.
(A) Charnozem
(B) Black
(C) Laterite
(D) Red
Answer:
(D) Red

Question 21.
Due to rapid evaporation desert soil becomes _________
(A) Loose
(B) Wet
(C) Saline
(D) Muddy
Answer:
(C) Saline

Question 22.
_________ prevent the spread of ravines.
(A) Plough
(B) Rain
(C) Clouds
(D) Check dams
Answer:
(D) Check dams

Question 23.
The soil has been classified into major groups by the ICAR ________
(A) Five
(B) Eight
(C) Ten
(D) Six
Answer:
(B) Eight

Question 24.
Alluvial soil lacks this content _________
(A) Porous
(B) Lime
(C) Nitrogenous
(D) Potash
Answer:
(C) Nitrogenous

Question 25.
The most typical soil of the Deccan region is this soil ___________
(A) Brown
(B) Laterite
(C) Black
(D) Red
Answer:
(B) Laterite

Question 26.
The presence of this oxide gives red colour to the soil ______
(A) Silicon
(B) Iron
(C) Calcium
(D) Magnesium
Answer:
(B) Iron

Question 27.
This soil supports pasture lands ______
(A) Chernozem
(B) Red
(C) Laterite
(D) Black
Answer:
(C) Laterite

Question 28.
The character of hill-soil varies according to _______
(A) Cloud
(B) Altitude
(C) Air pressure
(D) Wind direction
Answer:
(B) Altitude

Question 29.
Cotton grows well on ____________
(A) Brown soil
(B) Alluvial soil
(C) Black soil
(D) Red soil
Answer:
(C) Black soil

Question 30.
Near the Eastern Ghats and some elevated territories of Madhya Pradesh we find :
(A) Black soil
(B) Alluvial soil
(C) Laterite soil
(D) Red soil
Answer:
(C) Laterite soil

Question 31.
The driest soil is :
(A) Desert soil
(B) Black soil
(C) Red soil
(D) Saline soil
Answer:
(A) Desert soil

Question 32.
Soil Exhaustion means :
(A) The exhaustion of the fertility of the soil
(B) The removal of soil through the process of weathering
(C) The removal of soil through floods
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) The exhaustion of the fertility of the soil

Question 33.
A mixture of sand, clay and silt is known as
(A) Loan
(B) Clayey soil
(C) Black soil
(D) Red soil
Answer:
(A) Loan

Question 34.
Alluvial soils generally have a low content of
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Phosphorus
(C) Potash
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 35.
________ is not found in black soil.
(A) Iron
(B) Magnesium
(C) Aluminium
(D) Phosphorus
Answer:
(D) Phosphorus

Question 36.
Black soils develop mostly under
(A) Arid conditions
(B) Semi-arid conditions
(C) Humid conditions
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Semi-arid conditions

Question 37.
soil is found in the Mizoram and Shillong plateau.
(A) Laterite soil
(B) Black soil
(C) Alluvial soil
(D) Red soil
Answer:
(D) Red soil

Question 38.
Red soil is poor in –
(A) Phosphorus
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Lime
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 39.
The sandy soil of Rajasthan is called –
(A) Khadar
(B) Bhangar
(C) Kollar
(D) Bhur
Answer:
(D) Bhur

Question 40.
Loam is regarded as the most suitable type of soil for crop cultivation because –
(A) It can hold enough water
(B) It drains well
(C) It contains adequate quantities of humus
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Fill in the blanks : 1 Mark

1. Podzol soil is found in _______ areas.
2. _______ soil areas are regarded as vegetative lands.
3. Granite and gneiss rocks break dam to form _______ soil.
4. _______ soil is very suitable for cultivation of saffron.
5. Excessive irrigation leads to increase in _______ of soil.
Answer :
1. Mountainous
2. Kallar
3. Red
4. Karewa
5. Salinity

State True or False : 1. Mark

1. Mountainous soil is naturally acidic and infertile in nature. [ ]
2. The newly deposited alluvial in a river valley is called regur. [ ]
3. Desert soils have more water holding capacities. [ ]
4. In winter season, landslides lead to soil erosion. [ ]
5. Laterite soil is commonly seen in desert regions. [ ]
6. Alluvial soil is good for cotton cultivation. [ ]
7. Millets grow well in desert soils. [ ]
8. Red soil is found in the Andaman and Nicobar Island. [ ]
9. Much aluviation occurs in laterite soil. [ ]
10. The soil research centre of India situated in Jodhpur. [ ]
Answer:
1. True
2. False
3. False
4. False
5. False
6. False
7. True
8. True
9. True
10. True

Match the following : 1 Mark

Region	Soil type
A. Malwa plateau	1. Alluvial
B. Dharwar plateau	2. Laterite
C. Punjab plains	3. Red
D. Western ghats	4. Regur

Answer:

Region	Soil type
A. Malwa plateau	4. Regur
B. Dharwar plateau	3. Red
C. Punjab plains	1. Alluvial
D. Western ghats	2. Laterite

Answer in few words : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Where is alluvial soil found in Northern India?
Answer:
In the river basins of Ganga, Indus and Brahmaputra.

Question 2.
Where is alluvial soil found in peninsular India?
Answer:
The plains of Gujarat and deltas of rivers Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Cauvery.

Question 3.
What is new alluvial soil known as?
Answer:
Khadar.

Question 4.
What is old alluvial soil known as ?
Answer:
Bhangar.

Question 5.
What is the other name of Black soil ?
Answer:
Ragur soil.

Question 6.
Name the areas where regur soil is found.
Answer:
Regur is found in the Deccan plateau, comprising Maharashtra plateau, Malwa plateau, Telengana-Raylaseema region of Andhra Pradesh, northern Karnataka, parts of Tamil Nadu and Gujarat.

Question 7.
Where is Laterite soil found in India?
Answer:
Hilly areas of Western Ghats, Chotanagpur plateau and hills of Meghalaya.

Question 8.
Where is red soil found in India ?
Answer:
Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and Jharkhand.

Question 9.
Where is desert soil found in India ?
Answer:
Western Rajasthan, Northern Gujarat and Southern Punjab.

Question 10.
Where is saline soil found in India?
Answer:
East and West coast of India and around the islands.

Question 11.
Where is Mountain soil found in India?
Answer:
Himalayan region.

Question 12.
What is Afforestation?
Answer:
Planting of trees on open and barren lands to prevent soil erosion, etc.

Question 13.
What is the method of reducing the gradient of slope to reduce soil erosion called?
Answer:
Terracing.

Question 14.
What do you mean by ‘Shelter Belt’ ?
Answer:
Planting of tall trees against the wind direction to prevent soil erosion.

Question 15.
What is siltation?
Answer:
Regular deposition of sand, silt, clay, etc. in rivers, lakes and other water bodies.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 5.4 Climate of India offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 5.4 Question Answer – Climate of India

Answer in brief : 2 Marks

Question 1.
How does the Tropic of Cancer influence the climate of India?
Answer:
The Tropic of Cancer passes almost through the middle of India. It divides India into two broad temperature zones. The southern half lies in the Torrid zone and the northern half lies in the Temperate zone.

Question 2.
How India is saved from severe cold polar winds ?
Answer:
The lofty Himalayas lying on the northern boundary of India form a natural barrier and prevent the severely cold polar winds blowing from the north to enter the land. Thus India is saved from severely chilled winters.

Question 3.
What is the difference in climate between Delhi and Chennai ?
Answer:
Delhi lies far away from the influence of the sea. Hence, it experiences extreme or continental climate. Chennai lies on the sea coast. Hence, it experiences moderate or maritime climate.

Question 4.
With what winds can the monsoon winds be compared ?
Answer:
Sea breeze and land breeze on a large scale.

Question 5.
Why are the South-West monsoon winds moisture laden ?
Answer:
The South-West monsoon winds generate over the Indian ocean. They cross the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea on the East and West respectively before entering the land. Hence, the winds are moisture laden.

Question 6.
Why are the north-east monsoon wind dry ?
Answer:
The north-east monsoon wind or the retreating monsoon winds blow over the land towards the sea. They have very little source of collecting moisture. Hence they are comparatively dry. But a small portion of the winds passes over the Bay of Bengal and re-enter the mainland near Tamil Nadu. This portion of the winds is moisture laden and sheds the waters in Tamil Nadu coast before finally leaving the country.

Question 7.
What is ‘Kalbaishakhi’ or Norwesters ?
Answer:
‘Kalbaisakhi’ or Norwesters are violent local cyclonic storms common in eastern coastal regions of India. They are accompanied with thunder and lightning, heavy showers and sometimes hail. They occur during summer season (AprilMay) due to sudden formation. of low pressure cells on the land near coastal areas.

Question 8.
What is the difference in rainfall between the Eastern and Western ghats?
Answer:
The Arabian sea branch of the south-west monsoon causes heavy rainfall on the coastal areas of the Western Ghats (over 300 cm) because they lie in the windward side. The Deccan plateau and the Eastern Ghats receive lesser rainfall as they lie in the leeward side or in the rain-shadow area.

Question 9.
Which region of India receives the highest rainfall in India ?
Answer:
Mawsynram near Cherrapunji in Meghalaya on the southern slope of GaroKhasi-Jayantia hills in Meghalaya plateau receives the highest amount of rainfall in India as well as the world. (highest recorded 1142 cm).

Question 10.
How the Indian economy is controlled by the monsoon ?
Answer:
India is an agro-based economy. About 14% of Gross Domestic Product comes from agriculture. Agriculture is highly dependent on the monsoon winds/rainfall. Hence, monsoon plays an important role in controlling the Indian economy.

Question 11.
How does the latitudinal extent of India influence the climate?
Answer:
India stretches from 8.4′ N to 37°6′ N latitudes. The southem part of India till the 30° N latitude receives almost vertical rays of the sun and experiences tropical climate. The region lying north of the 30° N latitude receives slanting rays of the sun and experiences temperate climate in general.

Question 12.
How does presence of mountains influence the climate of India ?
Answer:
The presence of Western Ghats, Himalayas and Garo, Khasi hills help in the occurrence of rainfall from the South-West monsoons. Also, the Himalayas prevent the chilled Siberian wind of the polar regions from entering the country and giving it a chilling climate.

Question 13.
How does altitude control the climate of India ?
Answer:
Temperature reduces by 6.4°C with rise of 1000 m in altitude by the normal lapse rate. Hence, the hilly regions of the Karakoram and Himalayan ranges, the Ladakh plateau and other adjacent highlands enjoy a cool summer in spite of being situated in the low latitudes. During winter, many regions receive snowfall. The Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats also remain cooler due to high altitude even though located towards the equator.

Question 14.
What is the influence of the Aravalli range in the climate of Rajasthan?
Answer:
The Aravalli range lies in the eastern margin of Rajasthan in the North-East to South-West direction. The South-West monsoon wind entering from the Arabian sea blows almost parallel to the Aravalli range. Thus, these mountains cannot stop the moisture laden monsoon wind, which escapes towards further NorthWest. Hence, very little rainfall occurs here (less than 25 cm yearly), giving rise to the Thar desert.

Question 15.
Why does Shillong receive very less rainfall in spite of lying very close to Cherrapunji which receives the highest rainfall ?
Answer:
Cherrapunji is located on the windward slope of the Khasi hills in Meghalaya. The South-Western monsoons hit against this slope and cause enough rainfall in Cherrapunji. But Shillong lies on the leeward side of the Khasi hills in the rain shadow area. Hence, it receives very less rainfall even though physical distance between the two places is not quite much.

Question 16.
What do you mean by ‘Burst of monsoon’ ?
Answer:
By the first week of June, the moisture laden South-West monsoon winds hit against the Western Ghats near the Malabar coast and in Kerala. This brings forth the first rains for the country from the monsoon winds. This is known as the ‘Burst of monsoons’. By the middle of July, the monsoon winds spread over most of the country and provide enough rainfall.

Question 17.
What is ‘Andhi’?
Answer:
‘Andhi’ is a hot sandy storm that occurs in the Thar desert of Rajasthan and adjacent areas during the summer. Wind speed may be 50-60 km per hour. It is a dry wind and does not cause any rainfall.

Question 18.
What do you mean by ‘Western disturbances’?
Answer:
During the winter, winds coming from the Mediterranean region due to the influence of the Westerlies, cause the occurrence of weak cyclones. Due to this, the states of North-West India, i.e. Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan etc. receive light rainfall and the hilly regions of the north receive much snowfall. This wind is called the ‘Western disturbances’.

Question 19.
Which states receive snowfall in winter in India ?
Answer:
In India, the states that receive snowfall in winter are – Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and northern part of West Bengal (Darjeeling).

Question 20.
Which winds cause rainfall in Tamil Nadu ?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu receives rainfall by the influence of two winds – the South-West monsoon or the ongoing monsoons and the north-east monsoon or the retreating monsoon.

Question 21.
Which regions of India receive rainfall in the winters?
Answer:
The areas that receive rainfall in the winter are :
(i) Under the influence of retreating monsoon : Coromondal coast of Tamil Nadu.
(ii) Under the influence of Western disturbances : Jammu and Kashmir, Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Bihar and some parts of West Bengal.

Question 22.
Which regions of India receive very high rainfall ?
Answer:
The regions in India that receive very high rainfall (over 200 cm) are – the western slope of the Western Ghats, the eastern Himalayas, the North-Eastern hilly region, Mizoram, North Bengal, Andaman and Nicobar islands etc.

Question 23.
Which regions of India receive less to very less rainfall ?
Answer:
The regions of India receiving less to very less rainfall (lower than 20 cm to 60 cm) are – the eastern slope of the Western Ghats, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, Ladakh Valley of Kashmir etc.

Question 24.
Why winter is dry in India ?
Answer:
During winter, the north-east monsoon wind blow from the land towards the sea.
It cannot collect enough moisture in its way due to lack of water bodies. The moisture holding capacity of this wind is also low. Hence, it fails to provide rainfall, and makes the winter dry.

Question 25.
What do you mean by ‘drought’ ?
Answer:
Drought is the condition of very less or no rainfall over an area over a long period of time. Thus causes the soil to dry up tremendously and become unfit for plants to survive. About 34% area of India is under drought.

Question 26.
Name the drought prone areas of India.
Answer:
About 34% of India’s area is under the influence of drought, of which 16% area is under severe drought. The drought prone areas of India are –

1. Desert and semi-desert regions of Rajasthan.
2. The middle part of Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats.
3. Kutch and Saurashtra region of Gujarat.
4. Purulia of West Bengal.
5. Kalahandi of Odisha.

Question 27.
What is flood?
Answer:
If a region receives 125% more rainfall than its usual rate, the water logged condition thus created is called a flood. Also, rainfall in one region may increase the water level of the rivers so much that they cause floods in some other areas.

Question 28.
Which are the flood prone areas of India ?
Answer:
About 12% of India’s area remains under floods per year. The main flood-prone areas are :

1. Brahmaputra valley of Assam.
2. The river valleys of Yamuna, Chambal, Ghaghra of the Gangetic plains.
3. Damodar valley.
4. Terai and Duars region of the foothills of the Himalaya.

Answer in brief : 3 Marks

Question 1.
What is a jet stream ?
Answer:
Jet stream is a thin stream of speedy winds (350-450 km/hr) that blow from west to east from the winter till March-April between the Troposphere and the Stratosphere. These winds influence the onset and retreat of the monsoons in India, by seasonal shifting and creation of low pressure and high pressure cells respectively.

Question 2.
Describe the cold season in India.
Answer:
The cold season prevails in India from December to February. January and February are the coldest months. The winds blow from the land. Hence, the atmosphere remains dry. Temperature remains around 10°-15°C in the northern part and around 25°C in the southern part. Sometimes, shallow cyclonic disturbances may be caused due to western disturbances. This may cause little rainfall which is beneficial for wheat cultivation in north-west India.

Question 3.
Describe the hot season in India ?
Answer:
The hot season prevails in India from March to May. In May, the average temperature reaches about 44°C in Jaisalmer, 41°C in Delhi, 35°C in Kolkata. A low pressure zone develops over the Indian desert to the Chotanagpur plateau. Around this low pressure cell, several local winds may set in. Eg- Loo, Andhi, Kalbaisakhi etc. The low pressure cell gradually becomes so intense, that it pulls or attracts the monsoon winds towards the mainland.

Question 4.
Describe the season of the retreating monsoon in India.
Answer:
The retreating of monsoon occurs from October to November. This actually begins to set in by the end of September when the low pressure cell over north western India becomes weak because the direct rays of the sun shift towards the

equator. The direction of the surface winds starts reversing and the monsoon is said to start ‘retreating’. These winds are also called North-east monsoon winds.

Question 5.
Why does Tamil Nadu receive rainfall twice a year?
Answer:
During summer, when an intense low pressure cell is developed over north-west India, the south-west monsoon wind is attracted towards the land. These winds generate over the Indian ocean and hence are moisture laden. As they enter the mainland, they cause rainfall to the Coromondal coast of Tamil Nadu.

During winter, when the low pressure cell of the land gets weakened, the wind blows in the reverse direction. These are dry winds blowing outward from the land, hence cause almost no rainfall. But a small branch of the retreating monsoons blow over the Bay of Bengal and re-enter the land. This portion of the wind is moisture laden and hence causes rainfall in Tamil Nadu before finally leaving the country. Thus Tamil Nadu receives rainfall twice a year.

Question 6.
Discuss the effect of mountains on the climate of India.
Answer:
The mountains that influence the climate of India are:
i. Himalayan range : The Himalaya prevents the chilled Siberian wind from entering the country from the north. It also stops the south-west monsoon wind from escaping outside the country. It helps the monsoon wind to cause orographic rainfall.
ii. Western Ghats : The western slopes of the Western Ghats receive much rainfall from the Arabian Sea branch of the monsoon wind. The eastern slope is a rain shadow area.
iii. Eastern Ghats : The retreating monsoon hits against the mountains and cause rainfall in the Coromondal coast in winter.
iv. Aravalli range : They lie parallel to the direction of the south-west monsoon, and fail to stop the moisture laden wind. The eastern slopes receive little rainfall but the western slope is almost dry.

Question 7.
How does the presence of oceans on three sides of India influence the climate?
Answer:

1. The climate of South India is more or less moderate due to influence of the sea breeze and land breeze.
2. The south-west monsoon wind collects enough moisture while blowing over the oceans and causes rainfall in India.
3. Cyclones generated in coastal areas cause storms and rainfall.

Question 8.
Why is India called a tropical monsoon country ?
Answer:
The climate of India is highly controlled by the south-west and north-east monsoons. About 90% rainfall occurs due to the south-west monsoon. The north-east monsoon keeps the season dry. The economy of India is much dependent on the onset of the monsoon winds. Thus, India is called a tropical monsoon country.

Question 9.
Why does the western part of India receive lesser rainfall than the eastern part?
Answer:
The Bay of Bengal branch of the south-west monsoon enters India from the eastern side, causes much rainfall in the Terai-Duars region and the north-eastern states and gradually move westwards. As they move, they shed water and by the time they reach the western side they have no moisture left. Again, the Arabian Sea branch of the monsoon wind that enters India from the west, passes over the western region as the Aravalli fails to stop the moisture laden winds. Thus, the western part of India receives lesser rainfall than the eastern part.

Answer in details : 5 Marks

Question 1.
Discuss the factors affecting climate of India.
Answer:
The factors that affect the climate of India are as follows:
i. Latitude : India lies between 8°4′ N and 39° 6′ N latitudes. The tropic of Cancer runs through the middle of the country dividing the land into two distinct temperature zones. The southern part belongs to the Torrid zone and the northern part belongs to the Temperate zone.

ii. Relief : Temperature is inversely proportional to altitude. Hence, high relief regions have cooler climate compared to lower regions. Eg- some regions of Deccan plateau enjoy cool summers due to altitude, inspite of being nearer to the equator than the northern plains. The coastal regions enjoy an equable climate throughout the year.

iii. The Hinalavas. The lofty Himalayas act as a barrier to the severely cold polar winds that come from the north, thus saving the country from chilling winters. It also prevents the monsoon winds from escaping northwards, thus ensuring monsoon rainfall in India.

iv. Distance from the rightarrow a : The regions near the long coastline of India enjoy maritime or moderate climate throughout the year due to the influence of the sea. Regions lying far away from the sea experience extreme or continental climate with harsh summers and winters.

v. Winds : India lies under the prevailing north-eastern trade winds. Due to inequal heating of land and sea in different seasons, section of the wind blow seasonally from opposite directions. These are called the monsoon winds. They have a remarkable impact on Indian climate and economy.

vi. Western disturbance: In winter, some cyclones of the Mediterranean region, called western disturbances, enter India causing a little rainfall in the north.

vii. stream : This is a thin stream of speedy winds (350-450 km/hr) blowing from west to east between the Troposphere and Stratosphere. These winds influence the onset and retreat of monsoons in India.

viii. F-Nino and La-Nina : El- Nino is associated with high pressure in western Pacific Ocean and low pressure in the eastern part. Warm ocean currents develop in eastern and central Pacific Ocean which influence the temperature and rainfall of the associated regions. La-Nina is just the reverse phenomena, resulting in sustained cooling of the same regions. They both have an impact on onset of monsoons in India and the moisture content of the winds.

Question 2.
Describe the monsoon in India.
Answer:
The monsoon prevails in India from June to September. In June, the sun shines directly on the Tropic of Cancer. The landmass gets highly heated and develops a low pressure cell in the north-western region. This low pressure cell attracts winds from oceanic high pressure regions and even the South-East Trade winds from south of the Equator. These winds are warm and carry enough moisture. They advance towards the landmass with furious speed and violent thunder and lightning. This is called the ‘Burst of Monsoon’.
On reaching the Indian sub-continent, the monsoon winds are divided into two

branches – The Bay of Bengal branch and the Arabian sea branch. The Arabian sea branch hits the western slopes of the Western ghats and causes immense rainfall. The Deccan plateau and the Eastern ghats lie in the rainshadow area and receive lesser rainfall. The Bay of Bengal branch strikes against the Himalayas and causes heavy rainfall in the north-eastern and eastern states. Mawsynram near Cherrapunji in Meghalaya receive the maximum rainfall in the world. Amount of rainfall recedes or reduces from east to west.

Question 3.
Discuss the impacts of monsoon winds on India.
Answer:
The monsoon winds have a great impact on the climate, vegetation, agriculture, soil, economy and daily life of India. They can be discussed as follows –

1. Most rainfall in India occurs in summer due to the south-west monsoon winds.
2. In winter, the retreating monsoon winds blow from land to sea, causing rainfall only to the Coromondal coast in the south-east.
3. The crop calendar of India depends on the monsoons.
4. Immense rainfall in some regions (Eg- foothills of Himalayas, western slope of Western ghats) bring about lush green vegetation, whereas, lack to rainfall makes the western part a desert.
5. Irregular rainfall may cause floods, droughts and result in crop failure.
6. The quality of soil, its structure, texture, water holding capacity etc. are also influenced by the presence of water in it.
7. Monsoon influences almost all economic activities in India. Eg-mining, fishing, industries, tourism etc.
8. The Gross Domestic Product of India, of which 14% comes from agriculture, is highly influenced by the monsoons.

Question 4.
Discuss the climatic characteristics of India.
Answer:

India is basically a tropical monsoon climatic country. The Meteorological Department of India identifies four seasons that prevail in the country.

i. The cold season or winter (December to February) : January and February are the coolest months in India. Temperature varies between 10°C-15°C in the northern parts and about 25°C in southern part of India. The winds generally dry as they blow from land towards the sea. In the north-western part, a series of shallow cyclones caused by western disturbances cause little rainfall. Such winter rainfall is beneficial for wheat cultivation in the north-western regions.

ii. The hot season or summer (March to May) : This period is marked by the shifting of heat zone from south to north. May is the hottest month, when average day time temperature

reaches 44°C in Jaisalmer, 41°C in Delhi, 35°C in Kolkata etc. A low pressure zone extends from the Indian desert upto the Chotanagpur plateau. Local hot dusty wind like Loo and Andhi are common in the north western regions. Gusty cyclonic winds called Kalbaishakhi is experienced in eastern coastal areas, which brings in torrential rainfalls.

iii. The South-West monsoon season (June to September) : The low pressure created on the landmass during summer helps to drag the

monsoon wind from the adjoining oceans. This wind is warm and moist and approaches towards the land with furious thunder and lightning. On reaching the land, they are divided into the Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea branches. Most of the rainfall in India occurs due to the southwest monsoons. Mawsynram near Cherrapunji in Meghalaya is the wettest place of the world (1142 cm rainfall).

iv. The north-west monsoon or Retreating monsoon season (October to November) : This season begins from the end of September when the monsoonal low pressure becomes weak as the direct sunrays shift from the tropical region back southwards. The wind reverses and starts flowing out from land to sea. As the wind leaves the mainland, it causes the formation of small cyclones locally known as ‘Aswiner Jhar’ or the storms of autumn. It brings in some amount of rainfall.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Which of the following does not have influence over the climate in India?
(A) Nearness to equator
(B) Presence of Indian Ocean
(C) Monsoons
(D) Ocean currents
Answer:
(D) Ocean currents

Question 2.
The place in India receiving the lowest rainfall is :
(A) Leh
(B) Jaisalmer
(C) Bikaner
(D) Jodhpur
Answer:
(A) Leh

Question 3.
The western disturbances which cause winter rain in India originate in
(A) Pakistan
(B) Bay of Bengal
(C) West Asia
(D) Himalayas
Answer:
(C) West Asia

Question 4.
How do the ‘western disturbances’ affect the crops in north India?
(A) They cause heavy damage to the standing crops
(B) They bring in locusts which destroy the crops
(C) They are beneficial to the crops by causing winter rain
(D) They help in keeping the plants warm to some extent in winter
Answer:
(C) They are beneficial to the crops by causing winter rain

Question 5.
How do the Central Asian highlands affect the Indian climate?
(A) The low pressure in these areas intensifies the cold during the winter
(B) The atmospheric pressure in this region has an effect on the Indian atmosphere in summer
(C) Dry continental air is blowing towards India throughout
(D) The atmospheric pressure in this region has an impact on the onset of monsoon in India
Answer:
(D) The atmospheric pressure in this region has an impact on the onset of monsoon in India

Question 6.
Which of the following regions has the minimum seasonal variations in temperature?
(A) The Shillong Plateau
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) The Kerala coast
(D) The entire peninsula
Answer:
(C) The Kerala coast

Question 7.
The wettest place found in the north-east of India is …
(A) Mawsynram
(B) Jacobabad
(C) Cherrapunji
(D) Kohima
Answer:
(A) Mawsynram

Question 8.
The place that gets rainfall from the western disturbances is …
(A) Agra
(B) Ahmedabad
(C) Mumbai
(D) Srinagar
Answer:
(D) Srinagar

Question 9.
The place which has the lowest mean temperature in January is …
(A) Kolkata
(B) Patna
(C) Lucknow
(D) Srinagar
Answer:
(D) Srinagar

Question 10.
The hottest month in Mumbai is
(A) July
(B) April
(C) May
(D) June
Answer:
(C) May

Question 11.
Tamil Nadu gets most of its rainfall in the months of …
(A) May-June
(B) March-April
(C) July-August
(D) October-November
Answer:
(D) October-November

Question 12.
During ……. difference in air pressure arises between large land masses of Asia and Indian Ocean in the South.
(A) Rainy
(B) Winter
(C) Summer
(D) Autumn
Answer:
(C) Summer

Question 13.
The monsoon winds have a effect on Indian climate.
(A) Disturbing
(B) Unifying
(C) Mystifying
(D) None
Answer:
(B) Unifying

Question 14.
Warm and moist winds blow from the oceans during …. and dry winds blow during winter.
(A) Summer
(B) Winter
(C) Hot
(D) Autumn
Answer:
(A) Summer

Question 15.
Western disturbances bring rainfall that promote cultivation of
(A) Wheat
(B) Ragi
(C) Rice
(D) Jute
Answer:
(A) Wheat

Question 16.
During the hot dry season, the low pressure trough extends from ____________ to the Chotanagpur plateau in the east.
(A) Deccan
(B) Malwa
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Ladakh
Answer:
(C) Rajasthan

Question 17.
The peninsular shape and the of the country modify the direction of wind approaching into India.
(A) Crops
(B) Lakes
(C) Relief
(D) Rivers
Answer:
(C) Relief

Question 18.
Bay of Bengal branch blows roughly parallel to the coast and Eastern Ghats.
(A) Konkan
(B) West
(C) Malabar
(D) Eastern
Answer:
(D) Eastern

Question 19.
Owing to rainfall and cloudiness, here is a fall in during the advancing Monsoon Season.
(A) Weather
(B) Pressure
(C) Temperature
(D) Seismisity
Answer:
(C) Temperature

Question 20.
Cool weather sets in by ________ in India.
(A) December
(B) October
(C) November
(D) September
Answer:
(A) December

Question 21.
In June the slopes of the Western Ghats receive heavy rainfall.
(A) Northern
(B) Eastern
(C) Western
(D) South-eastern
Answer:
(C) Western

Question 22.
The state of Assam falls in the region.
(A) Low rainfall
(B) Heavy rainfall
(C) Moderate rainfall
(D) Very heavy rainfall
Answer:
(B) Heavy rainfall

Question 23.
Monsoons are winds.
(A) Local
(B) Seasonal
(C) Permanent
(D) Temporary
Answer:
(B) Seasonal

Question 24.
Tropical cyclones in the Bay of Bengal are most frequent during
(A) March-April
(B) October-November
(C) May-June
(D) January-February
Answer:
(B) October-November

Question 25.
India lies to the north and south of the ….
(A) Arctic circle
(B) Tropic of Cancer
(C) Equator
(D) Tropic of Capricorn
Answer:
(B) Tropic of Cancer

Question 26.
The maximum rainfall area of India, i.e., Meghalaya has average annual rainfall of –
(A) 1050 cm
(B) 795 cm
(C) 1150 cm
(D) 1000 cm
Answer:
(A) 1050 cm

Question 27.
Driest areas of India which lie in Rajasthan have an average annual rainfall of –
(A) 100 cm
(B) 20 cm
(C) 10 cm
(D) Less than 1 cm
Answer:
(D) Less than 1 cm

Question 28.
In which region of India does monsoon type with cold humid winter and short summer prevail ?
(A) Kashmir
(B) South India coast of the Western Ghats
(C) North-East India
(D) The Central Indian Plateau
Answer:
(C) North-East India

Question 29.
Which of the following statements about the Indian monsoon is incorrect?
(A) South-West monsoon arc on-shore winds
(B) North-East monsoon arc off-shore winds
(C) The monsoon retreat gradually
(D) The onset of the monsoon is from West Bengal only
Answer:
(D) The onset of the monsoon is from West Bengal only

Question 30.
Which of the following does not get rains from the Arabian Sea current alone during the South-West monsoon?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Punjab
(D) Western Ghats
Answer:
(C) Punjab

Question 31.
The amount and intensity of monsoon rainfall is determined by the frequency of
(A) Western disturbances
(B) Dust-storms
(C) Cyclones
(D) Tropical depressions
Answer:
(D) Tropical depressions

Question 32.
One of the regions that receives rainfall from the North-easterly monsoon is
(A) Assam
(B) Kerala
(C) West Bengal
(D) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(D) Tamil Nadu

Question 33.
The retreating South-West monsoon does not affect
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Odisha
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(D) Uttar Pradesh

Question 34.
Rajasthan receives very little rain because
(A) It is too hot
(B) There is no water available and thus the winds remain dry
(C) The monsoon fail to reach this area
(D) The winds do not come across any barrier to cause the necessary uplift to cool the winds
Answer:
(D) The winds do not come across any barrier to cause the necessary uplift to cool the winds

Question 35.
Which time of the day is generally the hottest period all over India?
(A) Noon
(B) 1 p.m.
(C) 2 p.m.
(D) One cannot say
Answer:
(C) 2 p.m.

Question 36.
The retreating monsoon withdraws itself from
(A) The west coast to the east coast
(B) North-East India to the west coast
(C) The north to the south
(D) North-West India to Bengal and then to Kerala
Answer:
(D) North-West India to Bengal and then to Kerala

Question 37.
How do dust storms in summer affect the temperature?
(A) Increase it
(B) Decrease it
(C) No effect
(D) Cannot say
Answer:
(B) Decrease it

Question 38.
At which place will you find maximum sunlight in December?
(A) Kanya Kumari
(B) Pune
(C) Calcutta
(D) Leh
Answer:
(A) Kanya Kumari

Question 39.
There is heavy rainfall on the western coast of India but very little in the Deccan because ..
(A) The Deccan plateau is situated in the rain shadow of the Western Ghats
(B) The region is bypassed by the South-West monsoons
(C) Lack of high mountains in the Deccan
(D) Of some unknown reasons
Answer:
(A) The Deccan plateau is situated in the rain shadow of the Western Ghats

Question 40.
In winter, Punjab gets rainfall from –
(A) North-eastern trade winds
(B) South-west monsoons
(C) Cydones coming from the Mediterranean sea
(D) Retreating monsoon
Answer:
(C) Cydones coming from the Mediterranean sea

Question 41.
Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
(A) Mango-shower-Kerala
(B) Kalbaisakhi – West Bengal
(C) Norwester – Maharashtra
(D) Loo-Haryana and Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(C) Norwester – Maharashtra

Question 42.
Which of the following places receives maximum sunlight in December?
(A) Shillong
(B) Ranchi
(C) Kanyakumari
(D) Jodhpur
Answer:
(C) Kanyakumari

Question 43.
In which season is the frequency of tropica cyclones in the Bay of Bengal maximum?
(A) During monsoon
(B) After summer
(C) During winter
(D) During autumn
Answer:
(C) During winter

Question 44.
The retreating monsoon has maximum effect on-
(A) Orissa
(B) West Bengal
(C) Punjab
(D) Tamilnadu
Answer:
(D) Tamilnadu

Question 45.
The easterly depressions develop over the
(A) Rann of Kachch
(B) Bay of Bengal
(C) Indian Ocean
(D) Gulf of Cambay
Answer:
(B) Bay of Bengal

Question 46.
If a strong anticyclone develops on the Southern arc of the Arabian sea, it will
(A) Cause premature coming of monsoon
(B) Delay the monsoon
(C) Have no effect on monsoon
(D) Hamper the monsoon
Answer:
(B) Delay the monsoon

Question 47.
The coldest inhabited place ranking second in the world is
(A) Kullu (Himachal Pradesh)
(B) Manali (Himachal Pradesh)
(C) Itanagar (Arunachal Pradesh)
(D) Dras (Jammu & Kashmir)
Answer:
(D) Dras (Jammu & Kashmir)

Question 48.
Dust storms in the northem parts of Thar desert occur more frequently in
(A) April
(B) May
(C) March
(D) June
Answer:
(D) June

Question 49.
South-east trades cross the equator and reach the West coast of India as
(A) South-East trades
(B) South-West monsoons
(C) North-West tradess
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) South-West monsoons

Question 50.
The easterly jet stream owes its origin to the
(A) Summer heating of the Arabian sea
(B) Summer heating of the Thar desert
(C) Summer heating of the Himalayan and Tibetan highlands
(D) Summer heating of the Arakan Yoma extension.
Answer:
(C) Summer heating of the Himalayan and Tibetan highlands

Fill in the blanks : 1 Mark

1. The western coast of India is warmer than the eastern coast by about ______ in winter season.
2. The normal date of the onset of the monsoon in Andaman and Nicobar islands is ______.
3. ______ is the hottest month in Srinagar and Shillong.
4. The norwesters (Kalbaisakhi of West Bengal) originate over the ______ plateau.
5. The thunderstorms and rains in the premonsoon time is known as ‘cherry blossoms’ in ______ state.
Answer:
1. 1.7°C
2. 20 may
3. July
4. Chotanagpur
5. Karnataka

Match the following : 1 Mark

List I (Rivers)	List II (Tributaries)
A. Asvina-Kartika	1. July-August
B. Jyestha-Asdha	2. November-December
C. Sravana-Bhadra	3. May-June
D. Margashirsha-Pausa	4. September-October

Answer:

List I (Rivers)	List II (Tributaries)
A. Asvina-Kartika	4. September-October
B. Jyestha-Asdha	3. May-June
C. Sravana-Bhadra	1. July-August
D. Margashirsha-Pausa	2. November-December

Answer in few words : 1 Mark

Question 1.
What is the general climate of India called?
Answer:
Tropical monsoon climate.

Question 2.
What is the relation between altitude and temperature?
Answer:
Temperature reduces by 6.4°C for every 1000 m rise in altitude.

Question 3.
What kind of climate is experienced by places near seas ?
Answer:
Moderate or Maritime climate.

Question 4.
What kind of climate is experienced by places far away from seas ?
Answer:
Extreme or continental climate.

Question 5.
Which planetary winds are associated with the monsoon winds?
Answer:
North-Eastern Trade winds.

Question 6.
Between which layers of the atmosphere does the Jet stream flow ?
Answer:
Between the Troposphere and Stratosphere.

Question 7.
Which months of the year comprise winter season in India ?
Answer:
December to February.

Question 8.
Which months comprise the summer season in India ?
Answer:
March to May.

Question 9.
Which months comprise the monsoon season in India ?
Answer:
June to September.

Question 10.
When does the monsoon winds retreat?
Answer:
October-November.

Question 11.
What is the major factor that controls the crop calendar in India ?
Answer:
The monsoon wind.

Question 12.
Which is the driest part of India?
Answer:
The western part of Rajasthan.

Question 13.
Which is the wettest part of India ?
Answer:
Mawsynram near Cherrapunji in Meghalaya in the east.

Question 14.
Which part of India receives rainfall twice a year?
Answer:
The South-Eastern coast or the Coromondal coast in coastal Tamil Nadu.

Question 15.
What are the cyclonic storms caused in summer in eastern coast called?
Answer:
‘Kalbaisakhi’ or Norwesters.