Class 8

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 8 History Book Solutions Chapter 5 Reaction of Colonial Rule: Co-operation and Revolt offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 8 History Chapter 5 Question Answer – Reaction of Colonial Rule: Co-operation and Revolt

Thinak and Find –

1. Match column A with B

Column A	Column B
Hindu Pattriot	Last Mughal Emperor
Bahadur Shah Zafar	Movement against Sati
Raja Rammohan Ray	Brahmo Samaj
Bijay Krishna Goswami	Sidhu and Kanhu
Santhal Rebellion	Indigo Rebellion

Answer:

Column A	Column B
Hindu Pattriot	Indigo Rebellion
Bahadur Shah Zafar	Last Mughal Emperor
Raja Rammohan Ray	Movement against Sali
Bijay Krishna Goswami	Brahmo Samaj
Santhal Rebellion	Sidhu and Kanhu

2. Find the odd one out

a. Pandita Ramabai, Begum Rokeya, Sakhawat Hossain, Sister Subhalaxmi, Rani Laxmibai.
Answer:
Rani Laxmibai.

b. Atmaram Pandurang, Mahadev Govinda Ranade, Jotirao Fhule, Birshalíngam Pantulu.
Answer:
Birshalingam Panthlu.

c. Rammohon Ray, Devendranath Tagore, Keshab Chandra Sen, Dayananda Sarawati. is
Answer:
Dayananda Sarawati.

d. Bahadur Shah Zafar, Nana Saheb, Titumir, Mangal Pandey
Answer:
Titumir.

3. Answer briefly (30-40 words)

Question a.
Who are called ‘middle class’ in colonial India?
Answer:
Those people who are placed at the inter mediate stage of fenancial solvency became to be known as ‘middle class’. In Bretish India the middle class people coming from the upper class segment of the Hindu Community were called Bhadralok. Exposure to western education produced this new educated middle class to initiate social reforms.

Question b.
Against which social customs did the young Bengal group protest?
Answer:
The young Bengal Gruup considered the old social customs and superstitions were not sustainable by judicious reasoning. They opposed such superstitions and customs. The yound students who raised thier voice against the old customs and determined to change the society were called ‘Young Bengal.’ Henry Louis Vivian Derozio, the teacher of Hindu College, inspired them for free thinking. He set up the Academic Accosiation and opposed the existing caste system, child marriage, polygamy etc.

Question c.
What was the aim of the reforms of Sir Syed Ahmed?
Answer:
Sir Syed Ahmed realised that the causes of the back’sardness of Muslim society were be religious regidity and the hatred towards Western edrcation. Without Western education the muslims never could occupy the equal position with Hindus nd n…., indus would enjo the facilities of British rule. Therefore he gave effort to reform the Muslim Society and spread Weste…. Antion among them.

Question d.
Against whom did Titumir revolt?
Answer:
At Narkelberia village of Barasat Mir Nishar Ali or Titumir constructed a bamboo fort and started a movement against local landlords, Indigo plants and also the British require. The bamboo fort is the symbol of his revolt.

4. Write in your own words (120-160 words)

Question a.
Analyse the main similarities between the movements against the practice of Sati and movement for Widow Remarriage. What steps did Vidyasagar initiate for education of women?
Answer:
The abolishing of Sati custom and the widow remarriage both were social reforms. The tremendors system of Sati custom which encouraged the widow women to die with her dead husband and to burn her in pyre, prevailed our Bengal in nineteenth Century. Raja Rammohan started his reform movements against ‘Sati’ custom. Taking examples from diferent Hindu siripture he proved that the ‘Sati’ custom was not mentioned in any Hindu regious book or scripture. He oppoosed the ruthless custom in his book ‘Prabartak-ONibortak-er Sambad. Due to the influnce of his movement ‘Sati’ custom was prohibited by introducing an Act in 1829. But the inhuman practice did not stop altogether.

Similarly in the middle of the nineteenth century Iswar Chandra Vidyasagar organised a movement for remarriage of widows. He published a booklet with reasoning in favour of the remarriage and wrote essay in different magazines. He collected the signatures of the mass and appealed to the government. He had to face a great difficult situation for the orthodox head of the society. But for his strict persofility and determination all obstruction was removed. Hindu widosv remarriage Act was introduced in 1856 by Lord Canning. Widow re-marriages were arranged through his personal eccorts but it did not gain any popularity at all among various section of the society.

Vidyasagar played an important role in the spreading of women education. He established a large number of school for girls in different parts of Bengal and encouraged women for education.

Question b.
What was the main aim oi the Brahmo Movement? Analyse the limitations of the Brahmo movement.
Answer:
Rammohan Roy established Atmiya Sabha in 1815 for social reformation, in 1828 Bramho Samaj organised from Atmiya Sabha. When Rammohan went to abroad Debendranath Tagore took the charge of Brahmo Samaj. He founded Tatwabodhini Sabha and published ‘Tatwabodhini Patrika.’ These became the arms of reformation movement. In 1853 Keshab Chandra Sen took the responsiliting of Brahmo Samaj. But Brahmo Samaj was divided into two because of the different views of these two leadens.

In case of social, religious and educational reformation Brahmo Samaj started a new era. It played an important role in national movement and social service. Brahmo Samaj faught against polygamy, dowry system, child marriage and in favour of remarriage of widow, spreading of women education etc. The Brahmo movement spered over the districts from the educated society in Calcutta.

The movement was confined in the elite classes of the society. The liberal outlook of Brahmo could not move the common people. Brahmo movement did not spread in rural areas due to its limitaion of power. But orthodex, superstitious people were not mentally prepared to welcome their idea.

Question c.
Make a comperative analysis of the ‘Santhal Rebllion’ and Indigo Reblellion. What was the role of Hindu Patiot in both cases?
Answer:
‘Santhal Rebellion’ was one of the most important revolt against the exploitation of colonial rule, money leader, Zamindar, Izaradar etc. The Santhals started farming after clearing the forest and stones of forest of hilly area. They thought that as they turned the land which was unfit for farming into agricultural land, they were the real owner of the land. But the Government introduced permanent settlement system in their land and imposed revenue. They were compelled to pay tax. The zamindar forced them to work without any wages. The staffs of the zamindar deprived them in many ways. For these reasons the Santhals revolted.

The Indigo rebellion was also occured for protesting against the colonial government, money lenders, indigo planters. They forced the farmers to take loan and to cultivate indigo and for this purpose they tortured them, harassed them. If they became disagree even they were killed. The grudge of the peasant increased in proportion with to return. The paddy or tobacco fields were used for indigo plantation. As the result the production of rice decreased. The income of the peasant became less. They appealed to the court for just but all in vien. They were more tortured for that.

The educated Bengalee expressed their views against the Santhal rebellion but Harish Chandra Mukhapadhya, the editor of the ‘Hindui Patriot, published the causes behind the Santhal rebellion in his paper. He demanded punishment for those who led the santthal into rebellion. He wrote essys against the indigo planter and in favour of the peasants in his paper. He mentioned that the indigo farmers became loser than to be gained.

Question d.
Do you think the Rovolt of 1857 was merely a ‘Sepoy Mutiny’? Give reasons for your answer:
Answer:
The revolt of 1857 was merely a Sepoy ‘Mutiny’. It is because they played leading role in this revolt. There was the lack of complete plan. This revolt did not spread all over India and the people of all classes did not join in this revolt. On the other hand the Sepoys dischared Bahadur Sah as the emperor of India but he was not loyal to the object of the revolt. All kings and rulers did not get involved in the revolution. The rulers who joined in this revolt were busy to fulfill their selfinterest.

Inspite of above all it is noted that at first the revolt was limited to the sepoy only but later it gradually transferred itself into a ‘national revolution’. A great part of Indian mass participated in the revolt. The people of different religions, casts, creed, clases joined in this movement. In some part of India like Madhya Pradesh, Delhi, Ayodhya, the revolt assumed the shape of national movement. Some places became free from British rule for some days. So it can not be said the Revolt of 1857 was merely a Sepoy Mutiny.

5. Imagine and write ( 200 words)

Question a.
Imagine you have met Rammmohan Roy and Iswarchandra Vidyasagar. Write an imaginary dialogue between them and yourself on abolition of Sati and introduction of widow remarriage.
Answer:
Conversation with Rommohan-
I : What a good luck, here is you. I have just read your essay on ‘Sati’- “Prabartak-ONibartak-er Sambad.” I like it very much. You with the help of defferent Hindu Sastra you have proved that the custom of ‘Sati’ is not mentioned anywhere.
Rammohan : To turn to death the helpless women for the shake of religion is nothing but a banbarism. I want to stop the custom for ever.
I : Some orthodex, superstitious people now opposing you. But Some people want to eradicate this custom.
Rammohan : I shall make the people to express their views against it. I will not take rest untill the custom will be aboslished.
I: Is it true that you are trying to pass a law about this matter?
Rammohan : Right, I have already discussed with Lord Bentink about the abolition of Sati.
I: Are you hopeful about this matter?
Rammohan : The Govorment is thinking about this matter. An act will be introduced very soon.
I : It will be very good then.

Conversation with Vidyasagar :

I : How lucky I am to meet you! You are so great scholar and social reformer. The way by which you are trying to enact a law conferring of remarriage of the widows. The reasonings which you show in your essay tilled ‘Bidhoba Bibaho’ in favour of widow re-marriage, can not the denyed.
Vidyasagar : But this is not the last word, the people have to receive it by heart. Most of the people admit the reasoning but they have lack of courage.
I : It is a very old custom. But you will the successful surely.
Vidyasagar : This is the greatest work of my life. I will not stop without achieving sucess.
I : Is it true that you are trying to pass a law about it?
Vidyasagar-Right : I have demanded to the Government to enact a law over the widow remarriage. They have advised my reasoning and thinking about the law.
I : I know you will be successful. The way through which you are struggling can never be failed.
Vidyasagar : I hope Lord canning will introduced an act very soon.
I : It will be very good them.

Question b.
Imagine you are a journalist. You have gained experience and knowledge about the revolt of 1857 by visiting different places of India during the Revolt. Write a newspaper report based on your experience.
Answer:
Calcutta, February 1859. The revolt that was started by Mangal Pandey in the Barrackpore Cantonment towords the end of March in 1857 have spread out all over India. The revolt has influenced greatly on some places and in other places its influence is less. In Madhya Pradesh, Delhi and Oudh this movement has turned into national revolution. In some places the British has lost their control for few days. But South India remains free from the influence of the revolt. Some parts of North India like Bengal, Punjab, Rajasthan are also free from the impact of the revolt.

At first it was merely a revolt of Sepays, but it Gradually transform into national movement. A large part of Indian people has taken part in this movement. Different people irespective of cast, creed, religion have joined in this rebellion. The British has adopted extremely repressive means to suppress the revolt. The British army recaptuned Delhi by the end of September. They have insprisoned Mughal emperor Bahadur Shah and banished him to Rangoon. Insprite of all these efforts the revolt could not be stopped. The rebels have no enough resources of man power. There are lack of arms and the means of communication are weak. it is an uneqal war.

Class 8 History Chapter 5 Question Answer West Bengal Board – Reaction of Colonial Rule: Co-operation and Revolt

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers :

Question 1.
In British India, the middle class people covering from the upper cast segment of the Hindu community were called-
i) Sabhyalok
ii) Bhadralok
iii) Mahajan
Answer:
ii) Bhadralok.

Question 2.
The newspaper Samachar Darpan was-
i) monthly
ii) daily
iii) weekly
iv) yearly
Answer:
iv) Weekly.

Question 3.
Under the editership of Marshman the Bengali monthly news paper-
i) Bengal garet
ii) Digdarshan
iii) Hindu Pattriot
Answer:
ii) Digdarshan

Question 4.
To abolish the Sati custom a strong defence was put by-
i) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar
ii) Kesob sen
iii) Rammohan Roy
iv) Debendranath Tagore
Answer:
iii) Rammohan Roy.

Question 5.
Pandita Rama Bai, came off a Brahmin family, overcoming all social obstacles she marricd a-
i) Brahmin
ii) Kshatriya
iii) Sudra
Answer:
iii) Sudra.

Question 6.
Atmiya Sabha was established by-
i) Kesab Chandra Sen
ii) Rammohan Roy
iii) Dayanand Saraswati
iv) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar
Answer:
ii) Rammohan Roy.

Question 7.
In Santhal rebellion an important role was played by-
i) Sidhu
ii) Mangal Pandey
iii) Mir Nisar Ali
Answer:
i) Sidhu.

Question 8.
Dinabandhu Mitra published the opperasive acts of Indigo planters in his drama-
i) Neel Kahin
iii) Neel Bedroho
iii) Neel Darpan
iv) Neel Planter
Answer:
iii) Neel Darpan.

Question 9.
The proclamation of queen Victoria was decleared on-
i) 5th November
ii) 10th November
iii) 30th November
iv) 1st November
Answer:
iv) 1st November.

State whether True or False :

1. Drowning girl child in the Ganga could be abolished by law.
Answer:
False

2. Lord Wellesley founded ‘Sati’ custom by law.
Answer:
False.

3. Vidyasagar established several girls’ school with his own money.
Answer:
True.

4. Vivekananda belived in the independence of women.
Answer:
True.

5. All of the Muslim society could not accept the reforms of Sayed Ahamed.
Answer:
True.

6. After Indigo rebellion Indigo commission was set up by Government.
Answer:
True.

7. Only the Muslim stedents studied in Aligarh Anglo-Oriental College.
Answer:
False.

8. Sepoy mutiny was known as great revolution.
Answer:
True.

9. Bishnu Charan biswas was a leader of Santhal rebellion.
Answer:
False.

10. Wahabi movement was originated in India.
Answer:
False.

11. Christian Missionary James long was sympathetic to the Indigo uprising.
Answer:
True.

12. Tho:tsands of Santhals inclufing Sidhu and Kanhu were killed.
Answer:
True.

13. The European civilians forcefully engaged the Santhals for lying railway tracks.
Answer:
True.

14. Mohameddan Literery Society was established in Nombay in 1860.
Answer:
False.

Fill in the blanks :

1. James Angustus Hickey first published a weekly magazine named _____.
Answer:
Bengal Gazette.

2. The founder of Academic Association is _____.
Answer:
Derozio.

3. The name of the wife of Jyotiva Phule is _____.
Answer:
Sabitri Debi.

4. Arya Samaj was popular in _____ and North West India.
Answer:
Pujab.

5. In the second half of nineteenth Century various _______ also started in Muslim Society.
Answer:
Reformed process.

6. Among the differnt tribal movement _______ rebellion was the most significant.
Answer:
Santhal.

7. Wahabi movement sstarted under the guidence of ______ in the Narkelberia area of Barasat.
Answer:
Titumir.

8. Bishnu Charan Biswas and ____ were the two leaders of Indigo Rebellion.
Answer:
Digamber Biswas.

9. Most of the sepoys of the Bengal army hailed from _____.
Answer:
Awadh.

10. No single reason can be cited for the _______ of 1857.
Answer:
revolt.

11. Due to the impact of the revolt of 1857, the rule of English East India Company in India came to an _____.
Answer:
end.

12. With effect from 1st November 1859, the government of India Act came into _____.
Answer:
force.

13. When the revolution was in full swing, unity between the Hindus and Muslims remained _____.
Answer:
Unaffected.

Match column A with B

A	B
Drowning the girl child into the Ganga	1856
Lord Bentick	Parthana Samaj of Bombey
Remarriage of the widow Act	Satyasadhak Samaj
Henry Louis Vivian Derozio	Jaliya fair
Assistant inspector of school	Forbidding the satisfaction
Atmaram Pandurang	Lord Wellesley
Jyotiva Phule	Swami Vivekananda
Naba Gopal Mitra	Chand, Bhairab
Religious conference in Chicago	The teacher of Hindu college
Aligarh movement	Iswarchandra Vidyasagar
Santhal Rebellion	Mopals revolt
South India	National Revolution
Karl Marx	Sayed Ahmed

Answer:

A	B
Drowning the girl child into the Ganga	Lord Wellesley
Lord Bentick	Forbidding the satisfaction
Remarriage of the widow Act	1856
Henry Louis Vivian Derozio	The teacher of Hindu college
Assistant inspector of school	Iswarchandra Vidyasagar
Atmaram Pandurang	Parthana Samaj of Bombey
Jyotiva Phule	Satyasadhak Samaj
Naba Gopal Mitra	Jaliya fair
Religious conference in Chicago	Swami Vivekananda
Aligarh movement	Sayed Ahmed
Santhal Rebellion	Chand, Bhairab
South India	Mopals revolt
Karl Marx	National Revolution

Answer in a sentence :

Question 1.
Who were known as ‘middle class’?
Answer:
Those placed at the immediate stage of financial solvency was known as middle class.

Question 2.
Who forbade Sati custom and when?
Answer:
In 1829 Lord Bentinck forbade Sati custom.

Question 3.
Who wrote “Prabartak-O-Nebartak-er Dwitya Sambad”?
Answer:
Rammohan Roy wrote ‘Prabartak-O-Nebartaker Dwitya Sambad.’

Question 4.
Who enacted a law conferring legality to remarriage of Widow and when?
Answer:
In 1856 Lord Canning creacted a law conferring legality to remariage of widow.

Question 5.
In which college Vidyasagar was a teacher?
Answer:
Vidyasagar was a teacher of Sanskrit College.

Question 6.
In which school Derozio was a tencher?
Answer:
Derozio was a teacher of Hindu college.

Question 7.
What was the full name of Derozio?
Answer:
The full name of Derozio was Henry Luis Vivian Derozio.

Question 8.
What was the name of the institution founded by Derozio?
Answer:
The name of the instiution founded by Derozio is Academic Association.

Question 9.
Name some students of Derozio.
Answer:
The name of some students of Derozio were Ramtanu Lahiri, Parrychand Mitra, Radhanath Sikdar etc.

Question 10.
When was the Prathana Samaj founded at Maharastra?
Answer:
Prarthana Samaj was founded at Maharastra in 1857.

Question 11.
Why were Jyotiva Phule and Sabitri Devi famous in Maharasthra?
Answer:
Jyotirao Phule and Sabitri Devi were famous in Maharashtra for their social reform movements.

Question 12.
Who founded ‘Arya Samaj’ and when?
Answer:
Swami Dayanand Saraswati founded the Arya Samaj in 1857.

Question 13.
Who founded the Jatiya Fair?
Answer:
Nabagopal Mitra founded Jatiya Fair.

Question 14.
What was the name of the disciple of Ramkrishna Paramhansa Dev?
Answer:
The name of the disciple of Ramakrishna Paramhansa Dev was Swami Vivekananda.

Question 15.
When was the Mahamedan Literary Society founded?
Answer:
The Mahamedan Literary Society was founded in 1863.

Question 16.
Under whose leadership Wahabi movement originated?
Answer:
Wahabi movement originated under the leadership of Abdul Wahab.

Question 17.
By whom the Wahabi movement in India was directed?
Answer:
The Wahabi movement in India was directed by Sayed Ahmed.

Question 18.
What was the real name of Titumir?
Answer:
The real name of Titumir was Mir Mesar Ali.

Question 19.
Who built a bamboo fort.
Answer:
Titumir built a bamboo fort.

Question 20.
Name a leader of Santhal Rebellion.
Answer:
A leader of Santhal Rebellion was Sidhu.

Question 21.
When did the Indigo Rubellion took place in Bengal?
Answer:
Indigo Rebellion took place in Bengal in 1859.

Question 22.
Where did Indigo Rebellion start?
Answer:
Indigo Rebullion Started at Chougacha village in Nadia district.

Question 23.
Where did Sepoy Mutiny start?
Answer:
Sepoy Mutiny stantit at Barrakpur.

Question 24.
Who was Rani Lakshmi Bai?
Answer:
Rani Lakshmi Bai was one of a leaders of Sepoy mutiny.

Question 25.
Who was Bahadur Shah?
Answer:
Bahadur Shah was last Mughal Emperor.

Question 26.
Where and when did Bahadur Shah exile?
Answer:
Bahadur Shah was exiled to Rangoon in 29th march, 1858.

Question 27.
Who was the first Viceroy of India?
Answer:
Lord Canning was the first Viceroy of India.

Question 28.
When did the Government of India Act come into force?
Answer:
From 1st November 1859 the Government of India Act came into force.

Answer in brief :

Question 1.
Write a short note on Ramkrishna Parmahansa.
Answer:
The role of Ramkrishna Parmhansa Dev in religious and social reformation is very significant. He was the priest of Dakshineswar temple of goddess Kali. He achieved solvation by adapting different ways of different religion. He opposed all superstition and regidity of religion. His famour teaching was ‘Jata mat tata path.” He gave life in Hindu religion. He created a special favour in the minds of the educated urban class of nineteenth century. The mixture of different religious views were in him.

Question 2.
Write a short note on ‘Young Bengal’.
Answer:
In nineteenth century as the result of spreading Western education a group of youth in Bengal gained a new conciousness by the influence of Western history and philosophy. They revolted against the superstitions and old customs of Hindu religion and society. They were called young Bengal. They express their views aganist various social customs and practices. They all belonged to the rich and elite class. They were inspired by Derozio the teacher of Hindu College in free thinking and reasoning.

In Academic Assotiation founded by Derozio, several discussion and debate took place against the customs of caste system, child marriage, polygamy etc. After the death of Derozio the movement of young Bengal was carried on by his students Parychand Mitra, Radhanath Sikdar, Ramtanu Lahiri etc. They devoted themselves in spreading of modern thinking, scientific knowledge and social reformation. But this movement had no impact on the common people.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Arya Samaj.
Answer:
In 1875 Swami Dayanand Saraswati founded the Arya Samaj. The Arya Samaj played an important role to revive the society and culture. Arya Samaj conducted a mass movement in Punjab, Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra against caste system and idol worship. They were deeply interested in women education. They supported widow remarriage. The main object of Dayananda was to establish Hinduism based on vedas. He adapted ‘Sudhi’ system to turn the non Hindus to Hindu. But after the death of Dayanand the Arya Samaj movement was continued by Lala Hansaraj. Swami Sradhananda, Guru Dutta.

Question 4.
What is Aligarh movement?
Answer:
One of the steps taken by Sir Sayed Ahmed Khan for the development of Muslim Society was the establishment of Anglo Oriental College in 1975. This was the greatest credit of him. Later this college changed into a University. In this College arts, science were taught through the medium of English language. Aligarh movement was organished based on this college. Aligarh movement grew practical couscious among the Muslims. Sayed Ahmed trieded to remove the superstition and ignorance from the Muslims by reasoning. He opposed the polygamy, Talak system and Purda system.

Question 5.
Why is the great revolution called the National Revolution?
Answer:
Several historians called the great revolution as the first Indian Natioanl Revolution. According to Surendranath this revolution first started by the Sepoy but gradually it was transforming itself into a national revolution. A large part of Indian population took part in this revolt. The people of different caste, and religion joined in this revolt. The impact of the rebellion in some places was comparatively more than other places. In Madhya Pradesh, Delhi, Oudh the revolt assumed the shape of national revolution. In some places of India the British rule becase invalid for some days.

Question 6.
What was the direct cause of great revolution.
Answer:
A discontent was accumulated in the Indian Sepoys for various causes. The British sepoy used ill language toward Indian Sepoy. Besides there was discrimination in salary, promotion and other facilities. Mere over the Indian Sepoys were compelled to go any place for war bylaw.

Crossing the sea was against the Hindu custom. In this situation romour went round that the Cartidge of new Enfieid refles had cow and pig fat are mixed in side them. Before inserting in the refle those cartidge had to be nippled open by teech which was not acceptable to the Sepoys. The sepoys considered it was a conspiracy of the company to violate the purity of their caste and religion. They burst into rage and started to revolt.

Answer in details :

Question 1.
Mention the role of Rammohân and Vidyasagar in reformation movement in Bengal.
Answer:
Raj.. Rammoha: Roy was known as the ‘first modern man of India’. He played an active role into abcisit various relogious and social susperstitions. He tried to organise a firm movement against caste system and untouchabelity by estabalishing Atmiya Sabha and Brahmo Samaj. He organised a great movement against Sati custom-burning a newly widow with his dead husband. From the Hindu scriptures he proud that Sati custom was not compulsory. He gave reason in support of abolition of Sati in his book ‘Prabartak-O-Nibortak-er Dwitya Sambad’. For the influence of his m. vement the Sati custom was forbidden in 1829 by law. He fought against Caste system, child marriage, polygamy etc. He was active in case of spreading women education, increasing the prestige of women and the establishing the women right on property.

Vidyasagar fought against social superstitions and religious regidity throughout his life. introducing widow remarriage was a fame of his works. He also fought against child marriage, polygamy. He tried his best to spresd woman education. He established many girls’ school in Kolkata and districts. He wrote many text books.

Question 2.
What is the significance of Indigo Rebellion :
Answer:
Indigo Rebellion was an important point of peasant movement in India. It was a unified movement of different types of peasant. The British company supressed the revolt using extremely respressive means but the confidence of the cultivators could not be broken. Apart from the cultivators the educated middle class people also jained in this movement. This rebellion revealed the picture of economic exploitation of colonial rule. This movement was the pioneer of many other movements and helped to arise nationalism among IndiAnswer: For this rebellion the government was compelled to set up Indigo couissim in 1860. According to the report of the commission the cultivators would not be compelled to cultivate indigo. This rebellioin increased the discontenent and hatred of Indians against British.

Question 3.
Mention four main causes of failure of the great rebellion. Evaluate the great Rebellion.
Answer:
Lack of planning This revolt was organised regionally. The objective of different leaders were different. There was no specific organisation, no motive. The revolt look place without planning. It was on regional base. There was the gap of communication.

Lack of public support : The people of India did not take part in this revolt. The people who joined had no same objective or interest. Most of the king or federal lord did not join in the revolt. Some king helped the British to supress the revolt. Nana Sahib, Queen of Jhansi, Kunwar Singh joined in this rovolt.

Not one in whole : The revolt did not spread all over India. South India kept away from thiss revolt. Even one part of north India i.g Punjab. Rajasthan did not joint in the revolt.

Lack of arms or warfare : In compare to Indian rebells British were far ahead in arms and warfare.

Evaluation of this great revolt : After the great Revolt of 1857 the nationalism arose in IndiAnswer: The Indians realised the significant of mass movement. The principal of British administration also changed. The queen of England took rule of India in her own hand. By a proclamation, British queen Victoria was declared Queen Emperor of British India. After the revolt the British started to pay attention in economic exploitation of Indıa instead of invation. The number of European soldiers were increased. The control of comanders over the Indian army was densered. In 1861 Indian Council Act was passed. By this Act in State and central legislative assembly number of Indian members were increased.

Question 4.
Write about Wahabi Movement and its impact in Bengal.
Answer:
One of the leaders of Wahabi Movement in Bengal was Mir Nisar Ali or Titumir. He was influenced by syed Ahmed of Rai Barelli. Titumir started spreading his idealism and formed organisation. He said a Muslim Should obey only Koran not any ‘Peer’ or Moulana. As the result orthodex Muslims were offended with him but poor peasant and weavers of Hindu and Muslim supported him. Titumir organised movement against landlord and Indigo cultivatior with the help of them, on the otherhand zamindar and Indigo cultivator together tried to suppress the revolt. They imposed different types of classes and began to tortune on him. Titumar with his rebells attack the indigo factories and also won.

The main object of the movement was to protect the social and economical interest of dipressed peasants. The aim of Titumir was to save the peasants from the tortune and exploitation of mahajan and Indigo cultivators. So he organised the revolt against them. He influnced the local peasant and weavens greatly. He declared the end of British rule and demanded himself as ‘Badshah’. He was about to collect revenue from Zamindars. The British took the side of Indigo cultivators and the battle between Titumir and the British became inevitable. Finally Titumir was defeated and killed. At very beginning Titumir was a religious reformer but later he became a freedom fighter.

Question 5.
Mention the four main causes of Indigo rebellion. What was the significancet of Indigo rebellion?
Answer:
The demerits of ‘dadan’ system : The Indigo planter compelled the cultivator to take ‘dadan’ and cultivate indigo. Though the farmers repay the loan the planter’s slyness the loan was never paid.

The misery of the cultivators : As the cultivators were compelled to cultivate indigo in their paddy or tobaco field the production of rice decereased. Therefore the lack of fooder of cattle arose. The money for the cultivate got from cultivation indigo was lesser than that of cultivating rice or tobace.

The greed and fortune of the indigo planters : The indigo planters gave loan to the cultivators and forced to cultivate indigo, otherwise the planters sized their cattle, lashed them or to turned their family members, even killed them. For more profit they started more turture. The hatred and the discontent of the cultivaiors increased proportionally.

Lack of just : The cultivators appealed to the court against the planters but all in vain. They have to bear more and more torture for that appeal. There was close relation between the indigo planters and police or judges. Therefore the depression among farmers began to grow.

Question 6.
Write a note on Santhal Rebellion.
Answer:
Among the uprising against the extortion of colonial rulers, the most important was the Santhal Rebellion of 1855-56. In the Santhal areas, money lenders and landlords coming from outside, called Dikhu, gradually established their influence. The poor Santhals were subjected to torture and extortion by the Dikus. The Santhals resorted to rebellion to free themselves from the unbearable situation and extortion. Initially they attacked the work places and houses of the money lenders, land-lords and traders.

Latter they organised a rebellion (Hull), in which the most prominent roles were played by Sidhu, Kanhu, Chand and Bhairab. The rebellion spresd over a wide area from Bhagalpur to Rajmahal. To control the situation, the british administration unleashed ruthless attack on the Santhals. Thousand of Santhals including Sidhu and Kanu, were killed. But this rebellion did not go in vain.The British administration became alert to the necessity of safeguarding the interest of the tribals.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 8 History Book Solutions Chapter 4 The Nature of Colonial Economy offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 8 History Chapter 4 Question Answer – The Nature of Colonial Economy

Thinak and Find –

1. Fill in the blanks with the correct alternatives :

a. Permanent settlement was stated by __________ (Hastings / Cornwallis / Dalhousie)
Answer:
Cornwallis

b. Mahalwari system started in ___________ (Bengal / North India / South India)
Answer:
North India

c. Dadan means __________ (advance payment / abwab / unpaid labour)
Answer:
Advance payment.

d. The first jute factory in colonial India came up at ____________ (Rishra / Calcutta / Bombay)
Answer:
Rishra.

e. The flow out of wealth from the country is known as ___________ (Drain of wealth /deindustrialisation / bargadari system)
Answer:
Drainage of wealth.

2. Pick the wrong statement.

Question a.
Parmanent settlement standard in 1974.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question b.
Indigo revolt occured in Madras.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question c.
The cotton cultivation in Decan was linked to American civil war..
Answer:
Right.

Question d.
The Indian market saw an influx of native commodities with the expansion of railways.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question d.
The telegraph system was set up in the company’s interest.
Answer:
True.

3. Answer briefly (30-40 words)

Question a.
What was the sunset law?
Answer:
One of this features of Parmanent settlement system was the Sunset law. Though the owner of the land was the zamindars but the power of revenue collection was centered in the company’s hand. According to ‘Sunset Law’ if due revenue failed to reach the company by sunset of the fixed date, zamindars lost their right to land. This is known a Sunset law.’

Question b.
What de you understand by commercialisation of agriculture?
Answer:
Under British rule a feature of indian economy was commercialisation of agriculture. Cultivatiion of some crops was emphasised for commercial purpose. The government put pressure to on the peasants to cultivate indigo, cotton, jute etc. The peasants were not benefited by the commercialisation of agriculture. Those invested more in agreculter gained more.

Question c.
why did the ‘Decan riots’ occur?
Answer:
Taking the advantage of the sufferings of the cultivator of cotton of Decan, the Sahukar money leaders controlled over the crops against the loan paid by them. The cotton cultivator of Decan revolted agaist it. They attacked the Sahukars and fired all the legal papers. The colonial rulers called this revolt as ‘Decan riot’. This revolt lasted from May to september in 1875.

Question d.
What is drainage of wealth?
Answer:
The British East India company used the Indian economy for their own benefit. The Indian wealths was beirg plunderedand sent to Britain. In 1840 one of a British officer informed that yearly the wealth, worth of 3 crore Starling was sent from India to Britain. In return some cheap warfair was imponted from Britain to India. This is called drainage of wealth.

Question e.
What is deindustrialisation?
Answer:
British product mainly clothes weaving in mills were being imported to India. Indian industries started declining to face an unequal competition. Besides the Government policy paved them to ruin, Many people involved with indusiry became jobless. Many of this became agricultural tabour. This is called deindustriallisation.

4. Write in your own words (120-160 words)

Question a.
What was the effect of parmanent settlement on peasant society?
Answer:
Governor Lord Cornwallis introduced permanent settlement in 1793. By this system the land was given to the zamindar permanently. Specific revenue paid to the company by zamindar became fixed but the revenue that was paid by this peasants to zamindar remained unfixed. The Zamindar enjoyed the absolute right over the land and the right was heriditary. The zamindar took the revenue from the peasant, at high rate but the company was deprived.

It was hoped that after getting the ownership of land the zamindars would try to develop the agricultural system but in reality it did not come to the truth. This system led a middle class in between zamindars and the peasants. For this system of permanent settlement the peasants of Bengal suffered much. Cormwallis hoped that the zamindar would give the ‘Palta’ to the peasants. Instead of the zamindars forced the peasants to pay revenue at high rate. If the peasants failed to pay the zaminders tortured them or took away their lands, besides various illegal taxes were also extracted from the peasants.

Question b.
Compare and contrust Permanent settlement system with Ryot and Mahalwari system. Which was of lesser har to the peasants? Give reasons.
Answer:
By the system of permanent settlenent the land was giver pennanently. The ownership of the land became ancestral. The part of revenue, collected by the zamindar was to be paid to company and the zamindar would be owner of part on a certain day before sunset the revenue was to be submitted by the zamindar to the company otherwise company would forfeit the land of zamindar.

In this system the land was surveyed. Company gave the land directly to the peasants and the revenue was collecte by company directly. There was no middle man between the peasants and the company. In this system the revenue had been fixed depending on the production. In Mahaliwari system a Mahal considered of several villages. According to the law of the system the power of the collection of revenue was vested on the zamindars or the Pradhan of the Mahals.

Sometimes the revenue would be increased. All the systems above were harmful to the peasant. The welfare of the peasants was ignored in al! systems. According to my opinion the Rawatwari system was łess harmful to the peasant. In this system the middle class was absent in between company and the peasant. Thus the profit of the land was distributed between company and the peasants. There was no scople for the peasants of being tortured by zamindar.

Question c.
Did commercialisation of agriculture had direct relation with peasant discontent and revolt? How will you view decean riot in this confent?
Answer:
The peasants were not benefited by the commercialisation of agriculture. Some of the crops were given importance for commercial cause. The peasants were forced to cultivate tea, indigo, jute, cotton etc. These crops were used as raw materials in the factories of British. The manufactured goods of Britain were imported in the lndian market at low cost.

The poor peasants were unable to use fertilizer, seeds or machinery of high quality. Besides the income of the peasants were very low for the revenue of high rate. In fact the profit from agriculture was enjoyed by government, landlord and the money lender. The government did not take any step for the developinent of peasants. In many cases the peasants, became hired labour after loosing their lands. The peasants in many parts of India revoled for the commercialisation of agriculture.

The inidirect reason of ‘Decan riot’ was the commercialisation of agriculture. For the civil war of America the demand of cotton was increased. Therefore the cotton production in Decan was also increased. But when the civil war stopped in America, the cost of this cotton decreased. Apart from this reason high rate of revenue, draught, famine and this control of money lander over the crops led to the Deccan revolts.

Question d.
What relation did the company’s business policy have with Bengal cloth industry? Why did the Indians from indigenous banks and insurance companies?
Answer:
In the early eighteenth Century the weaver of Bengal produced cloth independently by investing their own capital and sold of fair price. But started to take loan from company and could not pay it. So company controllea over them and they were forced to sell their goods to company. More over they were torrtured when they failed to produce according their contract. After the industrialisation the British factories in England started producing fine clothes in cheap rate. So the British government become active to control the importing Indian clothes in England and experting British clothes in India.

To lessen the imperting of Indian clothes in Britain and to the exporing British clothes in India the variation rate of revenue was created 67 % that was impased on Indian clothes. On the other hand the rates on British clothes for importing in India was lessened. later it was abolished. In case of Indian investor the condition of the bank was different at the time of granting loan or the rate of interest. So the Indian bank and insurance company were set up with the help of Indian enterprise.

Question e.
Discuss the expansion of colonial rule in India with regard to railways and telegraph.
Answer:
In 1853 Great Indian Peninsular Rail Company first set up railways in India from Bombay to Thane. Next year East India Company set up railway from Howrah to Hooghly.Gradually railways were constructed in every part of India. But the railways had been established to protect colonial interest of the British empire not for the welfare of Indians. There were two objects for establishment of railways in India-a) for melitary purpose. That is for sending away from one place to another at the time of emergency. b) for commercial purpose. The raw materials and manufactured goods could be transported in short time through railways. The importance of railway for the British administration was immense.

In 1851 telegraph system established only for few miles. In 1856,46 telegraph centres had been set up and more than 4 thousand miles of area came under the telegraph system. Gradually it spread whole over the subcontinent. The reason behind it was colonial interest. Telegraph was the most reliable medium to send important information from one end to other end quickly. The result of the battle, the news of revolt can be communicated quickly through it. Moreover urgent instruction was also sent by telegraph.

5. Imagine and write. (written 200 words)

Question a.
Suppose you are travelling in the railways for the first time. Describe your foreboarding and post-boarding experience in a letter addressed to your to your friend.
Answer:
West Midnapur
Dear Tuhin,
10-01-2020
Hope you are well. Today I am informing you about my experience of travelling in the railways first. You know one of my uncle lives at Kolkata. After the examination it was decided to go to the uncle’s house with father. We would have to travel from Mecheda to Howrah by train. 1 felt an

unknown fear and excitement in me. On 2nd January, it was sunday I reached at Mecheda station with my father by bus. The train was late to arrive. Two train had passed at opposite direction. After some times the sound of coming a train was heard from distances. The passengers became busy. At last giant like huge train arrived. We boarded the train without much effort. Father let me sit by the window.

The train started whistling with buzing sound. The trees and houses started running towards opposite direction. The train when stopped at one station, some people got down and some got in. In this way this train,readed to the destination. I was enjoying at the outer scene from the window. The cow was grazing at the field. House of different sizes, tea stall, different types of trees and plants had passed before the sight. I tried to memorize the name of the station but could not more than two or three. I felt that this journey by train is more comfortable than that of bus. At last the train reached at Howrah.

Everyone became busy to get down from the train. All passengers wanted to get down first. We did not make any hurry, got down quietely.
No more today. I shall wait for your letter.
Yours friend
Sunil

Question b.
Suppose you are a resident of the Decan in the 1870s. Record in your personal diary the discontent of the peasants of the region regarding cotton cultivation.
Answer:
In our locality most of the peasants cultivate cotten. But now they are in trouble for sudden decreasing of the price of cotton. They could not collect their expenditure of farming cotton. More over revenue at light rate in imposed on them. If they are failed to pay they are tortured. Besides the role of the Sahukars and money lenders are active. They lend money to the peasants and controll over them. For this reason the peasants are upset. They are planning to revilt.

They have no other way. They cannot be put blame for this. The colonial Government does not bother for them. They only bother for their own interest. In such a miserable condtion of peasant instead of helping them they collect exessive tax from the peasants. In some places the peasants already have started revolt. It is heard that they have attacked the Shaukars. They have set fire the documents of Sahukars. The revolt may break out in our locality at any time.

It is heard that the revolt at Ahamedabad and Pune district became terible. Common people have came forward in faviur of the peasant. The government has marked it as ‘Deccan riots’. In this way they are trying to supress the revolt.

Class 8 History Chapter 4 Question Answer West Bengal Board – The Nature of Colonial Economy

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers :

Question 1.
The new ruler of Bengal Company, Warren Hastings started the Izaradari system in-
i) 1772
ii) 1770
iii) 1776
iv) 1777
Answer:
i) 1772.

Question 2.
In 1793 was started-
i) Izaradari system
ii) Parmanent settlement
ii) Mahalwari system
iv) Rawatwari system
Answer:
ii) Parmanent settlement.

Question 3.
In north and north West India was started-
i) Izaradari system
ii) Parmanent settlement
iii) Mahalwari system
iv) Rawatwari system
Answer:
iii) Mahalwari system.

Question 4.
The Decean riot was created for-
i) indigo farming
ii) cotton farming
iii) tea forming
iv) wheat farming
Answer:
ii) cotton farming

Question 5.
The first cotton mill was set up at-
i) Hooghly
ii) Callcutta
iii) Madrasiv
iv) Bombay
Answer:
iv) Bombay.

Question 6.
The project of Railway construetion was started undet the rule of Lord Dalhousie in the year –
i) 1853
ii) 1800
iii) 1763
iv) 1843
Answer:
i) 1853.

Question 7.
Behind the development of Telegraph system in Indim there was the interest of colonial rule-
i) social
ii) political
iii) economical
Answer:
ii) Political.

Question 8.
From 1854 to 19012 crore 29 lakh Indian people died in-
i) famine
ii) drought
iii) earth quace
Answer:
i) famine.

Question 9.
By the end of nineteenth century the telegraph line covered-
i) 30,900 miles
ii) 10,900 miles
iii) 60,900 miles
iv) 52,900 miles
Answer:
iv) 52,900 miles

State whether True or False:

Question 1.
During Nawab reigion the revenue was callected by company.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
The condition of the peasant was not developed for the parmanent settlement.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
The peasants took loan from zamindars at high rate.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
In 1889 an act was passed for the defferent of the peasants.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
For the destruction of cottage industry some towers became weak.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
The policy for constructing railways was adopting for the development of India.
Answer:
False.

Question 7.
Railway helped connect the markets in India.
Answer:
True.

Question 8.
The first jute factory was set up at Rishra in 1855 .
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
Coffee plantation flourished in north India,
Answer:
False.

Question 10.
Indigo cultivation was done entirely to meet the demands of cloth factories in England.
Answer:
True.

Question 11.
Agricultural development helped the peasants of capital, not the peasants.
Answer:
False.

Question 12.
The peasants were not benefited from permansnt settlement.
Answer:
True.

Fill in the blanks :

1. For the crysis of agriculture the ______ of silk and cotton was decreased.
Answer:
exporting.

2. In reality the peasant had no ______ over the land in Ryatwari system.
Answer:
ownership.

3. In North and South West India ______ system was started.
Answer:
Mahalwari.

4. The modarnization of agriculture was not beneficial to the ______.
Answer:
peasants.

5. Besides indigo cultivation the Europeans were interested in _______ farming.
Answer:
garden.

6. The permanent settlement system helped the _______ to prosper.
Answer:
zamindars.

7. warren Hastings started the Ijardari system in ________.
Answer:
1772 .

8. Besides indigo cultivation the Europeans were interested in _______ farming.
Answer:
garden

9. Mahal means a collection of several ________.
Answer:
villages.

10. Commercialisation of agricultureled to divitions within the rural ______.
Answer:
society.

11. The weavers of Bengal were forced to sell at low price or at a price fixed by the ______.
Answer:
British.

12. The chief symbol of colonial rule was the _________ system.
Answer:
rail.

Match column A with B

A	B
The Parmanent Settlement in Bengal	were tortured
The irrigation system become beneficial	rebelled
For indigo farming that cultivators	the price of cotton increase
Many farmers of Bengal	in 1851
In 1875 the catton cultivaters	The rail fair was high
For the civil war of America	to the rich farmers
For the transportation of native goods	drained to Britain
Telegraph system was introduced	the colonial rule were responsible
The money and the wealth of India	was started in 1793
For the poverty of India	turned into lived labour

Answer:

A	B
The Parmanent Settlement in Bengal	was started in 1793
The irrigation system become beneficial	to the rich farmers
For indigo farming that cultivators	were tortured
Many farmers of Bengal	turned into lived labour
In 1875 the catton cultivaters	rebelled
For the civil war of America	the price of cotton increase
For the transportation of native goods	The rail fair was high
Telegraph system was introduced	in 1851
The money and the wealth of India	drained to Britain
For the poverty of India	the colonial rule were responsible

Answer in a sentence :

Question 1.
Who started Ijaradari system and when?
Answer:
Warren Hastings started the ljaradari system in 1772.

Question 2.
When did permanent settlement started in Bengal?
Answer:
In 1793 permanent settlement started in Bengal.

Question 3.
In which essay of Bankimchandra the influence of permanent settlement was discussed?
Answer:
In Bongodesher Krishok of Bankimchandra the influence of peramanent settlement was discussed.

Question 4.
Which law was harmful to the zamindar of permanent settlement?
Answer:
The Sunset law was harmful to the zamindari of permanent settmement.

Question 5.
What was meant by the term Mahalwari.
Answer:
Mahawari mean village based.

Question 6.
With whom the British ruler entered an agreement in Rawatwari system?
Answer:
In Rawatwari system the British ruler entered an agreement with the peasant or Rawat.

Question 7.
What is modernisation of Economy?
Answer:
The construction of railway, the increasing of export rate, commercialisation of agriculture is jointly called modernisation of economy.

Question 8.
When was agriculturarists Relief Act passed?
Answer:
Agriculturarists Relief Act was passed in 1879.

Question 9.
When was tenancy act passed?
Answer:
Tenancy act was passed in 1885.

Question 10.
When and where first cotton cloth factory was set up?
Answer:
First cotton cloth factory was set up at Bombay in 1853.

Question 11.
How many revenue systems were running in India around nid-nineteenth century?
Answer:
Three revenue systems were running in India around nid-nineteenth century.

Question 12.
Where and when first jute mill was set up?
Answer:
The first jute mill was set up at Rishra.

Question 13.
When and where the first railway was set up?
Answer:
In 1853 the first railway was set up from Bombay to Thane.

Question 14.
When was the Telegraph communication system introduced?
Answer:
The Telegraph Communication system was introduced in 1851.

Question 15.
Who converted the peasants into hired labourers?
Answer:
The colonial rule converted the peasants into hired labourers.

Question 16.
What made divisions within rural society?
Answer:
Commercialisation of agriculture made divisions within rural society.

Question 17.
What was the result of Dadan?
Answer:
Dadan led to conflicts between the Indigo planters and Indian peasants.

Question 18.
When the sale of cotton clothes was barred in Britain by law?
Answer:
In 1720 the sale of cotton clothes was barred in Britain by. law.

Question 19.
When the company had lost monopoly rights over Indian markets?
Answer:
By 1813 the company had lost monopoly rights over Indian markets.

Question 20.
Who was not happy with the company’s export?
Answer:
The cloth merchants of Britain were not happy with the company’s export.

Answer in brief :

Question 1.
Write a short note on ‘Permanent Settlement.’
Answer:
In 1793 Lord Cornwallis started the system of permanent settlement. This revenue system was started in Bengal, Orissa and some parts of Madras. In this system the land was distributed permanently. The right over the land of zamindar was heriditary. The zamindar had to pay part of collected revenue to the company and they got part. If the zamindars failed to pay the revenue on fixed day before sunset the company grabbed the zamindar’s land. There were two reason behind the introducing the system–i) in this system there would be a group of zamindars, loyal and obidient to the British. They would help to make the company’s rule firm. 2) Company would get a fixed amount of revenue.

Question 2.
What was the effects of Rawatwari system?
Answer:
In Rawatwari system when the certain period was over the revenue would be increased and the terms and conditions with peasant would be renewed. The peasant who could not pay the extra revenue the land would be snatched from him. This system was not in favour of the rawat as the revenue was very high. So the sufferings of rawat was gradually increasing. In this system the company was the landlord. If the revenue was unpaid the staff of the company tortured on them.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Mahalwari System.
Answer:
Mahal means a collection of several villages. North and north-west India saw the Mahalwari system in operation. Accorfing to this system, the government sntered into an agreement with the zamindar or pradhan of mahal. The agreement covered the entire village community. Th. Mahalwar’ system could netimprove the condition of the peasants. The amount of revenue was revicer at specific times. The peasants faced the burden of high tax, debts to pay \operatorname{tax} and the rorture that arose out of unpaid loans. In most cases the money lender and the businessmen controlled the lands.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Drain of wealth.
Answer:
India’s wealth was taken out of the country. This prevented India’s economic development. This taking away of wealth is known as ‘drain of wealth’. This was an important feature of British rule in India. During the Sultanate and Mughal petiod, the government collected tax from the people. But the rullers had settled permansntly in India. they were not loyal to any other countiy. East India Company had only its own and Britain’s imterest in mind. They wanted to exploit India for Britain’s interests. This involved the drain of wealth.

Question 5.
Write a short note on poverty in India.
Answer:
The colonial economy make poverty permanent in India. Drain of wealth and deindustrialisatiom led to great poverty in India. The famine conditions that prevailed in various perts of India could be linked to poverty. Lakhs of people fied in famine in the second half on the ninteenth century. Government aid was paltry.Between 1854 and 1901 , almost 2 crores 89 lakh people died of hunger. A government declaration said over 4 crores Indians survive on half-empty stomschs.

Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write a short note on land revenue system under British rule.
Answer:
Under British rule different type of land revenue system were introduced.
Permanent settlement: Lord Cornwallis started the parmanent setllement system in 1793. This sysem was effected in Bengal, Bihar Orissa and some parts of Madras. In this system the land was given permanently. The zamindars got the right of the land heriditary. The part of revenue collected by zamindar was given to company and rest part was enjoyed by the zamindar. On the last day of the Bengali year the zamindar had to pay the revenue to company before sunset. If failed company could grab their land. There were two reasons behind the introducing of the system i) in this system there would be a group of zamindar loyal and obidient to the British. They would help to make the company’s rule firm, ii) company would get a fixed amount of revenue.

Rawatwari System : The revenue system that was introduced by British in south and west India is called Rawatwari system. In this system the land was measured. In this system the contract was with the rawat or peasant, thus the revenue was collected directly from the rawat. There were no zamindars between company and peasants. In this system revenue was fixed based on the production. The land was given to the peasants for 30 / 40 years.

Mahalwari System : In north and north-west India the existing system was the Mahalwari system. A Mahal consisted of some villages. According to the system there was an agreement between company and the zamindar or Pradhan of the Mahal. Sometimes the revenue would be increased. Some reflected form of this system is known as viachari system in Panjub.

Question 2.
What was the objectives of constructing railways in India? What was the results of constructing railway?
Answer:
The railways had been established to protect colonial interests of British empire. The two main objectives of constructing railways in India for the British were-
i) quick transport of the army, ii) commercial help that was collecting raw materials through railways and sending to Britain, on this other hand imported manufacturing goods distributing in different parts of India.

The extention of railway influenced on indian economy too far. Before indroducing railways the goods were transported by bullock carts or horse drawn carts. But after construction of railways transportation of goods could be possible at low cost and in less time. Railways helped connect the markets in India.

Many Indians felt that the government should have given more attevtion to the irrigation system for the good of the society. The forest dwellers did not accept railway construction because it was blow to their land, livelihood and social prestige. The construction of railways was one of the reasons for discontent against British rules.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 8 History Book Solutions Chapter 3 Establishing the Colonial Authority offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 8 History Chapter 3 Question Answer – Establishing the Colonial Authority

Think aund Find –

1. Find the Odd one out:

a. Bombay, Madras, Calcutta, Bengal.
Answer:
Bengal.

b. Clive, Hestings, Dupleix, Cornwallis.
Answer:
Dupleix.

c. Bengal, Bihar; Indus region, Orissa.
Answer:
Indus region.

a. David Hare, Willam Carey, Jonathan Duncan, William Pitt.
Answer:
William Pitt.

2. Pick the wrong statement.

a. Bengal Presidency was known as Fort St. George Presidency.
Answer:
Wrong.

b. Benaras Hindu college was established by Jonathan Duncan.
Answer:
Right.

e. William Carey was a member of Srirampore Missionary Society.
Answer:
Right.

d. The cmopany started the Ijaradari system for ten year revenue collection.
Answer:
Wrong.

3. Answer briefly (30-40 words)

Question a.
What was the British Presidency system?
Answer:
British East India company was mainly a trading company. They had made their centers for their business interest in Kolkata, Bombay and Madras. The Presidency system was grown on yje basis of these centers.

Question b.
What role did Lord Cornwallis play to organise the company for accumulate law system?
Answer:
Lord Cornwallis put a great effort to organise the company formulated law system. The Brahmin pandits and Muslim moulabis were engaged in explaining the native laws. Then the laws were translated in English. In 1793 Lord Cornwallis took out a compiled code of laws.

Question c.
What was the company’s sipahi bahini?
Answer:
An important weapon of colonial rules was the army or Sipahi bahini. The British formed the Sipahi bahini with the Indian Soldiers to supress the revolt or occupy the lands. The soldiers who joined the sipahi bahini received regular salary and other facilities.

Question d.
What rple did James Rennell play in the company’s land survey?
Answer:
In 1764 British company appointed James Rennells as survey or General or the head of land survey department. The waterways of Bengal were surveyed in 1764 by Rennell and he made 16 maps of waterways. This was done in Bengal for the very first time.

4. Write in your own words (120-160 words)

Question a.
Compare the administrative reforms of Warren Hastings and Cornwallis. What were the effects of these reforms on the Indians?
Answer:
In 1772 Lord Warren Hastings abolished dual government and divided Bengal into 35 districts for the convinience of administration and Judiciary. A Diwani and a Fowzdari court was established at every district. Besides in 1774 a supreme court was formed at Kolkata and a Nizamat court was established at Murshidabad. Hastings reformed the Judiciary system the divided Bengal, Bihar and Orissa into 6 divisions. A Diwani court was established in each division. The responsibilities of Judiciary in each division was vested on a Dewan or Amin.

Lord Cornwallis transferred the Nizamat court from Murshidabad to Calcutta and Fauzdari Judiciary system was brought under the company. He introduced four mobile courts. Those courts performed judgement wandering different districts. He seperated Diwani court and revenue collection. The judiciary power of collectors was abolished. Provincial appeal courts were set up at calcutta, Patna, Murshidabad and Dhaka. The Chief Justice in all courts were Europeans. In fact Indians were removed from the colonial system of Judiciary. The organisation of Judiciary became one of the main pillars of colonial rule.

Question b.
What role did the Bureaucracy play in British administrative system? How did the Bureaucrats organise as a narrow interest group.
Answer:
Bureaucracy was the main tool of eivil administration under colonial rule. But the bureaucrats could not formulate policies. They can only implemented the policies of the British Government. So an organised bureaucracy was essential to colonial ruie.

To organise the bureaucracy under company rule Cornwalli’s introduced civil service system His objective was to make the British rule in corruption free. He banned receiving gifts and practising private tracts by law. Not only he increased salary of the officials but also started the system of job promotion. He believed that in adequate salary forced them to compromise with dishonesty.

He started appointing Indian civil service. For this purpose the Indians were trained for administration. Fort William college was established in 1800 A.D. The civil servants were trained there. All examinees of the civil sevice examination had to be taught at Hailbury college. Learning in a single college of training created a sense of unity among the civil servants. They considered themselves as a separate lobby.

Question c.
What difference existed between the Company’s education policy with regard to Bengal and Bombay? What effect do you think the Company’s education pulicy had on Indian society?
Answer:
Warren Hastings brought the sanskrit Pandit form various regions for spread of education. He also established Madrasa in Calcutta where Arabic and Persian language were taught. William Jones founded Asiatic society at Calcutta in 1784. His objective was to translate the ancient Sanskrit texts into English. He thought that the understanding between educated Indians and the British would be smooth in this way. Western Science was taught in sanskrit college with sanskrit literature. In a proposal of 1839 the students were given right to study Indian language apart from learning English. In Bombay Presidency from the very beginning importance was given on the study of western science through Indian language method was adopted.

The goal of the colonial rule was to educate a few people of the society and attach them to the administration. There was no aim for mass-education. Due to lack of proper training and hands – on activities, education was confined to bookish knowledge. The traditional Indian sducation was loosing its importance. The British policy of education neglected the woman education at the first stage. Later woman education spreade through individual effort.

Question d.
What was the relation between company rule and land survey? What was the reason for starting and abolishing of Ijaradari system?
Answer:
Company rule was related to land survey. The process of revenue fixation based on land survey was important. After the battle of Plassey the British East India company got the zamindari from 24 Parganas to Kulpi from Nawab. Frankland was appointed to survey the land. Frankland died leaving the survey unfinished and Hog Cameron completed his work. After surveying the waterways of Bengal James Rennell made 16 maps of waterways. In 1770 a comptrolling committee of Revenue was formed for land survey and fixation of revenue after the battle of Bauxer and getting of Diwani, then Board of revenue was formed.

According to the land revenue system of Warren Hastings in 1772, the land would be handed over to those who would promise the maximum revenue during the bidding process. This is called ljaradari system. This ljaradari system was abolished for some reasons. They are – in most of the cases the revenue fixed was higher than the revenue carned. Because of this ljaradar could not pay the revenue.

5. Imagine and write (200 words)

Question a.
Suppose you are a company Sipahi. Write a letter to your friend about your work and work atmosphere.
Answer:
Dear Suman,
Hope you are well. You have wanted to know about my work and work atmoshere. I am writing this in my letter. You know that I am a Sipahi of East India Company. Our job is of two type – 1. To occupy various region for extending the company area. 2. To supress the revolt that creats from the rage of the people.

The company is always careful about us. The salary is higher than most of other jobs. But we have consciousness and moral sense. Sometime people revolt for wrong and unjust of company. Then we have to torture on the people of our own country for supressing the revolt even knowing that company is doing unjust. Then we feel guilty.
But we have to do that as we are paid by them. Whatever is our place has to do the same. At the beginning I felt very guilty but now not so far. The dignity of the past gives us some kind of power. Hope you can understand it.
No more today. I shall wait for your letter.
Your loving friend

Question b.
Suppose you are a citizen of Calcutta in the first lialf of ninetecnth century. Write a conversation between two educated Indians during the establishment of Hindu school and Bethune school.
Answer:
1st person : Hallow! How are you? From where are you coming?
2nd Person : Not so far but from very near, You know Bethune school has been constructing. I have been there. Probablly the school has been establishing by some Bethune Saheb.
1st Person : I also know this. His work is worth-praising. The company is not bothering about the spreading of woman education. The school will promote the spreading of woman education. So it is a very important work.
2nd Person : You are right Company is granting more amount for education, many schools are establishing but they are neglecting woman education. When will the government realise the importancy of woman education.
1st Person : There should be a movemant about it.
2nd Person : Some works have been started by some individual effort.
1st Person : Hope that the Government will be concerned.
2nd Person : That will be better.
1st Person : OK. Bye Bye.

Class 8 History Chapter 3 Question Answer West Bengal Board – Establishing the Colonial Authority

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers :

Question 1.
At Madras in 1639 Company establish a-
i) military base
ii) trading enterprise
iii) military head Quarter
Answer:
ii) trading enterprise

Question 2.
Regulating Act was passed in the year –
i) 1773
ii) 1784
iii) 1785
iv) 1770
Answer:
i) 1773

Question 3.
In 1785 came to force-
i) Regulating Act
ii) Pitt’s Act
Answer:
ii) Pitt’s Act

Question 4.
A Supreme Court was established at Kolkata in –
i) 1773
ii) 1777
iii) 1770
iv) 1774
Answer:
iv) 1774

Question 5.
Daroga system was abolished in-
i) 1812
ii) 1816
iii) 1880
iv) 1882
Answer:
i) 1812

Question 6.
In 1790 company started the system-
i) Panchsala
ii) Eksala
iii) Dassala
iv) permanent
Answer:
iii) Dassala

Question 7.
In 1800 Fort Williams college was established in-
i) Madras
ii) Mumbai
iii) Madras
iv) Kolkata
Answer:
iv) Kolkata

Question 8.
Asiatic Society was founded at Kolkata by-
i) Charles Winkins
ii) William Jones
iii) Jonathan Duncan
iv) Bethune
Answer:
ii) William Jones

Question 9.
Sir Edward Hyde East, the Chief Justice of Supreme Court and David Hare were the founder of-
i) Madrasa
ii) Sanskrit college
iii) Hindu college
iv) David Hare Training College
Answer:
iii) Hindu college

Question 10.
In 1844 it was compalsory in case of government service to know-
i) English
ii) Farsi
iii) Bengali
iv) Sanskrit
Answer:
i) English

Question 11.
In Benaras Iindu college was established by-
i) Charles Winkins
ii) William Jones
iii) Jonathan Duncan
iv) Chartes Ilalled
Answer:
iii) Jonathan Duncan

State whether True or False:

1. Sindhu region came under the Bombay Presidency.
Answer:
True.

2. Regulating Act was passed in 1773.
Answer:
False.

3. In 1972 Company started a mew form of justice.
Answer:
True.

4. Lord Cornwallis belicved in adequate pay forced the employees to compromise with honesty.
Answer:
True.

5. All examinces of the civil service examination had to enroll at Hindu college.
Answer:
False.

6. Calcutta Madrasa was established in 1793.
Answer:
False.

7. Alexander Duff came to Kolkata in 1829.
Answer:
True.

8. Raja Rammohan Ray was associated with the activities of Hindu College.
Answer:
True.

9. The Baptist Mission was established in 1970.
Answer:
False.

10. The appoinment of Indians in the Civil Service was stopped from the time of Lord Cornwallis.
Answer:
True.

11. The daroga system was permanently abolished in 1812 .
Answer:
True.

12. In 1797 Supreme Courts were established in Kolkita and Madras.
Answer:
False.

13. From 1801 Various local pundits were appointed in Fort William College.
Answer:
True.

14. Around 1853, many a school in Bombay presidency taught in the vernacular.
Answer:
True.

Fill in the blanks :

1. The administrative centre of Madras Presidency in Summer was –
Answer:
Otakamund.

2. By the Regulating Act became the capital of British rule.
Answer:
capital.

3. was the Chief Justice of Supreme Court.
Answer:
Elijah Impay.

4. was considered important as a weapen of colonial rule.
Answer:
Sipahi bahini.

5 . of Srirampore Mission taught at Fort William college.
Answer:
Willium Carey.

6.
The aim of college was to cultivate Sansdrit literature and spread Western education.
Answer:
Sanskrit.

7. Hindu college in kolkata was founded in
Answer:
1817 .

8. The was one of the mainpillars of the colonial rule.
Answer:
army.

9. Primarily, the opposition to colonial rule was handled by the
Answer:
police.

10. In 1793, Lord Cornwallis compiled a code of A
Answer:
laws.

11. In 1772 the Company started a new – system.
Answer:
judicial.

12. In 1772 the Company started a new – system.
Answer:
judicial.

Match column A with B

A	B
In 1772 company got	Supreme Court was founded
As a trading enterprise	by the magistrate.
Pitt’s Act	supressed by the sipahies
In 1793 Cornwallis	in Fort Willium college
In 1823 at Bombay	was founded by Jonathan Duncan.
Darogas were controlled	In 1784
Many revolts	the Parmanent settlement.
the civil servants were taught	the Nizamat Right.
Hindu college in Beneras	took out a compiled code of law.
Asiatic Society was established	Hindu college was established
In 1817	Surat started declining
Cornwallis introduced in Bengal	Came in force in 1785.

Answer:

A	B
In 1772 company got	the Nizamat Right.
As a trading enterprise	Surat started declining
Pitt’s Act	Came in force in 1785 .
In 1793 Cornwallis	took out a compiled code of law.
In 1823 at Bombay	Supreme Court was founded
Darogas were controlled	by the magistrate.
Many revolts	the civil servants were taught
the civil servants were taught	was founded by Jonathan.
Hindu college in Beneras	Duncan.
Asiatic Society was established	Surat started declining
In 1817	the Parmanent settlement.
Cornwallis introduced in Bengal	the Nizamat Right.

Answer in a sentence :

Question 1.
In which year company established business center in Madras?
Answer:
In 1639 company established business center in Madras.

Question 2.
What was the earlier name of Bombay Presidency?
Answer:
The earlier name of Bombay Presidency was West Presidency.

Question 3.
What was the name of the Fort of Calcutta set up by British as they did in Madras?
Answer:
Fort William.

Question 4.
In which year the Regulatin Act was passed?
Answer:
The Regulating Act was passed in 1773.

Question 5.
Which new post was created according to Regulating Act?
Answer:
According to Act the post of Governor General was created.

Question 6.
Who was Willium Pitt?
Answer:
Willium Pitt was the Prime Minister of Britain.

Question 7.
When did Pitt’s Act was come to framed?
Answer:
Pitt’s Act was framed in 1784.

Question 8.
When did Pitt’s Act come to force?
Answer:
Pitt’s Act came to force on Ist January 1785.

Question 9.
When was Supreme court estsblished at Calcutta?
Answer:
Supreme Court was estsblished in 1774 at Calcutta.

Question 10.
When was Supreme Court estsblished at Madras?
Answer:
Supreme Court was estsblished in 1797 at Madras.

Question 11.
Who and when took out a cempiled code of law?
Answer:
Lord Cornwallis took out a compiled code of law in 1793.

Question 12.
Under whom Bentinck created a special division to supress the Thagis?
Answer:
Bentinck created a special division under Cornel Sleeman to supress the Thagis.

Question 13.
Who established thanas in distroicts and when?
Answer:
In 1793 Cornwallis established thanas in the districts.

Question 14.
Who was in charge of each thana?
Answer:
A daroga was in charge of each thana.

Question 15.
Mention one of a function of Sipahi of company.
Answer:
One of the functions of Sipahi is to supress the revolts.

Question 16.
Who were publicised as military race?
Answer:
The Jaths, Pathans, Rajputs, Nepali, Gurkhas were publicised as military race.

Question 17.
Who started the Civil Service system?
Answer:
Cornwallis started the Civil Service system.

Question 18.
When was the Fort Willium college founded?
Answer:
The Fort Willium college was founded in 1800 A.D.

Question 19.
Who had to enrol at Heilbery College?
Answer:
All examinees of the civil service examination had to enroll at Heilbery college

Question 20.
What was the most famous school founded by Alexander Duff?
Answer:
The most fameus school founded by Alexander Duff was General Assembly Institution.

Question 21.
Who opposed the foundation of Sanskrit college and spread of Sanskrit education?
Answer:
Raja Rammohan opposed the foundation of Sanskrit college and spread of Sanskrit education.

Question 22.
Who was Macaulay?
Answer:
Macaulay was the president of the General committee of public instruction.

Question 23.
Who was Charles Wood?
Answer:
Charles Wood was the President of Board of control.

Question 24.
When was Hindu College established?
Answer:
Hindu College was established in 1817.

Question 25.
When was Council of Education was formed in Bengal?
Answer:
in 1843 Council of Education was formed in Bengal.

Give answer briefly :

Question 1.
Write a short note on Baptist Misson.
Answer:
The Baptist mission was established in 1800 . The missionaries of Srirampore joined the company in the spread of education. They set up their own printing press and printed bengali books. William Carey was the prominent person among the Baptist missionaries. He translated the Indian epics into English. He also translated a portion of the Bible into several Indian languages. Carey edited and published Halhed’s Bengati grammar book in 1778 .

Question 2.
Write a short note on Regulating Act.
Answer:
Regulating Act was passed in 1773. According to the law the power and authority of Bengal, Madras and Bombay was regulated. A new post of Governor General was created. It was decided that Governor of Bengal would be Governor General and the Gevernors of Bombay and Madras would serve under him. The Governor General’s council consisted of members. The terms of the Governor General would be five years. Calcutta became the capital of British empire in india by the law.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Wood’s Despatch.
Answer:
Charles Wood, the president of Board of control, sent a despatch in July 1854 to creat an organised structure of education from primary to upper school level. This is called Wood’s Despatch. It recommended-i) Indian and English language as the medium of instrofion from shcool level. ii) English language as the medium of instruction from college level to the upper most level of education. iii) For opening an education department and creating a post of director of Public instruction. iv) Vernacular tongue as the medium of woman education and vocational training.

Question 4.
What was the objective of the educational policy of the colonial Government?
Answer:
The colonial government spread western education for their own purposes. It was not possible to bring Europian bureaucrats essential in administration or trade in India. So in the beginning of British rule in India the British put effort to spread western education to create English educated group of clearks to help them in administration. The aim of such education was to educate a few people from the society who were attached to the colonial structure. They had no plan for mass education.

Answer in details

Question 1.
Write about the Judicial reforms of Lord Hastings.
Answer:
After abolishing Dual Government system Governor General of East India company Lord Hastings started reforms of Judiciary system. A Diwani and a Fowzdari court was established at every district. A Kazi and a Mufti were appointed at the Fowzdari court but the control power was in the European hand. The Brahmin Pandit and Muslim Moulavis explained the laws. Later a great change occured in the Dewani system. Hastings divided Bengal, Bihar and Orissa in six divisions. A Diwani court was established in each division. Each division compressed of several district. The judiciary power of each district was vested on a Dewan or Amin. In 1773 according to Regulating act Supreme Court was established.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 8 History Book Solutions Chapter 2 Rise of Regional Powers offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 8 History Chapter 2 Question Answer – Rise of Regional Powers

Think and Find :

1. Match column A with B

A	B
Ayodhya	Ist Anglo-Sikh War
1764	Sadat Khan
Doctrine of Lapse	Buxar War
Lahore treaty	Mysore
Tipu Sultan	Lord Dalhousie

Answer:

A	B
Ayodhya	Sadat Khan
1764	Buxar War
Doctrine of Lapse	Lord Da!housie
Lahore treaty	Ist Anglo-Sikh War
Tipu Sultan	Mysore

2. Fill in the blanks eitil correct alternative :

a. During Aurangzeb’s rule, Murshid Quli Khan was the _______ of Bengal. (Dewan / Faujdar/Nawab).
Answer:
Dewan.

b. Ahmed Shah Abdali was _______. (Maratha / Afgan / Parsi).
Answer:
Afgan.

c. Alinagar treaty was concluded between _____. (Mir Jafar and the British company / Siraj and British company / Mir Qasim and British company).
Answer:
Siraj and British company.

d. the diwani rights of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa was given to the English company by _____. (Emperor Shah Alam II / Emperor Faruksiyar / Emperor Aurangzeb).
Answer:
Emperor Shah Alam.

c. The Subsidiary Alliance was willingly accepted by ______ (Tipu Sultan / Sadat Khan / the Nizam).
Answer:
the Nizam.

3. Answer briefly (30 – 40 words):

Question a.
What was the importance of Faruk Shiyar’s Farman?
Answer:

1. The farman granted the right of buying the zamindari of 38 villages near Calcutta to British East India company.
2. The farman also granted certain trading rights to the British East India company. The British company could do the trade in Bengal of an annual payment of three thousand rupees.
3. The ships that were treaty bound to the company could do free trade.
4. The company could use the Nawab’s mint at Murshidabad.

Question b.
Who, when and how established IIyderabad as regional power?
Answer:
Mubariz Khan. the Mughal provincial ruler, ruled Hyderabad almost like an independent ruler. In 1723 Mubariz Khan was defeated by Asaf Jha. Next year Asaf Jha became the Subedar of Deccan and established his authority in Hyderabad and started ruling independently.

Question c.
What is known as the ‘Plassey loot’?
Answer:
After the battle of Plassey the British acquired a huge amount of wealth as the compensation of the battle. On the other hand a huge amount of money callected as the revenue from Bengal which drained away to England. This is known as ‘Plassey loot’.

Question d.
What is ‘dual government’?
Answer:
After the acquisition of Dewani Right by the British the East India company established the political and economic control over Bengal. Nawab had the administrative, legislative and Judicial power to exercise. Nawab could build political power minus economic power. This system in Bengal is known as the dual system.

Question e.
What was the job of British residents?
Answer:
The British company appointed a representative or resident in various courts of rulers. For that the rulers could not do anything independently. The residents kept their eyes on every activities of the rulers. At the time of Lord Dalhousie the residents became aggressive.

4. Write in your own words (120-160 words) :

Question a.
Do you think it was the incompetence of the Mughals which led to the rise of regional powers? Give reason for your answer.
Answer:
After the death of Aurangzeb the power of the Mughal empire started declining rapidly. The regional powers became powerful in the various parts of the empire. The weakness of Mughat Emperors were responsible for the rise of the regional powers. For instance the wrong policy of Aurangzeb about Rajput deprived him of the assistance of Rajput. His wrong Deccan policy weakened the Mughals and emptied the treasury.

The long absence from capital Delhi the provincial rulers became independent. The narrow relegious outlook of Arangzeb destroyed the trust and loyalty of Hindus to the emperor. the revolt of Jath. Sikh, Satnami, Bundela and Rajput had shaken the base of the Mughal empire. The weakness of the descendants of Aurangzeb gave pace to the downfall of Mughal empire.

Apart from individual weakness dte to the lack of military reforms the internal revolts and the raids of the invaders could not be resisted. The aristocrats of the Mughal court fel! divided among themselves, trying to secure a profitable Jaigir. Instead of rendering proper governance to the people. the emperor and the aristocrats were engrossed with personal profit and loss.

Question b.
Between Battle of Plassay and Buxar which do you think was more important for British expansion. Give reason for your answer.
Answer:
Though after the battle of Plassey the sovereign power of Bengal was not handed over to the British. the East India company advanced establish their empire all over India that centred in Bengal. The British formed a strong skillful arm using the money and wealth of Bengal. The win of Plassay established the British empire in Bengal and the military, economic and power of British company however increased after that.

On the other hand after the battle of Bux:’ ‘e Nawabs became the puppets of British and limitless power of British was established (N… be rgal. The defeat of joint power of three native rulers proved the superior military power of , . Itish. – ‘ith the defeat of Ayodhya’s ruler, the company could expand its power all over North India. Besides the most important outcome of the Buxar was the acquisition by the British of the Diwani rights of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa.

Dual system of administration was established in Bengal. In this system British had economic inner and the right revenue collection. On the other hand Nawab enjoyed political power and looked after law and order. In this system the real power centered in the hands of British. The monopoly right of trading of essential goods was also enjoyed by the British merchants.

Question c.
What role did the private trade of company officials play in the conflict between Mir Qasim and the British company? What effect did dual government have on Bengal?
Answer:
For various causes being displeased with Mirzafar, Company removed him from the power. His son-in-law Mir Qasim was made Nawab. To become Nawab with British support Mir Qasim had to give the zamindari of Bardhaman, Medenipur and Chattogram to the British and 29 lakhs in cash. Beside he had to give the right of trading of lime in Shilleth. But company startea giving continue pressure on him. A conflict between Mir Qasim and British on the question of trading without paying tax and inland trading.

For the dual government system the misery of the people reached at summit. The British tortured their subjects for business profit. Every where prevailed disorder. For the tremendous pressure the farmers and the small landtords became bankrupt. The British officials started plundering the subjects. The Nawab had no power to punish them. The law and order deteriorated everywhere. Most of the lands left unploughed. There was crysis of crops, therefore the price had rises. One of the most important causes of the famine of 1776 of Bengal was Dual government system. The condition of the people became extremely miserable for the pressure of taxes and torture. On the other hand, a heavy amount of money collected as tax started going out of Bengal.

Question d.
How would you analyse the change in policy from Subsidiary Alliance to the Doctrine of Lapse, in the context of the expansion of the company’s power in India.
Answer:
Lord Wellesley had two objects of introducing Subsidiary Alliance : 1 . To establish British dominance in India. 2. To remove the French influence from India. According to the condition of this policy the willing surrender would be free independent internal matter but he could not make treaty or declare war without the permission of British. There would be a stand by British army and the expenditure of the army would bear the state. A British resident would be appointed in the state. The willing surrender had lost his soveraign power and become the puppet of British. On the other hand the British had become gainer in all the sense political, economical and strength. First, Nizam of Hyderabad had willingly accepted Subsidiary Alliance.

Lord Dalhousie introduced the policy of the Doctrine of Laps for the expansion of British empire. According to Doctrine of Lapse those Indian rulers who had no male heirs, lost their kingdom to British. In this way Dalhousie occupied Satara, Sambalpur, Jhansi and other states. By this enforcement of the policy Dalhousie stopped pension of some rulers. For example he stopped pension of the adapted son of Baji Rao after his death. The title of the daughter of Tanjore was abolished death of the king of Tanjore. By imposing the policy Dalhousie carved the patit of Sepoy mutiny.

Question e.
What was the relationship between Bengal and the Mughal administration during the rule of Mushid Quli Khan and Alivardi Khan?
Answer:
The relation between Bengal and the Mughal ruler at the reign of Murshid Quli Khan was good. Aurangzeb appointed Murshid Quli Khan as Dewan of Bengal. At the time of Bahadur Shah he still remained the Dewan of Bengal. Emperor Farukshiyar confirmed his post. Besides the post of Dewan, the post of Nazim of Bengal was given to him in 1717. After that his power became absolute in Bengal. In Murshid Quli’s time there appeared in Bengal a class of powerful Zamindars. They paid taxes to Nazim regularly. In returns they enjoyed independent power. The ruler depended on their assiștan,e. The relaton between Murshid Quil and the Mughal was good till his death.

The conflict between the heirs of Murshid Quli over the control of threne arose after his death. With the help of powerful zamindar Alivardi Khan captured the power of Bengal. From his time there was no relation between Mughal and the Nawab of Bengal. The taxes had not sent regularly, Officially the power of Mughal emperor was admitted, but there was self dominance in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa under Alivardi Khan.

5. Imagine and write (in 200 words):

a. Suppose you are a common man during Alivardi Khan’s rule. You face ‘Bargi’ attack. Write a conversation between you and your neighbour regarding the bargi attack.
Answer:
Me – Hello Sujan ! How are you?
Sujan – What a hell ! How we may be during this Bargi attack?
Me – Right ! Where you had been yesterday at the time of Bargi attack?
Sujan – Yesterday at noon when the Bargi attacked I was returning from market. Suddenly hearing a noise from behind I turn back and saw the Bargis were coming fast. In fear I took a leap in the bush to hide myself. I was trembling in fear. I had some cash with me. They had open sword in their hand while passing the bush they were looking at it. Probably they saw me diving into the bush from distance.
Me – I was also watching the scene through an opening of a closed window and I was spell-bound. I saw they were striking with the sword whoever they found. There was no trace of kindness. I saw an old man pleaded thern with folding hands not to slay him. But nobody pay any hid. He was killed with a single job of the sword.
Sujan – How disgusting! Is this the life?
Me – We how to live in this way, who will save whom! Nawab could not save us. Finally we have to escape to North Bengal or Kolkata.
Sujan – Right ! Some of my relative have already fled to Kolkata.
Me – But it is not possible for the poor like us.
Sujan – So no way ! we have to stay here.
Me – You are right ! Good Bye.

b. Suppose you are a English company official. What expericnce would you have had roaming Bengal during the famine of 76. What advice can you give to the Company about helping the people during famine.
Answer:
I have to visit the villages for special purpose. It was a tremendous experience. There was a cry for food allaround. The crops have almost failed for lack of rain. On the other hand, company sends rice to Madras army collecting from market. The company officials, the merchants and the authority of company started storing rice and the price of rice became beyond the capasity of the poor. One-third people died in the famine. Many land left unploughed. The peasants started se!ling bulls, plough even own sons and daughters. People with sketiton like body thronged on the street. The villages became deserted. However, the taxes in this year increased than the previous years. The agricultural system of Bengal lost the balance.

I shall advice the company to relax the revenue collection for a year. The peasants should be given the food crops at very low cost. If necessary it should be given at free of cost. Only then the people could be brought back to their life.

Class 8 History Chapter 2 Question Answer West Bengal Board – Rise of Regional Powers

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers :

Question 1.
The time gap between death of Aurangzeb and battle of Palasy
i) 50 yers
ii) 60 yers
iii) 70 yers
iv) 90 yers
Answer:
i) 50 yers

Question 2.
Appointment of Murshidkuli khan was made permanent by –
i) Aurangzeb
ii) Bahadur Salaa
iii) Farukhsiyar
Answer:
iii) Farukhsiyar

Question 3.
In Bengal the famine of ‘ 76 ‘ occured in-
i) 1776
ii) 1576
iii) 1676
iv) 1176
Answer:
iv) 1176

Question 4.
Maratha diteh was dug for –
i) frigation
ii) preventing Maratha attack
iii) preventing Bargi attack
iv) piseiculture
Answer:
iii) preventing Bargi attack

Question 5.
In 1754 Suja-ud-doula became the ruler of-
i) Bengal
ii) Awadh
iii) Hydrabad
iv) Bihar
Answer:
ii) Awadh

Question 6.
The Indian rulers who had no male heirs lost their kingdom to the British. This was known as-
i) Subsidiary Alliance
ii) Doctrine of Lapse
Answer:
ii) Doctrine of Lapse

Question 7.
Number of Indo-Mysore battles took place between 1767 and 1799
i) four
ii) five
iii) three
iv) two
Answer:
i) four

Question 8.
The influence of Jaigirdari and Mansabdari system On Mughal economy was
i) positive
ii) negative
Answer:
ii) negative

State whether True or Falses

Question 1.
In eighteenth century the Mughals had not done any military reforms.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Awadh emerged as an autonomous provincial power under Murshid Quli Khan.
Answer:
False.

Question 3.
Jagat Seth is a title of a particular merchant family.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Mir-Kamar-uddin-Siddiki was given the title of Asaf Jha by Aurangzeb.
Answer:
False.

Question 5.
In 1776 Mir Jafar was removed and his son-in-law Mir Qasim was made the Nawab.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
In 1717, Mughalemperor Faruksiyar issued an order or a farman.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Like Murshid Quli, Alivardi Khan too had anegative attitude towards the European traders.
Answer:
False.

Question 8.
Mir Jafar haf played an inactive role during the battle of Palasy.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
After the battle of Palasy, Robert Clive appointed Mir Jafar we Nawab of Bengal.
Answer:
True.

Question 10.
Lord Clive roiurned to Bengal after 1765 .
Answer:
False.

Question 11.
Between 1757 and 1765, the Company emerged as the main power in Bengal.
Answer:
True.

Question 12.
The policy of doctrine of lapse set up by Lord Wellesley.
Answer:
False.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
The chief of the three main regional power Bengal, Hyderabad, Ayodhya were _________ Mughal administrators.
Answer:
local.

Question 2.
________ got the post of Bengal’s Nazim in 1717.
Answer:
Murshid Kuli Khan

Question 3.
The royal treasury and mint of Suba Bengal was in the invisible control of _______.
Answer:
Jagat Seth.

Question 4.
The Nawab’s capital _________ was not spared by the Bergis.
Answer:
Murshidabad.

Question 5.
In 1717, the Mughal emperor Farukshiyar issed an order or a _________.
Answer:
Farman.

Question 6.
Mir Qasim had to pay almost 29 lakhs to beceme ___________.
Answer:
Nawab.

Question 7.
The residents became aggressive during the time of Lord ___________.
Answer:
Wellesley.

Question 8.
The Sikhs lost the first Anglo-Sikh war in _________.
Answer:
1845.

Question 9.
The Marathas had a great deai of supremacy in the __________.
Answer:
Decan.

Question 10.
Under haidar Ali and Tipu Sultan, Mysore’s army was set up in _______ model.
Answer:
European.

Match column A with B

A	B
Aurangzeb died	the death of the one-third peasant occured
Persian invasion	Murshid Quli Khan became Nazim.
In 1717	turned into the ruler’s rod
The business man of Murshidabad	were called merchant’s king.
In the battle of Plassy Mir Jafar	Under the leadership of Nadir Shah.
The merchant’s scale	Tipu Sultan died.
In the famine of ‘ 76 ‘	in 1707.
In fourth Anglo Mysore war	was inactive.

Answer:

A	B
Aurangzeb died	in 1707
Persian invasion	under the leadership of Nadir Shah.
In 1717	Murshid Quli Khan became Nazim.
The business man of Murshidabad	were called merchant king
In the battle of Plassy Mir Jafar	was inactive.
The merchant’s scale	turned into ruler’s rod.
In the famine of ‘ 76 ‘	the death of one third pleasant was occured.
In fourth Anglo Mysore war	Tipu Sultan died.

Answer in a sentence :

Question 1.
In which year Aurangzeb died?
Answer:
Aurangzeb died in 1707.

Question 2.
Whe was the leader of Persian attack in Delli?
Answer:
Nadir Shah was the leader of Persian attack in Delhi.

Question 3.
Who was the leader of Afgan attack in Delli?
Answer:
Ahmad Saha Abdali was the leader of Afgan attack in Delhi.

Question 4.
By whom Murshidkuli Khau was appointed as Dewan of Bengal?
Answer:
Murshidkuli Khan was appointed as Dewan of Bengal by Aurangzeb.

Question 5.
Who became Nawab after Alibardi kihan?
Answer:
Siraj Ud-doullah becane Nawab after Alibardi Khan.

Question 6.
Who was honoured with the title Jagat Seth?
Answer:
Fateha Cliand was honoured with the title Jagat Seth.

Question 7.
Mention an important incident of the reign of Nawab Alivardi Khan.
Answer:
An important incident of the reign of Nawab Alivardi Khan was the Bargi attack.

Question 8.
Who founded the kingdom of Hyderabad and when?
Answer:
Asaf tha founded the kingdom of Hyderabad in 1724.

Question 9.
When did Mughal emperor Farukh Shah issue a farman?
Answer:
Mughal emperor Farukh Shah issued a forman in 1717.

Question 10.
Who propagated the story of ‘Black Hole Tragedy’?
Answer:
Holwell propagated the story of ‘Black Hole Tragedy’.

Question 11.
In which year the battle of Plassy took place?
Answer:
The battle of Plassy took place in 1757.

Question 12.
Which states of zamindary was given to British by Mir Qasim?
Answer:
Mir Qasim gave the zamindary of Bardhaman, Midnapur and Chattogram to the Brithish.

Question 13.
When did the Battle of Buxar take place?
Answer:
The Battle of Buxar took place in 1764.

Question 14.
How long the dual system of administration continued in Bengal?
Answer:
The dual system of administration continued in Bengal from 1765 to 1772 .

Question 15.
When did the famine of ’76’ occur?
Answer:
The famine of ’76’ occured in Bengal in 1770. In terms of Bengal calender, the year stood at 1176.

Question 16.
Who willingly accepted Subsidiary Alliance?
Answer:
The Nizam of Hydarabad willingly accepted Subsidiary Alliance.

Question 17.
Who opposed the policy of Subsidiary Alliance?
Answer:
Tipu Sultan of Mysore opposed of Subsidiary Alliance.

Question 18.
Who implemented the policy of Doctrine of Lapse?
Answer:
Lord Dalhousi implemented the policy of Doctrine of Lapse.

Question 19.
In which war Tipu Sultan was died?
Answer:
Tipn Sultan was died in Fourth Anglo-Mysore war.

Question 20.
In which year and between whom Salbai treaty was signed?
Answer:
In 1782 Salbai Treaty was signed between Maratha and British Company.

Answer in 30-40 words :

Question 1.
Short note on Mansabdari system.
Answer:
Emperor Akbar introduced Mansabdari system to form army. The soldiers were paid according to their post. They were classified according to their number under a mansabdar. The mansabdar of lowest rank could keep maximum 10 soldiers and of highest rank could keep maximum is thousand soldier. The mansabdars were paid in cash and they paid the soldiers from the earning from their Jaigir. The post of mansabdar was not heriditary.

Question 2.
What was the relation between famine of ‘ 76 ‘ and the dual government?
Answer:
Dual government system is responsible for the famine of ‘ 76 ‘. East India Company got the right of collecting faxes from Bengal, Bihar and Orissa. Reja Khan in Bengal and Sitab Roy were given responsiblity for collecting taxes. They were collecting taxes as much as they could. Many lands remained unploughed. Crisis of fond crops occured and the price rised high. The British army for its food supply collected enough paddy rice by hook or by crook. On the other hand the British officials, merchants, the authority of company started hoarding rice and later sold at high price.

Question 3.
Write short note on ‘Black Ilole Tragedy’.
Answer:
In 20th June 1756, Nawab Siraj-ud-daullah occupied Calcutta. After that Holwell as well as some British was imprisoned by the Nawab’s army. Holwell complained that Siraj had locked up 146 British men and women in a small room and that resulted the death of 123 of them. This incident is known as ‘Black Hole Tragedy’. Later, it is proved that it was imagined and exaggerated.

Answer in 120-160 words :

Question 1.
How far the various policies of Aurangzeb were responsible for the downfall of Nughal empire.
Answer:
The various policies of Aurangzeb were responsible for the downfall of Mughal empire
a) From the reign of Akbar the Rajputs helped Mughals to expand their empire and strengthen the Mughals. But for the wrong Rajput policy of Aurangzeb deprived him from the assistance of Rajputs.
b) His Deccan policy also weaken the power of the Mughals. The regional powers of north Bengal revolted and some of them became independent for the long absence of Aurangzeb at Delhi.
c) The former emperor showed the relegious tolerance but Aurangzeb was too much orthodox about religion. From his narrow religious outlook he was deprived from the loyalty trust and support of Hindus.
d) The revolt of Jath, Satnami, Sikh, Bundela, Rajput of the reign of Aurangzeb weakened the foundation of Mughal dynasty.

Question 2.
What is Dual Government system? What was its result?
Answer:
When East India company got the Dewani Rights of Bengal the power of tax collection and the military power was handed over to them. Nawab only enjoyed political power and looked after law and administration. As the economic power and the right to revenue collection centered in the hand of British, they enjoyed real power. This system was known as Dual system.

The misery of people of Bengal increased upto the extreme point. Disorder prevailed every where. The company collected as much revenue as possible. For this purpose the British offecials tortured their subjects. Dere to the tremendous pressure small Jamindars and peasants became bankrupt.

The British officials stated to plunder the subjects, Nawab had no power to punish them. The law and order became failed. Many lands had not been ploughed at all. The price of things started going higher. Dual system was the people of Bengal were suffering in miserable condition, the wealth of Bengal drained away.

Question 3.
What were the main conditions of Doctrine of Lapse? State the application of this policy.
Answer:
The main terms and conditions of Doctrine of Lapse are –
1. Those Indian rulers who had no male heirs, lose their kingdom to the British. If the king had any adopted son he would not have any right on the throne.
2. In case of subjugated states they had to seek permission while taking adopted son. Otherwise the adopted son would considered as illegal. If company would not give permission to the state would lose their kingdom.
3. The native independent state could take to adopted son without the permission of British. By the application

policy of Doctrine of Lapse, Dalhousie ocenpied Santara, Sambalpur, Jhansi and other regions. Dalhousie snatehed the Berar province of Hyderabad to provide for company expenses. By the policy, he stopped pension of some province. After the death of Baji Rao-II he stopped the pension of Nana Sahib, the adopted son of Baji Rao-II. On the other hand, after the death of Tanjore Raj the title of her daughter was banned. By applying the policy of Doctrine of Lapse Lord Dallousie widened the path of the great revolt.

Question 4.
What was the object of Subsidiary Alliance? What was the condition of the policy? What was the result?
Answer:
There were two objectives of Subsidiary Alliances. They are –
i) To establish the political power in India.
ii) To remove the French influence from India.
According to the condition of the policy, the ruler who would accept the policy the British government gave the military protection of that state. The inner independence of the ruler would be secure but the ruler could not make any treaty or declare war without the permission of British government. The ruler had to bear the expenditure of standing army. The British government put a resident at the court of the ruler.

The kings, who accepted the policy of subsidiary alliance had lost their sovereign power. They became the puppet of the British. On the other hand, the British became strong in aspect of political, economical and others powers. The Nizam of Hyderabad had willingly accepted the policy. Later the other states were compelled to take the policy.

Question 5.
What is the famine of ’76’? What is the result of it?
Answer:
In 1770, in terms of Bengal calender the year stood at 1176, a tremendous famine occured in Bengal which is known as the famine of ’76’. For this famine of ’76’, one-third people of Bengal died. This famine influenced the economy of Bengal greatly. The self sufficient villeges turned into deserted place. But the revenue increased in compare of other years. Due to this severe famine the agricultural system of Bengal had lost the balance. There were lack of peasants as many of peasants had died in the faminc. Lands left unploughed. Many Jamindar also died. In one hand, old Jamindary were abolished, On the other hand, new Jamindari emarged. They used to run their Jamindary by dewan and the revenue from the subjects was collected by them. With the agriculture cottage industry of Bengal destroyed also. For the death of labours and craftsman the production in industry was hampered.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 8 History Book Solutions Chapter 1 The Idea of History offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 8 History Chapter 1 Question Answer – The Idea of History

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers :

Question 1.
Present can be known from –
i) present
ii) past
iii) future
Aus :
ii) past

Question 2.
Photograph can tell a lot about-
i) cconomic history
ii) social history
iii) political history
iv) all of these are true
Answer:
iv) all of these are true

Question 3.
Chandragupta Naurya was a-
i) Budhist
ii) mughal
iii) jaina
iv) parsian
Answer:
iii) jaina

Question 4.
Indians proved that they were not-
i) uncivilized
ii) civilized
iii) developed
Answer:
i) uncivilized

Question 5.
The history of different countries is-
i) different
ii) not different
Answer:
i) different

Question 6.
Rajabali was written for dealing about-
i) ancient Intia
ii) modern India
iii) the kings
Answer:
iii) the kings

Question 7.
James Mill divided Indian histery into-
i) ancient, mediaval, modern period
ii) Hindu, Muslim, Briritsh period [
Answer:
ii) Hindu, Muslim. Briritsh period

Question 8.
Titumir, Birsa, Munda were-
i) terrorist
ii) touble maker
iii) freedom fighters
Answer:
iii) freedom fighters

Question 9.
Who had declared, Siraj-ud-dullaho had ordered to kill ihe innecent British employes-
i) Indian historian
ii) British historian
iii) All historians
Answer:
ii) British historian

Question 10.
Two photographs taken by the different persons upon the same subject, may be hold up-
i) different meanings
ii) same meanings
Answer:
i) different meanings

Question 11.
“You and I andeveryone together will write our own history” Said-
i) Rabindranath
ii) Vivekananda
iii) Saratchandra
iv) Bankimchandra
Answer:
iv) Bankimchandra

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
We must drop the false ________ that history of the countries need be same.
Answer:
belief.

Question 2.
The present dis-determined by the ________.
Answer:
past.

Question 3.
The logic tha the British rulers put up for establishing a colony in India, was this that Indians were ________.
Answer:
Uncivilized

Question 4.
The Indians proud the existence of ________ history.
Answer:
indigenous.

Question 5.
James Mill has dividied Indian history into ________ parts.
Answer:
Three.

Question 6.
The history book written by Mrityunjay Bidyalankar is ________.
Answer:
Rajabali

Question 7.
The historian writes ________ in accordiance to the way of his understanding and finding of an incident.
Answer:
History.

Question 8.
In Indian history British period was named after the name of the ________.
Answer:
nation.

Question 9.
Accrording to Mill in Indian history Muslim period was ________.
Answer:
‘the dark age’

Question 10.
Through ________ a powerful country dominates a comperatively weak nation.
Answer:
imperialism.

Question 11.
Photographs cannot always be treated as ________ cvidence.
Answer:
absolute

Question 12.
There are ________ sources of writing modern history.
Answer:
various

State whether True or False:

Question 1.
There will be no problem if the history is written by own.
Answer:
False.

Question 2.
James Mill divided Indian history into History of Hindu, Muslim and British.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
There is a possibility of the historian, pulling of there personal opinion into an objective analysis of history.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Allan Oetavian Hume has entire credit for the foundation of Indian National Congress.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
The meaning of two photograph on same subject can be diferent.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
There is no realation between imperialism and colonialisma.
Answer:
False.

Question 7.
According to Bankimchandra Bengaliees have to write their own history.
Answer:
True.

Question 8.
Titumir was a freedom fighter.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
Paintings, maps, posters, newspapers, advertisements provide historical data.
Answer:
True.

Question 10.
Source material for modern history is not easily available.
Answer:
False.

Match the column A with column B.

Column A	Column B
a) Bimbisara	i) a Buddhist
b) The word modern refers to	ii) ‘History of British India’
c) Different individuals have viewed	iii) was a Bhuddhist
d) History is not the same	iv) for the Hindu rulers
e) Bimbisar was	v) wrote Rajabali
f) In 1817 James Mill wrote	vi) history differently
g) Mill wrote that the Muslim period	vii) whatever is recent
h) In 1808 Mrityunjoy Vidyalankar	viii) was the dark age of Indian History ix) in all countries
i) Mill had little respect	Column B

Answer:
a) Bimbisara was a Bhuddhist.
b) The word modern refers to whatever is recent.
c) Different individuals have viewed history differently.
d) History is not the same in all countries.
e) Bimbisar was a Buddhist.
f) In 1817 James Mill wrote ‘Histc of British India’.
g) Mill wrote that the Muslim period was the dark age of Indian History.
h) In 1808 Mrityunjoy Vidyalankar wrote Rajabali.
i) Mill had little respect for the Hindu rulers.

Appropriate explanation:

a) The British established their rule in Indian cause-
i) to civilise the uncivilised Indians.
ii) to spread impreialism
iii) to spread their trade and commerce.
Answer:
to spread imperialism.

b) the indigo cultivator cultivated indigo because-
i) it was most profitable
ii) the indigo cultivator borrowed moncy from British.
iii) to pay off their loan.
Answer:
to pay off their loan

c) The Bengalees have to write their own history because-
i) the history of Bangalees written by British is full of wrong.
ii) the foreigners do not know how to write history.
iii) the foreigners do not know Bengali languages.
Answer:
The history of Bengalees written by British is full of wrong.

Answer in a sentence :

Question 1.
The history of India that we read, memorise for examinations is mearly a nightmare of the dark time of India-Who said this?
Answer:
Rabindranath Tagore said this.

Question 2.
By what is the present determined?
Answer:
The present is determined by Past.

Question 3.
What was the logic put up by the British for establishing British rule in India?
Answer:
The logic was that it was their duty to civilize the uncivilized Indians.

Question 4.
What was the counter logic of Indians?
Answer:
The Indians argued that Indian history is not less glorious than British history.

Question 5.
What is in history besides the name of the king emperor or the desemiption of the battel?
Answer:
Britsh these there are many arguments in favour and against in history.

Question 6.
‘History is not the same in all countries’–Who said this?
Answer:
Rabindranath Tagore said this.

Question 7.
Why did Bankim chandra say-A Bengali has to write the history of Bengalis.
Answer:
He said this because the historty of Bengali writter by the foreigners are full of errors.

Question 8.
Why will the problem not be solved if we write our own history?
Answer:
Becasue history is wirten according to the writer’s view and realization.

Question 9.
Why arguments are arisen about the sequence of same incdient?
Answer:
Because the eyes and mind vary with the variation of the person.

Question 10.
What are the different ages of Indian history?
Answer:
The different ages of Indian history are ancient medieval and modern.

Question 11.
What is the name of the book of Mrityunjay Bidyalankar?
Answer:
The name of the history book of Mrilty unjay Vidylankar in Rajabali.

Question 12.
From where Mrityunjay Bidyalankar started counting history
Answer:
He started counting history from the period of Yudhistira of Mahabharata.

Question 13.
What is the name of the book written by James Mill?
Answer:
The name of the book written by James Mill is History of British India.

Question 14.
How did Mill divide Indian history?
Answer:
Mill divided Indian History into Hindu, Muslim and British period.

Question 15.
From whose writing the era division was based on the religion of the ruler?
Answer:
From Mills writing the era division was based on the religion of the ruler.

Question 16.
How was Mill’s periodisation Changed?
Answer:
Mill’s periodisation changed into ancient, medieval and modern.

Question 17.
What era Aurangazeb region belonged to?
Answer:
Aurangazeb ear belonged to medieval period.

Question 18.
What era the battle of Palassey belonged to?
Answer:
The battle of Palassey (1757) belonged to modern era.

Question 19.
What are the sources of history of mordern era?
Answer:
In modern era the sources of history are paintings, books, maps, poster, newspaper, advertisement, administrater’s document, diaries, letters, land deeds etc.

Question 20.
Why ean the autobiography not be directly used as source?
Answer:
It is because the writer of the autobiography has viewed the world from the personal stand paint.

Question 21.
Why may the two photographs taken by two different persons upon the same subject, hold up different meanings?
Answer:
It is because the eye of camera is controlled by the eye of cameraman.

Question 22.
How are the peasant and the tribal movements of Indian seen by British?
Answer:
The peasant and the tribal movementes are seen as disturbance or disruption by the British.

Question 23.
What does the peasant and tribal movements mean to the Indians?
Answer:
To the Indians the peasent and tribal movements mean freedom movement.

Question 24.
What is Imperialism?
Answer:
Imperialism is a process by which a stronger coutnry dominates a weaker country.

Question 25.
Why was indigo cultivated in Bengal?
Answer:
Indigo was cultivated in Bengal to fulfil the demand at the cloth factories in England.

Answer in 30-40 words :

Question 1.
Give reason for and against of establishment of British rule in India?
Answer:
Accoridng to British the Indians are uncivilized. They had lack of education and scientific knowledge. To make them civilized it was needed to establish the British rule in India. On the other hand the Indians prolished against the laque. They brought the reference from Emperor Ashoka to Emperor Akbar, from Aryabhatta to Chaitanyadev. The Indians proued the existence of indigenous history.

Question 2.
Why it is important that who is writing the history?
Answer:
If any foreigner writes the history of Bengalees he will write the history, from his point of view. The history of Bengalles written by foreign historians are full of errors. If the view changes the consequence also changes. So the the arguments arise. For the difference of view points the significance of the incidents may change.

Question 4.
Why the problems will not be solved if we write our own history?
Answer:
If the history is written by the educated people it is defined by the view point of the writes. Then the common poor people will be left out. This fact has revealed in case of India. In Indian history thousands of nameless people were neglected who joined in Santhal revolt.

Question 4.
Why are there so arguments over history?
Answer:
Different individuals have viewed history differently. History is often defined by the view point of the writers. These creates the occation for historical debeates.

Question 5.
When was the era division started in Indian History?
Answer:
In 1808 to Mrityun Bidyalankar wrote a book of history called Rajabali and he started counting history from the period of king Yudhisthira of Mahabharata. James Mill in his book History of British India, devided Indian history into Hindu, Nuslim and British. In course of time the division changed into ancient medieval and modern.

Question 6.
What is the main features of Mill’s ear division of the ruler?
Answer:
The first two periods were named on the basis of religion. the third period was named on the basis of race, thus the third was not Chritian. but British peried. The all rullers of Hindu period were not Hindus. Chandragupta Murya was Jain and Bimbisara was Buddhist. On the other hand in Muslim period relegiously. to learnt liberal ruler Akbar was indentified by his religion.

Question 7.
Why is it said that division of era is very simplified?
Answer:
It is because Era ‘refers to a large passage of time. Individuals in each era have their own unique characteristics of living. These characteristics do not change overnight. It is not always possible to fix all calculated date to the changing of eras.

Question 8.
What is the problem of use autobiography as direct souree of hsitory?
Answer:
The writer of the autobiography has viewed the world from his personal stand point. If any historian uses such source without judging well, he may be led to a biased or even a wrong opinion. For example, William Wedderburn has credited Allan Octavian Hume in his biography of the latter, with the formation of Indian National Congress. Later it has been found Hume’s eredit was not entirely merited.

Question 9.
Why has the uprising of the peasants and tribals been viewed from two angles?
Answer:
In the eyes of British rulers the uprising to presants and tribal has been viewed as disturbances or disruption. The official documents of the time support this view. However in different view, the peasant and tribal movement are seen as anti-colonial movements.

Question 10.
How imperialism justified?
Answer:
A stronger country subjugates a weaker country and controls the wealth and public of the weaker nation. It is said that, the weaks are notonly weak they are uncivilized also. To make them civilze is duty of the imperialists. But it is an one sided shameless reason for the imperialists to tulfil their own benefit.

Question 11.
Which are the sources of modern history.
Answer:
There are various sources of modern history. They are paintings, photos, books, administrative document, book, diaries, letters, land deeds, etc. Besides coins, sculptures, maps. poster, and newspapers also provide sources of history:

Answer in 120-160 words :

Question 1.
Why is the story of wolf and the young lamb mentioned here? What does it mean by putting the other characters in place of wolf and the young lamb?
Answer:
With the help of the story of the wolf and the young lamb it is shown that the present is ditermined by the past. The logic behind many present actions is derived from history.

If we replace the wolf with a foreign indigo merchant and the young lamb with indigo farmer it will be seen that a debt that was run by the indigo farmer to the sabib merchant, gradually would turn heriditary. So to pay off his farming. On the other hand history can useful to get relief and establish rights. If the young lamb can furnish proof from history that the wolf’s logic is incorrect, the wolf let him go.

Now the wolf is replaced by the British ruler and young lamb is replaced by the common people of India. The logic that the British rulers put up for establishing a colony in India, was this that the Indians were uncivilized. On the other hand the Indians proud that they were not uncevilized by giving the reference from history. They mentioned the history from Aryabhatta to Chaityannadev and proved the evidence of indigenous history which was no less glorious than British History.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 8 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 11 Oceania offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 11 Question Answer – Oceania

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers : (1. merk for each question)

Question 1.
According to size Oceania is-
i) largest
ii) mediun
iii) large
iv) smallest
Answer:
iv) smaliest

Question 2.
Australia and New Zealand lies in –
i) northern hemisphere
ii) southern henisphere
iii) eastern hemisphere
iv) wéstern hemisphere
Answer:
iii) southern hemisphere

Question 3.
Marshall, Nauru, Guam etc are major islands of
i) Micronesia
ii) Polynesia
iii) Australasia
iv) Melanesia
Answer:
i) Micronesia

Question 4.
Fiji, New Guinea ete are major islands of-
i) Micronesia
ii) Polynesia
iii) Australasia
iv) Melanesia
Answer:
iv) Melanesia

Question 5.
The Great Barrier Reef is a-
i) saline lake
ii) coral reef
iii) mountain range
iv) Artesian well
Answer:
ii) coral reef

Question 6.
In 1770 anchored in the eastern coast of Austrslia-
i) Ferdinand Magellan
ii) Abel Tasman
iii) James Cook
Answer:
iii) James Cook

Question 7.
The range lies the east coast of Australia-
i) Coast Range
ii) Great Deviding Range
iii) Caseate Range
Answer:
ii) Great Deviding Range

Question 8.
In producing wool Australia’s position in the world –
i) first
ii) second
iii) third
iv) fourth
Answer:
i) first.

Question 9.
The most prosperous region of Australia is –
i) London tasin
ii) Murray Darling basin
iii) Lake Eyre basin
Answer:
ii) Murray Darling basin.

Question 10.
Longest river of New Zealand-
i) Waikate
ii) Clutha
iii) Fly
iv) Hunte:
Answer:
i) Waikato

Question 11.
Longest river of Oceania-
i) Waikate
ii) Clutha
iii) Fly
iv) Mnrray-Darling
Answer:
iv) Murray-Darling

Question 12.
Source of Fly river is-
i) Wanaka Lake
ii) Australian Alps
iii) Victor Emanuel Range
iv) Great Dividing Range
Answer:
iii) Victor Emanuel Range

Question 13.
Islands of Melanesia, Polyncsia and Micronesia experiance-
i) equatorial olimate
ii) tropical monsoon climate
iii) temperate climate
iv) mediterranean climate
Answer:
i) equatorial climate

Question 14.
Tasmania and Now Zealamd experiance-
i) Temperate climate
ii) British elimate
iii) Equatorial climate
iv) Semi-arid climate
Answer:
i) Britist ctimatio

Question 15.
Temperate grasslant is foumt in-
i) northern part of Australia
i) southern Austratia
iii) west of Great Dividing Range
iv) Tasmania and kew Zealand
Answer:
iii) west of Grat Dividing Range

State whether True or False : (1 mark for each question)

1. The number of Inaguages in Oceania is 28.
2. In 1789 rebellers of British Royal Navy settled permanently in Pitcairn island.
3. Gold mine is found in Australia.
4. The old fold mountain is Leverpool Range.
5. In oceania sovereign nations are 14 and dependent territorie are 21.
6. The Great Deviding Range is the highest peak of Australia.
7. The largest coral reef is Mt Cook.
8. The highest peak of New Zeland is Mt Ekerest.
19. Mt. cook is the highest peak of the world.
10. Ruapehu is the highest peak of Oceania.
11. Tropical grassland is known as Parkland Savanna.
12. Mediterranean grassland is calHed Downs.
13. Broken Hill is known as the ‘city of Silver?
14. In British clinate the westerlies cause heayy shower througkout the year.
15. In Murray darling bisin the average height varies 200-400 metre.
16. Murray originates fiom Australian Alphs.
17. Mediterranean ve fetation can be seen in Adelaide area.
18. Australia occupies second position in beef production.
19. Adelaide is the main trade and industria! centre of Murray Darling basin.
20. Total height of Mauna Loa is more than Mount Everest.
Answer:
1. true
2. true
3. true
4. false
5. true
6. false
7. false
8. false
9. false
10. false
11. true
12. false
13. true
14. true
15. false
16. true
17. true
18. false
19. true
20. true

Fill in the blanks : (1 mark for each question)

1. Australia is divided into _____ physiographic regions.
2. The grassland of Murray Darling basin is known as ____.
3. ______ is a famous port near the mouth of Murray Darling river.
4. The highest peak of New Zealand is ______.
5. The longest river of New Zealand is ______.
6. Norfolk is a major island of ______.
7. ______ is the largest glacial lake in mountainous regions of New zealand.
8. Hobart is a city of ______.
9. The islands of Melanasia is ______ in notable.
10. Hawai, Tonga, Cook are major islands of ______.
11. In ______ century Ferdinand Magellan found out the famous island Marinus.
12. The old fold mountain is ______.
13. The highest peak of New England Range is ______.
14. Great Sandy desert is situsted in ______ platean of Oceania.
15. _____ is the highest peak of the world.
16. The longest river of Ocenia is ______ of Australia.
17. The longest river of New Zealand is _____.
18. Tall grasses grow in ______ northern part of Australia.
19. At the _____ part of Australia forest have been grown.
20. The river Murray originates from ______ mountain.
21. Broad leaf, deciduous trees are seen in forests of ______.
22. Australia ias occupicd ____ position in producing wool.
Answer:
1. four.
2. Downs
3. Aclelaide
4. Mt (ook
5. Waikato
6. Melanesia
7. Taupo
8. Australia
9. Fiji
10. polynesia
11. sixieenth
12. Great dividing Range
13. Mt Kosciuszko
14. western
15. Mt Everest
16. Murray-Darling
17. Waikato
18. Parkland Savana
19. southern
20. Australian Alps
21. eastern Austrlia
22. first

Match the column A with column B.

Column A	Column B
a) Smallest country of Oceania	i) is the largest river of Oceania
b) Largest country of Oceania	ii) in Polynesia
c) Murray-Darling river	iii) evergreen forest grows
d) Hawaii is situated	iv) rain occurs during winter
e) Mt Kosciuszko	v) is Australia
f) Cooper ia an	vi) in Papua New Guinea
g) In Melanasia, Micronesia, Polynesia	vii) is 3164 m.
h) In Mediterranean climate	viii) is Nauru
i) The height of Mount Cook	ix) is the highest peak of Australia
j) Mt Wilhelm is situated	x) inland river

Answer:
a) Smallest country of Oceania is Nauru.
b) Largest country of Oceania is Australia.
c) Murray-Darling river is the largest river of Oceania.
d) Hawaii is situated in Polynesia.
e) Mt Kosciuszko is the highest peak of Australia.
f) Cooper ia an inland river.
g) In Melanasia, Micronesia, Polynesia evergreen forest grows.
h) In Mediterranean climate rain occurs during winter.
i) The height of Mount Cook is 3164 m.
j) Mt Wilhelm is situated in Papua New Guinea.

Very Short Questions & Answers : (1 mark for each question)

Question 1.
Where is the continent Occania located?
Answer:
Oceania lies between 15° north latitude in north and 47° south latitude in south and 114° east longitude in the west and 139° west latitude in the east.

Question 2.
What is the highest peak of Australia?
Answer:
Mt Kosciuszko of New England Range (2234 m) is the highest peak of Australia.

Question 3.
How is Oceania composed up?
Answer:
Oceania is composed up many small and large islands like Australia, Tasmania, New Zealand, Fiji, New Caledonia, gnam, Marshall etc.

Question 4.
How is Oceania devided?
Answer:
Oceania is devided into to four groups-i) Australia, ii) Melanesia, iii) Micronesia and iv) Polynesia.

Question 5.
What is the area of Oceania?
Answer:
8,525,989 sq km.

Question 6.
State the boundary of Oceania.
Answer:
To the north of Oceania there are gulf of Carpentaria and Temor sea, to the south there is southern ocean, Pacific Ocean lies to the east and Indian Ocean to the west.

Question 7.
Name the highest peak of Oceania.
Answer:
Mit Wilhelm (4509 m) of Papua New Guinea.

Question 8.
Name the largest river of Oceania.
Answer:
Australia’s Murray-Darling river (3752 km).

Question 9.
What is great Barrier reer?
Answer:
Under the sea the world’s largest coral reef extends parallel to the north-east coast of Austratia which is known as great Barrier Reef.

Question 10.
In what direction of Australia, New Zealand is located?
Answer:
New Zealand is located to the South-East of Australia.

Question 11.
What are the islands New Zealand is comprised off?
Answer:
New Zealand is comprised of North and South islands. Stewart, Chatham etc and other small islands.

Question 12.
What is this highest peak of New Zealand?
Answer:
Mount cook (3164 mt) of South Alps.

Question 13.
Where is Cook strait located?
Answer:
The Cook strait lies in between North and South island.

Question 14.
Whe was Abel Tasman?
Answer:
Abel Tasman was a Dutch navigator.

Question 15.
What is called the Suitzerland of South?
Answer:
Some part of north New Zealand is ealled the Switzerland of south because of the pleasant weather and natural beauty.

Question 16.
In which part of Australia Darling river is located?
Answer:
To the South east part of Australia.

Question 17.
What is the location of Murray Darting river basin?
Answer:
The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of the area are 24° S to 39° S and 138° E to 149° E respectively.

Question 18.
What is the area of Murray Darling river basin?
Answer:
The area is 1,061,469 km²

Question 19.
What are the main rivers of Murray-Darling river basin?
Answer:
Murray and Darling are the two main rivers.

Question 20.
What is Downs?
Answer:
A wide grassland of small grasses is found to the West of Great Dividing Range. This is called Downs.

Question 21.
What is the climate of Murray Darling river basin?
Answer:
The climate is temperate type.

Question 22.
What are the different trees found in Murray Darling basin?
Answer:
Oak, Paplar, bairch etc.

Question 23.
What are the main agricultural crops of Murray-Darling river basin?
Answer:
Main agricultural crop is wheat.

Question 24.
What are the cattles reared in Murray Darling basin?
Answer:
Good breed sheep like merino, lincoln, marsh are reaved in Downs grassland of Murray Darling basin.

Question 25.
What are the minerals found in Murray Darling basin?
Answer:
Silver, lead, gold, copper, tin are found is Murray-Darling basin.

Question 26.
Which is called ‘Silver city’?
Answer:
Broken Hill is called ‘Silver City’.

Question 27.
Name a active Valcano of Oceania.
Answer:
Mauna Loa.

Question 28.
Name another active Volcano of Oceania.
Answer:
Ruapehu.

Question 29.
Name a river of Papua New Guinea.
Answer:
Fly.

Question 30.
What is the name of famous coral reef of Australia?
Answer:
Great Barrier Reef.

Question 31.
In which continent cangaroo is found?
Answer:
Australia.

Question 32.
Which island is known as Great Reef?
Answer:
Fiji island.

Question 33.
What is the world’s deepest Trench?
Answer:
Mariana Trench.

Question 34.
In which hemisphere Australia and New Zealand located?
Answer:
Southern hemisphere.

Question 35.
In which country Murray-Darling basin is located?
Answer:
Australia.

Question 36.
Name a port of Murray-Darling basin.
Answer:
Adelaide.

Question 37.
Which straight separetes Tasmania from Australia?
Answer:
Bass straight.

Question 38.
What is Jackos?
Answer:
The labours who work in the cattle rearing farm are called Jackos?

Question 39.
What is the population of Occania?
Answer:
3,51,62,670 persons.

Question 40.
What is the population of West Bengal?
Answer:
More than the double of the Occania’s population.

Question 41.
How many tourists visit this continent every year?
Answer:
I crore 20 lakh.

Short Questions & Answers : (2 marks for each question)

Question 1.
How is the continent Occania formed?
Answer:
The continet Oceania consists of islands lies Australia Tasmania, New Zealand, and group of islands like Salomon, iji, New Hebrids. New Caledonia, chisterfield etc.

Question 2.
What are the main four landmass of Oceania and what are their areas?
Answer:
The main four landmass of Oceania are-

1. Australia-77 lakh sq km.
2. New Zealand2 lakh 68 thousand sq km.
3. New Guinea -4 lakh 61 thousand sq km.
4. Tasmania-68 thousand sq km.

Question 3.
Describe the main industries and cities of Murray-Derling river basin.
Answer:
The main industries’ of Murray-Darling river basin are engineering, meat and food processing, chemical and dairy farming. The main cities are Adelaide Broken Hill, Mildura cic.

Question 4.
Describe the physoiography of Australia.
Answer:
The main landmass of Oceania is Australia. It is a great island. The area of this country is so large that it is called a continent. The area of Australia is 77 lakh 25 thousand sq km which is just equal to two and half fold of the area of India. 87 % of the total area of Oceania continent belong to Australia.

Question 5.
Describe the physiography of Micronesia:
Answer:
Micronesia consists of many small islands. The name of the islands are Marshall, Nauru, Kiribati, Gilbert and Guam. The inhabitants of these islands are dark in colour.

Question 6.
Describe the physiography of Polynesia.
Answer:
From the Howaii islands to the north to New Zealand and Easter islands to the south west belong to Polynesia. The name of the islands are Howaii, Samoa, Tonga, Cook, Faster Pitcairn etc.

Question 7.
Describe the location of Oceania.
Answer:
The continent Oceania is located from north boundary of Hawiaian island to New Zealand’s southern limit. And western boarder of Australia to Gambier Islad in the east.

Question 8.
What is Allot?
Answer:
The heap of dead coral emerges from the sea to creat a coral reef. Similariy when the dead corals occumulate in circular was it forms coral ring or allot. lakes are found in the allot. There are more than 200 lakes in Micronesia.

Question 9.
What is Artesian well?
Answer:
One of the features of Australia’s natural environment is the presence of numerous Artesian wells. In low land the rock layer are basin shaped. The water accumulates in between two non saturated strata. Water comes out automatically from wells dug in it without help of pumps. These wells are called Artesian wells.

Long Questions & Answers : (3 marks for each question)

Question 1.
Describe the Physiography of Australia.
Answer:
There is few diversity in the land form of Australia. According to the difference in physical features Australia is devided inlo four regions :
i. Eastern Hightands : An old fold mountain range stretches from north to south in the eastern side of Australia. It is known as Great Deviding Range. It has different name in different places like Darling Downs, Australian Alps, Blue Range, Liverpool Range etc. Mt Kosciuszko of New England Range is the lighest peak of Australia.

ii. Western Plateau : Undualating plateau is the most dominating feature of Western Australia. The average altitude is between 200-500 metre. The rocks of the Plateau is as ancient as that of Deean plateau. Some small hills are found in east and west. The desert lies in between. The deserts have different names in different places like-Victoria, Giuson, Great Sandy Desert. Some lakes with Saline Water (Playa) and oasis are found in Western Plateau.

iii. The Central lowland: The land lies in between the Great Deviding range and the Westem Plateau. Two highlands Grey and selwyn divide the plain into three parts. Murray Darling Basin lies in the south, in the middle lies Lake Eyre Basin and in the north carpentaria Lowland. Here the wock layers are synformal. So water comes out automaticaly in form of spring without help of pumps. This is called Artesian well.

iv. Coastal Plains : Narrow coastal plains are found all arond Austratia. Among them the coastal plain along gulf of Carpentaria in the north and Great Australian Bight are exeeptional. Under the sea, parallel to the north-east coast extends the world’s largest coral reef ‘Great Barrier Reef’.

Question 2.
Describe the physiography of New Zealand.
Answer:
New Zealand belongs to Oceania. The country has two main islands called North and South and small islands like stewkert, Chatham etc. South Alps mountain range stretches along the Western part of south island. The highest peak of the range is Mt Cook (3164 m). There are many volcanoes like Mt Egmont. Ruaphen is found in this area. The main rivers are Waikato, Clutha, Whanganui and Taieri. Canterbury plain lies along the east coast of south island. Many glacial lakes are found in the mountain region of the country.

Question 3.
Describe the psysiography of Tashmania.
Answer:
Tasmania is seperated from Australia by Bass straight. Its bredth is only 250 ~km. This island is full of mountain and these are all extended part of great dividing Range of Austratia. Mount Ash is the highest peak of flie island. The population is only 845 thousand. The climate is influenced by the sea. The fivers have short bright and strong earrents. They are perentieal: The main rivers are Darwent, Mockwar, Giordon. The lakes are fotmet in central plateau.

Question 4.
Describe the physiography of Melanasia, Micronesia, Polynesia.
Answer:
Thesethree region consist of thousand of island. Most of the islands are formed by the deposition of lava and igneous material at the sea bed. Mt Wilhelm (4509 m) of Papua Guinea is the highest peak of Oceania. The examples of igneous islands are Hawai, Solomon, Fiji, Tahiti etc. There are two active volcanoes Mouna Loa and Kilauea in Hawaiian islands. Marshal Gilbert Caroline etc are the islands formed by corals. There is coral wall in Fiji island called Great Reef.

Question 5.
Describe the drainage system of Oceania.
Answer:
Australia is the largest country of Oceania continent. The climate is dry and there is lettle diversity in Australian climate. There are a few rivers in Australia. Most of rivers originate from the east and west slope of great deviding range. The main river among those is MurrayDarling river. This river originates from Australian Alps and falls in Encounter Bay. The main trebutry is Darling. It originates from New England Range and falls in Murray river near Wentwarth city after flowring towards South-West. The another tributary of Murray is Marrumbidgee. The another rivers of Australia are Hunter, Freejoy, Brisbane, Cooper, Eyre etc. They originates from great Dividing Range and fall in the Pacific ocean. The other rivers of Oceania are waikato, Clutha in New Zealand.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 8 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 10 South America offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 10 Question Answer – South America

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers : (1 mark for each question)

Question 1.
First highest active volcano on earth-
i) Cotopaxi
ii) Mt. Chimborazo
iii) Llaima
iv) Laskar
Answer:
ii) Mt. Chimborazo

Question 2.
Main river of South America-
i) Colarado
ii) Parana
iii) Paraguay
iv) Amazon
Answer:
iv) Amazon

Question 3.
The combined channels of Panama, Paraguay and Uruguay is called-
i) La-Plata
ii) Amazon
ii) Orinoco
iv) Coiarado
Answer:
i) La-Plata

Question 4.
The length of Amazon river is –
i) 2150 km
ii) 2400 km
iii) 6437 km
iv) 3520 km
Answer:
iii) 6437 km

Question 5.
The size of Amazon basin –
i) 70,50,000 sq km
ii) 70,00,000 sq km
iii) 50,00,000 sq km
Answer:
i) 70,50,000 sq km

Question 6.
The number of tributaries of Amazon-
i) 1000
ij) more than 1000
iii) less than 1000
iv) 500
Answer:
ii) more than 1000

Question 7.
60% of Solwa forest is loented in-
i) Colombia
ii) Peru
ii) Bolivia
iv) Brazil
Answer:
iv) Brazil

Question 8.
In tropical rainforest live-
() anaconda snake
ii) tarantula spider
iii) vampire bats
iv) all are true
Answer:
iv) all are true

Question 9.
The word ‘Pampas’ means-
i) extensive grassland
ii) extensive plainland
iii) extensive highland
iv) extensive lowland B.
Answer:
ii) extensive plainland

Question 10.
The river has formed detta mear its mouth-
i) Orinoco
ii) Parana
iii) Paraguay
iv) Uruguay
Answer:
i) Orinoco

Question 11.
Angel waterfall formed over-
i) Uruguay
ii) Paraguay
iii) Orinoco
iv) Parana
Answer:
iii) Orinoco

Question 12.
Hot tropical climate is seen in –
i) south Chile
ii) western Brazil
iii) grassland of Guiana
iv) castern Brazil
Answer:
iv) eastern Brazil

Question 13.
Season change does not occur in-
i) Savana climate
ii) Equatorial climate
iii) Mountain climate
iv) Cold marine climate
Answer:
ii) Equatorial climate

State whether True or False : (1 mark for each question)

1. There are 20 countries in South America.
a 2. The main river of South America is Amazon.
3. The highest lake of the world is Aconcagua.
4. The South America is called Latin America.
5. Titicaca is the longest mountain region of the world.
6. Pico-dee-Bandaira is the highest peak located along the coastal zone of Atlantic ocean.
7. Mato grasso plateau lies in Andes mountain.
8. The largest evergreen forest of the world is Selva.
9. Lanos and Pampas are plateau region.
10. Orinoco is the highest water falls.
11. 1100 kmroadway is stretched over Argentina plain.
12. Amazon and orinoco are generated from two different highlands.
13. From south-east the river Uruguay merges with river Parana.
14. The deltaic area of La-Plata is known as Rio-de-la-Plata.
15. La-Plata river falls in Atlantic ocean.
16. The area of Amazon basin is 70,50,00 sqkm.
17. The discharge of water per second is 209,000 cubic metre.
18. There are about more than 1000 tributaris of Amazon.
19. Argentina, the Pampas grassland north east-part of Uruguay belong to temperate climate.
20. Chile belongs to temperate climate.
21. The Western part of Brazil, belongs to hot tropical climate.
22. 3.5 lakh insects and 2 lakh species of trees exist here.
23. Selva forest supplies 30% of earth’s oxygen.
24. The average annual rainfall in Selva is 250-300 cm.
25. The average annual temperature of Selva forest is 26°-27°C.
26. The area of Selva forest is 20,000 sq km.
27. The shape of Pampas region is like a balloon.
28. The two main river of extensive central plain region is Orincco and Amazon.
29. Pampas region is known as the ‘granary of north America’.
30. The main crop of Pampas region is maize.
31. Andes occupies the first place.
32. Depending on agrobased raw material cottage cheese, butter, cheese industries are developed.
33. About 40% sheep is reared in this province.
34. At the foothill of Andes, Cordoba region is famous for dairy industry.
35. Large amount of beef, butter, cottage cheese, cheese, wool, leather, fat are exported to foreign countries.
36. The pasture farm of Pampaus region is called Estansia.
37. Selva forest is called Tropical rain forest.
38. The equator passes through the northern part of South America.
Answer:
1. false
2. true
3. false
4. true
5. false
6. true
7. true
8. true
9. false
10. false
11.true
12. false
13.false
14. true
15.true
16. true
17.true
18. true
19. true
20. false
21. false
22. false
23. false
24. true
25. true
26. false
27. false
28. false
29. false
31. false
32. false
33. true
34. true
35. true
36. true
37. true
38. true.

Fill in the blanks : (1 mark for each question)

1. The triangular shaped continent of the Southern hemisphere is the _________ largest countinent.
2. The area of this continent is __________ times greater than India.
3. The desert area is ___________ and __________ region of the world.
4. In the middle of narrow coastal plains of the west __________ desert lies.
5. The Atacama desert is _________ km long.
6. __________ lies to the Amazon river.
7. ____________ lies to the south of Amazon river.
8. The world largest evergreen forest is __________.
9. The northern part of the continent is __________ and the southern part is __________.
10. The climate in the __________ of the northern part remains by seas and ocean.
11. Wet __________ flowing over the Pacific ocean is guarded by Andes mountin.
12. __________ desert is located at the southern part of the continent.
13. Western part of the Andes mountin has turned into __________ area.
14. __________ desert is formed in western part of the continent.
15. South eastern trade wind gets abstructed against,the __________ mountain.
16. __________ 1akh insects and __________ lakh species of trees exist in Selva.
17. Parana and Paraguay merge near Argentina’s capital __________.
18. La-Plata falls into __________ ocean.
19. In evergreen forest the annual rainfall is __________ cm.
20. ______ has occupied the first place in exporting wheat.
21. In evergreen forest live __________,__________,__________ ete.
22. Pampas region is known as the __________ of South America.
23. Besides wheat __________,__________ cte are grown plentifully.
24. The major food erop of this region is __________.
25. Depending on agrobased raw materials __________, __________ industries have been developtet.
26. In Pampas regian __________ and __________ goods are porduced.
Answer:
1. fourth
2. five
3. dry, drought prone
4. Atacama
5. 1100
6. Guiana highland
7. Brazilias highland
8. Selva,
9. wider, laper
10. intirior, uneffected
11. Westerlies
12. Patagonia
13. rain shadow
14. Atacama
15. Andes.
16. 2.5.4.
17. Buenos Aires
18. Atlantic
19. 250-300
20. Argentina
21. Anaconda, snake, vampire bats
22. Granary
23. maize, barley
24. wheat
25. flour, sugar
26. animal based, agrobased

Match the column A with column B.

Column A	Column B
a) Andes is	i) world’s largest river
b) World’s highest waterfall	ii) is Selva forest
c) Titicaca is	iii) near its mouth
d) Amazon is	iv) in mineral resourees
e) Aconoggua is the	v) is Angel
f) World”s Largest evergreen forest	vi) world’s highest lake
g) The sizo of Amazon Basin is	vii) world’s largest mountain range
h) Orinoco has formed delta	viii) are long and large in volume
i) Dampas is poor	ix) 70,50,000 sq km.
j) Most of the rivers of South America	x) highest peak of Andes

Answer:
a) Andes is world’s largest mountain range.
b) World’s highest waterfall is Angel.
c) Titicaca is world’s highest lake.
d) Amazon is world’s largest river.
e) Aconcagua is the highest peak of Andes.
f) World’s largest evergreen forest is Selva forest.
g) The size of Amazon Basin is 70,50,000 sq km.
h) Orinoco has formed delta near its mouth.
i) Pampas is poor in mineral ręsources.
j) Most of the rivers of South America are long and large in volume.

Very Short Questions & Answers : (1 mark for each question)

Question 1.
Which latitude lies to the north of Sourth America?
Answer:
12°28′ latitude lies to the north of South America.

Question 2.
What is the major river of South Ameriea?
Answer: Amazon river.

Question 3.
How many countries are there in South America?
Answer:
13 countries.

Question 4.
Name the famous citios of Sonth Amerien.
Answer:
Rio-de-janeiro, Santiago, Montevideo, Quito, Bucros Aires.

Question 5.
What is Latin America?
Answer:
South America, Middle America, Mexico and Caribbean Island are collectivety callled ‘Latin America’.

Question 6.
What is the longest monntain chain of the world?
Answer:
Andes.

Question 7.
What is the highest kake of the workl?
Answer:
Titicaca.

Question 8.
What are the first and second highest active valcanoes on the earth?
Answer:
Mt Chimborajo (6272 m), 2) Cotopaxi (5896 m).

Question 9.
What is the highest waterfalls on the earth?
Answer:
Angel.

Question 10.
What is the highest peak of Eastern Highland region? What is its height?
Answer:
Roraima. Its height is 2769 m.

Question 11.
What is La-Plata river?
Answer:
The combined channels of Parana, Paraguay and Uruguay is called La-Plata river.

Question 12.
What is the average rainfall of Amazon basin?
Answer:
250-300 cm.

Question 13.
What is the area of Selva forest.
Answer:
55,00,000 sqkm.

Question 14.
What percent of Oxigen is supplied by Selva forest?
Answer:
20%.

Question 15.
What percent of living species is found in Selva forest?
Answer:
10%.

Question 16.
State the location of Selva forest?
Answer:
Brazil (60%), Peru (13%), Coclombia (10%) and parts of Venezuela, Balivia, Guyana, Surinam and French Guiana.

Question 17.
What types of plants and animals grow in evergreen forest?
Answer:
Plants : fern, fungus, moss and different types of trees.
Animals : anaconda, snake, terantula, spider, vampire, bats, leeche etc.

Question 18.
Which place has Argentia occupied in wheat production in the world?
Answer:
First.

Question 19.
What is the main exporting goods of Pampas?
Answer:
Meat.

Question 20.
Which goods are exported by Pampas region?
Answer:
Beef, butter, cottage cheese, cheese, wool, leather, fat etc.

Question 21.
What is known of ‘The granary of South America’?
Answer:
South America.

Question 22.
What is the main food crop of Pampas?
Answer:
Wheat.

Question 23.
What vegetables are grown in Pampas region?
Answer:
Maize, barley, sugar cane, cotton, different fruit.

Question 24.
What is Cordoba famous?
Answer:
For dairy industry.

Question 25.
What is the meaning of the term ‘Pampas’?
Answer:
The word Pampas means – exclusive plainland.

Question 26.
How is the shape of Pampas region?
Answer:
It has a shape like the crescent moon.

Question 27.
Where is Pampas grassland located?
Answer:
Pampas grassland covers most of the Argentina, Urugua and some part of Southern Brazil.

Question 28.
Name two main rivers of Pamupas grassland.
Answer:
Parana and Paraguay.

Question 29.
What is the average rainfall of Pampas grassland?
Answer:
50-100 cm.

Question 30.
Which is ‘The Granary of South America’?
Answer:
Pampas.

Question 31.
Why grassland of pampas has been destroyed?
Answer:
For transportation and agricultural purpose.

Short Questions & Answers : (2 marks for each question)

Question 1.
Which industries have grown in Pampas region?
Answer:
Food processing and other industries have been setup in Pampas region. Based on Cattle powder milk, cheese, cattage cheese, butter, dairy products and meat processing industries have been flourished. Flour, sugar, bakery etc industries have been developed here.

Question 2.
What are different physiographic division of South America?
Answer:
According to the variation in physical structure the South America is divided into major zones :

1. The Western Mountian region.
2. Narrow Coastal plains of the West.
3. Eastern high land region.
4. The extensive central plain.

Question 3.
Give the features of the Drainage of South America?
Answer:

1. Most of the rivers of South America are long and large in volume.
2. The rivers are perennial as they are fed by rain and snow.
3. Most of the viver originated from Andes mountain.
4. Only Orineco has formed delta near its mouth.

Question 4.
Write about the climate of Pampas region.
Answer:
As the Pampus region lies close to the ocean the weather is pleasant here, the average summer temperature varies from 22°-24°Cand during winter it remain 8°-10°C. Anntal rainfall is 50-100 cm. The rainfall increases from West to East.

Question 5.
Name the source, mouth and tributaries of Amazon river.
Answer:
Source-Mismi peak of Andes.
Mouth-North Atlantic Ocean.
Tributaries – Jurua, Purus, Xingu, Madeira.

Long Questions & Answers : (3 marks for each question)

Question 1.
Discuss about the Western mountain region of South America:
Answer:
The Western mountain region of South America lies to the West of the continent and it consists of mainly Andes mountain ranges. It stretches from Caribbean sea in the North to cape Horn in the South. Andes is the longest mountain ranges and second heighest in the world. Aconcagua (6960 m) is the highest peak of Andes. Some inter montane plateaus are located in many places of Andes mountain ranges. They are Balivia, Equador, Peru, Titicaca etc. Titicaca lake (3810 m) is the world’s highest lake lies in this region.

Question 2.
Discuss about the extensive central plain of South America.
Answer:
The extensive central plain lies between the Western mountain region and Eastern highland. The area of the plain is more than half of the continental area. This region is mainly the basin of the river Orinaco, Amazon and La Plata. This plain is known in different names in different river basin-1) Orinaco river basin, 2) Amazon river basin, 3) Parana-Paraguay rivers basin, 4) La Plata river basin.

Question 3.
Diseuss about the causes of climate variation of South America.
Answer:
The causes of variation of climate is divided into 5 divisions-:
i) Latitudinal Extent : The equator passes through the northern part of South America and Tropic of Capricon passes through the middle. According to the latitudinal extent 70% of the continent lies in the torried zone and 20% lies in warm temperate zone and 10% in cold temperate zone.

ii) Distance from sea : The northern part of the continent is wider and the lower part tapered. Due to the distance irom sea the northern part remains uneffected by sea and ocean.

iii) Altitude factor: Moisture laden Westerlies flowing over the pacific ocean is guarded by Andesmountain and can not epter into the sothern parts of the continent. So Patagonia desert is located here. Andes mountain, guiana and Brazilis… highlands though located in torrid zone. remains relatively cool throughout the year.

iv) Ocean current : Though located in same latitudes due to warm Brazil current the eastern part of the continent remains warm but western part faces cold weather under the influence of cold peru current.

v) Wind : Atacama desert is formed in the Western part of the continet. South east trade winds are interrupted by Andes mountain resulting a rain shadow area in the Western flanks of the mountain.

Question 4.
Write about the Western Mountain Region of South America.
Answer:
The western mountain region of South America lies to west of the continent and it consists of mainly Andise mountain ranges. It extends from caribbean sea in the north to Cape Horn in the south. Andes is the longest mountain ranges and second heighest in the world. Aconcagua (6960 m) is the highest peak of Andes. Some inter mountains p!ateaus are located in many places of Andes mountain ranges. They are-Bolivia, Equador. Pere, Titicaca. Titicaca lake (381 m) is the world’s highest lake, lies in this region.

Question 5.
Write about the Narrow Coasta! Plains of ine West of South America.
Answer:
This region lies between Pacific ocean Coast and Andes mountain ranges. This region extends from north to south stretching all through the West Coast. In the middle of the coastal plain Atacama disert lies which is 1100 kmlong. It is one of the driest and drought prone areas of the world.

Question 6.
Write about the Easte:’ High Land Region of South America.
Answer:
The eastern high land region lies to the east of south America. The two highlands both are the parts of very ancient landmass. They are as old as Decean plateau of India and Canadian shield of North America. These two highlands are seperated by the Amazon river.

Question 7.
Write about the extensive Central Plain of South America.
Answer:
The extensive central plain lies between the Western mountain region and Eastern highiand. The area of the plain is more than half of the continental area. This region is mainly the basin of the river Orinaco, Amazon and La Plata. This plain is known in different names in different river basins. Among them Selva is the longer. The world’s largest evergreen forest has grown in the Selva, which is situated at Amazon river basin. This forest is known as Selva forest. On the other hand Llanss and Pampas are originally the grassland.

Question 8.
Write down the location and boundary of pampas region.
Answer:
Most of Argentina and Uruguay’s area is occupied by the grassland. It also includes a small part of Southern Brazil. It lies between 30°-38°South latitude and 54°to 65°West longitude. In the north lies Gran chaco plains and Brazilian highland in the east Atlantic Ocean. Patagonia Desert is to the Southern boundary and foothills of Andes is the Western limit.

Question 9.
Write down the physiography and drainage of pampas region.
Answer:
Pampas grassland is made up of soil brought down by the rivers and does soil deposits by aeolian action. Though it is a plain land small hills or hillocks are found at some places. The whole area slants from the foothill of the Andes in the west to the east Atlantic coast. The two major rivers in this region are Parana and Paraguay. They join with each other near the capital of Buenas Aires and their joint channel La-Plata drains out into Atlantic Ocean.

Question 10.
Write about agriculture of Pampas region.
Answer:
Pampas region is very developed in agriculture. Most of the grassland have been cut down for agriculture and transportation. The fertile alluvial soil, minimum rainfall is favourable for agriculture. The main food crop of the region is wheat. Argentina is the leading producer of wheat It has become leading exporting country of wheat. Besides maize, barley, sugarcane, cotton different types of fruits and vegetables also grow here. Developed machinery is used for cultivation. Now Pampas region is known as ‘The granary of South America’.

Question 11.
Write about mineral resources of Pampas region.
Answer:
Pampas region is not rich in minerals. So large industry have not been grown here. Sufficient amount of animal based and agro based products are available here. Food processing and other industries have been grown based on these raw materials. Based on animal based raw materials, Milk, cottage cheese, butter, cheesc etc and meat processing industries have been developed. Flour, sugar, bakery industries have been developed based on agro based raw materiais.

Question 12.
Write about the cattle rearing of Pampas region.
Answer:
Pampas region is favourable for cattle rearing. The pasture farms are called Estansia. The inhabitants rear cattle for meat and milk. The cattlc are reared in the region with more rainfall to the east and sheep are reared in the region with less rainfall to the south-west. Cordoba, at the foothill of Andes, is famous for dairy industry. Mostly cows are reared here for milk, the south-east part of Buenos Aires Provices is the main region of Cattle rearing. Nearly 40% sheep is reared in this province. Large amount of bread, butter, collage cheese, cheese, beef, wool, leather, fat are exported to foreign countries. Argentina occupies the first position in meat cxport.

Question 13.
Mention different climates of South America.
Answer:

1. Equatorial climate
2. Savana climate
3. Hot tropical climate
4. Tropical desert climate
5. Mediterranean climate
6. Cold marins climate
7. Temperate (grassland) climate
8. Temperate (desert) climate
9. Mountain climate

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 8 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 9 North America offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 9 Question Answer – North America

Textbook Page no. 79.

Question 1.
Make a list where istlumus are seen in the world.
Answer:
Isthmus of Panama, Berirg straight Devis Straight and isthmtis. Archin straight.

Textbook Page no. 84.

Question 1.
Why north flowing rivers of North America are not suitable for navigation?
Answer:
In severe cold of winter the rivers turn into ice. So the north flowing rivers are not suitable for navigation.

Textbook Page no. 89.

Question 1.
What are the roles of mineral resources in economic prosperity of the lake region?
Answer:
Minerals play an important role in the econmic development of a country. In this region high amount of coal, iron ore, mineral oil, limestone, manganese. zinc, mineral salt, gypsum are found. Thus the region has become prospersous in industry.

Question 2.
How did the lake region industrially developed?
Answer:
The factors of developing in industry of lake region are –

1. Availablity of minerals
2. Facility of abundance of capital.
3. Huge hydro-electric power is created from strong current river.
4. The net work of road ways has developed transport system.
5. Plenty of raw materials of forest.
6. The huge amount of water of St. Lawrence river.

Question 3.
State the role of transportation system in economic prosperity of lake region.
Answer:
Industry can be developed with the developing of transport system. In this region there are five lakes with st. Lawrence river. So the goods can be transported from one place to another through water ways. The transportation cost through water ways is comperatively lesser. Thus the region become economically prosperous.

Textbook Page no. 90.

Question 1.
Find out the places in India where livestock ranching and food processing industries mutually exists together.
Answer:
Mutual existance of livestock ranching and food processing are found in India. In Himalaya region sheep are reared in differerent places. For the presence of grassland cattle rearing is done here. In Terai, the foot hill of Himalaya and different places of Madhya Pradesh animal husbandery is done.

Textbook Page no. 91.

Question 1.
Why numerous lakes are seen in the Canadian shield region?
Answer:
In some part of shield region depression were created on the surface of the earth that resulted creation of lakes.

Textbook Page no. 93.

Match the following :
Answer:

Buffallo	Largest flour produceing centre.
Chicago	Slaughter house of the world
Gary	Capital of Iron and Steel industry.
Detroil	Largest automobile manufacturing centre.
Wisconsin	Main centre for dairy product.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 9 Question Answer West Bengal Board – North America

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers : (1 mark for each question)

Question 1.
In the south and west of North America-
i) North Atlantic Ocean
ii) Atlantic Ocean
iii) Pacific Ocean
iv) Arctic Ocean
Answer:
iii) Pacific Ocean

Question 2.
Christopher Columbus discovered the eastern island of North America in
i) 1400
ii) 1492
iii) 1501
iv) 1470
Answer:
ii) 1492

Question 3.
Panama Canal was created in-
i) 1914
ii) 1900
iii) 1940
iv) 1924
Answer:
i) 1914

Question 4.
In North America Death Valley is the-
i) coldest region
ii) cold region
iii) hot region
iv) hottest region
Answer:
iv) hottest region

Question 5.
In the south of five lakes situated –
i) Prairie plain land
ii) plains of lake region
iii) plains of St. Lawrence
iv) plains of Mississippi-Missouri basin
Answer:
ii) plains of lake region

Question 6.
Source of Columbia river-
i) Rocky mountain
ii) Slave lake
iii) Ontario lake
iv) Superior lake
Answer:
i) Rocky mountain

Question 7.
Longest river of North America-
i) Columbia
ii) St. Lawrence
iii) Colorado
iv) Mississippi-Missouri
Answer:
iv) Mississippi-Missouri

Question 8.
Northern part of North America is-
i) narrow
ii) wide
iii) verymuch wide
iv) verymuch narrow
Answer:
iii) verymuch wide

Question 9.
Niagra falls is situated on-
i) Columbia
ii) St. Lawrence
iii) Colorado
iv) Mississippi-Missouri
Answer:
ii) St. Lawrence

Question 10.
Important centre of rubber industry-
i) Akron
ii) Chicago
iii) Detroit
iv) Duluth
Answer:
i) Akron

Question 11.
World’s second largest gold mine situated in Canadian Shicld region is –
i) Sudbury
ii) Newsoundland
iii) Timinis
iv) Thompson
Answer:
iii) Timinis

Question 12.
In northern part of Canadian Shicld region temperature remains below freezing point for about-
i) two months
ii) three months
iii) five months
iv) seven months
Answer:
iv) seven months

Question 13.
In Canadian Shield region copper ore is found in-
i) Thompson
ii) Noranda
iii) Sherridon
iv) Newsoundland
Answer:
ii) Noranda

Question 14.
Cause of agricultural development in Lake region –
i) fertile soil
ii) crop rotation
iii) adequate amount of water
iv) all of the above
Answer:
iv) all of the above

Question 15.
Important centre of oil refinary and petro-chemical industry in lake region of North America-
i) Akron
ii) Eire
iii) Chicago
iv) Duluth
Answer:
iii) Chicago

Question 16.
According to size the largest fresh water lake in the world-
i) Superior
ii) Michigan
iii) Huron
iv) Ontario
Answer:
i) Superior

Question 17.
In countries of Middle Americs rainfall occurs-
i) in winter
ii) in summer
iii) in rainy season
iv) throughout the year
Answer:
iv) throughout the year

Question 18.
Trees are conical shaped and deep green in colour-
i) mahogany, ablus
ii) pine, larch
iii) olive, cork-oak
iv) maple, jupiner
Answer:
ii) pine, larch

Fill in the blanks : (1 mark for each question)

1. _________ region is not developed in agriculture.
2. Deer and Bear is found in __________ forest.
3. Canada is famous for __________ and ________ industry.
4. Canadian Shield regien is part of world’s most ancient _________.
5. Chiengo is ealled the ________ llouse of the world.
6. The fargest fsilud of fire wortd is _________.
7. The famous swater Pats of the world is _________.
8. The world’s largest sweet water lake is _________.
9. The world famous eanyon is _________.
10. The busiest airport of the vorld is _________.
11. In _________ A.D., Anterigo Vespucci a Italean sailor disçovered the continent America.
12. North America lies in Northern _________.
13. In _________ and _________ AD European inlabitants had the babbies to discover new countries.
14. In 1492 AD, _________ an Italean sailor, discovered Easterr Island of North America to discover water ways between Europe and India.
15. North America is surrounded by _________ and _________.
16. The North America is seperated from Asia by _________.
17. A narrow landmass, which joins two continents is called _________.
18. A narrow landmass lying between North America and South America is called _________.
19. _________ canal was created in 1914 diging Panama Istinmus.
20. Praire plain land is also salled _________.
Answer:
1. Shield
2. coniferous
3. timber, paper
4. landmass
5. slaughter
6. Greenland
7. Naigara
8. Superior
9. Grand Canyon
10. Atlanta
11. 1501
12. Hemisphere
13. 1400, 1500
14. Cristopher Colambus
15. sea and ocean
16. Bering straight
17. genes
18. Panama Isthmus
19. Panama
20. Praire Grassland

State whether True or False : (1 mark for each question)

1. Cordillera means a chain of parallel mountain ranges.
2. Death valley is 30 metres deep below the sen level.
3. Mississippi-Missouri river has formed bird’s foot digitate delta.
4. Southern part of North America is very wide.
5. Grand Canyon is somewhere in its course is more than 2000 m deep.
6. Prairie grassland is located in middle part of North America.
7. Lake region is remarkable for animal ranching.
8. In Canadian Shicld region the slope of the land is fromnorth to south.
9. The south anú south-eastern part of Canadian Shield region is relatively warmer.
10. In Canadian Shield region Toronto is famous for dairy product.
11. Lake region is not developed in agriculture.
12. Duluth is an important centre for chemical industry.
Answer:
1. true
2. fals
3. true
4. false
5. false
6. true
7. true
8. false
9. true
10. false
11. false
12. true

Match the column A with column B.

Column A	Column B
a) Average annual temperature is 4° C	i) slaughter house of the world
b) Canadian Shield region is made from	ii) lake region
c) Lumbering industry is well developed	iii) is full of diversity
d) Canada has a remarkable position	iv) huge quantities of wheat
e) Chicago is known as	v) granite and gneiss
f) Five lakes are known as	vi) in Canada
g) Gary is the largest iron-ore industry	vii) in wood and paper production
h) The Prairies produce	viii) is Canadian Shield region
i) Climate of North America	ix) in central lowland of North America
j) Mississippi-missouri is situated	x) of the world

Answer:
a) Average annual temperature is 4°C in Canadian Shield region.
b) Canadian Shield region is made from granite and gneiss.
c) Lumbering industry is well developed in Canada.
d) Casada has a remarkable position in wood and paper production.
e) Chicago is known as slaughter house of the world.
f) Five lakes are known as lake region.
g) Gary is the largest iron-ore industry of the world.
h) The Prairies produce huge quantities of wheat.
i) Climate of North America is full of diversity.
j) Mississippi-missouri is situated in central lowland of North America.

Very Short Questions & Answers : (1 mark for each question)

Question 1.
Who discover the sca-route of Ameriea?
Answer:
Christofar Columbus in 1492 AD.

Question 2.
After whose name America was named?
Answer:
America was named after Amerigo Vespucci.

Question 3.
What is an Isthmas?
Answer:
An Isthmas is a narrow landmass that joins two continents.

Question 4.
When was Panama canal created?
Answer:
Panama canal was created in 1914.

Question 5.
What are the benifits of creation of Panama canal?
Answer:
Navigation became easy between eastern coast of North America and Erope and West coast of South America.

Question 6.
Who named West Indies?
Answer:
Columbus discovered Eastern Island of North America and thought those Islands were West Indies.

Question 7.
What is the main river of North America?
Answer:
Mississippi-Missouri is the main river of North America.

Question 8.
What is the highest peak of North America ?
Answer:
Mt Mckinley (6195m) is the highest peak of North America.

Question 9.
What are the famous cities of North America?
Answer:
Washington D. C., New York, California, Mexico city, Chicago, Torento.

Question 10.
What is the largest fresh water lake in the world?
Answer:
Superior lake.

Question 11.
What are the five lakes?
Answer:
Superior, Huron, Michigan, Erie and Ontario.

Question 12.
What type of delta is formed by Mississippi and Missouri.
Answer:
Like a bird’s feet.

Question 13.
What is the famous Canyon of the world?
Answer:
Grand Canyon.

Question 14.
What is the largest island of the world?
Answer:
Greenland.

Question 15.
What is the rusisen airport of the wond?
Answer:
Atranta.

Question 16.
What is the largest Nickel mine of the world?
Answer:
Sudkury.

Question 17.
What is the world’s second largest gold mine?
Answer:
Thinins.

Question 18.
What type of animals found in Canada region?
Answer:
Reindeer, bear, wild cat, prairie dogs.

Question 19.
What are the main rivers of Canadian Shield region?
Answer:
Mckenzie, Nelson, Churchil etc.

Question 20.
What are the vegotation of Canadian Shield Region?
Answer:
Moss, lichen, algae and small shurbs.

Question 21.
In which climatic region Canadian Shield region belongs to?
Answer:
It is under the severely cold Tundra climate.

Question 22.
What is the shape of Canadian shield? What is its other natine?
Answer:
It is of ‘V’ shaped. The arother name is Lawrentian Plateau.

Question 23.
What is the meaning of the term ‘Shicld’.
Answer:
Undulating surface formed by hard rock.

Question 24.
What type of grass found in Prairie grassland?
Answer:
Hay, clover, Alfalfa and maize.

Question 25.
Where in America plentiful wheat is cultivate?
Answer:
Dakota state.

Question 26.
Why have modern refrigeration systems been built in Prairie region?
Answer:
For conservation of milk and dairy products.

Question 27.
What are the causes of elimatic diversity of North America?
Answer:
Latitude extent, ocean current. wind location of Mintain.

Question 28.
Which city is called ‘Slaughter House of the workd’?
Answer:
Chicago.

Question 29.
What is the largest flour producing centre of North Ameriea?
Answer:
Buffalo.

Question 30.
Which city is ealled ‘Rubber eapital of the world’.
Answer:
Akron.

Question 31.
What is the world’s largest automobile centre of the world?
Answer:
Detroit.

Question 12.
Where is Grand Canyon found?
Answer:
Grand Canyon is found in the Colorado river.

Question 33.
Where has world’s largest river val!ey planning been build up?
Answer:
On the river Tennesee.

Question 34.
Which is the longest river of North America?
Answer:
Missouri-Misouri river.

Short Questions & Answers : (2 marks for each question)

Question 1.
Mention boundary of North America
Answer:
North America is surronded three sides by the oceAnswer: North Atlantic ocean is to the north, Atlantic ocean is to the East, Pacific ocean to the south and west.

Question 2.
What is Lake Region of North America?
Answer:
In the eastern part of North America the region beside five lakes Superior, Michigan, Huron, Erie, Ontario are known as lake region. This area extends between 41° N and 50° N latitude and between 75° W and 93° W logitude.

Question 3.
Mention climate of lake region.
Answer:
The climate of lake region is cold. In severe cold winter temperature lies below freezing point, so lakes are covered with ice. But the climate is pleasant in summer. Average temperature is 16° C and average annual rainfall is 70-80 cm.

Question 4.
What is Prairie grassland?
Answer:
Prairie grassland is situated at North America. It is a vast grassland. Hay, clover, Alfalfa grass and maize are grown here. A huge quality of wheat is cultivated in this region. So it is caited ‘Bread basket of the world’.

Question 5.
What is cordillera?
Answer:
Cordillera means a chain of parallel mountain ranges. The western cordilleras are parallel chain mountain ranges, extending all along western side of north America.

Long Questions & Answers : (3 marks for each question)

Question 1.
Why is Canadian Shield region developed in lumbering?
Answer:
There are many coniferous forest in south and south eastern part of this region. In winter when the river water turns into ice, the trees are cut and kept on the ice. In summer when ice melts the logs reach to the saw mill located near the river bank. Thus this region is developed in lumbering.

Question 2.
What do you know about the term ‘Bread basket’ of the world ?
Answer:
In the Prairie region of North America when ice melts for the influence of Chinook at the end of the winter wheat is cultivated there in spring. This region is known to wheat belt. Wheat is also cultivated to the south of wheat belt in winter. Great amount of wheat is cultivated in different season in this region. So this region is known as ‘Bread Basket of the world’.

Question 3.
Why is Canadian shield developed in industry.
Answer:

1. Sufficient amount of forest timber, animal fur are available.
2. High quality Canadian technology and mechanical skill.
3. Availability of hydel power.
4. Availability of cheap water transport.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Death valley.
Answer:
Death Valley is located at the south-eastern part of California of western cordilleras. It is 90 metres deep below the sea level. No animal can not survive due to high salinity of water, found here. This deep valley is known as death valley. It is the hottest region (56°C) of North America and the lowest lying area of western hemisphere.

Question 5.
Write a short note on Grand Canyon.
Answer:
Colorado river covers a long way through the desert region. in desertic region the rivers cut deep in the valley floor vertically, so the valley is generally very deep here. Deep Canyons are formed here. Such a canyon named Grand Canyon has been formed in the flow of colorado river. It is 446 km long and some where it is more than 1600 m deep.

Question 6.
Write a short note on America expedition.
Answer:
North America was totally unknown to man 500-years ago. In 1492 Italian saiior Christopher Columbus discovered Eastern Island of North america. He thou thought those islands are West Indies. In 1501AD another Portuguese sailor Amerigo Vespucci followed the route of Columbus and reached the main land of America. He realized that it was not India. He names the continent as America after his own name.

Question 7.
Write about agriculture of Lake region.
Answer:
Lake region is very developed in agriculture. Cultivation is practiced here by using crop rotation. The crops produced here are maize, barley, wheat, oat, rye, beet etc and the fruits are grapes, apples and peach. In the corn belt of this region corn is cultivated for feeding cattle. Central highland is famous for highest maize producing region of the world. At the north part different grasses are cultivated for cattle feeding.

Question 8.
Write about livestock ranching of Lake regicn.
Answer:
Cattle, pig, Jercy cow and sheep are reared in the lake region to provide milk, dairy products and meat to the lake region and surrounding areas. So poultry farm has been set up here. Washington state, lies beside Superior and Michigan lake is known as dairy state for animal ranching. Chicago is famous for meat production and conservation. Thus Chicago is called the slaughter house of the world.

Question 9.
What are the causes of livestock faring of Lake region.
Answer:
The reasons for the development of live stock farming in the lake region are-

1. Huge amount of hay, clover grass are grown here to supply sufficient food for cattle.
2. Adequate water of lake region provides water needed for cattles.
3. The presence of vast plain region is favourable for grazing.
4. The cold climate helps in preservation of milk, dairy products and meat.

Question 10.
Describe climate and natural vegetation of shield region.
Answer:
This region belongs extremely cold Fundra climatic region. The temperature does not exceeds 10°C. Tutal rainfal! less than 40 cm. Large trees do not grow. Moss, lichen, algae and small shrubs grow here. The Southeastern part of shield region is relatively warmer. Annual average temperature is 4°C. Large coniferous forest of Pine, fir, birch, maple ete are found here and so lumbering industry has been developed hare.

Question 11.
Describe Western cardillera of North Ameviea.
Answer:
This region is extended from northern part of Bering straight to southern part of Panama canal along the Western part of Pacific coast of North America. This cardillera extends through the South America with the name of Andes. These mountain ranges are new-fold mountains like Himalayan mountain ranges. These mountain ranges have formed along the convergent plate boundary when the Pacific ecean plate and North American continental plate were collided. The middle part of it is wider and two sides are narrow. The main mountain ranges are Coast range. Alaska range, Brooks vange. Mt Mckinley (6195 m) of Alaska range is the highest peak of North America. The rivers flowing western hilly rsgion are Yukon, Colorado, Coloumbia, Frazer ete. These river fall into the Pacific ocean.

Question 12.
What are the causes of climatic variations in North America?
Answer:
In North America various climatic regions are found. The causes of climatic variation are as follows –
1. Latitudinal Extent : Most of the part of North Ameriea lies between 30°-60° N latitude. This region belongs to temperate climate. As the Tropic of carcer passes through Mexico, Tropical climate is found in Middle America, Mexico, Caribbean Islands. Northern part of this continent expcriences Tundra and Polar climate.

2. Ocean Current : For the influence of cold Labrador current North America remains snow covered all the year round. Due to the influence of cold California current South-eastern part of the continent along with California coast remains cold. Warm Gulf stream increases the temperature of the coast of south-east part of the continent.

3. Wind : A hot wind called Chinook blows in the eastern slope of the Rocky mountain in the beginning of the spring. The moirture holding eapacity of the wind inereases and so rain fall does not oecur. For this reason grasses and shrub type vegetation grow here. This region is known as prairie region.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 8 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 8 Some Neighbouring Countries of India and Its Relationship with Them offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 Question Answer – Some Neighbouring Countries of India and Its Relationship with Them

Textbook Page no. 74

Question 1.
What are the numbers of neighbouring countries of India?
Answer:
There are six neibouring countries of India.

Question 2.
Which neighbouring country is situated on which side of Indis.?
Answer:
To the north Nepal and Bhutan, to the east Mayanmar, to the south Srilanka and to the west Pakistan.

Question 3.
Which countries share the boarder with the landmass of India?
Answer:
Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal and Bhutan.

Question 4.
Which neighbouring country is situated on three sides by Indian territory?
Answer:
Bangladesh is surrounded on three sides by Indian territory.

Question 5.
Mention the names of two neighbouring countries which is surrounded by landmass of India.
Answer:
Srilanka and Maynmar.

Question 6.
Mention a neighbouring country which touches theArabian Sea.
Answer:
Pakistan.

Question 7.
Mention two neighbouring countries which have no seaport.
Answer:
Napal and Bhutan.

Question 8.
Name the two neighbouring countries that depend upon Kolkata port for foreign trade.
Answer:
Napal and Bhutan.

Question 9.
In which neighbouring countries does India make tradeby waterways?
Answer:
Mayanmar and Srilanka.

Question 10.
Which three neighbouring countries share boundries with our state West bengal?
Answer:
Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh.

Question 11.
By which strait India and Srilanka are seperated?
Answer:
Seperated by Palk strait.

Question 12.
Name two states of India which touch the boundries with three neighbouring countries.
Answer:
The two states are Assam. Arunachal Pradesh.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 Question Answer West Bengal Board – Some Neighbouring Countries of India and Its Relationship with Them

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers : (1 mark for each question)

Question 1.
From India Nepal imports –
i) petrochemicals
ii) oil seed
iii) carpet
iv) raw jute
Answer:
i) Petrochemicals

Question 2.
From Nepal and Bangladesh India imports –
i) fertilizer
ii) constructs equipment
iii) raw jute
iv) crop seed
Answer:
iii) raw jute.

Question 3.
India imports from Mayanmar and Srilanka –
i) coal
ii) cotten garments
iii) cotton garments
iv) pricious stones
Answer:
iv) Precious stones

Question 4.
India exports to Mayanmar and Srilanka-
i) iron-coal-jute made products
ii) hilsa fish
iii) leather
iv) silver
Answer:
i) iron-coal-jute mad products

Question 5.
India imports from Bangladesh-
i) sugar
ii) hilsa fish
iii) silk made goods
iv) steel
Answer:
ii) hilsa fish

Question 6.
India imports from Srilanka-
i) leather
ii) carpet
iii) medicine
iv) spices
Answer:
iv) spices

Question 7.
India exports to Bhutan-
i) medicine
ii) oil seed
iii) areca nut
iv) fruits
Answer:
i) medicine.

Question 8.
India imports from Bhutan-
i) salt
ii) jam-jelly
iii) precious stones
iv) hilsa fish
Answer:
ii) jam-jelly

Question 9.
India exports to SriLanka-
i) graphite
ii) coconut products
iii) leather
iv) garments
Answer:
iv) garments

Question 10.
The state language of Pakistan is –
i) urdu
ii) hindi
iii) panjabi
iv) english
Answer:
i) Urdu

Question 11.
Pakistan is developed in –
i) poultry
ii) agriculture
iii) industry
iv) cottage industry,
Answer:
ii) agriculture

Question 12.
The process of taking water through tunnel under soil is called-
i) carriage system
ii) barrage system
iii) tabe well system
Answer:
i) carriage system

Question 13.
Bangladesh is developed in-
i) mining
ii) steel industry
iii) cottage industry
iv) tourism
Answer:
iii) cottage industry.

Question 14.
The leading industry of Bangladesh is –
i) steel
ii) coal
iii) iron
iv) jute
Answer:
iv) jute

Question 15.
Bangladesh thin is lack of –
i) minerals
ii) jute
iii) whent
iv) cottage industry
Answer:
i) minerals

Question 16.
In Bangladesh famous for tant industry-
i) Khulna
ii) Tangail
iii) Barishal
iv) Chittagong
Answer:
ii) Tangail.

Question 17.
In Bangladesh famous for Maslin-
i) Narayanganj
ii) Jashore
iii) Dhaka
iv) Khulna
Answer:
iii) Dhaka.

Question 18.
Largest industry of Nepal –
i) tourism
ii) chemical
iii) iron
iv) cement
Answer:
i) tourism

Question 19.
The main industry of Bhutan is –
i) tant
ii) jam-jelly
iii) paper
iv) iron
Answer:
ii) jarn-jelly

Question 20.
The highest peak of the world –
i) Dodabeta
ii) Nandade
iii) Kula kangri
iv) Mount Everest
Answer:
iv) Mount Everest.

Question 21.
Nain river of Nepal is –
i) Kali gandak
ii) Manas
iii) Meghna
iv) Indus
Answer:
i) Kali gandak

Question 22.
The main city of Srilanka is –
i) Yangon
ii) Karachi
iii) Jaffna
iv) Peshwar
Answer:
Jaffna.

Question 23.
A main city of Pakistan is –
i) Chittagong
ii Negracote
iii) Pokhra
iv) Lahore
Answer:
iv) Lahore

Question 24.
One of the main cities of Bhutan is–
i) Khulna
ii) Phuntsholing
iii) ratnapura
iv) Janakpur
Answer:
ii) Phuntsholing

Question 25.
One of the city of Mayanmar –
i) Paro
ii) Srihatta
iii) Yangon
iv) Lahore
Answer:
iii) angon

Fill in the blanks : (1 mark for each question)

1. SAARC is formed with ______ members.
2. In ______ SAARC is formed.
3. The head quarter of SAARC is sit: ated at ______.
4. The object of establishment of SAARC is to improve ______.
5. The height of Mount Everest is ______.
6. The main language of Nepal is ______.
7. The main river of Nepal is ______.
8. ______ is the largest industry of Nepal.
9. The work’s ______ highest peaks are at Nepal.
10. The special attraction of Nepal is ______.
11. The height of the highest peak of Bhutan is ______.
12. The main river of Bhutan is ______.
13. The main language of Bhutan is______.
14. ______ are main cities of Bhutan.
15. Bhutan is world famous in making pickle, jam, jelly ______.
16. Bhtitan is called land of ______.
17. Bangladesh is an ______ country.
18. There are ______ jute factories in Bangladesh.
19. Tant at ______ is famous.
20. ______ of Dhakha is world famous.
21. The ______ of Bangladesh is well developed.
22. The main industry of Bangladesh is ______.
23. The height of the highest peak of Bangladesh is ______ m.
24. The height of the highest peak of Mayanmar is ______ m.
25. The prisious stone of Mayanmar is ______.
26. There are types of forest ______ and ______ found in Mayanmar.
27. The height of the highest peak of Srilanka ______.
28. The main cash crops of Srilanka is ______.
29. Srilanka occupies an important position in ______ production and export.
30. Srilanka occupies first place in production of ______.
31. Srilanka is called ______.
32. One of the important cash crops of Srilanka is ______
33. ______ clave are the spices that are produced in Srilanka.
34. The precious stones like ______, ______ and ______ are famous are found in Srilanka.
35. The method that is practised in Pakistan for irrigation is ______.
36. The main language of Pakistan is ______.
37. The height of the highest peak of Pakistan is ______.
38. The main river of Pakistan is ______.
39. In Pakistan irrigation is practised through ______.
40. A export good of Pakistan is ______.
Answer:
1. eight
2. 1985
3. Kathmandu
4. Trade relation
5. 8848 m
6. Nepali
7. Kali-Gandak
8. tourism
9. ten
10. mountaineering
11. 554 m
12. Manas
13. Dzongkha
14. Phuntsholing, Paro, Punakha
15. Squash
16. hunderbolt
17. gricultural
18. eighty
19. Tangail
20. Maslin
21. Cottage industry
22. Jute industry
23. 1230
24. 5581
25. Ruby
26. evergreen and deciduous
27. 2527 m
28. coconut
29. tea
30. graphite
31. ‘innamon Island
32. cinchona
33. cinnamon. peeper.
34. Sapphire, Ruby, Cat’s eye
35. carriage system
36. Urdu
37. 7690 m
38. Indus
39. canal
40. carpet.

State whether True or False : (1 mark for each question)

1. People living around us are our neighbours.
2. Main city of Nepal is Paro.
3. Jute is main agricultural crop of Bhutan.
4. All mountaineers of the world come to Nepal for mountaineering.
5. Jute is the major industry in Bangladesh.
6. India import car and spare parts from Nêpal.
7. India import coconut products from SriLanka
8. Wheat is the main agricultural crop in mayannar.
9. India export motor car to bangladesh.
10. Karachi, Lahore are main cities of Pakistan.
11. Mayanmar is called Cinnamon Island.
12. World famous ruby is found in Mayanmar.
13. Mining based industry is well developed in bangladesh.
14. Twenty highest mountain peaks of the world are situated in Nepal.
15. Bhutan is world famous in making pickle, jam, jelly.
Answer:
1. true
2. false
3. false
4. true
5. true
6. false
7. true
8. false
9. true
10. true
11. false
12. true
13. false
14. false
15. true

Match the following : (1 mark for each question)

Match the column A with column B.

A	B
1) Bangladesh is an	a) Thimpu
2) Main language of Nepal	b) in Nepal
3) Capital of Bhutan is	c) agrarian countiy
4) Bangladesh is developed in	d) from SriLanka
5) The mount Everest is situated	e) from Pakistan
6) India import graphite	f) is Nepali
7) India export paper	g) cottage industry
8) India import high quality cotton	h) to Bhutan

Answer:
1. Bangladesh is an agrarian country.
2. Main language of Nepal is Nepali.
3. Capital of Bhutan is Thimpu.
4. Bangladesh is developed in cottage industry.
5. The mount Everest is situated in Nepal.
6. India import graphite from SriLanka.
7. India export paper to Bhutan.
8. India import high quality cotton from Pakistan.

Very Short Questions & Answers : (1 mark for each question)

Question 1.
When did SAARC formed?
Answer:
SAARC formed in 1985.

Question 2.
What is the full name of SAARC?
Answer:
Assain Association for Regional Co-operation.

Question 3.
Where is the Head quarter of SAARC?
Answer:
Headquarter of SAARC is at Kathmandu.

Question 4.
What is the highest peak of Nepal?
Answer:
Mount Everest is the highest peak of Nepal.

Question 5.
What is the main river of Nepal?
Answer:
Main river of Nepal is Kali Gandak.

Question 6.
What is the capital of Nepal?
Answer:
Kathmandu is the capital of Nepal.

Question 7.
What is the main language of Nepal?
Answer:
The main language of Nepal is Nepali.

Question 8.
What is the main agricultural crops of Nepal?
Answer:
Rice, wheat, jute, maize, jowar, sugarcane, cotton, orange.

Question 9.
What are the main industry of Nepal?
Answer:
Paper, jute, Cotton Textile, sugar, leather.

Question 10.
What are the main cities of Nepal?
Answer:
Pokhra. Biratnagar, Janakpur.

Question 11.
Name the goods that are imported by India from Nepal.
Answer:
Jute, oil seed, pulses, leather, carpet.

Question 12.
What the goods that are exported by India to Nepal?
Answer:
Petro chemicals, motor and motor parts, cotton, fertilizer, garments.

Question 13.
What are source of earning foreign money of Nepal?
Answer:
Tourism industry.

Question 14.
How many highest mountain peaks are situated at Nepal?
Answer:
Ten highest mountain peaks are situated at Nepal.

Question 15.
What is the height of Mount Everest?
Answer:
8848 m.

Question 16.
What is the highest peak of Bhutan?
Answer:
Kulakangri is the highest peak of Bhutan.

Question 17.
What is the main river of Bhutan?
Answer:
The main river of Bhutan is Manas.

Question 18.
What is the capital of Bhutan?
Answer:
The capital of Bhutan is Thimpu.

Question 19.
What is the main language of Bhutan?
Answer:
Dzongkha is the main language of Bhutan.

Question 20.
What are the main agricuitural crops of Bhutan?
Answer:
Wheat, barley, maize, apple, cardamom, orange.

Question 21.
What are the main fruits produced in Bhutan?
Answer:
Orange. apple, pineapple.

Question 22.
What are the main cities of Bhutan?
Answer:
The main cities of Bhutan are Phuntsholing. Paro, Punakha.

Question 23.
What are exported from India to Bhutan?
Answer:
Paper, medicine, coal, steel. sugar, salt. mechinery.

Question 24.
What are imported from Bhutan to India?
Answer:
Cardamom different fruits, jam. jelly. silk and sil.; products.

Question 25.
What is the main industry of Bhutan?
Answer:
Fruit processing.

Question 26.
What is the other name of Bhutan?
Answer:
The other name of Bhutan is ‘Land of Thunderbolt’.

Question 27.
What is the highest peak of Bangladesh?
Answer:
The highest peak of Bangladesh is Keokradong.

Question 28.
What is the main river of Bangladesh?
Answer:
The main river of bangladesh is Meghna.

Question 29.
What is the capital of Bangladesh?
Answer:
The capital of Bangaldesh is Dhaka.

Question 30.
What is the main language of Bangladesh?
Answer:
The main language of Bangladesh is Bengali.

Question 31.
What are the main argicultural crops of Bangladesh?
Answer:
The main agricultural crops of Bangladesh are rice, jute, maize, wheat, jowar, cotton, tea, sugarcane.

Question 32.
What are the main industries of Bangladesh?
Answer:
The main industries of Bangladesh are jute, paper, sugar, garments, cement, handloom, pottery.

Question 33.
What are the main cottage industries of Bangladesh?
Answer:
Tant and pottary are the main cottage industry of Bangladesh.

Question 34.
How many jute mills are there in Bangladesh?
Answer:
There are near about 80 jute mills in Bangladesh.

Question 35.
What are the main cities of Bangladesh?
Answer:
The main cities of bangladesh are chittagong. Shrihatta and Khulna.

Question 36.
What is the highest peak of Mayanmar?
Answer:
The highest peak of Mayanmar is Hkakabo Razi.

Question 37.
What is the main river of Mayanmar?
Answer:
The main river of Mayanmar is lrrawaddy.

Question 38.
What is the capital of Mayanmar?
Answer:
The capital of Mayanmar is Naypyidaw.

Question 39.
What is the main language of Mayanmar?
Answer:
The main language of Mayanmar is Burmese.

Question 40.
What are the main agricultural crops of Mayanmar?
Answer:
Rice, maize, jowar, millet, tobacco.

Question 41.
What are the main industrics of Mayanmar?
Answer:
The main industrics of Mayanmar are sugar, jute. silk.

Question 42.
What are the main minerals of Mayanmar?
Answer:
The main minerals are mineral oil, tin. lead, zinc, tungsten and precious stone.

Question 43.
Which type of precious stone found in Mayanmar?
Answer:
World famous Ruby is found here.

Question 44.
How do Nayanmar rich in forest resources?
Answer:
Different types of trees like Garjan. Chaplah. Mehagany, Arjun, Sal. Teak and undulating grassland are seen.

Question 45.
What are the main cities of Srilanka?
Answer:
The main cities are Colombo. Jaffna, Kandy, Ratnapura.

Question 46.
What does India import from Mayanmar?
Answer:
Teak, sal, silver, tin, tungsten etc.

Question 47.
What does India export to Mayanmar?
Answer:
Steel, coal, jute products, cotton products, chemical goods, transportation items.

Question 48.
What does India export to Bangladesh?
Answer:
Automobile, medicines, sugar. mechinery, coal, steel, seed crops and reoairing goods.

Question 49.
What does India import from Bangladesh?
Answer:
Jute, paper, areca nut, tobaceo, leather, hilsa fish and natural gas.

Question 50.
What is the height of the peak Kakabo Razi?
Answer:
5581 m.

Question 51.
What is the highest peak of Srilanka?
Answer:
The highest peak of Srilarka is Pidurutalagala.

Question 52.
What is the capital of Srilanka?
Answer:
The capital of Srilanka is Sri Jayawardenapura Kotte.

Question 53.
What is the main language of Srilanka?
Answer:
The main language of Srilanka is Sinhalese.

Question 54.
What are the agricultural crops of Srilanka?
Answer:
Rice, tea, sugarcane, maize, oilseed, coconut, spices, pepper.

Question 55.
What is the main cash crops of Srilanka?
Answer:
Coconut is the main cash crops. Besides this oilseed, cotton, cinchona are the other cash crops.

Question 56.
In which crops Srilanka is the leading producer?
Answer:
Srilanka occupies a famous position for producing and exporting tea.

Question 57.
What are the spices produced in Srilanka?
Answer:
Cinamon, pepper, clove.

Question 58.
What is Srilanka called?
Answer:
Srilanka is called as ‘Cinamen Island’.

Question 59.
What are the main industries of Srilanka?
Answer:
Tea, paper, garment industry.

Question 60.
What are the main minerals of Srilanka?
Answer:
Graphite.

Question 61.
What are the pricious stones found in Srilanka?
Answer:
Sapphire, Ruby, cat’s eye.

Question 62.
What does India exports to Srilanka?
Answer:
Sugar, steel, coal, jute product, clothes, medicines etc.

Question 63.
What does India import from Srilanka?
Answer:
Clove, cinnamon, graphite, precious stone, coconut products.

Question 64.
What are the main cities of Srilanka?
Answer:
Colombo, Jaffna, Kandy Ratnapura.

Question 65.
What is the highest peak of Pakistan?
Answer:
The highest peak is Tirich Mir.

Question 66.
What are the main river of Pakistan?
Answer:
Indus is the main river of Pakistan.

Question 67.
What is the capital of Pikistan?
Answer:
The capital of Pikistan is Islamabad.

Question 68.
What is the main language of Pakistan?
Answer:
The main language of Pakistan is Urdu.

Question 69.
What are the agricultural crops of Pakistan?
Answer:
Rice, wheat. maize, oilseeds. cotton, pulses.

Question 70.
Through what irrigation is practised in Pakistan?
Answer:
Irrigation is practised through canals in Pakistan.

Question 71.
What is carriage system?
Answer:
In dry part water is taken through tunnel under soil for cultivation. This is called carriage system.

Question 72.
What are the main fool crops of Pakistan?
Answer:
Wheat, rice, jowar.

Question 73.
Which fruits is found in Pakistan?
Answer:
Apple, peach, pomegranate, date etc.

Question 74.
What are the main industries of Pakistan?
Answer:
Cement, sugar, garments, leather, fur and far based garments.

Question 75.
What does India export to Pakistan?
Answer:
Steel, coal, iron ore, tea, medicines, machinary.

Question 76.
What does India import from Pakistan?
Answer:
High quality cotton, dry fruit, carpet, leather.

Question 77.
What is the height of the highest peak of Pakistan?
Answer:
7708 m.(Tirich Mir)

Question 78.
What are the main citics of Pakistan?
Answer:
Karachi. Lahore, Peshwar.

Question 79.
What is the height of the highest peak of Srilanka?
Answer:
2527 m. (Pidurutalagala)

Long Questions & Answers : (3 marks for each question)

Question 1.
Write a short note on Nepal.
Answer:
The heighest peak of Nepal is Mount Everest (8.848 m) and the main river is Kali Gandak. The capital of Nepal is Kathmandu and the state language is Nepali. The main agricultural crops are rice, wheat, jute, maize, jowar, sugareane etc. The inajor industries are paper jute, cotton textile, sugar, leather etc. 10 highest peaks of the world are situated at Nepal. Nepal has a great attraction for the mountaineers. The main cities of Nepal are Kathmandu, Nagrakot, Pokhra, Lumbini, Annapurna etc.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Bhutan.
Answer:
The highest peak of Bhutan is Kula Kangri (7538 m). The main river is Manas and the capital is Thimpu. The state language is Dzongkha. The main agricultural crops of Bhutan are wheat, barley, maize, apple, cardemom, orange etc. The main industries are cement, jam-jelly, drink processing. Main cities are phuntsholing, paro, Punakha. The exported goods of Bhutan are jute, pulses, leather, oilseed and imported goods are parts of automobiles, car, fertilizer, petro chemical etc. Bhutan is famous for manufacturing, jam, jelly etc.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Bangladesh.
Answer:
The highest peak of Bangladesh is Keokradong (986 m). The main river is Meghna. The capital of Bangladesh is Dhaka and the state language is Bengali. Main argicultural crops are rice, jute, maize, wheat, tea, sugarcane, jowar, cotton etc. The principal industries are jute, paper, sugar, garments, cement, handloom (tant), pottery etc. The cottage industry of Bengladesh is World famous tant at Tangail, maslin at Dhaka. The major cities are Chittogang, Srihatta, Khulna etc. Bangladesh exports Hilsa fish, areca nut, raw jute, tobacco, leather, natural gas to India and imports automobile, building materials, machineries. minerais etc. Heavy industry could not flowrished due to lack of mineral and power resources.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Mayanmar.
Answer:
The highest peak of Mayanmar is Kakabo Razi (5581 m). The main river of Mayanmar is Irrawaddy. The capital of Mayanmar is Naypyidaw and the state language is Burmese. The major agricultural crops are rice, maize, jowar, millet, tobacco, oil seeds etc. The industries that developed here are sugar, jute, silk etc. Main cities of Mayanmar are Yangon, Mandalay, Mawlamyine etc. Different types of vegetation found here. Evergreen forest like Garjan, Choplah. Mehogony, deciduous forest like Arjun, Sal, teak and undulating grassland are found here. Mayanmar imports steel, coal, jute products, cotton garments from India and exports valuable stone, teak, sal, silver, tin, tungsten to India.

Question 5.
Write a short note on Srilanka.
Answer:
The highest peak of Srilanka is Pidurutalagala (2527 m). The main river of Srilanka is Mahawali Ganga. The capital of Srilanka Jayawardenapura Kolte and the state language is Sinhalese. The main agricultural crops of Srilanka are rice, tea, sugarcane, maize, oilseed, coconut, spice etc. Main industries are paper and garments. Srilanka is the leading producer of graphite. Besides sapphire. Ruby, cat`s eye etc. are found in Srilanka. Srilanka imports sugar, steel. coal, juté produces, clothes,medicine from India and exports spices. leather, valuable stones to India. The major cities of Srilanka are Colombo, Jaffna, Kandy, Ratnapura etc.

Question 6.
Write a short note on Pakistan.
Answer:
The highest peak of Pakistan is Tirch Mir (7708 m). The main river is Indus. The capital of Pakistan is Islamabad and the state language is Urdu. The agricultural erops of pakistan are rice, wheat, maize, oilseeds, cotton, pulses etc. The main industries of Pakistan are cement, sugar, garments, leather, fur and fur based garments. The major cities of Pakistan are Karachi, Lahore, Peshwar etc. Pakistan imports steel, coal, iron ore, tea, medicines, machineries etc. from India and exports cotton, dry fruits, carpet, leather to India.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 8 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 7 Human Activities and Environmental Degradation offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 7 Question Answer – Human Activities and Environmental Degradation

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers : (1 mark for each question)

Question 1.
In eighteenth century the industrial revolution occured first in-
i) Italy
ii) England
iii) Germany, India
Answer:
ii) England.

Question 2.
Two world wars occured in-
i) eighteenth century
ii) nineteenth century
iii) twentieth century
Answer:
iii) twentieth century

Question 3.
When ground water is polluted by arsenic, it is called-
i) environmental pollution
ii) environmental degradation
iii) damage of environment
Answer:
ii) environmental degradation.

Question 4.
Decreasing of Biodiversity is-
i) environmental pollution ,
ii) environmental degradation ,
iii) environmental destruction
Answer:
environmental degradation.

Question 5.
Devastating cyclone occured at-
i) Digha
ii) Puri
iii) Vishakhapatnan
iv) Gopalpur
Answer:
iv) Gopalpur.

Question 6.
Gopalpur is situated in-
i) Andhra Pradesh
ii) Orissa
iii) Kerala
iv) West Bengal
Answer:
ii) Orissa.

Question 7.
Earthquake occured at Koyna in Maharashtra in-
i) 1967
ii) 1964
iii) 1965
iv) 1960
Answer:
i) 1967

Question 8.
Bhopal Gas Tragedy occured in-
i) 1982
ii) 1984
iii) 1986
iv) 1980
Answer:
ii) 1984.

Question 9.
Number of people died in Bhopal Gas Tragedy-
i) 1000
ii) 8000
iii) 2000
iv) 4000
Answer:
4000

Question 10.
Number of people injured in Bhopal Gas Tragedy
i) 1 lakh
ii) 5 lakhs
iii) 2 lakhs
iv) 3 lakhs
Answer:
iii) 2 lakhs

Question 11.
The mishap at Chernobyl, Ukraine occured
i) 1986
ii) 1985
iii) 1984
iv) 1982
Answer:
i) 1986

Question 12.
The mishap of Fukusima in Japan occured-
i) 2009
ii) 2010
iii) 2011
iv) 2008
Answer:
iii) 2011

Question 13.
Earth Summit was held in-
i) Brazil
ii) Sri Lanka
iii) Bangladesh
iv) India
Answer:
i) Brazil

Question 14.
Number of countries attend in the Earth Summit-
i) 176
ii) 177
iii) 170
iv) 178
Answer:
iv) 178

Question 15.
Number of people attend in the Earth Summ
i) 30,000
ii) 40,000
iii) 20,000
iv) 10,000
Answer:
i) 30,000

Question 16.
Chipko Movement occured in-
i) 1972
ii) 1973
iii) 1971
iv) 1974
Answer:
ii) 1973

Question 17.
‘Chipko Movement’ started in-
i) Garhwal
ii) Himachal
iii) Salboni
Answer:
i) Garhwal

Question 18.
In environmental degradation India has ranked-
i) 120
ii) 122
iii) 123
iv) 126
Answer:
iv) 126

Question 19.
According to the report of World Bank every year environmental degradation cost India about-
i) Rs. 4,80,000 crores
ii) 4,00,000 crores
iii) 4,40,000 crores
Answer:
i) Rs. 4,80,000 crores

Question 20.
In G-20 nations the number of most polluted cities are-
i) 20
ii) 13
iii) 25
iv) 30
Answer:
i) 20

Fill in the blanks : (1 mark for each question)

1. In eighteenth century industrialisation occured in ______.
2. The decline of quality of entire environment features is environmental ______.
3. ______ refers to pollution of various components of environment by natural or manmade activities.
4. ______ and ______ is environmental degradation.
5. Ground water polluted by Arsenic is ______.
6. Phailin is a divastated ______.
7. Phailin occured at ______.
8. Increasing of agricultural production is a modern ______.
9. Provide human habitat and modern living standard is ______.
10. The object of thermal power station is to ______.
11. Burning of fossil fuel means adding ______ in the air.
12. The wastes of thermal power station decrease the ______ of land.
13. Earthquake happened at ______ in Maharashtra.
14. Earthquake at Koyna happened in ______.
15. Bhopal gas tragedy happened in ______.
16. ______ people died in Bhopal gas tragedy.
17. The mishap at Chernobyl in Ukraine occured in ______.
18. The mishap at Fukusima in Japan occured in ______.
19. The environmental degradation’s harmful effect cost India about ______.
20. India ranks ______ in case of environmental degradation.
21. ‘Chipko Movement’ started in ______.
22. Among G-20 nations the number of most polluted cities India are 13 among ______.
23. Chipko Movement was held at ______.
24. Excessive use of high yielding seeds speed up vital ______ defects.
25. The report on cnvironmental degradation was conducted by ______.
Answer:
1.Europe
2. degradation
3. Pollution
4. Flood, drought
5. environmental fegradation
6. cyclone
7. Gopalpur
8. agricultural method
9. urbanisation
10. increase production
11. carbon dioxide
12. fertility
13. Koyna
14. 1967
15. 1984
16. 4000
17. 1986
18. 2011,
19. 80 billion dollar
20. 126th
21. 1973
22. 20
23. Garhwal region in Uttarakhand
24. genetic
25. World Bank.

State whetherTrue or False : (1 mark for each question)

1. Man must allow all animals and plants to grow in their natural habitats.
2. Chipko movement was a violent movement.
3. The success of green revolution is mostly seen in West Bengal.
4. Unscientific methods of cultivation reduce soil fertility.
5. In Bhoopal there was a pesticide plant of Union Carbide.
6. Man is not responsible for drought, flood etc.
7. Urbanisation deplects the reserve of underground water.
8. Nuclear disaster in Fukushima took place in 2012.
9. Sundarlal Bahuguna was the leader of Chipko Mivement.
10. Medha Patekar is the pioneer of ‘Narmada Banchao’ movement.
Answer:
1. true
2. false
3. false
4. true
5. true
6. false
7. true
8. false
9. true
10. true

Match the following : (1 mark for each question)

Match the column A with column B.

A	B
1) Medha Patekar	a) Fukushima;Japan
2) Sundarlal Bahuguna	b) vulcanism, tsunami
3) About 4000 people died	c) 178 countries attended
4) Nuclear disaster in 2011	d) to hold tightly
5) Natural environmental degradation	e) Bhopal Gas Tragedy
6) Earth summit, 1992	f) Narmada banchao Movement
7) In Hindi Chipko means	g) eighteenth century
8) Industrial revolution in Europe	h) Chipko Movement

Answer:
1. Medha Patekar Narmada baichao Movement.
2. Sundarlal Bahuguna Chipko Movement.
3. About 4000 people died Bhopal Gas Tragedy.
4. Nuclear disaster in 2011 Fukushima, Japan
5. Natural environmental degradation vulcanism, tsunami.
6. Earth summit. 1992178 countries attended
7. In Hindi Chipko means to hold tightly.
8. Industrial revolution in Europe eighteenth century.

Very Short Questions & Answers : (1 mark for each question)

Question 1.
What is Homeostatic mechanism?
Answer:
In natural environment different physical and organic processes function in such a way that if any damage or change occurs to any part of it: the affected area is repaired by nature itself. This is known as Homeostatic.

Question 2.
What is environmental degradation?
Answer:
The decline of quality of entire environmental features is environmental degradation.

Question 3.
What is environmental pollution?
Answer:
Environmental pollution refers to pollution of various components of environment by natural or man made activities.

Question 4.
What is the name of cyclone that occured near Gopalpur?
Answer:
The name of the cyclone is Phailin.

Question 5.
Give an example of natural degradation.
Answer:
Tsunami is such an example.

Question 6.
What is done to increase the agricultural production?
Answer:
To increase the agricultural production insecticide, fertilizer are used.

Question 7.
What are the harmful effects of using insectiside?
Answer:
Soil and water become polluted that cause the death of fish and other aquatic animals.

Question 8.
What are the effects of the development of human settlement?
Answer:
For the development of human settlement, the sound pollution and air pollution occur.

Question 9.
How does the generation of electricity harm our nature?
Answer:
At the time of generating electricity the fossil burnt which increases carbon dioxide in air.

Question 10.
How is the fertility of soil decreased?
Answer:
The waste of thermal power station is accumulated on the nearby land and makes the soil infertile.

Question 11.
When did earthquake occur in Koyna in Maharashtra?
Answer:
In 1967.

Question 12.
How does the irrigation cause earthquake?
Answer:
Large dams creat pressure on the underlying rock and causes earthquake.

Question 13.
How are the common people harined at the time of constructing reservoir?
Answer:
At the time of constructing reservoir common people become refugees.

Question 14.
How does the facilities of developed modern habited bring sufferings in human life?
Answer:
Growing up the big cities around the unplanned old cities create traffic congestion and drainage problem.

Question 15.
How did Bhopal Gas tragedy occur?
Answer:
Deadly MIC gas leaked out from a cracked tank of Union Carbide’s chemical and pesticide factory.

Question 16.
Which gas is responsible for the mishap?
Answer:
Methyl-Iso-Cyanate or MIC.

Question 17.
When did Bhopal gas tragedy occur?
Answer:
It occured in 1984.

Question 18.
How many human and animals had died in this mishap?
Answer:
About 4000 people and innumerous birds and animals died.

Question 19.
How many people were injured?
Answer:
More than 2 lakh people were injured.

Question 20.
Where in Russia an accident occured?
Answer:
The accident occured in Chernobyl, Ukraine.

Question 21.
When did the mishap of Russia occur?
Answer:
In 1988 the mishap occured.

Question 22.
Where in Japan the mishap occured?
Answer:
The mishap occured at Fukusima in Japan.

Question 23.
When did the mishap occured in Japan?
Answer:
The mishap occured in 2011.

Question 24.
When was the Earth summit held?
Answer:
The Earth summit was held in 1992.

Question 25.
Where was the Earth Summit held?
Answer:
The Earth Summit held in Rio-de-Janiro.

Question 26.
How many people attended in Earth Summit?
Answer:
30 thousand people attended in Earth Summit.

Question 27.
How many countries took part in the conference?
Answer:
178 countries took part in the conference.

Question 28.
When was the ‘Chipko Movement’ started?
Answer:
It was started in 1973.

Question 29.
Where did the ‘Chipko Movement’ started?
Answer:
Garhwal region in Uttarakhand.

Question 30.
What does the harmful effect of environmental degradation cost in India?
Answer:
It costs 80 billion dollars.

Question 31.
What is the place of India in case of environmental degradation?
Answer:
India is at 126th place out of 132 countries.

Question 32.
What is WHO?
Answer:
WHO is World Health Organisation.

Question 33.
How many most populated countries are there in the report of WHO?
Answer:
There are 20 countries.

Question 34.
How many polluted cities does India have in G-20 nations?
Answer:
India has 13 most polluted cities.

Question 35.
In which report India’s environmental degradation is told?
Answer:
Recent World Bank report.

Question 36.
Who is the leader of Chipko movement?
Answer:
Sundarlal Bahuguna is the leader of Chipko movement.

Question 37.
Who is the leader of Narmada Banchao movement?
Answer:
Medha Patekar is the leader of Narmada Banchao movement.

Question 38.
What is the result of production of electricity?
Answer:
Burning fossil fuels emits huge quantities of carbon dioxide.

Short Questions & Answers : (2 marks for each question)

Question 1.
What are the effects of modern agricultural method?
Answer:
Different chemical fertilizers, pesticides used to increase agricultural production pollute soil and water. Polluted water flows in to the soil is discharged into ponds, rivers and other water bodies killing aquatic flora and fauna.

Question 2.
What are the effects of urbanisation?
Answer:
Depletes the reserve of underground water. Urbanisation creates air and noise pollution. Aggravates problems of waterlogging. Many big cities of the third world have grown around unplanned old cities. As a result. traffic congestions. drainage and sanitation problems and shortage of housing are acute.

Question 3.
W.hat are the effects power plant?
Answer:
Burning fossil fuels emits huge quantities of carbon dioxide, due to the increase of atmospheric temperature the balance between heat received and radiated by the earth is disrupted. ash and wastes from thermal power stations are dumped in nearby areas, thereby decreasing the fertility of the land.

Question 4.
What are the effects of multipurpose river valley projects?
Answer:
Large dams create great pressure on the underlying rock strata, earthquakes occur at weak points along these strata (Koyna. maharashtra. 1967). Vast stretches are deforested. Catchment areas of rivers are degraded, many people become homeless as the darn-sites are evacuated before construction. Due to excessive sedimentation. agricultural lands are affected.

Question 5.
What is the result of green revolution?
Answer:
The success of green revolution is mostly seen in Punjab and Haryana. But at present negative side effects resulted as environmental degradation. Excessive amount of chemicsl fertilizers and pesticides is damaging local environment as well as animal kingdom. causing increase in soil salinity. Moreover, excessive use of high yielding seeds speed up genetic defects.

Question 6.
Mention present environmental degradation in East Kolkata wetlands.
Answer:
East Kolkata wetlands have been filled and used as construction sites for high-rise buildings. As a result, the groundwater level has fallen. The soil as well as the grounwater is now saline to a great extent. Felling of trees and acquisition cultivable land for construction of buildings have disturbed the ecological balance. Moreover, dumping of garbage has contaminated water. soil and air.

Question 7.
What is Chipko movement?
Answer:
It is a movement to save forest. In 1973. the people of Garhwal region started a non-
violent movement to save forests. They embraced the trees and saved them from being felled whenever the lumbering contractors came to fell those. “Chipko” in Hindi means to stick to or hold tightly on to something. Sundarlal Bahuguna is a leader of Chipko Movement.

Question 8.
Mention present environmental degradation in India.
Answer:
India is a rapidly developing nation. Industrialization, urbanization. construction of roadways. extraction of resources in different forms and execution and implementation of various projects are being carried out in different parts of India. Along with these developments, environmental degradation and occurrence of hazards are grdually rising.

Long Questions & Answers : (3 marks for each question)

Question 1.
Write the causes of environmental degradation.
Answer:
Environments degradation occurs in two ways :-
i) Natural : For the influence of storm, earthquake, volcanism, Tsunami, lanslide etc. the natural environment clranges, At the same time environmental degradation takes place.

ii) Manmade: Modern agricultural methods, industry, transport, different development activities disturbing environments natural cycle. Unscientific agriculture, industrial waste, unplanned urbanisation bariers in natural course of river chanel and consruction of dams, deforestation cause different problems and degradation in nature.

Question 2.
What are the causes of environmental degradation in our country? How can it be controlled?
Answer:
Environmental degradation in our country happens for many causes. Environmental degradation is caused at every time for the activities of man. For the cutting of the trees drought prevails, or flood occurs. On the other hand natural resources are destroyed resulting global warming climate has been change: Thus environmental degradation is continuing regularly. Besides water pollution causes water crysis. Man has set up the factories for our need and also polluted the air at the same times.

The chemical accidents that occur in those factories, creats economical problems for man. The balance between the demand and suppiy is destroyed. Man should immediately stop the falling of trees. He should take step so that the smoke of factories can not pollute the air. He should be careful so that the throwing waste in the water could not pollute the water or waste mater.

Question 3.
What steps can be taken for saving environment?
Answer:
Some steps need to be taken for saving environment are –
1. One of the main reason for environmental degradation is illiteracy and poverty.
2. Eco-friendly energy must be used more.
3. Resources should be recycled.
5. Environmental impact must be analysed before inplementation of any governmental proposal.
6.Vigilance must be kept so that bio-diversity is not lost.
7. Above all, concerned authorities of the country must give importance to environmental issues.

Question 4.
Development must be carried out and environment must be saved. But how?
Answer:
Development must be carried out and environment must also be saved.
Human civilization cannot move backward. We need development, we need use of modern technology in agriculture, we need development in industry, urbanisation but we must not destroy the environment. We should protect our forests and we should protect our water resources. Many environmental movement were organised in India.

According to recent world Bank report conducted on environmental degradations harmful effect cost India about 80 billion dollar. According to WHO report on most polluted twenty cities in G-20 nations India has 13 most polluted cities. A survey report conducted on environmental degradation in 132 countries India at 126 spot. Therefore, India occupies a special place in case of environmental degradation. At present many environmental movements have been organised like ‘Chipko Movement’, ‘Narmada Banchao’ movement etc. These type of movements can save our country from danger in future.