Class 10

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 5.8 Industries in India offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 5.8 Question Answer – Industries in India

Answer in short : 2 Marks

Question 1.
What is the importance of transport to industries ?
Answer:
Transport helps to carry raw materials, labour and other essential things from the source to the industry and also the finished products to the market.

Question 2.
What do you mean by ‘pure raw material’?
Answer:
Pure raw materials are those whose weight does not reduce in the process of production of finished goods. Eg. – 100 kg of raw cotton mill yield 100 kg of cotton clothe.

Question 3.
What do you mean by ‘impure raw materials’ ?
Answer:
Impure raw materials are those whose weight reduces considerably in the process of production of finished goods. Eg.- 100 kg of iron ore will not yield 100 kg of pure iron. It depends on the percentage of iron content of the ore.

Question 4.
Classify the different kinds of industries.
Answer:

• Agro-based
• Animal-based
• Forest-based
• Mineral-based
• Industrial raw material based.

Question 5.
What is Food Processing Industry?
Answer:
The industry where agro-based raw materials are used to produce easily usable, attractive and long-lasting food items, is called Food Processing Industry. Eg.Dairy, fruit juice, jams, potato chips, etc.

Question 6.
Where are most of the cotton textile mills concentrated in India ?
Answer:
Most of the cotton textile mills in India are concentrated in Maharashtra, Gujarat, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Question 7.
Name the important centres of cotton textile industry in Maharashtra.
Answer:
The important cotton textile centres of Maharashtra are – Solapur, Pune, Kolhapur, Satara, Wardha, Nagpur, Aurangabad, Amravati and Salgaon. But Mumbai is the most important centre with 63 mills of the total 122 mills of Maharashtra being located here.

Question 8.
Why is Ahmedabad called the Manchester of India ?
Answer:
Ahmedabad is the the largest centre of cotton textile industry in India. It alone houses 73 mills out of the 118 mills present in Gujarat. Thus, it is compared with the largest cotton textile centre of the world, and is called the Manchester of India’.

Question 9.
Name some important cotton textile centres of the south.
Answer:
Coimbatore (Manchester of the South), Chennai, Madurai, Tirunelveli, Salem, Perambur, Tuticorin, etc.

Question 10.
Why is paper industry called a forest-based industry ?
Answer:
The raw materials for paper industry come from coniferous trees, bamboos, sabai grass etc. which are all forest products. Thus the paper industry is called a forest-based industry.

Question 11.
Why is coal an essential raw material for the iron and steel industry?
Answer:
Coal is converted to coking coal, which is very essential for melting iron ore and extracting pure iron or pig iron. This iron is then further used to produce several things. Extraction of pure iron would be impossible without coal. Hence, coal is very essential for the iron and steel industry.

Question 12.
Write a short note on the iron and steel plant of Bhadravati.
Answer:
The Visveswaraya Iron and Steel Ltd. located at Bhadravati is the first steel plant developed outside the coal belt of eastern India. The plant was first started by using charcoal as a source of fuel. Now it is using hydro-power obtained from the Jog hydel power station. All raw materials (iron ore from Kemangundi, limestone from Bhandigudda, manganese from Shimoga) are available within a radius of 50 km from Bhadravati.

Question 13.
Write a short note on Salem Steel Plant.
Answer:
Salem steel plant started commerical production from March 1982. It is located very near to the iron ore fields of salem. The power comes from Neyveli Thermal Project. This plant is designed to produce stainless steel sheets and coils.

Question 14.
Name some important automobile companies of India.
Answer:

1. Hindustan Motors Ltd. in Uttarpara, West Bengal.
2. Premier Automobiles Ltd. in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
3. Standard Motor Products Ltd and Ashok Leyland Ltd. in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
4. Maruti Udyog Ltd. in Gurgaon, Haryana.
5. Tata Engineering and Locomotive Company (TELCO) in Jamshedpur, Jhankhand.
6. Mahindra and Mahindra Ltd. in Mumbai, Maharashtra.

Question 15.
Where were steam locomotives manufactured in India in the preindependence period?
Answer:
In the pre-independence period, steam locomotives were assembled and partly manufactured in Ajmer and Kanchanpara.

Question 16.
Write a short note on Diesel Locomotive works at Varanasi.
Answer:
Diesel Locomotive Work (DLW) in Varanasi started assembling locomotives from imported components. The first locomotive coach was commissioned in January 1964. DLW now produces broad gauge and meter gauge diesel locos with the help of indigenous components.

Question 17.
Write a short note on TELCO.
Answer:
The Tata Engineering and Locomotive Works (TELCO) is a private sector unit and is located at Jamshedpur in Jharkhand. It was set up in 1951 for production of steam locomotives. But since 1970, the production of steam locomotives has been stopped and other locomotives are manufactured.

Question 18.
Name the regions where petro-chemical projects are being implemented in India.
Answer:
Some regions where petro-chemical projects are being implemented in India are :

1. Hazira, Jamnagar and Bharuch in Gujarat.
2. Chennai in Tamil Nadu.
3. Mangalore in Karnataka.
4. Visakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh,
5. Haldia in West Bengal.
6. Auraiya in Uttar Pradesh.

Question 19.
What do you mean by ‘Information Technology’?
Answer:
Information Technology is the application of computers and telecommunication equipments to store, retrieve, transmit and manipulate data in the context of a business or other enterprises.

Question 20.
In how many segments is the IT industry in India divided ?
Answer:
The IT industry in India is divided into 4 major segments :
(a) IT services
(b) Business process management
(c) Software products and engineering services
(d) Hardware.

Question 21.
What are ‘foot loose industries’?
Answer:
The industries which produce some volume of finished products as the raw materials used, can be located at the centres of raw materials, centres of production or at the market. These are called foot loose industries. Eg. – Cotton textile.

Question 22.
What are ‘Down stream industries’?
Answer:
The industries which use the finished products of big industries as their own raw materials are called ‘Down stream industries. Eg.- Synthetic fibre from petroleum.

Question 23.
What are ‘Acillary industries’ ?
Answer:
The industries which supply their finished products to support the growth of other related industries are called the ‘Ancillary Industries’. Eg. – Ancillary industries for the automobile industry are – tyre industry, battery industry, glass industry, etc.

Question 24.
What is an industrial region?
Answer:
A region where many types of industries grow beside each other due to facilities of raw materials, market, demand, labour supply, mutual interdependence, etc. is called an ‘industrial region’.

Question 25.
Name the largest and oldest iron and steel centres of India.
Answer:
(i) The largest iron and steel industry of India is in Bhilai, Chattisgarh.
(ii) The oldest iron and steel industry of India is in Burnpur-Kulti (IISCO) in West Bengal.

Question 26.
What is the impact of climate on cotton textile industry?
Answer:
Raw cotton can be easily spun into threads in moist climate. Dry climate makes the threads too dry and causes them to break. This produces clothes of inferior quality.

Question 27.
Which city of West Bengal is called the ‘Glassgow of India’?
Answer:
Howrah in West Bengal is called the ‘Glassgow of India’. Glassgow in Britain is the largest town and centre for numerous engineering centres in Scotland. Similarly, Howrah also houses the maximum number of engineering centres and other factories in West Bengal.

Question 28.
Name two centres in India manufacturing railway wagons.
Answer:
(i) Muzaffarpur of Bihar
(ii) Dumdum in West Bengal.

Question 29.
Why is the iron and steel industry called the backbone industry ?
Answer:
Iron and steel is such an important industry that all industries producing the smallest of items like safety pins to large items like railway engines require raw materials from them. Thus, it is called the backbone industry.

Question 30.
Why is Chennai known as the ‘Detroit of India’ ?
Answer:
Detroit in USA is the largest centre of manufacturing automobiles in the world. Similarly, Chennai produces about 35-40% of the automobiles produced in India. Thus, Chennai is called the ‘Detroit of India’.

Answer in brief : 3 Marks

Question 1.
Name the centres where cotton mills have developed in the Northern Zone.
Answer:
The major centres where cotton mills have developed in the Northern zone are :

1. Uttar Pradesh – Kanpur, Lucknow, Aligarh, Agra, Bareilly, Meerut.
2. Punjab – Amritsar, Ludhiana, Phagwara.
3. Haryana – Bhiwani, Hissar, Rohtak.
4. Rajasthan – Pali, Hilwara, Udaipur, Jaipur, Ajmer.
5. Delhi

Question 2.
Write a short note on the growth of paper industry in India.
Answer:
The first Paper mill was established in 1840 in Serampore, Hooghly, by Willam Carry, but unfortunately it was closed down. The modern paper mill was first established in Bally, Howrah. Presently there are 379 paper mills in India. Production capacity is 60.20 lakh tonnes (2004). Newsprint, which is mainly used for printing of newspaper is produced about 12.40 lakh tonnes.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Chittaranjan Locomotive works (CLW).
Answer:
The Chittaranjan Locomotive Works (CLW) was established in Chittaranjan in Burdwan district of West Bengal in 1948. The extensive level of land with hard soil of Chittaranjan area is a most suitable site for the erection of the plant. Steam locomotives were manufactured here initially. But since 1972, the production of steam locomotives has been discontinued and their place has been given to electric locomotives.

Question 4.
What are the factors that influence the location of chittaranjan Locomotive Work?
Answer:
The factors that influence location of Chittaranjan Locomotive Works are :

1. Availability of steel from nearby steel plants.
2. Availability of hydel power from Mython and thermal power from Durgapur.
3. Cheap local labour.
4. Location of Chittaranjan near rail junctions.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Petro-chemical industry?
Answer:
Petro-chemicals are essentially the chemicals and compounds derived from petroleum resources. The industry which deals with such chemicals and compounds is called Petro-chemical industry. These chemicals are used in a wide range of articles, such as, synthetic fibres, plastic, famous and non-famous metals, synthetic rubber, dye-stuffs, insecticides, drugs, synthetic detergents, pharmaceuticals, etc.

Question 6.
Write about IT industry in India.
Answer:
India is the world’s largest sourcing destination for the IT industry. The industry employs about 10 million Indians and contributes significantly to the social and economic transformation of the country. It energises the higher education sector, especially in engineering and computer science. The Indian IT industry is divided into 4 major segments – (a) IT services (b) Business process management (c) Software products and engineering services (d) Hardware. Indian IT’s core competencies and strengths have placed it on the international canvas, attracting investments from major countries. Eg. – the software and hardware industry attracted 13,788.56 million between April 2000 and December 2014.

Question 7.
Discuss the causes of growth of paper industry in India.
Answer:
The causes of growth of paper industry in India are :

1. Availability of raw materials from forest (Eg.- coniferous trees, bamboo, sabai grass)
2. Availability of other materials needed for the industry, Eg.- chemicals, dyes, bleaches, etc.
3. Availability of ample water.
4. Availability of hydal power as well as thermal power to run the plants.
5. Cheap and ample labour.
6. Demand for newsprint, books and copies by the huge population.

Question 8.
Classify raw materials according to their sources.
Answer:
Raw materials can be classified according to their sources as :

1. Agro-based : These are the raw materials that come from agriculture. Eg.- tea, jute, sugarcane, cotton etc.
2. Mineral-based : These are raw materials that come from minerals excavated from the earth. Eg. – coal, iron ore, bauxite etc.
3. Forest-based : These are raw materials that come from forests. Eg. – wood for paper industry, rubber latex, pulp for matchstick, cardboard industry etc.
4. Animal-based : These are raw materials that come from animals. Eg.- wool, fur, skin, meat for food processing industries, hooves and horns etc.

Question 9.
Name the major iron and steel centres of India.
Answer:

Centre	Region	State
i. TISCO	Jamshedpur	Jharkhand
ii. Rourkela Steel Plant	Rourkela	Odisha
iii. Daitari Steel Plant	Daitari	Odisha
iv. Hindustan Steel limited	Durgapur	West Bengal
v. IISCO	Kulti-Burnpur	West Bengal
vi. Bhilai	Durg district	Chattisgarh
vii. Visakhapatnam Steel Project	Visakhapatnam	Andhra Pradesh
viii. Vijaynagar Steel Plant	Hospet	Karnataka
ix. Salem Steel Plant	Salem	Tamil Nadu

Question 10.
What are the causes of growth of the Iron and Steel centre at Bhilai?
Answer:
The iron and steel centre at Bhilai was established in 1960 with Russian collaboration. The advantages which supported the growth of this centre are :

1. Iron ore comes from Dalli Rajhara only 100 km away.
2. Coal comes from Kobra mines 225 km away. Some high quality coal also comes from Jharia 750 km away.
3. Manganese comes from Balaghat and Bhandara 200 km away.
4. The nearby reservoir of Tendula supplies the requisite water.
5. Power comes from Korba region.
6. The Visag port is situated 450 km away.

Question 11.
Discuss the causes of development of the Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) at Jamshedpur.
Answer:
The Tata Iron and Steel Company was set up in Jamshedpur by Jamshedji Tata in 1911. The causes for its development are :

1. Iron ore comes from the mines of Gurumahisani, Badampahar, Sulaipat, Bonai and Keonjhar of Odisha and from Noamundi, Guwa, Pansiburu, Budaburu of Singhbhum district of Odisha only 75-100 km away.
2. Coal comes from Jharia and Korba mines 200 km away.
3. Manganese comes from West Singhbhum, Keonjhar and Bonai.
4. Limestone and dolomite comes from Gangpur and Birmitrapur.
5. Water is acquired from Subarnarekha and Kharkai rivers.
6. The Kolkata port is only 250 km away.

Question 12.
Why is Durgapur of West Bengal known as the ‘Ruhr of India’ ?
Answer:
The Ruhr region of Germany is famous for housing a huge number of iron and steel industries based on the iron ore and coal found nearby. Similarly, in Durgapur of West Bengal, numerous iron and steel centres have come up based on coal mines of Jharia, Raniganj, Asansol nearby. Thus, it is known as the ‘Ruhr of India’.

Question 13.
List the importances of petro-chemical industry.
Answer:
The importances of petro-chemical industry are :

1. This industry uses the petroleum to the fullest to manufacture several things. Thus, the cost of production becomes less.
2. Ancillary industries and downstream industries also grow along with petro-chemical industries. e.g. – synthetic fibre, plastic, polymer etc.
3. It is based on high skill and technological know-how. Hence, development of the industry is fast.
4. It is based on advanced researches and have scope for further researches.
5. It plays an important role in the economic development of a country.
6. It helps in creating more and more resources.

Answer in details : 5 Marks

Question 1.
Discuss the factors that influence the location of any industry.
Answer:
The factors that influence the location of any industry are :

1. Raw materials : All industries need raw materials to begin their production. Nature of raw materials influences the location of the industry. Eg.- Iron and Steel plants are set up in regions near iron and coal mines.
2. Transport : Raw materials need to be transported to factories and finished products to markets.
3. Market : Location of a market influences location of an industry, as all finished goods need to be reached to the market for business and commerce.
4. Labour : No industry can run without labour. A location for the industry is chosen where labour will be available at cheap rates.
5. Capital : Industries tend to grow where rich people concentrate, and investors are eager to invest.
6. Water : Water is essential for all industries. Eg.- Availability of water guides location of jute industries.
7. Power or electricity : No industry can run without power or electricity. Thus, a location is chosen where power can be easily reached.
8. Others : The other factors which influence the location of industries are – climate, environmental conditions, relief, govemment rules and regulations, etc.

Question 2.
Discuss the factors of localisation of cotton textile mills in Western India.
Answer:
The factors that influence the localisation of cotton textile mills in Wesern India are :

1. Raw material (i.e. cotton) available from the black soil region of Western and Central India.
2. Hot humid climate helps in growth of cotton and making of threads.
3. Presence of ports at Mumbai, Kandla, Surat, etc. helps in international trade.
4. Availability of hydel power from Ukai, Veera, etc., thermal power from Dhubran, atomic power from Kakrapara,Tarapore, etc.
5. Good network of railways and roadways connecting all important centres of the country.
6. Availability of capital from business communities residing in the western part of India.
7. Ample labour at cheap rates.
8. High demand of cotton products in local and foreign markets.

Question 3.
Why are iron and steel industries concentrated in eastern India ?
Answer:
Most of the iron and steel plants of India, such as Jamshedpur, Burnpur, Durgapur, Rourkela, Bhilai and Bokaro are located in Jharkhand, West Bengal, Odisha and Chattisgarh. The causes for the concentration of iron and steel plants in eastern India are :
i. Iron ore : About 80 % of India’s iron ore is available in this region. The major mines are – (a) Noamundi, Guwa, Budaburu, Pansiraburu of Singhbhum district, Jharkhand. (b) Gurumahisani, Badampahar, Sulaipat and Bonai of Mayurbhanj district and Bagiyaburu of Keonjhar district, Odisha.

ii. Coal : About 97% of India’s coal is mined in this region. The steel plants of Kulti, Burnpur, and Durgapur get their coal from the mines in Raniganj and Asansol. The steel plants of Jamshedpur, Bokaro and Rourkela get their coal from Jharia, Bokaro, Ramgarh and Giridih in Jharkhand.

iii. Other raw materials : Limestone, dolomite, manganese, etc. are collected from Kalahandi, Gangpur and Karaput of Odisha. Other raw materials like chromium, tungsten, nickel, etc. are easily collected from Chotanagpur plateau.

iv. Water : The rivers Damodar, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, etc. supply ample water required in the steel plants.

v. Transport : The network of roadways and railways in eastern India help in trade and commerce. The ports at Kolkata, Haldia and Paradweep help in international trade.

vi. Power Supply : Thermal power is acquired from Bokaro and Durgapur thermal power plants. Hydel power is acquired from power projects at Hirakud, Mythan, Panchet and Tilaiya.

vii. Labour : Cheap and skilled labour are easily available from West Bengal, Jharkhand, Odisha and Bihar.

viii. Market : Iron and steel from eastern India meets the demands of eastern, central and northern India, as well as foreign countries.

Question 4.
Discuss about the Petro-chemical industry of India.
Answer:
Petro-chemical industry derives its raw materials essentially from petroleum, along with other chemicals. It is required for the production of a wide variety of items like synthetic fibres, plastics, ferrous and non-ferrous metals, dye, paints, insecticides, drugs, pharmaceuticals, etc.

The first petro-chemical complex was established by Union Carbide India Ltd’ at Trombay in 1966. ‘National Organic Chemical Industries Ltd’ was set up in Thane in 1968. The Udex Plant at Kayali Refinery for the production of benzene and toluene was commissioned in 1969. The Indian Petro-Chemical Corporation Ltd, was the first public sector enterprise incorporated in March, 1969. The IPCL’s mega petrochemical complex at vadodara was commissioned in 1973. In Gujarat, Jamnagar is the largest private petro-chemical industry. Petrofils Corporation Ltd (PCL) is a joint sector company of the Government of India and Weaver’s Co-operative societies. It manufactures polyester filament yarn and nylon filament yarn. The Bongaigaon Petro-Chemicals Ltd. is set up at Bongaigaon adjacent to the oil refinery.

These are only a few of the petro-chemical plants established in India. The growing demand of petro-chemical products in daily life has led the government to sanction several mega petro-chemical complexes in public and private sectors. As a result, petro-chemical projects are being implemented in Hazira, Jamnagar and Bharuch in Gujarat, Chennai in Tamil Nadu, Mangalore in Karnataka, Visakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh, Haldia in West Bengal and Auraiya in Uttar Pradesh.

The petro-chemical industry contributes 14% of the production of the entire manufacturing sector. It also shares 14 % of the total export volume of India.

Question 5.
Discuss the problems, solutions and prospects of cotton textile industry in India.
Answer:
The problems of cotton textile industry in India are :

1. Lack of best quality long staple cotton.
2. Old and obsolete machineries.
3. High cost of production due to lack of modernisation.
4. Huge number of sick and closed mills.
5. Competition with artificial fibre.
6. Competition in the international market.
7. Labour disputes and problems with the management.
8. Irregular power supply etc.

The solutions taken up for solving these problems are:

i. The ‘National Cotton Textile Corporation’ and the ‘Cotton Textile Export Development Organisation’ has been built to look after the different issues in cotton textile industry.
ii. New machines and better infrastructure are being used to replace the old. The prospects of cotton textile industry in India are –

1. There is a huge internal market for cotton textile in India itself due to the huge population.
2. Demand for cotton textile is always high, as India is basically a warm country.
3. There is a good demand of Indian cotton textile in the world.
4. The international market can be increased yet more by improving on the quality of cotton textile even more.

Question 6.
Why has the petro-chemical industry developed on the western side of India?
Answer:
The causes of development of petro-chemical industry in western India are :

1. The western part of India has many oil reserves. The requisite crude oil comes from the mines in Bombay High Basin, Aliabet, Ankleshwar, Cambay, Kallol, etc.
2. The crude oil can be easily processed in the refineries of Koyali, Jamnagar etc.
3. Many ports are present on the western coast of India, which helps in import of more crude oil and export of finished petro-chemical products.
4. The rich communities residing in the nearby areas invest in the industries built there.
5. There is high demand of petro-chemical products in Western India.

Question 7.
What are the problems of petro-chemical industry in India ?
Answer:
The problems of petro-chemical industry in India are :

1. Petroleum mines in India are not sufficient to meet the demands in the country. About 60% of crude oil has to be imported from other countries.
2. The cost of petro-chemical products is increasing rapidly.
3. Lack of multiple use of petroleum products due to lack of technological know how.
4. Lack of enough capital restricts the development of the industry.
5. The geneal population of India does not possess buying capacities to use petrochemical products of high qualities.
6. Petro-chemical industry causes much air pollution.
7. The products are not biodegradable, hence cause, pollutions in all levels of the environment after discarding.
8. Lack of research work to find out other uses and cheap methods of manufacturing petro-chemical products.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) 1 Mark

Question 1.
The largest steel plant of the country is :
(A) Bhilai
(B) Bokaro
(C) Rourkela
(D) Durgapur
Answer:
(A) Bhilai

Question 2.
The Bhadravati Steel Plant is the only plant which is managed by a State Government. Which is that State Govt.?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Odisha
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Karnataka
Answer:
(D) Karnataka

Question 3.
The first shore-based integrated steel project in India is coming up at-
(A) Ernakulam
(B) Tuticorin
(C) Visakhapatnam
(D) Mangalore
Answer:
(C) Visakhapatnam

Question 4.
Which of the following is wrongly matched about steel plants and country of collaboration/assistance?
(A) Rourkela (Odisha) – West Germany
(B) Durgapur (West Bengal) – United Kingdom
(C) Bokaro (Bihar) – U.S.S.R.
(D) Bhilai (M.P.) – United Kingdom
Answer:
(D) Bhilai (M.P.) – United Kingdom

Question 5.
Which of the following iron and steel plants get coking coal from Jharia?
(A) Bokaro and Burnpur
(B) Durgapur and Jamshedpur
(C) Bhilai and Rourkela
(D) All of them
Answer:
(D) All of them

Question 6.
Where is the Ambassador car manufactured ?
(A) Mahindra and Mahindra (Pune)
(B) Premier Automobiles (Bombay)
(C) Standard Motors (Madras)
(D) Hind Motors (Calcutta)
Answer:
(D) Hind Motors (Calcutta)

Question 7.
India is the world’s largest sugarcane producer, but second to Cuba in sugar production because
(A) nearly half the sugarcane in India is used to produce ‘gur’ and uncrystallised brown sugar.
(B) Indian sugarcane has a lower sucrose content than that from Cuba.
(C) The sugar refining method is not good in India.
(D) There is less demand for white sugar in India.
Answer:
(A) nearly half the sugarcane in India is used to produce ‘gur’ and uncrystallised brown sugar.

Question 8.
Which industry provides jobs to the maximum number of people?
(A) Iron and steel
(B) Cotton textiles
(C) Sugar industry
(D) Tea processing
Answer:
(B) Cotton textiles

Question 9.
Heavy engineering industries are located in :
(A) Jamshedpur-Asansol
(B) Bombay-Pune
(C) Kanpur and Lucknow
(D) Bangalore and Madras
Answer:
(A) Jamshedpur-Asansol

Question 10.
Which of the following steel plants was started with Russian collaboration?
(A) Bhilai
(B) Durgapur
(C) Rourkela
(D) Bhadravati
Answer:
(A) Bhilai

Question 11.
Tata Iron and Steel Company is located at :
(A) Calcutta
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Bumpur
(D) Kulti
Answer:
(B) Jamshedpur

Question 12.
Bombay is famous for:
(A) Sugar Industry
(B) Plastic Industry
(C) Cotton Textile Industry
(D) Heavy Electrical industry
Answer:
(C) Cotton Textile Industry

Question 13.
Bhilai is associated with :
(A) Cotton Industry
(B) Silk Industry
(C) Iron and Steel Industry
(D) Sugar Industry
Answer:
(C) Iron and Steel Industry

Question 14.
Bokaro is located in :
(A) Maharashtra
(B) West Bengal
(C) Odisha
(D) Jharkhand
Answer:
(D) Jharkhand

Question 15.
Which of the following cities is called the Manchester of India :
(A) Ahmedabad
(B) Coimbatore
(C) Sholapur
(D) Kanpur
Answer:
(A) Ahmedabad

Question 16.
The first cotton mill in India was started at :
(A) Mysore
(B) Kolkata
(C) Madras
(D) Bombay
Answer:
(B) Kolkata

Question 17.
The first H.M.T. factory was started at :
(A) Pinjore
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Madras
(D) Bangalore
Answer:
(D) Bangalore

Question 18.
Iron and steel products is obtained mainly from public sector plants, because :
(A) Huge capital investment is needed
(B) Private sector plant is not making profit
(C) It is the policy of the Government to have basic industries in public sector
(D) Production involves foreign collaboration
Answer:
(C) It is the policy of the Government to have basic industries in public sector

Question 19.
The latest plant producing stainless steel is located at :
(A) Visakhapatnam
(B) Salem
(C) Hospet
(D) Bokaro
Answer:
(B) Salem

Question 20.
Capacity for building large ships is at :
(A) Visakhapatnam
(B) Cochin
(C) Kolkata
(D) Goa
Answer:
(C) Kolkata

Question 21.
Daitari is known for its :
(A) Silk industry
(B) Textile industry
(C) Steel plant
(D) Jute industry
Answer:
(C) Steel plant

Question 22.
Salem steel plant is located in :
(A) A. P.
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala
Answer:
(B) Tamil Nadu

Question 23.
The leading state in sugar production in India is:
(A) U.P.
(B) Bihar
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(A) U.P.

Question 24.
Motorcycles are produced at:
(A) Faridabad
(B) Ballabhgarh
(C) Bombay
(D) Bangalore
Answer:
(A) Faridabad

Question 25.
Automobiles are produced at :
(A) Kolkata
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Hyderabad
Answer:
(A) Kolkata

Question 26.
Bangalore is famous for :
(A) Iron and Steel Industry
(B) Aluminum industry
(C) Aircraft industry
(D) Copper industry
Answer:
(C) Aircraft industry

Question 27.
The Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd. is famous for :
(A) Engineering industry
(B) Chemical industry
(C) Automobile industry
(D) Chemical fertilizer industry
Answer:
(A) Engineering industry

Question 28.
The main exporters of superfine clothe are :
(A) Sholapur and Coimbatore
(B) Bombay and Ahmedabad
(C) Madras and Calcutta
(D) Bangalore and Mysore
Answer:
(C) Madras and Calcutta

Question 29.
The percentage of mill produced clothe to be exported from India is :
(A) 15 per cent
(B) 10 per cent
(C) 12 per cent
(D) 8 per cent
Answer:
(B) 10 per cent

Question 30.
Diesel locomotives are manufactured at :
(A) Varanasi
(B) Gorakhpur
(C) Jamshedpur
(D) Barauni
Answer:
(A) Varanasi

Question 31.
Railway coaches are produced at :
(A) Perambur
(B) Kottayam
(C) Vellore
(D) Trichur
ANswer:
(A) Perambur

Question 32.
Ships are built in :
(A) Visakhapatnam
(B) Madras
(C) Calicut
(D) Goa
Answer:
(A) Visakhapatnam

Question 33.
In which state in India are the maximum number of cotton yarn and textile mills located?
(A) A. P.
(B) Gujarat
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(D) Tamil Nadu

Question 34.
India’s first sponge iron plate is at :
(A) Kothagudam*
(B) Kurnool
(C) Cudappah
(D) Kavaratti
[Kothagudam is in Andhra Pradesh. The sponge iron will act as a substitute for steel scrap and be used as feedstock for electric arc steel making.]
Answer:
(A) Kothagudam*

Question 35.
The main problem faced by manufacturing industries in India is the shortage of :
(A) Raw materials
(B) Market
(C) Power
(D) Labour
Answer:
(C) Power

Question 36.
Telephone cables are manufactured at :
(A) Patiala
(B) Madras
(C) Calcutta
(D) Asansol
Answer:
(D) Asansol

Question 37.
The main centre of chemical industry is :
(A) Bombay
(B) Calcutta
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Madras
Answer:
(A) Bombay

Question 38.
Transport aircrafts are produced at :
(A) Bangalore
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Kanpur
(D) Nasik
Answer:
(C) Kanpur

Question 39.
Aero-engines are produced at :
(A) Nasik
(B) Pune
(C) Koraput
(D) Mangalore
Answer:
(C) Koraput

Question 40.
Nasik produces :
(A) Air frames
(B) Aircraft wheels
(C) Electronic equipments
(D) Chemical goods
Answer:
(C) Electronic equipments

Question 41.
The first plant for heavy electrical engineering was started at :
(A) Bhopal
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Haridwar
(D) Nasik
Answer:
(A) Bhopal

Question 42.
Other heavy electrical engineering plants are located at :
(A) Hyderabad and Ranipur
(B) Nasik and Pune
(C) Lucknow and Bhubaneswar
(D) Durgapur and Asansol
Answer:
(A) Hyderabad and Ranipur

Fill in the blanks : 1 Mark

1. The Maruti Udyog Limited is located at ________.
2. In India, the first synthetic rubber factory was started at ________.
3. The _________ river provides water to the Tata Iron and Steel Company, Jamshedpur.
4. The army trucks-Shaktimaan and Nissan are manufactured at________.
5. _______ is the first Iron and Steel industry in India.
6. Scooters are manufactured with Japanese collaboration at ________.
7. _______ state is a leading producer of woolen textile.
Answer:
1. Gurgaon
2. Bareilly
3. Subarnarekha
4. Jabalpur
5. Bengal iron works
6. Pithampur
7. Punjab

State True or False : 1 Mark

1. Durgapur is the largest producer of Alloy steel in India. [ ]
2. Cotton textile industry is known as the root of all industries. [ ]
3. Ahmedabad is known as the ‘Manchester of South India’. [ ]
4. The Gardenreach Ship Builders is the only ship-building yard in West Bengal. [ ]
5. Haora is known as the ‘Detroit of India’. [ ]
6. Chennai is known as the ‘Silicon valley of India’. [ ]
7. Durgapur is known as the ‘Ruhr of India’. [ ]
8. The chief raw material of the petrochemical industry is naptha. [ ]
9. Cotton is a pure raw material. [ ]
10. The largest petrochemical industry is located at Haldia. [ ]
Answer:
1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. True
6. False
7. True
8. True
9. True
10. False

Answer in few words : 1 Mark

Question 1.
What is the most important factor for setting up an industry ?
Answer:
Availability of raw materials.

Question 2.
What are agro-based industries?
Answer:
Industries that collect their raw materials from agricultural products directly or indirectly. Eg-Sugar industry.

Question 3.
What are animal-based industries?
Answer:
Industries that collect their raw materials from animals. Eg.- Dairy industry, Lather industry.

Question 4.
What are forest-based industries ?
Answer:
Industries that collect their raw materials from forests. Eg.- Furniture, paper industry.

Question 5.
What are mineral-based industries?
Answer:
Industries that collect their raw materials from minerals mined in different regions. Eg.- Iron \& Steel industry.

Question 6.
What are industries dealing with preparing food items called ?
Answer:
Food processing industry. Eg. – Potato chips, tinned chicken items, etc.

Question 7.
What kinds of an industry is rice mills ?
Answer:
Agro-based and food-processing industry.

Question 8.
What kind of industry does preparation of soft drinks belong to ?
Answer:
Food processing.

Question 9.
Where was the first modern cotton mill set up in India ?
Answer:
Ghushuri (Fort Gloster) in Howrah.

Question 10.
How are cotton mills classified?
Answer:
Handloom and power loom.

Question 11.
Which state is the largest producer of cotton in India ?
Answer:
Maharashtra.

Question 12.
Which city is called the ‘Manchester of India’?
Answer:
Ahmedabad in Gujarat.

Question 13.
Which city is called the ‘Manchester of the south’ ?
Answer:
Coimbatore in Tamil Nadu.

Question 14.
Name the states in the eastern zone where cotton textile mills are concentrated.
Answer:
West Bengal, Jharkhand, Odisha, Bihar.

Question 15.
Name some animal-based industries.
Answer:
Meat processing, milk and milk products, fast food, fish and other sea food etc.

Question 16.
Name a forest-based industry.
Answer:
Paper industry.

Question 17.
Where was the first paper mill established in India ?
Answer:
Serampore in Hooghly, West Bengal.

Question 18.
How many paper mills are there in present India ?
Answer:
379 paper mills.

Question 19.
Where was the first iron and steel plant set up in India ?
Answer:
Kulti in West Bengal (1864).

Question 20.
Where was the first integrated iron and steel plant set up in India ?
Answer:
Jamshedpur (1907).

Question 21.
Where is the Bhadravati iron and steel plant located?
Answer:
Karnataka.

Question 22.
Name some major iron ore mines of Jharkhand.
Answer:
Noamundi, Guwa, Budaburu, Pansiraburu.

Question 23.
Name some major coal mines in Jharkhand.
Answer:
Jharia, Bokaro, Ramgarh, Giridih.

Question 24.
Name some important limestone mines.
Answer:
Kalahandi, Gangpur, Koraput in Odisha.

Question 25.
Where does the Bhadravati steel plant acquire its hydel power from ?
Answer:
Jog hydel power station.

Question 26.
Where is the Hindustan Motors Ltd. located ?
Answer:
Uttarpara, West Bengal.

Question 27.
Where is the Maruti Udyog Ltd. located ?
Answer:
Gurgaon in Haryana.

Question 28.
What is chittaranjan (WB) famous for ?
Answer:
Locomotive factory.

Question 29.
Where is ‘Diesel Locomotive works (DLW) located?
Answer:
Varanasi.

Question 30.
What is TELCO ?
Answer:
Tata Engineering and Locomotive Works, located at Jamshedpur, Jharkhand.

Question 31.
Which industry uses Naptha as an essential raw material ?
Answer:
Petro-chemical.

Question 32.
Where is the longest private petro-chemical industry located ?
Answer:
Jamnagar in Gujarat.

Question 33.
Name some industries associated with Information Technology.
Answer:
Computer hardware, software, electronics, semi-conductors, internet, telecom equipments, etc.

Question 34.
Name some renowned IT companies.
Answer:
Cognizant, Dell, HCL, IBM, TCS, etc.

Question 35.
Which place is known as the Silicon Valley of India ?
Answer:
Bangalore.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Life Science Book Solutions Chapter 1A Sensitivity and Response in Plants offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1A Question Answer – Sensitivity and Response in Plants

Short Answer Type Questions : 2 Marks

Question 1.
Why is a system of control and co-ordination essential in living organisms?
Answer:
Following are the reasons.

1. Increase the chances of survival by responding to stimuli.
2. Different body parts function as a single unit.
3. To maintain homeostasis.

Question 2.
How is the movement of leaves of the sensitive plant different from the movement of a shoot towards light?
Answer:
The movement of leaves of the sensitive plant (e.g. Mimosa pudica or touch me-not) occurs in response to touch or contact stimuli. It is a growth independent movement (nastic movement). The movement of shoot towards light is called phototropism. This type of movement is directional and is growth dependent.

Question 3.
Write differences between nastic and tropic movements.
Answer:

Characters	Nastic movement	Tropic movement
1. Growth	Growth Independent movements	Growth dependent movements
2. Time of Action	Immediate	Slow
3. Response to Stimules	non-directional	directional
4. Response for action	change in turgor	cell division
5. Alternate name	nastics	tropism
6. Examples	folding of leaves of touchme-not (Mimosa), opening and closing of stomata	phototropism, geotropism, hydrotropism, chemotropism

Question 4
What is chemotropism?
Answer:
Directional movement of a plant/or its part in response of chemicals is called chemotropism. e.g. growth of the pollen tube towards the ovule is a chemotropic movement due to which fertilization of flower takes place.

Question 5.
Give examples of geotropism.
Answer:
(i) Roots move in the direction of gravity (positive (+ve) geotropism)
(ii) Shoots move (up) against direction of gravity (negative (-ve) geotropism)

Question 6.
How does phototropism occur in plants?
Answer:
The growth movement in plants in response to light stimulus is known as phototropism. The shoots show positive phototropism and the roots show negative phototropism. This means that the shoots bend towards the source of light whereas the roots bend away from the light source.
For Example : The flower head of sunflower is positively phototropic and hence is moves from east to west along with the sun.

Question 7.
Write the responses of stem and root due to light and gravity.
Answer:

Part of plant	Response to light	Response to gravity
Stem	Positive phototropism (grows towards the light)	Negative geotropism (grows against the force of gravity)
Root	Negative phototropism (grows away from the light)	Positive geotropism (grows in the direction of the force of gravity)

Question 8.
Differentiate between Autonomic and Paratonic movements.
Answer:
The movements induced by some internal causes are called autonomic movement. The movement induced by external stimuli is called Paratonic movement.

Question 9.
What is phototropism? How is it caused?
Answer:
The tropic movement of the part of plant in response to stimulus of light is called phototropism. It is caused due to differential growth of part of plant like root, stem.

Question 10.
What is meant by diaphototropic?
Answer:
Leaves also show response to light. They twist their petioles and plane their faces (upper sides) at right angles to the light. They are diaphototropic or transversely phototropic.

Question 11.
What is Cholodny and Went theory of phototropism?
Answer:
Cholodny and Went theory suggested that the phototropic response occurs due to unequal distribution of auxin (IAA).

Question 12.
What is Cholodny and Went theory of geotropism?
Answer:
This theory suggests that differential growth in geotropism is caused due to unequal distribution of auxin (IAA) in the upper and lower halves of the shoot.

Question 13.
What are Seismonastic movements?
Answer:
The shock movements are called Seismonastic. It occurs in mimosa. When the leaves of mimosa, (touch me not) is touched, the leaflet folds together. This response takes within a few seconds.

Question 14.
What are Haptonastic movements?
Answer:
The nastic movements occur due to stimulus of touch are called Haptonastic movements. Haptonastic movements occur in the leaves of Drosera and Dionaea.

Question 15.
Are the development and growth of plants only influenced by plant hormones?
Answer:
Physical and chemical environmental factors, like intensity and position of light in relation to the plant, gravitational force, temperature, mechanical pressures and chemical composition of the soil and the atmosphere, can also influence the growth and development of plants.

Question 16.
What are plant tropisms?
Answer:
Tropisms are movements caused by external stimulus. In Botany the studied plant tropisms are : phototropism (tropism in response to light), geotropism (tropism in response to the earth gravity) and thigmotropism (tropism in response to mechanical stimulus).

Question 17.
To which direction does the growth of one side of a stem, branch or root induce the structure to curve?
Answer:
Whenever one side of a stem, branch or root grows more than the other side, the structure curves towards the side that grows less.

Question 18.
What is phototropism?
Answer:
Phototropism is the movement of plant structures in response to light. Phototropism may be positive or negative. Positive phototropism is that in which the plant movement (or growth) is towards the light source and negative phototropism is that in which the movement (or growth) is inverse, away from the light source.

Phototropism relates to auxins since the exposition of one side of the plant to light makes these hormones concentrate in the darker side. This fact makes the auxin action upon the stem to be positive, i.e., the growth of the darker side is more intense and the plant arcs towards the lighter side. In the root (when submitted to light, in general experimentally) the auxin action is negative (over the positive range), the growth of the darker side is inhibited and the root curves towards this side.

Question 19.
What are the types of plant geotropisms? Why do the stem and the root present opposite geotropisms?
Answer:
The type of geotropisms are the positive geotropism, that in which the plant grows in favour of the gravitational force, as for example in roots, and the negative geotropism, that against the gravitational force, for example, in the stem. Root geotropism and stem geotropism are opposed due to different sensitivities to auxin concentration in a horizontal position (parallel to the ground) and naturally auxins concentrate along their bottom part.

Under this condition it is observed that the stem grows upwards and the root grows downwards. This happens because in the stem the high auxin concentration in the bottom makes this side grow (longitudinally) more and the structures arc upwards. In the root the high auxin concentration in the bottom inhibits the growth of this side and the upper side grows more making the root to curve downwards.

Question 20.
What is thigmotropism?
Answer:
Thigmotropism is the movement or growth of the plant in response to mechanical stimuli (touch or physical contact), as when a plant grows around a supporting rod. It occurs for example in grape and passionfruit vines, coiling of tendrils and steams, haustoria in Cuscuta etc.

Question 21.
What will happen if apical bud is removed?
Answer:
Removal of apical bud shows lateral branching. This is because auxins control apical dominance and apex inhibits the growth of axillary buds.

Question 22.
What do mean by paratonic movement?
Answer:
Plants have the capacity of changing their position, in response to external or internal stimuli which are known as plant movements. The movements which occur due to internal stimuli are called autonomic movements and those that occur due to external stimuli are called paratonic movements.
Nepenthes (pitcher plant) is an insectivorous plant. In this, the leaf lamina is modified to form a pitcher and leaf apex froms a coloured lid.

Question 23.
If a tree flowers thrice in a year (Oct., Jan and July) in Northern India, then it is said to be photo and thermo-intensitive. Why?
Answer:
Flower formation is a transitional phase in the life cycle of plant. During flowering, vegetative shoot apex is converted into reproductive shoot apex. The physiological mechanism for flowering is controlled by 2 factors ; photoperiod or light period, i.e., photoperiodism and low temperature, i.e., vernalization.

Question 24.
Explain thigmonastic movement with the example of the ability of the Venus Flytrap to capture insects.
Answer:
Thigmonastic movements are exhibited by some insectivorous plants such as Dionaea, venus Flytrap, Drosera etc. These plants have tentacles, which are sensitive to the stimulus of touch. In the case of the venus flytrap turgor pressure changes, occur in which hydrogen ions are rapidly pumped into the walls to cells on the outside of each leaf in response to the action potentials from the trigger hairs. The protons apparently loosen the cell walls so rapidly that the tissue actually becomes flaccid so that cells quickly absorb water, causing the outside of each leaf to expand and the trap to snap shut.

Question 25.
What do you mean by movement of locomotion and movement of curvature?
Answer:
Movement may be of two types, movement of locomotion and movement of curvature. Movement of curvature is movement of individual parts in relation to other parts. Curvature movement may be growth movements and turgor movements. Growth movements are caused by differential growth in different parts of an organ. Opening of floral buds into flowers is such a type of growth movement. Mostly floral bud opening shows thermonastic movement i.e. opening and closing are controlled by temperature. Sometimes movements are controlled by presence or absence of light, e.g. Oxalis.

Question 26.
What is the cause of leaflet movement in Desmodium?
Answer:
The leaflet of the Desmodium plant automatically goes up and down with the loss and gain of turgidity of the lateral leaflets. As the leaflets go down, they lose turgidity, become light and go up.

Question 27.
What is Clinostat?
Answer:
The geotropic movement demonstrated in the laboratory by an instrument is called Clinostat.

Question 28.
What is seismonasty?
Answer:
The movement which is induced by stimuli like touch, shock, shaking etc is called seismonastic movement or Seismonasty.

Question 29.
What is nastic movement?
Answer:
The movement of a plant organ that has no relation to the direction of stimulus but has a relation with the intensity of stimulus is called nastic movement.

Question 30.
What is geotropic movement?
Answer:
The movement of curvature of plant organ that is induced by force of gravity is called geotropic movement.

Question 31.
What is hydrotropic movement? Give example.
Answer:
The movement of curvature of plant organ in response of water stimulus is called hydrotropic movement. E.g. Root is positively hydrotrophic and stem is negatively hydrotropic.

Question 32.
Write two difference between tropic and nastic movement.
Answer:

Tropic movement	Nastic movement
i. This movement is related to growth.	i. This movement is related to turgor.
ii. The movement bears relation to the direction of stimulus.	ii. The movement bears relation to the intensity of stimulus.

Question 33.
Design an experiment to demonstrate hydrotropism.
Answer:
Take two small beakers and label them as A and B. Fill beaker A with water. Now make a cylindrical-shaped roll from a filter paper and keep it as a bridge between beaker A and beaker B, as shown in the figure. Attach a few germinating seeds in the middle of the filter paper bridge. Now, cover the entire set-up with a transparent plastic container so that the moisture is retained.

Observation : The roots of the germinating seeds will grow towards beaker A. This experiment demonstrates the phenomenon of hydrotropism.

Question 34.
Describe the phototropic movement of plants.
Answer:
Movement of plant parts in response to light stimulus is called phototropic movement.

Question 35.
How could you proof that stems are phototropic?
Answer:
If the stem of a plant grows towards the direction of light, then it is called positively phototropic and if the root position grows away from the direction of light, this is negatively phototropic.

Question 36.
What are stimulus and irritability?
Answer:
Stimulus: The change in environmental conditions which produced appreciable effect in plant is called stimulus.
Irritability : The response to stimuli is called Irritability.

Question 37.
What is the function of receptors in our body? Think of situations where receptors do not work properly. What problems are likely to arise?
Answer:
Functions of receptors :
They sense the external stimuli such as heat or pain.
They also trigger an impulse in the sensory neuron which sends message to the spinal cord.

When the receptors are damaged, the external stimuli transferring signals to the brain are not felt. For example, in the case of damaged receptors, if we accidentally touch any hot object, then our hands might get burnt as damaged receptors cannot perceive the external stimuli of heat and pain.

Long Answer Type Questions : 5 Marks

Question 1.
List the different movements of plant in a tabular form.
Answer:

Question 2.
What do you mean by spontaneous and induced movement?
Answer:
Spontaneous movement : There are plant movements which take place spontaneously without any external stimuli. These movements are described spontaneous or autonomic movements.
Induced movement : Some plant movements are caused in response to certain stimuli and they are said to be induced or plant movement which take place spontaneously, without any irritability and sensitivity of protoplasm.

Question 3.
What do you mean by movement of locomotion?
Answer:
Movements of the whole plant body or of an organ or of material within the plant cell which occur in responses to inherent factors and are free and spontaneous are said to be movements of locomotion. Examples : cyclosis (streaming of protoplasm), oscillatory movements of Oscilatoria, Motility of zoospores.

Question 4.
What do you mean by growth and curvature movement?
Answer:
These movements are brought about by unequal growth on different sides of an organ.
These are of the following types :
A. Nutation : The side of the supporting organ that is in contact of the support grows at a slower rate than the opposite side. This brings about a curvature which helps the supporting organ is spiralling or twinning around the support.

B. Nastic : These movements occur due to differences in the rate of growth on the two opposite surface of a plant organ. When the movement occurs due to faster growth on the upper surface of the organ, it is said to be epinastic movement and when on the lower surface of the growing organ, it is known as hyponastic movement.

Examples : Opening of floral buds and circinately coiled leaves are good examples of nastic movements.

Question 5.
How lateral leaflets move in Indian telegraph plant?
Answer:
These movements occurs due to periodic variations in the turgidity of cells of an organ.
The example is Indian telegraph plant, Desmodium gyrans, where up and down movements of the two lateral leaflets occur in a rhythmic manner.

These leaflets periodically drop down and rise up. This happens due to the presence of large thin walled motor cells at the bases of the leaflets.
When these cells lose water into neighbouring cells, they collapse and the leaflets drop down, and when they regain water, they become turgid and leaflets acquire their upright position.

Question 6.
Describe phototropism with an experiment.
Answer:
These curvature movements occur when a plant is provided with artificial or natural light only from one direction. Stems which generally show a curvature towards the source of light are said to be positively phototropic. Roots which grow away from the source of light are called negatively phototropic.

Question 7.
Describe geotropism with an experiment.
Answer:
Growth movements induced by stimulus of gravity are said to be geotropism. Primary roots always grow downward in the direction of gravity and thus are positively geotropic, whereas the main shoots grow upward away from the gravity and are thus negatively geotropic.

The secondary lateral roots are shoots show a weaker response to gravity and thus take up a position at an angle to the gravitational stimulus and are called diageotropic.
Demostration of geotropism : Geotropism can be demonstrate in the laboratory with the instrument known as Clinostat. It can allow a potted plant fixed on it to rotate at a definite speed.
Two clinostats are taken and a potted plant on each is fixed on a horizontal position.

One clinostat is rotated and the other is kept stationary. Observations made after sometime will show that the shoot of the plant fixed on the stationary clinostat bends upwards showing negative geotropism and the root bends downwards showing positive geotropism. But their is no bending in the root and shoot of the plant fixed on the rotating clinostat. This is due to the fact that gravitational stimulus is not unilateral as it affects the sides of the rotating organs equally.

Negative geotropic response of shoots :

1. Shoots which are negatively geotropic grow vertically and it helps the plant to complete for light and Carbon dioxide.
2. The flowers are brought into an advantageous position for pollination through insects or wind.
3. Seed dispersal may be more effective on long and vertical stem.

Positive geotropic response of roots :

1. It causes roots to grow downwards into the earth where they can anchor the plant firmly in the soil.
2.  It causes them to obtain water and minarals salts.
3. Lateral roots, not positively geotropic grow at right angles or slightly downwards from the main root. This enables a large volume of soil to be exploited and helps to anchor the plants securely.

Question 8.
Explain hydrotropism with an experiment.
Answer:
Growth movements in response to unilateral stimulus of water are known as hydrotropism.
Roots are positively hydrotropic as they bend towards the source of water.

Question 9.
What do mean by phototactic movement?
Answer:
The tactic movements are in response to unidirectional light. Examples : Free swimming algae, zoospores, gametes when swim towards the diffused light are said to be positively phototactic and when they move away from the strong light, they are called negatively phototactic.

Question 10.
What do you mean by nastic movement? Describe different types of nastic movement.
Answer:
The movement can be due to the changes in turgor or changes in growth.
Depending upon the nature of stimuli, these movements are of following types :
(A) Nyctinasty
(B) Chemonasty
(C) Seismonasty
A. Nyctinasty
These movements of plant organs occur in response to day and night and thus are also known as sleep movements.
Photonastic : If this movement when induced by change in light intensity. Examples: Flower of Oxalis, Portulaca, Nicotiana, Oenothera etc.

Thermonastic : This movements is induced by change in temperature intensity. Example : Tulip and Saffron (Crocus)
A temperature rise of only 36 degrees is enough to begin to open a crocus.

B. Chemonasty : This movement occurs in response to some chemical stimulus. eg. Strong chemonasty is exhibited by long peripheral tentacles of sundew leaves(Drosera) which respond to the presence of organic nitrogenous compounds by bending towards the middle of leaf.

C. Seismonasty :
These movements are in response to shock by a touch stimulus. Example : Neptunia, Biophylum, Mimosa pudica, Begonia, Mytinia etc.

Question 11.
Give a brief account of turgor movement shown by Mimosa pudica.
Answer:

• These base of the petiole is swollen (Pulvinus) and similar but smaller pulvinus are present at the base of each leaflet.
• Lower half thin walled and upper half thick walled.
• If the terminal pinnule is struck a blow or touched, the stimulus is conducted to its base and then other pinnules.
• This stimulus causes fall in turgor of lower cells due to loss of water.
• Upper half retains turgidity.
• Turgid half presses flaccid lower half/leaf droops.
• When the touch stimulus is removed regains turgidity.

Question 12.
Difference between nastic and tropic movement?
Answer:
Nastic Movement : Nastic movements are non-directional responses to stimuli (e.g. temperature, Humidity, light, irradiance). The movement can be due to changes in turgor or changes in growth. Nastic movements differ from tropic movements in that the direction of tropic responses depends on the direction of the stimulus, whereas the direction of nastic movement is independent of the stimulus. The rate or frequency of these responses increases as intensity of the stimulus increases. An example of such a response is the opening and closing of flowers (photonastic response). Nastic responses are usually associated with plants.’

Tropism Movement : ‘A tropism (from Greek, tropos, to turn) is a biological phenomenon, indicating growth or turning movement of a biological organism, usually a plant, in response to an environmental stimulus’. In tropisms, this response is dependent on the direction of the stimulus’ (as opposed to nastic movements which are non-directional responses). Viruses and other pathogens also affect what is called ‘host tropism’ or ‘cell tropism’, in which case tropism refers to species, or specific cell types within those species. The word tropism comes from the Greek trope (‘to turn’ or ‘to change’). Tropisms are usually named for the stimulus involved (for example, a phototropism is a reaction to light) and may be either positive (towards the stimulus) or negative (away from the stimulus).

Multiple Choice Questions : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Tropic movements are
(a) In response to light
(b) In response of gravity
(c) Uni-directional
(d) Non-directional
Answer:
(c) Uni-directional

Question 2.
Stimulus is
(a) A physical force
(b) Energy
(c) Changed environment
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Changed environment

Question 3.
Irritability is
(a) Respond to stimulus
(b) Non respond to stimulus
(c) Changes within body
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Respond to stimulus

Question 4.
Respond to stimuli in plants is taken by
(a) Nervous system
(b) Growth movement
(c) Hormonal movement
(d) Turgor pressure.
Answer:
(b) Growth movement

Question 5.
Movement of whole plant in response to external stimuli is called
(a) Tropic movement
(b) Tactic movement
(c) Nastism
(d) Hyprotropism
Answer:
(b) Tactic movement

Question 6.
Root always
(a) Moves towards light
(b) Moves towards soil
(c) Moves towards surface of the soil
(d) Showing geotropism
Answer:
(d) Showing geotropism

Question 7.
Stems are always
(a) Geotropic
(b) Phototropic
(c) Hydrotropic
(d) Chemotropic
Answer:
(b) Phototropic

Question 8.
Roots response towards the force of gravity is the display of
(a) Positive geotropism
(b) Negative geotropism
(c) Both of them
(d) None of above
Answer:
(a) Positive geotropism

Question 9.
In hyponasty the bud will remain
(a) Close
(b) Open
(c) Semi-open
(d) Wilt
Answer:
(a) Close

Question 10.
The leaves and petals follow the growth pattern with respect to movement is
(a) Epinasty
(b) Hyponasty
(c) Nutation
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Epinasty

Question 11.
If the movement is towards the stimulus the response is
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) No response
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Positive

Question 12.
The leaves of mimosa require a specific time to regain its turgidity i.e.
(a) 5 minutes
(b) 10 minutes
(c) 8 minutes
(d) 12 minutes
Answer:
(b) 10 minutes

Question 13.
Movement of leaves of sensitive plant, Mimosa pudica are due to
(a) Thermonasty
(b) Seismonasty
(c) Hydrotropism
(d) Chemonasty
Answer:
(b) Seismonasty

Question 14.
Twinning of tendrils is due to
(a) Thigmotropism
(b) Seismonasty
(c) Heliotropism
(d) Diageotropism
Answer:
(a) Thigmotropism

Question 15.
Removal of apical bud results in
(a) formation of new apical bud
(b) elongation of main stem
(c) death of plant
(d) formation of lateral branching
Answer:
(d) formation of lateral branching

Question 16.
The closure of lid of pitcher in pitcher plant, is due to
(a) parotomic movement
(b) autonomous movement
(c) turgor movement
(d) tropic movement
Answer:
(a) parotomic movement

Question 17.
The twinning of tendrils around a support is a good example of
(a) phototropism
(b) chemotropism
(c) nastic movements
(d) thigmotropism
Answer:
(d) thigmotropism

Question 18.
If a tree flowers thrice in a year (Oct., Jan. and July) in Northern India, it is said to be
(a) photo and thermo-insensitive
(b) photo and thermo-sensitive
(c) photosensitive but thermo-insensitive
(d) thermosensitive but photo-insensitive
Answer:
(a) photo and thermo-insensitive

Question 19.
The closing and opening of the leaves of Mimosa pudica is due to
(a) seismonastic movement
(b) chemonastic movement
(c) thermonastic movement
(d) hydrotropic movement
Answer:
(a) seismonastic movement

Question 20.
The ability of the Venus Flytrap to capture insects is due to
(a) Specialized “muscle-like” cells
(b) Chemical stimulation by the prey
(c) a passive process requiring no special ability on the part of the plant
(d) rapid turgor pressure changes.
Answer:
(d) rapid turgor pressure changes.

Question 21.
Opening of floral buds into flowers is a type of
(a) autonomic movement of variation
(b) paratonic movement of growth
(c) autonomic movement of growth
(d) autonomic movement of locomotion.
Answer:
(c) autonomic movement of growth

Very Short Answer Type Questions : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Stimulus is __________.
Answer:
Energy.

Question 2.
Irritability is __________.
Answer:
Respond to stimulus

Question 3.
Respond to stimuli in plants is taken by __________.
Answer:
Growth movement

Question 4.
Movement of whole plant in response to external stimuli is called __________.
Answer:
Tactic Movement

Question 5.
Root always __________.
Answer:
Showing Geotropism

Question 6.
Stems are always __________.
Answer:
Geotropic

Question 7.
Give one eg. of seismonastic movement in Plant.
Answer:
Mimosa pudica

Question 8.
Name the secondary plant organs where transversely geotropic movement is found.
Answer:
Rhizomes

Question 9.
Write the types of tropic movement.
Answer:

• Phototropic movement
• Geotropic movement
• Hydrotropic movement

Question 10.
Flowers of Tulip shows what type of nastic movement?
Answer:
Thermonastic movement.

Question 11.
The Plant movement away from light is also called __________.
Answer:
Geotropism.

Question 12.
The ‘Touch me not’ plant exhibits __________.
Answer:
Seismonastic movement.

Question 13.
A free swimming alga.
Answer:
Chlamydomonas.

Question 14.
Clinostat demonstrates __________.
Answer:
Geotropism

Question 15.
Stem bends towards light, what type of movement it is ?
Answer:
Phototropic movement.

Question 16.
When a sensitive plant is touched, it drops its leaves. What type of movement it is?
Answer:
Seismonastic movement.

Question 17.
Who discovered the sensitivity of plant?
Answer:
J.C. Bose.

Question 18.
Which type of movement show in volvox?
Answer:
Phototropic.

Question 19.
Chemonastic movement is found in __________.
Answer:
Desmodium

Question 20.
Which type of movement found in Tulip?
Answer:
Thermonastic.

Question 21.
What is the name of Indian Telegraph plant?
Answer:
Desmodium.

Question 22.
Which movement is exhibited by Mimosa pudica?
Answer:
Seismonastic movement.

Question 23.
What is response to a stimuli?
Answer:
Responding to a stimulus is the faculty of sensitivity.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Life Science Book Solutions Chapter 1B Response and Chemical Coordination in Plant Hormones offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1B Question Answer – Response and Chemical Coordination in Plant Hormones

Short Answer Type Questions Marks : 2

Question 1.
What are plant hormones?
Answer:
Plant hormones of phytohormones are naturally-occurring organic substances used as chemical coordinators in plants. These are synthesized in one part of the plant body (in minute quantities) and are translocated to other parts when required. The five major types of phytohormones are :

• Auxins promote : cell division, bending of shoot towards the sources of light.
• Gibberellins : stimulate stem elongation.
• Cytokinins : promotes cell division.
• Abscisic Acid : inhibit growth, closing of stomate seed dormancy.
• Ethylene (gas hormone) : promotes full ripening and growth.

Question 2.
Name any two synthetic Auxins and mention one application for each.
Answer:
IAA : Induces root form and production of parthenocarpic fruit.
24D : Weedicide.

Question 3.
Mention any four physiological effects of Auxin.
Answer:
Induces cell division, induces apical dominance, induces root initiation, presents abscission.

Question 4.
Mention any four physiological effects of Gibberellins.
Answer:
Promotes internodal elongation, induces Parthenocarpic development of fruits, breaks dormancy in seeds.

Question 5.
Mention any four physiological effects of Cytokinins.
Answer:
Induces cell division, delay senescence, breaks dormancy, promotes growth of lateral root.

Question 6.
Classify the following phytohormones into growth promoters and growth inhibitors.
(a) Auxin
(b) Abscisic acid
(c) Cytokinin
(e) Ethylene.
Answer:
Growth promoters : Auxin, Cytokinin; Growth inhibitors: ABA, Ethylene.

Question 7.
What roles do synthetic Auxins play in tissue cultures?
Answer:
Induces cell division and organogenesis.

Question 8.
A plant becomes bushy, when its apical bud is removed. Why?
Answer:
When the apical bud is removed apical dominance is overcome and the lateral buds are induced to develop giving a bushy appearance to the plant.

Question 9.
How Gibberellins promote in seed germination?
Answer:
Gibberellins promote seed germination. Giberellins are weakly acidic growth hormones having ring structure, are synthesized in the apical shoot buds, root tips and developing seeds. During seed germination, especially of cereals Giberrellin stimulates the production of some messenger RNAs and then hydrolytic enzymes like amylases, lipases, proteases. The enzymes solubilize the reserve food of the seed.

Question 10.
Cut or excised leaves remain green for long if induced to root or dipped in Cytokinins. How?
Answer:
Cytokinins are plant growth hormones which are basic in nature. Cytokinins induce formation of new leaves, chloroplasts in leaves, which in turn keeps the leaves green for a longer duration of time. Cytokinins applied to marketed vegetables can keep them fresh for several days. Shelf life of cut shoot and flowers is prolonged by employing the hormones.

Question 11.
How Cytokinins hormone primarily helps in cell division?
Answer:
Cytokinin has a very specific effect on cell division (cytokinesis), hence the name Cytokinin. They contain kinetin and related compound generally called as kinins chemically, Cytokinins are degradation product of Adenine, ATP, NAD and NADP. Cytokinins are essential for cytokinesis though chromosome doubling can occur in their absence. Cytokinins bring about division even in permanent cells.

Question 12.
How Leaf fall can be prevented with the help of Cytokinins?
Answer:
Cytokinins delay senescence of leaves and other organs by mobilisation of nutrients. Its excessive presence stop protein and RNA synthesis in the leaves and hence stimulates their senescence.

Question 13.
How Gibberellins can replace vernalization?
Answer:
Gibberellin is a hormone that replaces vernalization. Vernalization is a period of cold treatment for plants, usually perennials or trees. Some plants won’t bloom without it. In vernilization plants are exposed to low temperature in order to stimulate flowering or to enhance seed production. The biennials form their vegetative body in the first year. Then they pass through a winter season and then produce flowers and fruits in the second year. By exogenous application of Gibberellins many biennials can be induced to behave as annuals and they no more require the natural chilling treatment for their flowering.

Question 14.
What do you means by nyctinastic leaf movements?
Answer:
It is a movement of leaves of many species from nearly horizontal leaves during the day and nearly vertical at night. These movements are controlled by biological clock, while the other conditions bending of shoot towards light, movement of root towards soil and movement of sunflower head tracking the sun are the conditions related to Auxins.

Question 15.
How abscisic acid controls leaf fall and dormancy?
Answer:
Before a leaf fall, a special zone of cells is formed at the base of the pedical or petiole. This zone is called as abscission zone. It is delimited by a protection layer on the stem side and a separation layer on the organ side. The leaf is ultimately separated and the phenomenon is abscission. ABA is also a growth inhibitor. It regulates the dormancy of seeds and buds perhaps by inhibiting the growth process. The ABA level decreases in the whole seed as their dormancy is broken.

Question 16.
What do you mean by Phytohormones?
Answer:
Growth hormones or phytohormones are defined as organic substances which are synthesized in minutes quantities in one part of the plant body and transported to another part where they influence specific physiological processes. Phytohormones are chemical substances which are synthesized by plants and are naturally occurring.

Question 17.
How Auxin concentration acts on the growing tips?
Answer:
Auxins are well known to promote elongation of stem and coleoptile. However when exogenous Auxin is given to intact plants this is not observed because the required amount of Auxin is already present in plants. When the apex of shoot is removed, then the exogenous application of Auxin promotes growth, this clearly indicates that growing apex, having meristematic cells, is the site where endogenous auxins are present in sufficient amount; once the apex is removed the source of Auxin is also removed.

Question 18.
Which chemical believed to be involved in flowering?
Answer:
Chailakhyan in 1937 gave the view that flower hormone namely Florigen is synthesized in the leaves under favourable photoperiodic conditions. This hormone is transmitted to the growing point where the flowering occurs.

Question 19.
Which hormone is responsible for apical dominance?
Answer:
Indole-3 Acetic Acid (IAA) is a natural Auxin which is responsible for apical dominance. In vascular plants especially the taller ones, if the apical bud is intact and growing, the lateral bud remains suppressed, removal of apical bud causes fast growth of lateral buds. This influence of apical bud in suppressing the growth of lateral buds is termed as apical dominance.

Question 20.
Write the function of Abscisic acid.
Answer:
Abscisic acid is hormone which is produced during adverse environmental condition. It also causes the closure of stomata under conditions of water stress as also under high concentration of CO, in the guard cells. Abscisic acid inhibits the K⁺ uptake by guard cells and promotes the leakage of malic acid. It results in reduction of osmotically active solutes so that the guard cells become flaccid and stomata get closed.

Question 21.
Bananas can be prevented from over-ripening by which process?
Answer:
In artificial ripening of banana, uncontrolled application of Ethylene gas may cause over ripening of banana. It can be prevented from over-ripening by dipping in Ascorbic acid solution.

Question 22.
Dwarfness can be controlled by treating the plant with Gibberellic acid. Explain.
Answer:
Giberellins help in the reversal of dwarfism in many genetically dwarf plants. External supply of Gibberellic acid causes rapid elongation of growth, e.g. Rosette plant of sugarbeet when treated with GA, undergoes marked longitudinal growth of axis.

Question 23.
The movement of Auxin is largely basipetal. Explain.
Answer:
Auxin is a growth promoting phytohormone. It moves mainly from the apical to the basal end (basipetally). This type of unidirectional transport is termed polar transport. Auxin is the only plant growth hormone known to be transported polarly. Recently it has been recognized that a significant amount of Auxin transport also occurs acropetally (from basal end to the apical end) in the root.

Question 24.
Gibberellic acid induces flower in long day plants under short day conditions. Explanation.
Answer:
Gibberellins are growth promoting phytohormones. Some of plants species flower only if the light period exceeds a critical length and others flower only if this period is shorter than some critical length. Gibberellins can substitute for the longday requirement in some species, showing an interaction with light.

Question 25.
Which plant hormone is used for inducing morphogenesis in plants tissue culture?
Answer:
Cytokinins are growth promoting phytohormones. Cytokinin plays an important part in organ formation (morphogenesis) with auxin. Different Auxin/Cytokinin ratio decides the development of root shoot ratio. The major physiological function of Cytokinins is to enhance cell division. If Cytokinin to Auxin ratio is low, then root formation takes place but if the ratio of Cytokinin to Auxin is high, then there is formation of meristematic cells in the callus.

Question 26.
How Gibberellins break the dormancy of potato tuber?
Answer:
Gibberellin is the hormone that breaks seed/but dormancy. The tubers of potato reproduce vegetatively to give house to new plants. So the dormancy of these tubers can be overcome by applying Gibberellin tubers.

Question 27.
How NAA prevents the fall of fruits?
Answer:
A-Naphthalene Acetic Acid (NAA) is a synthetic or exogenous Auxin. It prevents the formation of abscission layer, which is a layer of dead cells in the petiole and pedicel that causes fall of leaf or fruit. NAA prevents formation of this layer and so it prevents fall of leaf or fruit.

Question 28.
Coconut milk factor is Cytokinins. Explanation.
Answer:
Many experiments were done to sustain the proliferation of normal stem tissues in culture. The growth of culture was most dramatic when the liquid endosperm of coconut, also known as coconut milk, was added to the culture medium. This finding indicated that coconut milk contains a substance or substances that stimulate mature cells to enter and remain in the cell division cycle. Eventually coconut milk was shown to contain Cytokinin, Zeatin, but this finding was not obtained until several years after the discovery of the Cytokinins. The first Cytokinin to be discovered was the synthetic analogy kinetin.

Question 29.
How Gibberellins help in Cell elongation in internodal regions of the green plants?
Answer:
Gibberellins play a role in the elongation of internodes in ‘rosette’ plants. Before reproductive stage there is too much elongation of internodes but there is less leaf formation. An elongated internode without leaves is called a “bolt” like structure and the process is called “bolting”. Flowering takes place after bolting. Gibberellins induce cell division and cell elongation, when bolting takes place.

Question 30
How hormones can promote plan growth?
Answer:
Hormones can promote plant growth in two ways :
– Stimulating cell division in meristems to produce new cells.
Stimulating elongation in cells.

Question 31.
Why Cytokinin acts against Auxin?
Answer:
Cytokinin countracts apical dominance, prevents apical growth induced by Auxin. So, they acts against Auxin.

Question 32.
Give two examples of Auxin which are used in agriculture?
Answer:
(i) Early shedding of fruits and leaves are prevented.
(ii) Help in creating seedless fruit.

Question 33.
What is antiauxin?
Answer:
Cytokinin counteracts apical dominance, prevents apical growth induced by auxin, so they are also called antiauxin.

Question 34.
Name one Phytohormones. Mention one function of Auxin.
Answer:
Auxin is a Phytohormones.
Function : Root growth : Auxin promotes root growth only at extremely low concentrations.

Question 35.
Write two functions of Cytokinin?
Answer:
Two functions of Cytokinin :
(i) Promotes cell division : It is mainly concerned with the cytokinosis process of cell division.
(ii) Delay leaf senescence : Richmond and Long showed that kinetin delays senescence of leaves by retention of chlorophyl. It prevents drainage of nutrients from mature leaves.

Question 36.
What is parthenocarpy?
Answer:
Development of progenies from ovum without fertilization by sperm is known as parthenocarpy. eg. beas, wasp.

Question 37.
Mention two differences between plant and animal hormone.
Answer:

Plant hormone	Animal hormone
i. Source-apical meristems of stem and root, coleoptile, endosperm, cotyledons etc.	i. Source-Endocrine glands.
ii. They are transported through conducting system from their place of synthesis.	ii. Hormone is transported via blood and lymph.

Long Answer Type Questions : 5 Marks

Question 1.
How do Auxins promote the growth of a tendril around a support?
Answer:
When tendrils come in contact with any support, the part of the tendril in contact with the object does not grow as rapidly as the part of the tendril away from the object. This is caused by the action of Auxin hormone. Less Auxin occurs on the side of contact as compared to the free side, as a result Auxin promotes growth on the free side and the tendrils coil around the support.

Question 2.
How does chemical coordination occur in plants?
Answer:
Chemical coordination occurs in plants with the help of plant hormones. Different plant hormones help to coordinate growth, development, and responss to the environment. They are synthesized at places away from where they act and diffuse to the area for action, for example, Auxin promotes cell growth, Gibberellins promote stem growth, Cytokinins promote cell division and Abscisic Acid inhibits growth and its effects include wilting of leaves.

Question 3.
Mention the sources of ‘Auxin’ hormone and two of its functions having practical application.
Answer:
The sources of ‘Auxin’ hormone :

1. Growing apex of higher plants
2. Organs like seeds, stem tips.
3. In young expanding leaves.

The two functions of Auxin having practical application :

1. Need eradication
2. Parthenocarpic fruit development.
3. Delay of senescence period.

Question 4.
Write the source and any two functions of Cytokinin.
Answer:
Source of Cytokinine :

1. Fruits like apple, tomato, banana etc.
2. Endosperm tissues.
3. Found abundantly in coconut milk.
4. Corn seed contains Cytokinin (Zeatin)

Functions (two) of Cytokinin :

1. Cytokinin acts in presence of Auxin which induces cell division in plants.
2. Cytokinin delays the senescence of leaves.

Question 5.
Write the full form of IBA. Define apical dominance.
Answer:
The full from of IBA is Indole Butyric Acid.
Apical Dominance : As a general rule, growth of the terminal shoot of a plant inhibits the development of lateral buds on the stem beneath. The inhibition is called apical dominance.

Multiple Choice Questions : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Which of the following is a plant hormone?
(a) Insulin
(b) Thyroxin
(c) Oestrogen
(d) Cytokinin
Answer:
(d) Cytokinin

Question 2.
Artifical ripening of fruit is carried out by
(a) Auxin
(b) Ethylene
(c) Abscisic acid (ABA)
(d) Gibberellin
Answer:
(b) Ethylene

Question 3.
Growth of the stem is controlled by
(a) Gibberellin
(b) Auxin
(c) Abscisic acid
(d) Cytokinin
Answer:
(a) Gibberellin

Question 4.
Which of the following synthetic hormones is used commercially for ripening fruits?
(a) IBA
(b) NAA
(c) BAP
(d) Ethephon
Answer:
(d) Ethephon

Question 5.
Choose the combination of hormones which cause bolting and apical dominance respectively.
(a) Auxin and Gibberellin
(b) Gibberellin and Auxin
(c) Auxin and Cytokinin
(d) Gibberellin and Ethylene
Answer:
(b) Gibberellin and Auxin

Question 6.
Maximum seed germination can be achieved by treating seeds with
(a) Auxin
(b) Gibberellin
(c) Abscisic acid
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(b) Gibberellin

Question 7.
If a piece of sugarcane with nodes and internodes is placed in a beaker containing IBA, we can expect development of
(a) shoot
(b) roots
(c) leaf
(d) branch
Answer:
(b) roots

Question 8.
Match the hormones in column I with their physiological effects in column II and write the correct combinations.

Column I	Column II
(a) Auxin	(p) fruit ripening
(b) Gibberellin	(q) delay in senescence
(c) Cytokinin	(r) apical dominance
(d) Ethylene	(s) bolting

(a) a = r, b = s, c = q, d = p
(b) a = r, b = q, c = s, d = p
(c) a = s, b = r, c = q, d = p
(d) a = r, b = s, c = p, d = q
Answer:
(a) a = r, b = s, c = q, d = p

Question 9.
Which of the following pertains to movement of plants?
(a) sleep movements
(b) phototropism
(c) gravitropism
(d) all of the choices are correct
Answer:
(d) all of the choices are correct

Question 10.
Which of the following ions are affected by Gibberellin and is also involved in signal transduction?
(a) H⁺
(b) Ca²⁺
(c) Na⁺
(d) Mg²⁺
Answer:
(b) Ca²⁺

Question 11.
Pinching the top off a plant to create fuller growth involves which of the following hormones?
(a) Auxin
(b) Ethylene
(c) Gibberellin
(d) Cytokinin
Answer:
(a) Auxin

Question 12.
The general sequence by which a plant responds to stimuli is
(a) Chloroplast-vascular bundle-sap
(b) Reception-transduction-response
(c) Sensory nerve-interneuron-motor nerve
(d) Input-reflex-output
Answer:
(b) Reception-transduction-response

Question 13.
Which of these terms refers to a growth of the plant towards light?
(a) Negative gravitropism
(b) Positive gravitropism
(c) Negative phototropism
(d) Positive phototropism
Answer:
(d) Positive phototropism

Question 14.
The response of roots growing downward is referred to as
(a) Negative gravitropism
(b) Positive gravitropism
(c) Thigmotropism
(d) Negative phototropism
Answer:
(b) Positive gravitropism

Question 15.
Pea vines twinning around a wire support is an example of
(a) Negative gravitropism
(b) Positive gravitropism
(c) Thigmotropism
(d) Negative phototropism
Answer:
(c) Thigmotropism

Question 16.
Plant hormones are generally produced in tissues.
(a) Cortical (cortex)
(b) Epidermal
(c) Meristem
(d) Vascular
Answer:
(c) Meristem

Question 17.
The Latin root words meaning “about” and “day” are the basis for the term
(a) Auxin
(b) Tropism
(c) Naștic
(d) Circadian
Answer:
(d) Circadian

Question 18.
Which statement about plant hormones is not true?
(a) Plant hormones include at least one form that is gas.
(b) Each naturally occurring hormone has a specific chemical structure.
(c) Hormones are among the principal internal regulators of plant growth.
(d) All known growth regulators of plant activities are chemicals produced naturally in plants.
Answer:
(d) All known growth regulators of plant activities are chemicals produced naturally in plants.

Question 19.
Which of these plant hormones is a growth inhibitor?
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Gibberellin
Answer:
(a) Abscisic acid

Question 20.
Which of these plant hormones was studied in the 1880s by Charles and Francis Darwin in experiments on phototropism?
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(b) Auxin

Question 21.
Which plant hormone was discovered in infected rice seeding that grew extremely tall and slender?
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Gibberellin
Answer:
(d) Gibberellin

Question 22.
Which plant hormone, developing in an apical bud, inhibits the growth of lower axillary buds?
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(b) Auxin

Question 23.
Indoleacetic acid (IAA) is the most commonly occurring form of which plant hormone?
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(b) Auxin

Question 24.
Dormancy in seeds and buds can be broken by application of which plant hormone?
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Gibberellin
Answer:
(d) Gibberellin

Question 25.
A hormone that causes cell division and is found in coconut milk or in dividing root tissue is
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(c) Cytokinin

Question 26.
Which of the following is/are an effect(s) of auxin?
(a) Applied to a woody cutting, it causes roots to develop
(b) Auxin production by seeds promotes the growth of fruit
(c) Trees sprayed with Auxin will keep mature fruit from falling to the ground
(d) All of the choices are the effect of Auxin.
Answer:
(d) All of the choices are the effect of Auxin.

Question 27.
How does Auxin actually work?
(a) In the presence of blue light, it triggers additional photosynthesis and growth
(b) In the presence of light, it increases the turgor pressure of the cell and accelerates growth
(c) In the presence of light, it increases the formation of hydrolytic enzymes that release energy needed for growth
(d) In the presence of unidirectional light, it moves to the shady side and activites an ATP-driven proton pump that result in weakened cell walls and eventual elongation.
Answer:
(d) In the presence of unidirectional light, it moves to the shady side and activites an ATP-driven proton pump that result in weakened cell walls and eventual elongation.

Question 28.
How does Gibberllin actually work?
(a) In the presence of blue light, it triggers additional photosynthesis and growth.
(b) In the presence of light, it increases the turgor pressure of the cell and accelerates growth.
(c) In the presence of light, it increases the formation of additional DNA that codes for additional plant structures.
(d) It attaches to a plasma membrane receptor and results in gene activation to produce the enzyme amylase that releases sugars for additional cell growth, division, and elongation.
Answer:
(d) It attaches to a plasma membrane receptor and results in gene activation to produce the enzyme amylase that releases sugars for additional cell growth, division, and elongation.

Question 29.
A chemical messenger from the embryo that apparently simulates a seed to digest the endosperm is
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Gibberellin
Answer:
(d) Gibberellin

Question 30.
Application of which hormone prevents plant tissues from senescing, or again?
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(c) Cytokinin

Question 31
Which plant hormone is a gas?
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(d) Ethylene

Question 32.
Which plant hormone stimulates the ripening of fruit and inhibits plant growth?
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(d) Ethylene

Question 33.
Which plant hormone is called the stress hormone because it produces dormancy in seeds and buds?
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(a) Abscisic acid

Question 34.
Which plant hormone is associated with the closure of the stomates in a plant under water stress?
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(a) Abscisic acid

Question 35.
Which statement is not correct about a circadian rhythm?
(a) These rhythms tend to persist even in the absence of daily light cues.
(b) An example is the opening of stomata in the morning and their closing at night.
(c) If plants are maintained in total darkness or total light, their circadian rhythm acts on a faster time scale.
(d) The primary usefulness of circadian rhythms seems to be to measure daylength changes so plants respond appropriately to seasonal environmental changes.
Answer:
(c) If plants are maintained in total darkness or total light, their circadian rhythm acts on a faster time scale.

Question 36.
Which is not a physiological change related to photoperiodism?
(a) Seed germination
(b) Root branching
(c) Breaking bud dormancy
(d) Some flowering
Answer:
(b) Root branching

Question 37.
The prayer plant, Maramta leuconeura, folds up its leaves each night in accordance with a circadian rhythm. If we were to ship this plant halfway around the world to a location where it is day time there, when it is might here, the plant will
(a) Slowly adjust to synchronize with the new day-night cycle
(b) Immediately switch to a new cycle and begin to open leaves in day and close them at night
(c) Detect the change but remain on its original cycle and therefore still fold leaves in day and open them at night
(d) Not detect the change and therefore remain on its original cycle.
Answer:
(a) Slowly adjust to synchronize with the new day-night cycle

Question 38.
Which statement is not true about photoperiodism?
(a) A short-day plant flowers, when the day length is shorter than some critical length
(b) A day-neutral plant flowers according to some form of regulation other than photoperiodism
(c) A long-day plant will flower even when the day period is not long enough if there is a short period of light during the dark period.
(d) The phytochrome from Pft is converted to Pr in daylight, producing the active from the induces flowering the long-day plants.
Answer:
(d) The phytochrome from Pft is converted to Pr in daylight, producing the active from the induces flowering the long-day plants.

Question 39.
The Greek root words meaning “plant” and “color” are the basis for the term
(a) Auxin
(b) tropism
(c) nastic
(d) phytochrome
Answer:
(d) phytochrome

Question 40.
How do some plants sees “know” when it is day and night, and perhaps when to germinate?
(a) They chemically count the circadian cycles.
(b) All plant hormones are products of photosynthetic systems.
(c) Photosynthetic rates provide direct evidence of sun-produced food.
(d) Phytochromes cycle between red and far-red absorption and light levels can inhibit germination.
Answer:
(d) Phytochromes cycle between red and far-red absorption and light levels can inhibit germination.

Question 41.
Gravitropism in roots
(a) is positive when plant roots grow downward
(b) is due to statoliths in the root cap cells
(c) is due to Auxins
(d) All of the choices are true.
Answer:
(d) All of the choices are true.

Question 42.
Apical dominance in plants is due to which of the following plants hormones?
(a) Ethylene
(b) Gibberellin
(c) Auxin
(d) Cytokinin
Answer:
(c) Auxin

Question 43.
Which of the following is/are true regarding Gibberellin?
(a) there are about 70 chemically different gibberellins
(b) are growth promoters causing stem elongation
(c) these hormones can break seed and bud dormancy
(d) all of the choices are true.
Answer:
(d) all of the choices are true.

Question 44.
Cytokinins
(a) are plant hormones that promote cell division
(b) are used in combination with Auxin to produce plants from undifferentiated callose tissue
(c) also work with oligosaccharins to effect tissue differentiation
(d) All of these are true regarding cytokinin
Answer:
(d) All of these are true regarding cytokinin

Question 45.
Gibberellin promotes
(a) seed germination
(b) seed dormancy
(c) leaf fall
(d) root elongation
Answer:
(a) seed germination

Question 46.
Cut or excised leaves remain green for long if induced to root or dipped in
(a) Gibberellin
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Auxin
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(b) Cytokinin

Question 47.
Hormone primarily connected with cell division is
(a) IAA
(b) NAA
(c) Cytokinine
(d) Gibberellic acid
Answer:
(c) Cytokinine

Question 48.
Leaf fall can be prevented with the help of
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Florigen
(d) Cytokinin
Answer:
(d) Cytokinin

Question 49.
Which of the following hormones can replace vernalisation?
(a) Auxin
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Gibberellin
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(d) Ethylene

Question 50.
Which of the following movements is not related to Auxin level?
(a) bending of shoot towards light
(b) movement of root towards soil
(c) nyctinastic leaf movements
(d) movement of sunflower head tracking the sun
Answer:
(c) nyctinastic leaf movements

Question 51.
Phototropic and geotropic movements are linked to
(a) Gibberellin
(b) Enzymes
(c) Auxin
(d) Cytokinin
Answer:
(c) Auxin

Question 52.
Abscisic acid controls
(a) cell division
(b) leaf fall and dormancy
(c) shoot elongation
(d) cell elongation and wall formation
Answer:
(b) leaf fall and dormancy

Question 53.
Phytohormones are
(a) chemical regulation flowering
(b) chemical regulation secondary growth
(c) hormones regulating growth from seed to adulthood
(d) regulator synthesised by plants and influencing physiological processes.
Answer:
(d) regulator synthesised by plants and influencing physiological processes.

Question 54.
Highest Auxin concentration occurs
(a) in growing tips
(b) in leaves
(c) at base of plant organs
(d) in xylem and phloem
Answer:
(a) in growing tips

Question 55.
A chemical believed to be involved in flowering is
(a) Gibberellin
(b) kinetin
(c) Florigen
(d) IBA
Answer:
(c) Florigen

Question 56.
The hormone responsible for apical dominance is
(a) IAA
(b) GA
(c) ABA
(d) Florigen
Answer:
(a) IAA

Question 57.
Abscisic acid causes
(a) stomatal closure
(b) leaf expansion
(c) stem elongation
(d) root elongation
Answer:
(a) stomatal closure

Question 58.
Cytokinins
(a) promote abscission
(b) influence water movement
(c) photoperiod less than 12 hours, photoperiod below a critical length and uniterrupted long night
(d) short photoperiod and interrupted long night.
Answer:
(c) photoperiod less than 12 hours, photoperiod below a critical length and uniterrupted long night

Question 59.
Apical dominance is caused by
(a) Abscisic acid in lateral bud
(b) Cytokinin in leaf tip
(c) Gibberellin in lateral buds
(d) Auxin in shoot tip
Answer:
(d) Auxin in shoot tip

Question 60.
Bananas can be prevented from over-ripening by
(a) maintaining them at room temperature
(b) refrigeration
(c) dipping in ascorbic acid solution
(d) storing in a freezer
Answer:
(c) dipping in ascorbic acid solution

Question 61.
Dwarfness can be controlled by treating the plant with
(a) Cytokinin
(b) Gibberellin
(c) Auxin
(d) Antigibberellin
Answer:
(b) Gibberellin

Question 62.
The regulator which retards ageing/senescence of plant parts is
(a) Cytokinin
(b) Auxin
(c) Gibberellin
(d) Abscisic acid
Answer:
(a) Cytokinin

Question 63.
The movement of Auxin is largely
(a) centripetal
(b) basipetal
(c) acropetal
(d) both ‘a’ and ‘c’
Answer:
(b) basipetal

Question 64.
Gibberellic acid induces flower
(a) in short day plants under long day conditions
(b) in day-neutral plants under dark conditons
(c) in some gymnospermic plants only
(d) in long day plants under short day conditions
Answer:
(d) in long day plants under short day conditions

Question 65.
A plant hormone used for inducing morphogenesis in plant tissue culture is
(a) Cytokinin
(b) Ethylene
(c) Abscisic acid
(d) Gibberellin
Answer:
(a) Cytokinin

Question 66.
Which hormone breaks dormancy of potato tuber?
(a) Gibberellin
(b) IAA
(c) ABA
(d) Zeatin
Answer:
(a) Gibberellin

Question 67.
Which of the following prevents the fall or fruits?
(a) GA
(b) NAA
(c) Ethylene
(d) Zeatin
Answer:
(b) NAA

Question 68.
Coconut milk factor is
(a) an Auxin
(b) a Gibberellin
(c) Abscisic acid
(d) Cytokinin
Answer:
(d) Cytokinin

Question 69.
Cell elongation in internodal regions of the green plants takes place due to
(a) Indole Acetic Acid
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Gibberellin
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(c) Gibberellin

Question 70.
Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly matched?
(a) Gibberellic acid-Leaf fall
(b) Cytokinin-Cell division
(c) IAA-Cell wall elongation
(d) Abscisic acid-Stomatal closure.
Answer:
(a) Gibberellic acid-Leaf fall

Very Short Answer Type Questions : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Who coined the term phytohormones?
Answer:
Thimann in 1948.

Question 2.
Name the naturally occurring Auxin in plants.
Answer:
Indole Acetic Acid (IAA).

Question 3.
Name one synthetic Auxin used to in the production of seedless fruits.
Answer.
NAA (Naphthalene Acetic Acid).

Question 4.
Name one Auxin that can induce root formation in plant tissue cultures.
Answer:
IAA.

Question 5.
Name a synthetic Auxin that is used as a Weedicide.
Answer:
2, 4, D (2, 4, Dichlorophenoxy Acetic Acid).

Question 6.
Name of hormone that induces bolting in plants.
Answer:
Gibberellin.

Question 7.
Name the meristems responsible for primary growth in plants.
Answer:
Primary meristem/root tip and short tip.

Question 8.
Define growth.
Answer:
It is a permanent and irreversible increase in size or volume accompanied by increase in dry weight/biomass of an organism.

Question 9.
Why seeds are soaked in Gibberellic acid solution before sowing?
Answer:
Gibberellic acid breaks seed dormancy and promotes germination.

Question 10.
Which hormone is linked with phototropic and geotropic movement in plant?
Answer:
Auxin regulates the phototropic and geotropic movement.

Question 11.
Avena Coleoptile test is for
Answer:
Ethylene.

Question 12.
Seed germintion is brought about by
Answer:
Gibberellin.

Question 13.
The following hormone is artifical Auxin
Answer:
NAA.

Question 14.
The following hormone is antiauxin
Answer:
Cytokinin.

Question 15.
Premature leaf fall is brought about by
Answer:
GA,

Question 16.
Cell division is promoted by
Answer:
kinetin.

Question 17.
Which is the natural Auxin?
Answer:
IAA.

Question 18.
Seed germination is induced by which hormone?
Answer:
Auxin.

Question 19.
Which hormone delay leaf senescence?
Answer:
Cytokinin.

Question 20.
Which hormone helps to produce seedless fruits?
Answer:
Synthetic Auxin and synthetic Gibberellin.

Question 21.
Give the full form of IAA?
Answer:
Indole Acetic Acid.

Question 22.
What is synthetic hormone?
Answer:
Artificial hormones are synthesised in the industry and these are artificial Auxin, Gibberellin and Cytokinin. This is called synthetic hormone.

Question 23.
Which hormone helps in optical dormancy in Plant?
Answer:
Auxin.

Question 24.
What do you mean by natural auxin?
Answer:
The hormones that are synthesised naturally are called natural auxin.

Question 25.
Name the precursor of IAA synthesis?
Answer:
Tryptophan.

Question 26.
What is Gibberllin?
Answer:
Non-nitrogenous organic acids having terpenoid group functioning as growth promoting substance are Gibberellins.

Question 27.
What is Auxin?
Answer:
The nitrogenous acidic phytohormones which are synthesised at the tip of the root, coleoptile, shoot, apex etc are called Auxins.

Question 28.
What is Cytokinin?
Answer:
A group of nitrogen containing basic organic compound having a purine group and functioning as growth promoting substances are called Cytokinin.

Question 29.
Name a natural Auxin.
Answer:
Indole Acetic Acid.

Question 30.
Name the phytohormone that helps in seed germination.
Answer:
Gibberellin.

Question 31.
Which hormone is antiauxin?
Answer:
Cytokinin.

Question 32.
Name the hormone that can be used to overcome genetic dwarfism in plants.
Answer:
Gibberellin.

Question 33.
What are growth inhibitors?
Answer:
The hormones which hinder or suppress the growth of plants are called growth inhibitors.

Question 34.
Which phytohormone reduces the rate of transpiration?
Answer:
ABA (Abscisic Acid)

Question 35.
Name the hormone which induces ripening of fruits.
Answer:
Ethylene.

Question 36.
Name the commercially available Ethylene used in ripening of fruits.
Answer:
Ethephon or Ethereal.

Question 37.
What are growth promoters?
Answer:
The phytohormones which promote growth of plants are called growth promoters.

Question 38.
Name the gaseous plant hormone.
Answer:
Ethylene.

Question 39.
Name the hormone that break dormancy in seeds.
Answer:
Gibberellins or Cytokinins

Question 40.
Name the hormone that helps in elongation of internodes in plants.
Answer:
Gibberellins.

Question 41.
Expand the abbreviation-NAA
Answer:
Naphthalene Acetic Acid.

Question 42.
Auxin is
Answer:
Phytohormones.

Question 43.
Auxin is secreted from
Answer:
Meristematic tissue.

Question 44
Give an example of non-nitrogenous plant hormone.
Answer:
Gibberellin is an example of non-nitrogenous plant hormone.

Question 45.
Mention the chemical nature of Auxin and Thyroxine.
Answer:
The chemical nature of Auxin is nitrogenous. The chemical nature of Thyroxine is nitrogenous including iodine molecule.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 5.7 Agriculture in India offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 5.7 Question Answer – Agriculture in India

Answer in short : 2 Marks

Question 1.
What do you mean by subsistence agriculture?
Answer:
The practice of agriculture in which small land holdings are cultivated with primitive methods and tools, and the produce is almost entirely consumed by the family members of the farmers, with little surplus for sale, is called subsistence farming. This type of agriculture is mainly practised for survival.

Question 2.
Why is irrigation necessary in Indian agriculture?
Answer:
Indian agriculture mainly depends on the monsoon. Monsoon is very uncertain, irregular and unreliable. Hence, farmers have to depend on irrigation to avoid crop failures.

Question 3.
Why are food crops predominant in Indian agriculture?
Answer:
Since India is a highly populated country, the necessity to feed the large population gives food crops the first priority. More than 2/3 of total cropped area are devoted to cultivation of food crops.

Question 4.
Where do the major rice producing areas of India lie ?
Answer:
The most important rice producing areas of India are : the eastern Ganga plains, the Brahmaputra valley, the narrow coastal strips forming major parts of Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Cauvery deltas.

Question 5.
Name the states growing millets in India.
Answer:
Millets are grown in dry regions of Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Punjab and Haryana.

Question 6.
Mention the tea growing region of Assam.
Answer:
In Assam, most of the tea is grown in the valleys of rivers Brahmaputra and Surma. The main tea producing districts are : Derrang, Lakhimpur, Shibsagar, Nowgong, Goalpara, Kamrup and Cachar.

Question 7.
Mention the tea growing regions of West Bengal.
Answer:
In West Bengal, tea is grown in about 350 estates in the northern hilly region lying in Darjeeling, Jalpaiguri (Duars) and Kochbihar districts.

Question 8.
Where is tea grown in South India?
Answer:
In South India, tea is mostly grown in the hilly regions of Nilgiri, Cardamom, Palni and Anaimalai. They lie in the states of Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka.

Question 9.
In which districts of Karnataka does coffee grow the most?
Answer:
Coffee grows in almost 60 % of the cultivated area of Karnataka. The districts predominantly under coffee cultivation are : Kadun, Shimga, Hasan, Mysore and Chickmagalur (largest concentration of trees).

Question 10.
Classify cotton according to its fibre.
Answer:
Cotton can be classified into 3 categories according to the size of their fibres –

1. Long staple (length more than 3 cm ), also called Sea island cotton.
2. Medium staple (2.2-3 cm), also called American Upland cotton.
3. Short staple (less than 2.2 cm ), also called Indian cotton.

Question 11.
Where is cotton grown in Gujarat?
Answer:
Ahmedabad, Mahesana, Bharuch, Kaira, Vadodara, Sabarkanta, Surat, Panchmahals, Gohilwad, Amreli districts of Gujarat.

Question 12.
Name the cotton producing states of India.
Answer:
Gujarat (1st), Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Punjab.

Question 13.
Mention the sugarcane producing areas of India.
Answer:
In India, sugarcane is grown in Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, parts of Andhra Pradesh, Assam etc. The maximum sugarcane is grown in Uttar Pradesh (45 %) in the districts of Saharanpur, Muzaffarnagar, Meerut, Moradabad, Bijnore and Kheri.

Question 14.
What is Green Revolution ?
Answer:
Green Revolution is the name given to the project under which agricultural yield was tried to be increased remarkably by using high yielding variety of seeds, good fertilisers, irrigation, machine tools etc.

Question 15.
What are HYV seeds?
Answer:
Seeds that grow very fast and yield a huge produce are called High Yielding Variety or HYV seeds.

Question 16.
What is monocropping ?
Answer:
The agricultural fields that are not very fertile and have inadequate irrigation facilities, can produce only one crop in a year with the help of rainfall. This is known as monocropping. Eg.- Tea cultivation in Duars region of Jalpaiguri, Sugarcane cultivation in Uttar Pradesh, etc.

Question 17.
What is multiple cropping ?
Answer:
The process of growing two or more crops in a year with the help of irrigation, fertilisers, modern technology and HYV seeds is called multiple cropping.

Question 18.
What is inter-culture?
Answer:
Cultivation of two or three type of crops at a time in alternate series or rows is called inter-culture of crops.

Question 19.
Classify food crops according to seasons.
Answer:

Question 20.
What are cash crops ?
Answer:
The crops that are cultivated for trade and commerce and help to increase national income in high levels are called cash crops. Eg.- Tea, coffee, cotton, jute, etc.

Question 21.
What are Kharif crops?
Answer:
The crops that are planted in the beginning of the rainy season and harvested at the end of the winters are called kharif crops. Eg. – Aman rice, jute, sugarcane, cotton, etc.

Question 22.
What are Rabi crops?
Answer:
The crops that are planted in the beginning of the winter season and harvested at the end of spring are called Rabi crops. Eg.- Boro rice, wheat, potato, gram, mustard, etc.

Question 23.
What are fibre crops?
Answer:
The crops that yield fibre are called fibre crops. Eg.- cotton, jute, mesta, etc.

Question 24.
What is horticulture?
Answer:
The cultivation of fruits, vegetables, flowers, herbs, etc. in the fringe areas of large cities in farm houses, to be supplied to the markets of these large cities is called horticulture.

Question 25.
What are plantation crops ?
Answer:
Crops that are cultivated in well maintained fields in proper rows with the help of modern agricultural methods are called plantation crops. These crops once planted, yield returns for many years. Eg. – Tea, coffee, banana, etc.

Question 26.
What kind of relief is suitable for cultivation of rice?
Answer:
Plain lands are most suitable for cultivation of rice. Thus, rice grows best in river basins, deltas and low-lying coastal regions. In hilly regions, rice can be cultivated by cutting terraces on the hill slopes.

Question 27.
Name some high yielding variety of seeds of rice.
Answer:

1. IR – 8
2. Jaya
3. Ratna
4. Pankaj
5. Aditya
6. Padma
7. Kiran
8. Minikit

Question 28.
Mention two problems in the cultivation of rice in India.
Answer:
(i) Yield of rice per hectare is very less in India.
(ii) Crops often fail due to too much dependency on monsoon rainfall.

Question 29.
Name four highest rice producing states of India.
Answer:
According to Economic Survey, 2014-15, the highest rice producing states of India are –

State	Production (in metricton)	Percentage
i. West Bengal	153	14.4%
ii. Uttar Pradesh	146	13.7%
iii. Andhra Pradesh	130	12.2%
iv. Punjab	114	9.7%

Question 30.
Which region is known as the ‘Granary of India’?
Answer:
The north and north-western part of India including Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and Haryana is known as the ‘Granary of India’, as it produces the bulk of agricultural crops of India here. About 70-75 % wheat of India is produced here.

Question 31.
What are millets ?
Answer:
Millets are grass-like crops that produce coarse food grains. They are inferior crops that grow in hot and dry regions. Eg.- Jowar, Bajra, Ragi, etc.

Question 32.
What do you mean by ratooning’?
Answer:
In cultivation of sugarcane, the crops are harvested leaving about 1 foot of the stem in the ground. This cut-stem grows the new plant of sugarcane for the next season. This process of regrowth of plants from the same base is called ratooning. But ratooning does not give good yield after 2-3 years.

Question 33.
What kind of soil and temperature condition is necessary for sugarcane?
Answer:
Sugarcane grows best in loony soils rich in lime and salt. Black soil, red soil and alluvial soil is suitable for this. Temperature condition between 20°-40° C is required for sugarcane cultivation.

Question 34.
Name three sugarcane producing states of India.
Answer:
(a) Uttar Pradesh (1st)
(b) Maharashtra (2nd)
(c) Karnataka (3rd).

Question 35.
Name two beverage crops of India.
Answer:
Tea, Coffee.

Question 36.
Name three cotton producing states of India.
Answer:
(a) Gujarat (1st)
(b) Maharashtra (2nd)
(c) Telengana-Andhra Pradesh (3rd).

Question 37.
Name the tea producing states of India.
Answer:
(a) Assam (1st)
(b) West Bengal (2nd)
(c) Tamil Nadu (3rd)
(d) Kerala
(e) Himachal Pradesh.

Question 38.
When are the tea leaves picked from the trees?
Answer:
Tea leaves are picked after the commencement of the rainy season, when the tea trees start getting new leaves. In north India, the leaves are picked for 7-8 months. In south India, tea leaves are picked almost throughout the year.

Question 39.
When and why was the Tea Board set up in India ?
Answer:
The Tea Board of India was set up in 1953 for the following purposes –

• To provide long-term loans to the tea gardens.
• To distribute new machines on hire or purchase.
• To acquire fertilisers, new saplings, etc. at cheap rates.
• To establish new markets for tea.

Question 40.
Name two famous tea producing regions in Assam.
Answer:
(a) Brahmaputra valley
(b) Surma valley.

Question 41.
When are coffee seeds planted?
Answer:
Coffee seeds are planted in India from January to March. The plants grow and start producing coffee after 3-4 years.

Question 42.
Where is coffee grown best in India ?
Answer:
In India, coffee is best grown in the Chikmagalur and Kodagu districts of Karnataka. (about 80 % )

Question 43.
What are the problems of fragmented land holdings in agriculture in India ?
Answer:
The fragmented land holdings in India cause reduction of producing areas as much land is occupied to build boundaries and fences. Also, the small size of the land holdings create difficulties in use of modern equipments of agriculture.

Question 44.
Name two organisations that produce fertilisers in India.
Answer:
(i) Fertiliser Corporation of India Limited. (FCI).
(ii) Hindustan Fertiliser Corporation (HFC).

Question 45.
Name some modern equipments used in agriculture in India.
Answer:
Modem instruments used in Indian agriculture are – tractors, harvestors, power tillers, combines, etc.

Answer in brief : 3 Marks

Question 1.
How does the monsoon control the crop calendar of India ?
Answer:
Indian agriculture is highly dependent on monsoon rains. Choice of crops in different areas is directed by the availability of rainfall in those areas. Eg – Water loving crops like rice, jute etc. are cultivated in eastern in the dry western regions. Irregular and uncertain monsoons often result in crop failures. Hence, arrangements for irrigation is also very essential.

Question 2.
Name the major rice producing districts of Punjab and Haryana.
Answer:
Punjab : Ferozepur, Ludhiana, Patiala, Amritsar.
Haryana : Hisar, Ambala, Jind, Rohtak and Faridabad.

Question 3.
Discuss the favourable conditions for growing millets.
Answer:
Millets (jowar, bajra, ragi etc.) are inferior crops that can grow in arid regions. Temperature : The approximate temperature for growing millets is 25-32° C.
Rainfall : Millets can be grown in dry areas with rainfall 40-60 cm.
Soil type : Black soil and red loamy soil are best for growing millets.

Question 4.
What are the problems of coffee cultivation?
Answer:
The problems of coffee cultivation in India are –

1. Low production in the plantations.
2. Production fluctuates according to climatic conditions.
3. Great competition from Kenya, Columbia and Brazil.
4. Shortage of good quality coffee.

Question 5.
Name the countries to which India exports coffee.
Answer:
India exports coffee to USA, Canada, Japan, Kuwait, Australia, UK, Italy, Germany and Russia.

Question 6.
What are the problems of cotton cultivation in India ?
Answer:
The problems of cotton cultivation in India are:

1. Yield of cotton per hectare is very low.
2. Most of the cotton produced is of medium and short staple quality.
3. Insect and pest attacks are very common, which hamper production.

Question 7.
What are the favourable conditions for growing sugarcane?
Answer:
The favourable geographic conditions for growing sugarcane are:

• Temperature : Average annual temperature is 21-27° C.
• Rainfall : 75-100 cm.
• Soil : Sugarcane grows best in loamy soil, black soil and alluvial soil. It does not grow in alkaline soils.

The economic conditions needed for growing sugarcane are :

• Labour : Weeding, manuring, field preparation, planting and harvesting require much labour.
• Capital : Large capital is invariably needed to grow plantation crops.
• Fertilisers : Sugarcane is a soil exhausting crop. Hence good fertilisers are needed.

Question 8.
What were the effects of Green Revolution ?
Answer:
The profuse increase in agricultural produce with the help of modern agricultural methods and infrastructure is known as Green Revolution. The effect of Green Revolution are :

• Remarkable increase in production of food crops.
• Extension of agricultural land.
• Modernisation and mechanisation of agriculture.
• Employment and increase in Standard of living.
• Reduction in import of food grains.

Question 9.
List the problems of Indian agriculture.
Answer:
The major problems faced by Indian agriculture are :

• Small and fragmented land holding that reduce production.
• Inferior seeds, manures, fertilizers, biocides etc. fails to utilise the maximum producing capacity of fields.
• Lack of irrigation in many places leads to crop failures.
• Lack of mechanisation reduces rate of Production.
• Soil erosion reduces fertility by remaining the top soil.
• Inadequate storage facilities often damage the produced crop.
• Inadequate transport facilities hamper production and fail to reach the crops to markets in time.
• Scarcity of capital causes failure in achieving high levels of production.

Question 10.
What steps are taken to solve the problems of Indian agriculture?
Answer:
The various steps taken to solve the problems of Indian agriculture are :

1. New concepts like co-operative farming have been introduced to control fragmentation of land holdings.
2. Bank loans and insurances are made available at easy rates of interests so that farmers can buy high yielding seeds, better fertilisers, modern equipments etc.
3. More and more land are being brought under irrigation facilities to control crop failures.
4. Scientific researches are being conducted to find out better and surer methods of cultivation.
5. Crop management methods are practised according to available geographic conditions.
6. Storage facilities for seeds and finished crops are being provided.
7. New agricultural policies like Green Revolution are being introduced.

Question 11.
Mention the characteristics of Indian agriculture.
Answer:
The characteristics of Indian agriculture are :

1. Most of the agriculture practised in India is of subsistence agriculture type.
2. Agriculture is dependent on animal power.
3. The crop calendar is dependent on monsoon.
4. Food crops are grown much more than cash crops.

Question 12.
Discuss the importances of agriculture in Indian economy.
Answer:
The importances of agriculture in Indian economy are:

1. Agriculture provides employment to maximum population in India. (about 70 % )
2. It is a big source of National Income.
3. Agriculture provides food for the huge population of the country.
4. Agriculture provides raw materials to various agro-based industries. Eg. – cotton textile, sugar, flour mills, etc.
5. It directly as well as indirectly influences international trade. Eg.- India earns a lot of foreign exchange from the export of cotton textile, jute products, sugar, tea, coffee, spices, lax, raisin, wheat, tobacco, etc.
6. It also plays an important role in internal trade and commerce:

Question 13.
Compare between Subsistence agriculture and Commercial agriculture.
Answer:

Subsistence agriculture	Commercial agriculture
i. Practised for subsistence or meeting the demands of the family.	i. Practised for commercial purposes and for earning money.
ii. The land holdings are small and fragmented.	ii. The land holdings are of medium size.
iii. Main crops are rice, wheat, oil seeds etc.	iii. Main crops are tea, coffee, cotton etc.
iv. This is a primitive type of agriculture.	iv. This is comparatively a modern type of agriculture.
v. Generally food crops are cultivated.	v. Generally plantation crops like tea, jute, etc. are cultivated.
vi. Yield per hectare is low.	vi. Yield per hectare is high.

Question 14.
What are the main problems of wheat cultivation in India ?
Answer:
The main problems of wheat cultivation in India are :

1. Yield per hectare is very low. (only 2,424 kg per hectare compared to 6,246 kg per hectare in Japan.)
2. Cultivation is much dependent on monsoon rainfall.
3. Selling price of wheat is low, which often does not cover the total cost incurred in the cultivation process.
4. The land holdings are small and fragmented.
5. Lack of proper store houses and cold storages often result in spoiling of crops.

Question 15.
List the regions of rice cultivation in India.
Answer:

1. Wet regions of Western Himalaya : Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Uttarakhand.
2. Semi-arid regions of Ganga-Indus plains : Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar.
3. Dry semi-arid regions of Western India : Haryana, Rajasthan.
4. Wet plains of Ganga-Brahmaputra basin : West Bengal, Assam.
5. Wet regions of Eastern Himalaya : Meghalaya, Manipur, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Tripura.
6. Highlands of Central India : Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh.
7. Deccan plateau region : Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala.
8. Coastal plains : Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha.

Question 16.
Mention the steps taken to solve the problems of rice cultivation in India.
Answer:
The steps taken up to solve problems of rice cultivation in India are :

1. Irrigation facilities have been provided to most of the fields to reduce the dependence on monsoon rainfall.
2. The ICAR (Indian Council of Agricultural Research) has discovered and generated many types of HYV seeds, that help to increase yield and improve the quality of the crops.
3. Supply of power, transport, storage, etc. has also been taken care of.
4. Modernisation of agricultural processes, insurance facilities, abolision of middle men etc. have also been taken care of.

Question 17.
What are the problems of wheat cultivation in India ?
Answer:
The problems of wheat cultivation in India are :

1. Yield of wheat per hectare is quite low compared to world standards.
2. Use of HYV seeds is not popular among all the farmers.
3. Heavy pressure of population reduces per capita availability of land.
4. Fragmented and small land holdings reduce the area of production.
5. Lack of infrastructure and storage facilities after lead to spoiling of crops.

Question 18.
Why is cultivation of sugarcane less popular in south India rather than north India ?
Answer:
Sugarcane cultivation is less popular in South India compared to North India because :

1. In South India more land is devoted to food crops rather than cash crops like sugarcane.
2. Other cash crops like coffee, tobacco, groundnuts, etc. yield more returns than sugarcane.
3. Sugarcane plants start giving proper returns only after 2-3 years. Hence, farmers prefer growing crops that give quick returns.
4. Sugarcane is a soil exhaustive crop and expensive to maintain. Hence, farmers concentrate on growing cheap and easily growing crops.

Question 19.
What are the problems of sugarcane cultivation in India ?
Answer:
The problems of sugarcane cultivation in India are :

1. The sucrose content of the sugarcane plants grown in India is quite less.
2. Yield of sugarcane per hectare is quite low. (only 70 metric tonnes per hectare compared to 140 metric tonne per hectare in Java)
3. Land alloted for sugarcane cultivation in India is quite low.
4. Backdated and obsolete methods of sugarcane cultivation are still practised in India.

Question 20.
What are the problems of cotton cultivation in India ?
Answer:
The problems of cotton cultivation in India are :

1. Yield of cotton per hectare is only 266 kg in India, compared to 800 kg in the countries of Central Asia.
2. 66 % of cotton cultivated in India is of medium staple. Long staple cotton has to be imported from other countries.
3. The methods of cultivation are backdated and primitive.
4. Attack of insects on cotton balls is a big problem in India.
5. There is lack of proper trade policies, which fails to achieve desired business levels.

Question 21.
What are the problems of tea cultivation in India ?
Answer:
The problems of tea cultivation in India are:

1. The tea plantations have become much old and hence the yield of tea leaves have reduced.
2. The plantations are small in size and incur high cost of production.
3. Picking of young leaves and buds at a high rate decrease the rate of growth of the plants.
4. Soil erosion, loss of fertility and landslides in hilly regions often hamper tea cultivation.
5. Yield of tea per hectare is quite less compared to Uganda, Kenya, Zimbabwe, etc.

Question 22.
Why is Assam best suited for production of tea in India ?
Answer:
Assam is most suitable for production of tea in India because :

1. The suitable conditions needed for tea cultivation is present in Assam. Average rainfall of more than 200 cm and average temperature of 30° C is most suitable for tea growth.
2. Assam consists of loamy soil rich in iron podsol and humus in most of the places. This is the best soil for the growth of tea plants.
3. The gently sloping hilly regions and the foothills near the Brahmaputra valley give the best relief for the growth of tea.
4. The dense population of the region provide the labour force needed in the tea gardens and processing unit.

Answer in details : 5 Marks

Question 1.
Discuss the major characteristics of Indian agriculture.
Answer:
The major characteristics of Indian agriculture are :
i. Subsistence agriculture : Most parts of India have subsistence agriculture. The farmer owns a small plot of land and grows crops sufficient for his family only, with very less surplus for sale.

ii. Pressure of population : The teeming millions of population exert much pressure on agriculture for employment as well as food supply.

iii. Lack of mechanisation : Complete mechanisation has not been achieved yet. Animals’ force plays an important role in plouging, threshing and transporting of agricultural products.

iv. Use of irrigation : Indian agriculture mainly depends on monsoon, which is uncertain, irregular and unreliable. Hence, irrigation is a necessity. But only 1/3 of the cropped area is provided with perennial irrigation facilities.

v. Small size of land holdings : Laws of inheritance of property have caused fragmentation of large land holdings. This causes loss of cultivable land and reduces production significantly.

vi. Uncontrolled use of pesticides and chemict tertilizers : Use of pesticides, chemical fertilisers initially boosts agricultural produces, but damage the soil in the long run.

vii. Predominance of food crops : Since Indian agriculture has to feed a large population, 2/3 of the total cultivable land concentrate on production of food crops.

viii. Insignificant place of fodder crops : Although India has the largest population of livestock in the world, only 4% of land is under pastures. This is due to tremendous need for food crops. Hence, animals are not properly fed, and their productivity is low.

ix. Variety of food crops : India is a vast country with a variety of relief, climate, and soil conditions. Thus, a large variety of crops are grown all over the country depending upon suitable conditions.

x. Dependence on monsoon : Indian agriculture is highly dependent on monsoon rains. Choice of crops in areas is directed by the availability of rainfall in those areas. Eg-Rice and jute grows well in West Bengal, while Rajasthan grows millets.

Question 2.
Discuss the favourable geographic and economic conditions for growing rice.
Answer:
The favourable conditions for growing rice are:
(a) Geographical :

1. Temperature : During sowing period, average temperature must be of 16°- 20° C, and during maturity, between 18°-32° C.
2. Rainfall : Annual rainfall of 150-200 cm.
3. Soil : Fertile clayey and alluvial soil is quite ideal. A marshy soil is also suitable.

(b) Economic :

1. Labour : Rice is a labour intensive crop. It requires cheap and abundant labour.
2. Capital : A good capital is required for rice production.
3. Others : Other facilities required for rice cultivation are : Chemical fertilisers, irrigation facilities, high yielding seeds, pesticides etc.

Question 3.
Discuss the main rice producing areas of India.
Answer:
The main rice producing areas of India are :

1. West Bengal : West Bengal ranks 1st in rice production. The major districts producing rice are : Burdwan, Medinipur, North and South 24 parganas.
2. Andhra Pradesh : It ranks second in rice production. Guntur, Kurnool and Nellore districts are the leading producers.

3. Uttar Pradesh : It ranks 3rd in rice production. Major rice producing districts are Bahraich, Pilibhit and Kheri. Rice is also well grown in the Doon valley.
4. Tamil Nadu : It ranks 4th in rice production. The major districts are chennai, Madurai, Coimbatore and Thiruchirapalli. The Cauvery delta produces plenty of rice.
5. Bihar : Ranking 5th, Darbhanga and Purnea are the major producing districts.
6. Others : Other significant rice producing states are: Odisha, Punjab, Haryana, Assam, Madhya Pradesh, Kerala and Gujarat.

Question 4.
Describe the conditions favourable for growing wheat.
Answer:
The favourable conditions for growing wheat are :
(a) Geographical :

1. Temperature : Temperature should be around 155° C. Weather should be warm and moist during early stages and sunny and dry during stages of maturity and harvest.
2. There should be at least 100 frost-free days. Long gloomy or foggy weather is harmful for the crop.
3. Soils : Chernozem is the best suited soil. Also grows well in light clayey or heavy loamy soil.
4. Land : Well drained slightly rolling plains.

(b) Economic :

1. Irrigation : With facilities of irrigation, wheat can grow even in areas of less than 50 cm rainfall.
2. HYV seeds : High Yielding Variety of seeds like Larma-Rajo, Sonera-63, Sonera -64 , Sona-227, Sonalika-308 etc. increase yield.
3. Labour : Much labour is not needed due to quite mechanisation of production process.
4. Others : Other requirements for wheat cultivation are : modem farming equipments like tractors, harvestors, winnowers, threshers, elevators etc, transport facilities, good capital etc.

Question 5.
Name the major wheat producing districts of India.
Answer:
The districts of the states producing wheat are :
(i) Uttar Pradesh : Meerut, Saharanpur, Bulandshahar, Aligarh, Agra etc.

(b) Economic:

1. Labour : Much labour is needed for planting, seeding, transplanting, looking after, plucking of berries, loading and unloading and processing of coffee.
2. Fertilisers : Coffee is a soil exhausting perennial crop. Hence much fertilisers are required to maintain soil fertility.
3. Transport : Quick and smooth transport facilities are required.
4. Capital : All plantation crops require a good amount of capital.

Question 8.
What are the favourable conditions for growing cotton?
Answer:
The fovourable conditions for growing cotton are :
(a) Geographical :

1. Temperature : 23°-32° C with an average around 27° C.
2. Sunshine : Plenty of sunshine during the growing period and cooler conditions during harvest.
3. Rainfall : 50-80 cm of rainfall well distributed during the growing period. But rainfall is injurious after the budding period.
4. Frost : At least 200 frost-free days are required.
5. Soil : Black cotton soil or regur soil is the best for cotton.
6. Land : Flat or undulating land with good drainage and no water logging is good for cotton.

(b) Economic :

1. Labour : Much labour is required for planting, thinning of seedlings, hoeing, inspection of pests, picking of bolls etc.
2. Transport : Good transport system helps in carrying raw cotton to factories and finished products to markets.
3. Fertilisers and pesticides : Cotton is highly soil-exhaustive. Hence fertilisers are necessary to maintain soil fertility. Pesticides are used to control pest attacks.
4. HYV : High Yielding Variety of seeds like MCU-4, MCU-5, Hybrid-4, Sujata, Varalaxmi etc. help to raise yield of cotton per hectare.

Question 9.
Discuss the steps taken under Green Revolution.
Answer:
In 1964-65, the project taken up for the profuse increase in agricultural produce by the use of modern agricultural methods and infrastructure is known as the Green Revolution. The steps taken up for Green Revolution are :

1. Use of High Yielding Variety (HYV) of seeds
2. Use of irrigation
3. Chemical fertilisers
4. Insecticides and pesticides
5. Command Area development
6. Consolidation of fragmented land holdings
7. Land reclamation
8. Agricultural loans
9. Electrification of rural areas
10. Development of roads and markets
11. Use of agricultural equipments and machineries
12. Establishment of agricultural schools.

The main crops under Green Revolution are : wheat, rice, corn, jowar and potato. Wheat gave absolutely blasting results in Punjab and Haryana and brought about much prosperity of the states.

Question 10.
Why is the Ganga plains of Northern India famous for cultivation of rice?
Answer:
The northern plains of the Ganga basin is one of the best regions for growing rice because :

1. Soil : The region is a plainland, made up of silt, clayey and loamy soils. The nature of the soil is acidic and it has a good water holding capacity.
2. Climate : This region lies in the Hot Wet Tropical climatic region. Average rainfall of 100-250 cm is very suitable for rice growth.
3. Irrigation : The soft soil allows easy construction of wells and tubewells for irrigation. Also, several canals are drawn from the rivers to the adjacent fields.
4. Modern technology : After the Green Revolution in 1963-64, due of high yielding seeds, chemical fertilisers, insecticides, pesticides, new machines, etc. have been popularised. This has increased production levels.
5. Population : The high population of the region provides adequate and cheap labour.
6. Main food : Rice being the main food of a huge section of people, has high demand.
7. Infrastructure : Improved transport and communication systems, power supply, agro-based industries, etc. have boosted the cultivation of rice in this region.

Question 11.
What are the main problems of Indian agriculture?
Answer:
The main problems of Indian agriculture can be listed as follows :

1. Low yield of crops per hectare.
2. Great number of small and medium farmers as well as landless farmers.
3. Most of the farmers are not properly trained in agriculture.
4. Lack of use of modem technology in agriculture due to lack of knowledge of how to use it.
5. Lack of irrigation facilities.
6. Little use of HYV seeds.
7. Reduction of agricultural land due to high pressure of population.
8. Lack of godowns, cold storages, etc.
9. Very less amount of per capita land for agriculture.
10. Low price of agricultural product compared to cost of production.
11. Lack of loan and insurance facilities.
12. Damage of crops due to floods, droughts and other natural calamities.

Question 12.
Discuss the steps taken for improvement of agriculture in India.
Answer:
The steps taken for improvement of agriculture in India are :
(i) Increase in agricultural land : Agricultural land has been increased by bringing the barren, infertile and reclaimed lands under cultivation.
(ii) Per capita land : Per capita land of the farmers has been increased by stopping fragmentation of land and starting co-operative farming.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) 1 Mark

Question 1.
The most important rabi crop is
(A) Barley
(B) Jute
(C) Wheat
(D) Rice
Answer:
(D) Rice

Question 2.
Which region in India is known as the ‘Rice Bowl of India’?
(A) Indo-Gangetic Plain
(B) Krishna-Godavari Delta region
(C) North-east region
(D) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(B) Krishna-Godavari Delta region

Question 3.
What is the main advantage of transplantation method of sowing rice?
(A) This method ensures maximum utilisation of land
(B) It is helpful in achieving an economical use of water and a higher yield of grain
(C) It helps in early harvesting
(D) The draining of water from the field before harvesting is made easy
Answer:
(B) It is helpful in achieving an economical use of water and a higher yield of grain

Question 4.
Which of the following is the second most important crop of India?
(A) Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Jowar
(D) Bajra
Answer:
(A) Wheat

Question 5.
Wheat is not suitable for growing in the south because
(A) The winters there are too warm
(B) It is too humid in the south
(C) Rainfall is low there
(D) Dry conditions prevail in early summers
Answer:
(A) The winters there are too warm

Question 6.
The Green Revolution involved the use of high yielding varieties of seeds which require
(A) Less fertilizer and less water
(B) More fertilizer and less water
(C) Less fertilizer and more water
(D) More fertilizer and more water
Answer:
(D) More fertilizer and more water

Question 7.
The Kharif season beings
(A) With the onset of south-west monsoon
(B) At the end of the south-west monsoon
(C) In December
(D) In March
Answer:
(A) With the onset of south-west monsoon

Question 8.
Which of the following states is the leading producer of tea ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Sikkim
(C) Assam
(D) Karnataka
Answer:
(C) Assam

Question 9.
Percentage of food crops in total cropped area is :
(A) 80
(B) 75
(C) 85
(D) 70
Answer:
(B) 75

Question 10.
The crops of Kharif are :
(A) Wheat
(B) Barley
(C) Rice
(D) Peas
Answer:
(C) Rice

Question 11.
In rice production India’s position in the world is :
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fifth
Answer:
(B) Second

Question 12.
The largest producer of rice in India is :
(A) Bihar
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) West Bengal
(D) Karnataka
Answer:
(C) West Bengal

Question 13.
Cotton cultivation is widespread in Maharashtra and Gujarat, mainly because :
(A) It requires moderate rainfall
(B) It requires irrigation
(C) Regur soils retain moisture
(D) There is demand from local cotton mills
Answer:
(C) Regur soils retain moisture

Question 14.
Which of the following is the important cotton producing area of India?
(A) Indo-Gangetic Plain
(B) Deccan Trap
(C) Damodar Valley
(D) Yamuna Valley
Answer:
(B) Deccan Trap

Question 15.
Which state has the largest acreage under coffee?
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Odisha
Answer:
(A) Kerala

Question 16.
Cotton’s largest producer in India is :
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Punjab
(C) U.P.
(D) Gujarat
Answer:
(A) Maharashtra

Question 17.
India in production of cotton is :
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth
Answer:
(D) Fourth

Question 18.
Which state is first in coffee production ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Assam
(C) Odisha
(D) Karnataka
Answer:
(D) Karnataka

Question 19.
Sugarcane needs :
(A) Hot climate
(B) Cool climate
(C) Moderate climate
(D) Moist climate
Answer:
(D) Moist climate

Question 20.
The largest producer of sugarcane in India is :
(A) Bihar
(B) Punjab
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(D) Uttar Pradesh

Question 21.
Which of the following states has largest number of sugar mills ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Bihar
Answer:
(C) Uttar Pradesh

Question 22.
Assertion (A) : Production of food grains has increased in India in recent years. Reason (R) : The area under food grains has increased in recent years.
(A) A and R are correct and R explains A
(B) A and R are correct and R does not explain A
(C) A is correct but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Answer:
(C) A is correct but R is false

Question 23.
Rainfall of more than 30 cm per month for at least 3 consecutive months is suitable for the cultivation of :
(A) Paddy
(B) Sugarcane
(C) Sunn hemp
(D) Dhencha
Answer:
(A) Paddy

Question 24.
Rainfall of 10-20 cm per months for at least 3 consecutive months is suitable for the cultivation of :
(A) Bajra
(B) Wheat
(C) Pea
(D) None of these crops
Answer:
(A) Bajra

Question 25.
Large area in Gujarat, Maharashtra, A.P. and Karnataka is occupied by:
(A) Jowar
(B) Groundnut
(C) Cotton
(D) Bajra
Answer:
(A) Jowar

Question 26.
Cotton, wheat and millets are most predominant crops of regions receiving monthly rainfall during season as follows :
(A) 10-20 cm for 3-4 months
(B) 10-20 cm for 1 month
(C) 20-30 cm for 3-4 months
(D) 10-20 cm for 2 months
Answer:
(A) 10-20 cm for 3-4 months

Question 27.
Main crops of areas having rainy season during October to December are :
(A) Sugarcane, jute
(B) Paddy, cotton, millets
(C) Wheat, barley and gram
(D) Jowar, pea and lobia
Answer:
(B) Paddy, cotton, millets

Question 28.
Paddy, wheat, jowar, cotton and maize are the main crops of regions receiving monthly rainfalls of 10-20 cm and 20-30 cm for 2 months each during :
(A) Pre-monsoon
(B) Monsoon
(C) Post-monsoon
(D) Whole year
Answer:
(B) Monsoon

Question 29.
Paddy is grown as irrigated crop in areas having \mathbf{2 – 4 months rainy season from :
(A) May
(B) November
(C) September
(D) June
Answer:
(C) September

Question 30.
Major crops of the region having 6-8 months of rainy season beginning from March or April are under :
(A) Paddy and plantation crops
(B) Jute and forests
(C) Sugarcane and grasslands
(D) Tapioca and beans
Answer:
(A) Paddy and plantation crops

Question 31.
The Principal Rice Research Institute of India is located at :
(A) Patna
(B) Cuttack
(C) Kolkata
(D) Shillong
Answer:
(B) Cuttack

Question 32.
Sonalika is an important high yielding variety of :
(A) Rice
(B) Millet
(C) Wheat
(D) Tea
Answer:
(C) Wheat

Question 33.
The second largest tea producing state of India is :
(A) Assam
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Karnataka
(D)West Bengal
Answer:
(D)West Bengal

Question 34.
Tea is mainly exported through the port :
(A) Mumbai
(B) Chennai
(C) Paradeep
(D) Kolkata
Answer:
(D) Kolkata

Question 35.
Wheat cultivation requires rainfall between :
(A) 50-100 cm
(B) 100-150 cm
(C) 150-200 cm
(D) 200-250 cm
Answer:
(A) 50-100 cm

Question 36.
Rice cultivation require temperature between :
(A) 15°-20° C
(B) 20°-30° C
(C) 30°-35° C
(D) above 35° C
Answer:
(B) 20°-30° C

Question 37.
The Principal Tea Research Institute of India is located at :
(A) Kolkata
(B) Jorhat
(C) Chennai
(D) Mumbai
Answer:
(B) Jorhat

Question 38.
Cotton Research centre is located at :
(A) Kanpur
(B) Nagpur
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Coimbatore
Answer:
(B) Nagpur

Question 39.
Boll weevil, Pink boll-warm are insects of :
(A) Rice cultivation
(B) Wheat cultivation
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Cotton growing
Answer:
(D) Cotton growing

Question 40.
Central sugarcane research centre is located at :
(A) Kanpur
(B) Allahabad
(C) Lucknow
(D) Banaras
Answer:
(C) Lucknow

Fill in the blanks : 1 Mark

1. India has about ________ of the world’s rice cultivating area.
2. India has about ________ of the world’s wheat cutivating area.
3. The ideal temperature for the growth of bajra is ________ .
4. India is the ________ largest producer of jute in the world.
5. Over ________ percent of world’s cotton is produced in India.
6. The highest yield per hectare of jowar is found in the state of ________.
7. The highest yield per hectore of sugarcane has been recorded in the state of ________ .
8. ________ region is known as the rice bowl of India.
Answer:
1. 28%
2. 8%
3. 25°-35°C
4. Second
5. 8%
6. Maharashtra
7. Uttar Pradesh
8. Krishna-Godavari delta

State True or False : 1 Mark

1. The usage of black roasted tea is highest in India. [ ]
2. Coffee grows best in laterite soil. [ ]
3. Jhum cultivation is practised in the north-eastern states of India. [ ]
4. Tamil Nadu is known as the rice bowl of South India. [ ]
5. Aman rice is also known as Vadui. [ ]
6. Karnataka ranks first in highest yield of tea per hectore in India. [ ]
7. Corn is a rabi crop. [ ]
8. Saline soil is best suitable for growing tea. [ ]
9. Boll Weevil pests attack on the wheat crop. [ ]
10. Assam is famous for tea cultivation. [ ]
Answer:
1. True
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. False
6. False
7. False
8. False
9. False
10. True

Match the following : 1 Mark

immmmm
Answer:
immmmmm

Answer in few words : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Why is India called an agro-based country?
Answer:
Agriculture forms the base of the economy.

Question 2.
What kind of agriculture is seen in maximum parts of India ?
Answer:
Subsistence agriculture.

Question 3.
What leads to subsistence agriculture in India?
Answer:
High pressure of population.

Question 4.
What kind of crops are predominantly cultivated in India ?
Answer:
Food crops.

Question 5.
Which factor controls agriculture in India ?
Answer:
Monsoons.

Question 6.
What are the crops growing during summer and monsoon called ?
Answer:
Kharif crops.

Question 7.
What are the crops growing during winter called?
Answer:
Rabi crops.

Question 8.
Paddy belongs to which family of crops ?
Answer:
Grass family.

Question 9.
Where did rice originate first?
Answer:
China or India.

Question 10.
Which state produces about 15 % of rice of the country?
Answer:
West Bengal.

Question 11.
Where is the Central Rice Research Institute located?
Answer:
Cuttack, Odisha.

Question 12.
Rice is a predominant crop of which region of the earth?
Answer:
Tropical and sub-tropical region.

Question 13.
Wheat is a predominant crop of which region of the earth ?
Answer:
Temperate region.

Question 14.
Which is the best soil for growing wheat ?
Anis.
Chemozem.

Question 15.
Which state in India is the largest producer of wheat ?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh (27%).

Question 16.
Which state yields the highest amount of wheat per hectare?
Answer:
Haryana.

Question 17. Where is India’s Wheat Research Institute located ?
Answer:
Pusha, near Delhi.

Question 18.
Name some millet crops.
Answer:
Jowar, Bajra, Ragi.

Question 19.
Name a plantation beverage crop.
Answer:
Tea.

Question 20.
Which state of India ranks first in tea production?
Answer:
Assam (45%).

Question 21.
How many tea estates are there in Assam?
Answer:
About 750.

Question 22.
Which state ranks second in tea production ?
Answer:
West Bengal (20-25%).

Question 23.
Where are the tea research centres located in India ?
Answer:
Jorhat (Assam) and Coimbatore (Tamil Nadu)

Question 24.
Which is the largest coffee producing state in India ?
Answer:
Karnataka (65%).

Question 25.
Which soil is the most suitable for cultivation of cotton ?
Answer:
Black cotton soil, or regur.

Question 26.
Which is the largest cotton producing state in India ?
Answer:
Gujarat (28%).

Question 27.
Where is the Central Institute of Cotton Research located ?
Answer:
Nagpur in Maharashtra.

Question 28.
Name the countries to which India exports cotton.
Answer:
Japan, USA, Bangladesh and some European countries.

Question 29.
Name the countries from which India imports cotton.
Answer:
USA, Egypt, Iran, Sudan, Kenya, Tanzania etc.

Question 30.
To which family does sugarcane belong ?
Answer:
Grass family.

Question 31.
Which is the largest sugarcane growing state in India ?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh (45%)

Question 32.
When did the Green Revolution take place?
Answer:
1964-65.

Question 33.
Which states gave the best response to Green Revolution ?
Answer:
Punjab and Haryana.

Question 34.
Which crop gave the best result in Green Revolution ?
Answer:
Wheat.

Question 35.
Which method of farming can be used to stop fragmentation of land holdings?
Answer:
Co-operative farming.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Life Science Book Solutions Chapter 1C Response and Chemical Coordination in Animal Hormones offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1C Question Answer – Response and Chemical Coordination in Animal Hormones

Short Answer Type Questions : 2 Marks

Question 1.
How does chemical coordination takes place in animals?
Answer:
Hormones act as chemical coordinators in animals. Hormone is the chemical messenger that regulates the physiological processes in living organisms. It is secreted by ductless glands into blood stream and reaches their target site.

Question 2.
Why is the use of iodised salt advised?
Answer:
It is advised to use iodised salt to prevent goitre (enlargement of the thyroid gland). Iodine is required for the proper functioning of thyroid. Iodine stimulates the thyroid gland to produce Thyroxine hormone. This hormone regulates carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism in our body.

Question 3.
Name the hormone secreted by an endocrine gland during emergency. Vame the gland which secretes this hormone.
Answer:
Adrenaline hormone is secreted by the adrenal glands. It helps to regulate heart beat, blood pressure, metabolism in the time of stress or emergency to cope up with the situation.

Question 4.
Which hormone is injected to a diabetic patient and why?
Answer:
Hormone is released by pancreas gland which regulates the blood sugar level. In diabetic patients, pancreas has stopped releasing insulin hormone. If it is not secreted in proper amount, the sugar level in the blood rises causing many harmful effects. Due to the reason diabetic patients are treated by giving injection of insulin.

Question 5.
How does our body respond when adrenaline is secreted into the bood?
Answer:
During emergency situations, adrenaline hormone is released to blood stream in large quantitie. It increases the heartbeat and hence supplies more Oxygen to the muscles. The increase in breathing rate also increases due to contractions of diaphragm and rib muscles. It raises the blood pressure and thus enables the body to cope up with any stress or emergency.

Question 6.
Which endocrine gland is called master gland? Why?
Answer:
Pituitary gland (pea shape, present in mid-brain) is considered as master endocrine gland. It is said so because it controls almost all other endocrine glands.

Question 7.
Why is pancreas a dual gland?
Answer:
Pancreas is a dual gland because it acts as both endocrine and exocrine gland. As endocrine it secretes hormones like insulin, glucagon. As an exocrine glands, it releases enzymes like Trypsin, Lypase, Amylase etc.

Question 8.
How does our body maintain blood sugar level?
Answer:
The timing and amount of hormone released are regulated by feedback mechanisms. When the sugar levels in blood rise, they are detected by the cells of the pancreas which respond by producing more insulin. As the blood sugar level falls, insulin secretion is reduced.

Question 9.
Where Islet of langerhans is found? Name the secretion of different kind of cells of Islets?
Answer:
Islet of Langerhans is found in the endocrine cells of pancreas.
The secretion of different kinds of cells of Islets are :

• α cells – Glucagon
• β cells – Insulin
• δ cells – Somatostation

Question 10.
Define a neuron and a ganglion?
Answer:
The functional and structural unit of kindey is called neuron.
Ganglion : The cell body of large no. of nerve cells outside the CNS together form a gland like structure is known as ganglion.

Question 11.
Name one mixed endocrine gland. What are their secretion?
Answer:
Pancreas is a mixed endocrine gland. Their secretions from exocrine and endocrine are enzyms and hormones respectively.

Question 12.
What is an endocrine gland? What is the name of its secretion?
Answer:
Endocrine gland is gland from which hormones are secreted and passing through blood and lymph to the all body parts.
Hormones are secreted from endocrine gland.

Question 13.
What are the functions of tropic hormone?
Answer:
Tropic hormone : They are the hormones which are secreted from the glands and control the growth and secretion of another gland.
Functions : It controls the growth and secretion of another gland.

Question 14.
What is meant by flight-or-flight response?
Answer:
The epinephrine and norepinephrine hormones help to increase the flow of blood to the brain and muscles to inprove the ‘flight-or-flight’ response to stress.

Question 15.
State the name and one function of the hormone secreted from Islets of Langerhan’s?
The endocrine cells of pancreas is called Islets of Langerhans:
Answer:
Function (i) Glucogenolysis – Split liver glycogen and convert into glucose.

Question 16.
What is endocrine gland? Give an example.
Answer:
In higher animals including human hormones are secreted by ductless glands known as endocrine glands. Eg-Human.

Question 17.
What is diabetes mellitus?
Answer:
Diabetes mellitus is achronic, lifelong condition that affects body’s ability to use the energy found in food.

Question 18.
From where are thyroid stimulating hormone and Thyrovine secreted?
Answer:
Thyroxin is secreted from the hormone secreted by thyroid gland.

Question 19.
Write three major differences between hormone and enzyme.
Answer:
The differences between hormone and enzyme are :

Hormone	Enzyme
i. Hormone is produced by ductless endocrine glands.	i. Enzyme is produced by ducted endocrine glands.
ii. Transmitted through lymph and blood vessels.	ii. Transmitted through ducts.

Question 20.
What is the full form of IH? State one function of this hormone.
Answer:
The full form of LH is Luteinising Hormone.
One function of Luteinising Hormone is : (i) Luteinising Hormone stimulates the secrete of Progesterone from corpus luteum.

Question 21.
Why edible salt should be iodised. Sate one functional difference between Auxin and Thyroxine.
Answer:
Edible salt should be iodised because :

1. Ocean salt is with iodine but iodine is destroyed during the salt preparation.
2. Iodine is added to the salt.
3. The development of thyroid gland and secretion of T3, T4 increase if iodine is taken.

Question 22.
Which hormone prevents gluconeogenesis from protein and fat?
Answer:
Insulin prevents gluconeogenesis from protein and fat.

Question 23.
Write the name of two tropic hormones.
Answer:
Two tropic hormones are :
(i) Adreno Corticotropic Hormone
(ii) Somato Tropic Hormone.

Question 24.
Name an animal hormone which is lipid base.
Answer:
Thyroxine.

Question 25.
Give a flow chart for feedback mechanism of Thyroxine and TSH
Answer:

Long Answer Type Questions : 5 Marks

Question 1.
Why do humans need endocrinal system?
Answer:
Nervous system in human body works to communicate using nerve impulses which are formed of electrical impulses. Electrical impulses are an excellent means of communication in human body but they have following limitations.
(a) They reach only those cells that are connected by nervous tissue, not each and every cell in the animal body.
(b) Cells cannot continually create and transmit electrical impulses. Once an electrical impulse is generated in a cell and transmitted, the cell will take some time to reset its mechanisms before it can generate and transmit a new impulse.

Due to above said limitations most multicellular organisms use another means of communication between cells namely chemical communication i.e. hormone of endocrine system. It is slower than nerve cells, but potentially reach all cells of the body.

Question 2.
Point out two relevant differences between plant hormones and animal hormones.
Answer:

Plant hormones	Animal hormones
i. Plant hormones are secreted from immature meristematic tissue.	i. Animal hormones are secreted from endocrine glands.
ii. Plant hormones are acidic or alkaline in nature.	ii. Animal hormones are protein or steroid in nature.

Question 3.
Write two differences between exocrine and endocrine glands. Why is pituitary gland called “master gland”?
Answer:
The two differences between exocrine and endocrine glands are –

Exocrine Glands	Endocrine glands
i. The exocrine glands possess ducts.	i. The endocrine glands do not possess ducts.
ii. The exocrine glands secrete their secretion either on the surface or a particular region by means of ducts. e.g. salivary glands, mammary glands.	ii. The endocrine glands secrete their secretion through blood one lymph vessels. e.g : pituitary gland, thyroid gland.

Question 4.
Why is hormone called a chemical coordinator?
Answer:
Hormone is called a chemical coordinator because :

1. Hormone transmits chemical message from source organ to the target tissue and chemically coordinate cells, tissues.
2. Hormones secreted from endocrine glands contain chemicals controlled by gene.
3. Hormones coordinate different body organs by means of chemical messages.

Question 5.
Write the sources and functions of Oestrogen and Progesterone.
Answer:

Hormone	Source	Functions (one)
1. Oestrogen :	i. Graafian follicles ii. Chorionic villi of placenta iii. Adrenal cortical gland	i. In pregnancy it induces enlargement of uterus and breasts.
2. Progesterone :	i. Corpus luteum ii. Chorionic villi of placenta iii. Adrenal cortical gland.	i. In contrals growth and maintenance of endometrium of uterus.

Question 6.
Name the hormone secreted from Leydig cells and the hormone that activates the Leydig cells. Write any two functions of Oestrogen.
Answer:
The hormone which is secreted from Leydig cells is Testosterone, and the hormone that activates the Leydig cells is intestitial Cell Stimulating Hormone.
The two functions of Oestrogen :
(i) It controls the formation and maintenance of secondary sex characters.
(ii) In pregnancy, it induces enlargement of uterus and breasts.

Question 7.
The urine becomes hypotonic or hypertonic due to the influence of which hormone and how?
Answer:
The urine becomes hypertonic or hypotonic due to the influence of Adrenaline hormone.
By increasing or decreasing the renal circulation, the Adrenaline hormone causes the urine to be hypertonic or hypotonic.

Question 8.
Dite the influence of which hormones dwarfism. myxoedema, diabetes mellitus and acromegally occur? Vame two hormones that increase BMR.
Answer:
Dwarfism occurs due to the influence of somatotropic Hormone (deficiency)

• Mvoedema occurs due to the influence of Thyroxine Hormone (hyposecretion)
• Diabetes mellitus occurs due to the influence of Insulin hormone.
• Acromegally occurs due to the influence of somatotropic Hormone (Excessive secretion)

The two hormones that increase BMR are Thyroxine hormone and Adrenaline hormone.

Question 9.
Nention the places of secretion and one function of each of STH, GTH and Ndrenaline. Write any two differences between Cretinism and Dwarfism.
Answer:

Hormone	Source	Functions (one)
i. STH	Anterior Pituitary	i. STH helps in skeletal growth by stimulating multiplication of ephiphyseal cartilage present at the tip of long bones.
ii. GTH	Anterior Pituitary	ii. In females, it causes the growth of ovaries.
iii. Adrenaline	Adrenal Medulla	iii. Contraction and relaxation of heart, heart beats and cardiac outputs are increased by the action of adrenaline.

The two differences between Cretinism and Dwarfism :

Cretinism	Dwarfism
i. Cretinism is caused due to decreased secretion of thyroxine during childhood.	i. Dwarfism is caused due to the deficiency of somatotropic hormone during childhood.
ii. Congenital abnormality of thyroid gland.	ii. Abnormal secretion of pituitary gland.

Question 10.
Mention the source and one function of each of the following : Adrenaline. Thyroxine, Testosterone.
Answer:

Hormone	Source	Function
Adrenaline	Adrenal Medulla	i. Contraction and relaxation of heart, heart beats and cardiac output are increased by the action of Adrenaline.
Thyroxine	Thyroid gland	i. Thyroxine helps skeletal; muscular, sexual, mental growth.
Testosterone	Interstitial cells of leydig	i. At the time of puberty it causes the development of male secondary sex organs-seminal vesciles, penis, scrotum.

Question 11.
State three characteristics of hormones.
Answer:
The three characteristics of hormones are :

1. Hormones are complex organic compounds of low molecular weight and secreted from cells and glands.
2. Hormones are protein or steriod in nature and never stored in any other place for future use except the secreting glands or tissues.
3. Most hormones are highly soluble in nature and are conducted easily through cell sap or blood stream.

Question 12.
State the site of secretion and function of Insulin and Glucagon. In which endocrine disease BMR is low?
Answer:
Insulin :
Site of secretion : B cells of Islet of Langerhans of the pancreas.

Function :

1. Insulin increases the activity of hexokinase enzyme in the cells and thus increases the oxidation of glucose in the cell.
2. Insulin stimulates the formation and storage of glycogen in the liver and muscle taking glucose from blood.
3. The process of formation of glucose from protein, fats (gluconeogenesis)

Question 13.
What is emergency hormone? Mention its source. Why is it named so?
Answer:
Adrenaline is known as emergency hormone.
Source : The Adrenal Medulla secretes Ardrenaline.
Adrenaline is named emergency hormone because, the rate of secretion from Adrenal Medulla increases during emergent conditions such as-fear, anxiety, emotional conditions to cause widespread responses by which a subject is able to fight out the situation successfully.

Question 14.
State one function of each Oxytocin, Oestrogen, Testosterone, Secretin, Thyroxine.
Answer:
Function of Oxytocin : Oxytocin plays an important role in lactation and stimulates the contraction of pregnant uterus.
Function of Oestrogen : In pregnancy, it induces the enlargement of uterus and breasts.
Function of Testosterone : At the time of puberty, it causes the development of secondary sex organs-penis, seminal vesciles, scrotum.
Secretin : Stimulates the secretion of intestinal gland present in the inner wall of intestine.
Thyroxine : It increases the utilisation of O₂ and formation of CO₂ thus increases the rate and depth of respiration.

Question 15.
List the function of each of the following :
Answer:
(a) Growth hormone : Growth hormone helps in skeletal growth by stimulating multiplication of epiphyseal cartilage present at the tips of the long bones.
(b) Prolactin : It stimulates the development of mammary glands during pregnancy and following childbirth, the production of milk is originated by them.
(c) Follicle Stimulating Hormone : In females it helps in the maturation of immature follicles into mature follicles called Graaffian follicles.

Question 16.
Mention one functional similarity and two functional dissimilarities between nervous system and hormones in animal body.
Answer:

Nervous System	Hormones
i. Nerve acts as a coordinator in animal body.	i. Hormone acts as a coordinator in animal body.

Functional similarity between nervous system and hormones :

Nervous System	Hormones
i. Nerve acts as a physical coordinator in animal body.	i. Hormone acts as a chemical coordinator in all living bodies.
ii. Action of nervous system is very faster.	ii. Action of hormone is slow.

Question 17.
Explain the source and function of Progesterone and Testosterone in man.
Answer:

Question 18.
Why are gonads called mixed gland?
Answer:
The gonads are called mixed gland because :
(i) It has both exocrine and endocrine secretion.
(ii) It has metabolic and cytogenic activities.
Exocrine secretion : The gonads secrete sucrose, fructose and maltose.
Endocrinal secretion : The gonads secrete hormones like Testosterone by testis and Progestron, Oestrogen by Overy.

Question 19.
State the full name of ACTH, its site of secretion, function.
Answer:
The full name of ACTH is Adreno Cortico Tropic Hormone.
Site of Secretion of ACTH : Anterior Pituitary.
Functions of ACTH : (i) It stimulates the growth of adrenal cortex (ii) It stimulates the secretion of hormone from adrenal cortex.

Question 20.
State the name and two functions of the hormones secreted from Islets of Langerhans.
Answer:
Insulin is secreted from the β cells of Islets of langerhans.
Furretions of Insulin :
(i) Insulin increases the activity of the hexokinase enzyme in the cells and thus increases oxidation of glucose in the cell.
(ii) The process of formation of glucose from protein, fats, carbohydrate sources (gluoneogenesis) is inhibited by Insulin.

Question 21.
Name the antidiabetogenic hormone. Which hormone is called calorigenic hormone and why? What cause acromegally?
Answer:
The anidiabetogenic hormone is Insulin.
(i) Thyroxine hormone is called calorigenic hormone because it increases oxygen uptake and metabolism by the tissues and thus accelerates energy production i.e. B.M.R.
(ii) As Thyroxine increases the body temperature, it is known as calorigenic hormone.

Multiple Choice Questions : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Which of the following hormones is released by thyroid?
(a) Insulin
(b) Thyroxine
(c) Trypsin
(d) Pepsin
Answer:
(b) Thyroxine

Question 2.
Which of the following hormones contains iodine?
(a) Adrenaline
(b) Testosterone
(c) Thyroxine
(D) Insulin
Answer:
(c) Thyroxine

Question 3.
Which of the following is a mixed gland?
(a) Pancreas
(b) Silvery gland
(c) Liver
(d) Thyroid gland.
Answer:
(a) Pancreas

Question 4.
_______ is not secreted by an endocrine gland.
(a) Insulin
(b) Thyroxine
(c) Pepsin
(d) Adrenaline
Answer:
(c) Pepsin

Question 5.
From which endocrine gland is ACTH secreted?
(a) Adrenal
(b) Isletes of Langerhans
(c) Thyroid
(d) Insulin
Answer:
(d) Insulin

Question 6.
Which of the following hormone is a local hormone?
(a) Thyroxine
(b) Insulin
(c) Testosterone
(d) Adrenaline
Answer:
(c) Testosterone

Question 7.
Name the hormone that regulate the metamorphosis of tadpole larvae
(a) Thyroxine
(b) Insulin
(c) ADH
(d) Adrenaline
Answer:
(a) Thyroxine

Question 8.
Secretion of thyroid gland is controlled by
(a) TSH
(b) STH
(c) ACTH
(d) GTH
Answer:
(a) TSH

Question 9.
Dwarfism is due to the deficiency of
(a) ACTH
(b) Insulin
(c) GTH
(d) STH
Answer:
(d) STH

Question 10.
Which of the following endocrine gland secretes TSH
(a) Thyroid
(b) Testis
(c) Adrenal
(d) Pituitary
Answer:
(d) Pituitary

Question 11.
Which of the following endocrine gland secretes STH
(a) Thyroid
(b) Adrenal
(c) Testis
(d) Pituitary
Answer:
(d) Pituitary

Very Short Answer Type Questions : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Who coined the term hormone?
Answer:
Bayliss and Starling coined the term hormone. Both of them discovered the peptide hormone called secretin in human intestine.

Question 2.
Where are adrenal glands located?
Answer:
Adrenal glands are like caps just above the kidneys.

Question 3.
What is hyperglycemia?
Answer:
Hyperglycemia refers to high sugar level in blood. In general diabetic patients has hyperglycemia due to insufficient release of insulin hormone.

Question 4.
Where is thyroid gland located?
Answer:
Thyroid gland is situated in front of the neck below larynx.

Question 5.
From which gland is GHT secreted?
Answer:
The basophil cells of anterior pituitary.

Question 6.
Give the full name of STH?
Answer:
Somatotropic Hormone.

Question 7.
From which gland is pholactin secreted?
Answer:
Mammary gland.

Question 8.
Write the full form of ADH.
Answer:
Antidiuretic hormone.

Question 9.
Write one symptom of dwarfism.
Answer:
Below average growth, although body proportion will be normal.

Question 10.
TRH is produced from
Answer:
Thyroid gland.

Question 11.
Diabetes insipidus is caused by hyposecretion of
Answer:
ADH

Question 12.
Milk releasing hormone is
Answer:
Prolactin/Lactrotrophic hormone.

Question 13.
Which hormone is secreted from Adrenal gland?
Answer:
Adrenaline, Non-Adrenaline.

Question 14.
From where is testosterone secreted?
Answer:
Intorstitial cells of lydiag of Testes in male human.

Question 15.
Which is the synthetic hormone?
Answer:
Auxin.

Question 16.
АCTH is secreted from
Answer:
Pituitary.

Question 17.
Diabetes insipidus is caused by the deficiency of
Answer:
Insulin.

Question 18.
Glucagon is secreted from
Answer:
Islets of Langerhans.

Question 19.
Name the gland from where tropic hormones are produced
Answer:
Thyroid gland.

Question 20.
Which gland produced TSH hormone?
Answer:
Pituitary gland.

Question 21.
Enlargement of thyroid is the symptom of the disease
Answer:
Goiter.

Question 22.
Which one is mixed gland?
Answer:
Pancreas.

Question 23.
FSH is secreted from
Answer:
Graafian follicles.

Question 24.
Name the master gland of human body.
Answer:
The master gland of human body is pituitary gland.

Question 25.
Give an example of local hormone.
Answer:
An example of Local hormone is Secretin.

Question 26.
What is the source of insulin?
Answer:
The source of insulin is B cell of the Islets of langerhans of pancreas.

Question 27.
What is the source of Progesterone?
Answer:
Progesterone is secreted from corpus luteum of ovary.

Question 28.
List two symptons of myxoedema.
Answer:
Two symptoms of myxoedema are :
(i) Low Basal Metabolic Rate
(ii) Low Body temperature.

Question 29.
From where is Adrenaline secreted?
Answer:
Adrenaline is secreted from adrenal medulla.

Question 30.
Name one calorigenic hormone.
Answer:
One calorigenic hormone is Thyroxine.

Question 31.
Name the hormone secreted from Graafian Follicle of ovary in adult female.
Answer:
The hormone which is secreted from the Graafian Follicle of ovary in adult female is oestrogen.

Question 32.
Why is pancreas called a mixed gland?
Answer:
Pancreas is a mixed gland because it contains both exocrine and endocrine parts. Pancreas produces hormones besides having metabolic and cytogenic activities.

Question 33.
Which hormone helps in elongation of internodes of plant stem?
Answer:
Auxin helps in the elongation of internodes of plant stem.

Question 34.
Iodine is essential for which animal hormone?
Answer:
Iodine is essential for thyroid hormone (Thyroxine)

Question 35.
Which hormone helps in the formation of placenta in women?
Answer:
Oxytocin helps in the formation of placenta in women.

Question 36.
Name two hormones secreted from posterior pituitary. Give the full form of ICSH.
Answer:
The two hormones which are secreted from posterior pituitary are :
(i) Antidiuretic hormone or Vasopressin
(ii)-Oxytocin.
The Full from of ICSH – Interstitial Cell Stimulation Hormone.

Question 37.
Why does hypofunction of thyroid cause anaemia?
Answer:
Thyroid hormone helps in the development of R.B.C. That is why the hypofunction of thyroid causes aneamia.

Question 38.
Which hormone helps in the production of sperms?
Answer:
Follicle Stimulating Hormone helps in the production of sperms.

Question 39.
Write the position of pituitary gland in human.
Answer:
The pituitary gland is located under the brain, within the small bony cavity, sella turcica of the sphenoid bone. Inside bony cavity, sella turcica and hanged with infundibulum of anterior part of human brain.

Question 40.
State the effects of-
Answer:
(a) Hypofunction of STH in children : Causes Dwarfism.
(b) Hyperfunction of STH in children : Causes Gigantism.
(c) Hyposecretion of Insulin : Cauces Diabetes mellitus.

Question 41.
From which gland is the Testosterone hormone secreted?
Ins.
Testosterone is secreted from the Testis.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 6 Satellite Imagery and Topographical Map offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Question Answer – Satellite Imagery and Topographical Map

Answer in short : 2 Marks

Question 1.
Name the three phases in preparing satellite imageries.
Answer:
Space segment, sensor segment and ground segment.

Question 2.
What is the importance of topographical maps ?
Answer:
Topographical maps give a pictographic representation of the original region with the help of various signs and symbols. It helps to understand the correlation between physical and cultural features of the area.

Question 3.
What is the main difference in preparing a topographical map and satellite imagery?
Answer:
Satellite imageries are prepared from photos taken by satellite sensors. Topographical maps are prepared by field survey.

Question 4.
What do you mean by ‘grand samples’ or ‘reference data’?
Answer:
To extract useful informations from satellite imageries, some information needs to be collected from the ground itself. This is known as ‘ground samples’ or ‘reference data’.

Question 5.
Mention the steps in acquiring satellite imageries.
Answer:
The steps in acquiring satellite imageries are :

1. Collection of ground samples
2. Image acquisition
3. Processing of satellite imagery
4. Creation of map.

Question 6.
What is a topographical map ?
Answer:
The map that represents the physical as well as cultural features of a place at a time with the help of certain colours and conventional symbols, is called a topographical map.

Question 7.
Where is blue colour used in a toposheet ?
Answer:
Blue colour is used in a toposheet to represent perennial rivers, tanks, reservoirs, ponds etc.

Question 8.
Where is red colour used in a toposheet ?
Answer:
In a toposheet red colour is used to represent roads and settlements.

Question 9.
What are satellite imageries?
Answer:
The images prepared by information sent by the satellites imageries. These are prepared by reading and representing the signals sent by the satellites with the help of high technological know-how.

Question 10.
What is a sensor?
Answer:
A sensor is a specialised camera that is installed in a satellite in order to take photographs of the earth.

Question 11.
What is a platform ?
Answer:
The place where the artificial satellite is installed in space, is called a platform. Question 12. How many kind of sensors are there?
Answer: Sensors can be of two kinds – the active sensors and the inactive sensors.

Question 13.
What are active sensers?
Answer:
The sensors that work on their own to generate energy and capture photograps of any item or a region, are called active sensors. Eg-Radar, Radio meter, Ledon, etc.

Question 14.
What are inactive sensors?
Answer:
The sensors that depend on the reflection of sunlight for preparation of images are called inactive sensors. They do not possess any electro-magnetic force. EgPhotographic camera, electronic camera, multispectral camera, etc.

Question 15.
What is Remote sensing ?
Answer:
Remote sensing is the method of collecting information of a place or region without physically reaching there.

Question 16.
What is Landsat?
Answer:
Landsat is a very special kind of satellite launched by the NASA, USA. So far, 8 satellites of this series have been launched. (Landsat 1-8). Landsat 1 was launched in 1972 and Landsat 8 was launched in 2013.

Question 17.
What is IRS ?
Answer:
IRS stands for Indian Remote Sensing Satellite. So far, 20 satellites have been launched by India for preparing satellite imageries and other purposes, of which 11 are of IRS series. The latest of this series launched in 2013 is SARAL.

Question 18.
What do you mean by False Colour Composite or FCC ?
Answer:
The satellite imageries represent the various features of the earth’s surface (rivers, forest, roadways, railways, etc.) in different colours other than their original natural colours. This is known as False Colour Composite. Initially they may seem to confuse, but actually they help to bring out the details of a region more accurately.

Answer in brief : 3 Marks

Question 1.
What are the merits of satellite imageries ?
Answer:
The merits of satellite imageries are :

1. They can give synoptic view of the earth (23 cm × 23 cm maps) as well as represent huge areas (30,000 sq km)
2. Information of resources and physical processes working in rugged and difficult terrains can be acquired easily.
3. Clear images can be taken ever under cloud cover.
4. Information collected is digital and that can be easily analysed by computers.
5. Weather forecasts can be gathered.

Question 2.
What are the demerits of satellite imageries?
Answer:
The demerits of satellite imageries are :

1. Images cannot be taken in cloud cover without microwave sensors.
2. Critical survey of very minute areas is not possible.
3. Actual size or height of an object cannot be determined accurately.
4. Similar objects lying side by side are difficult to assess.
5. The whole process of acquiring images is very expensive:

Question 3.
What are the characteristics of topographical maps ?
Answer:
Topographical maps are a special type of maps, where physical and man made features are shown together. The characteristics are :

1. They are prepared in precise scales. Hence location and size of objects can be represented accurately.
2. Relief and drainage patterns are represented along with the cultural features like settlements, schools, temples, mosques, railway lines, PO etc. This helps to understand the correlation between physical and cultural features.
3. The economic conditions of a region can be understood.

Question 4.
What are the characteristics of satellite imageries?
Answer:
The characteristics of satellite imageries are:

1. They can supply complete weather information and imagery of a full hemisphere at a time.
2. Imageries can also be obtained in segments for detailed descriptions.
3. They help in resource surveys.

Question 5.
What are the uses of satellite imageries?
Answer:
The different uses of satellite imageries are:

1. They are used for weather forecasting.
2. They are used to monitor agricultural yield and their quality.
3. They help to gather information about other planets and special objects in order to conduct advanced researches on them.

Question 6.
Mention the various scales on which topographical maps may be constructed.
Answer:

Question 7.
List the importances of toposheets.
Answer:
The importances of toposheets are:

1. It helps to understand and study the physical characteristics of the region.
2. It helps to understand and analyse the different cultural features (roads, settlements, etc.) of the same area with respect to physical features.
3. It helps to plan for economic development.
4. It helps to analyse the relation between man and nature.

Question 8.
What are the characteristics of a topographical map representing a plain area?
Answer:
The characteristics of a topographical sheet representing a plain area are :

1. The contour value is around 100 m, and the contour lines are placed far away from each other.
2. Lesser number of contour lines seen on the map area.
3. The rivers are usually perennial and meandering. They contain sandbars and may cause flood.
4. Forest were hardly present. Much areas lie under agriculture.
5. All kinds of transport and communication are available.
6. Huge population and large settlements are seen in the junctions or nodal points.

Question 9.
What are the characteristics of topographical sheets representing plateau areas?
Answer:
The charateristics of topographical sheets representing plateau area are :

1. The contour value lies between 300-900 m and they are medium areas.
2. The rivers are straight in the hilly region and start meandering beyond that.
3. Numerous non-perennial rivers can be seen spreading like branches of trees.
4. Badlands, monadnocks, alluvial caves, mountain ridges, etc. can be seen.
5. Dense reserves and protected forests can be seen.
6. Small clusters of settlements in the plain regions and dispersed settlements in hilly regions are seen.

Question 10.
What are the characteristics of topographical sheets representing hilly regions.
Answer:
The characteristics of topographical sheets representing hilly regions are :

1. The contour values lies above 900 m. and are closely spaced. They look like concentric circles.
2. Conical hills, dormal hills, I and V shaped Valleys, cliffes, spurs, ridges, etc. can be seen.
3. In maps of glacial regions, presence of morain can be seen.

Question 11.
Name the features usually shown in a topographical map.
Answer:
The features represented in a topographical map are :

1. Relief – Relative height, slope, ruggedness, landform.
2. Rivers – Main and tributary rivers, drainage patterns, drainage density.
3. Vegetation – Natural forests, Protected and Reserved forests.
4. Settlements – Settlement patterns, density of settlements.
5. Transport and communications – Railways, roadways, telegraph and telephone lines, etc.

Question 12.
What is a Transect Chart ?
Answer:
Transect chart is an illustration drawn based in the topographical map, representing the relation between physical and cultural or man made features of the same region. They help in understanding the inter-relationship between the physical and cultural features. They also help in planning for development of the area.

Question 13.
What is Spectral Resolution?
Answer:
In Satellite imageries, the images created by the refracted light rays from the space coming perpendicular to the earth’s surface are called ‘Spectral Resolution’.

Question 14.
What is Spatial resolution?
Answer:
In satellite imageries, the images created by the refracted light rays falling horizontally on any place or item on the earth’s surface, are called spatial resolution.

Answer in details : 5 Marks

Question 1.
State the differences between satellite imageries and topographical maps.
Answer:

Satellite imageries	Topographical maps
i. Prepared from photos captured by satellite sensors.	i. Prepared by field survey.
ii. Represent landforms and other features as they look originally.	ii. Represent landforms and other features by conventional symbols.
iii. Images of difficult terrains can be taken easily.	iii. Very difficult to conduct survey on rugged terrain.
iv. Modern concept depending on sophisticated technology.	iv. Traditional way of mapping a surveyed area.
v. Special training is needed to read satellite imageries.	v. Knowledge of conventional signs is enough to understand topographical maps.
vi Takes much less time for preparation.	vi. Takes much time in survey and preparation of maps.
vii. Quite expensive.	vii. Comparatively less expensive.
viii. Weather conditions influence quality of images.	viii. Weather conditions to do influence the quality of maps.
ix. Digital images are acquired.	ix. Normal maps are prepared.
x. Images are used for study of regions as well as weather forecasting.	x. Only study of regions is possible. No weather forecasting is possible in this system.

Question 2.
Discuss the steps in acquiring satellite imageries.
Answer:
The different steps in acquiring satellite imageries are :
i. Collection of ground samples : To extract useful information from satellite imageries, some information needs to be collected from the ground itself. This is called ‘ground samples’ or ‘reference data’ of ‘field data’. This helps to verify what the satellite sensors are detecting.

ii. Image acquisition : Images are captured by the desired sensor chosen as per requirements.
iii. Processing of satellite imagery : Once the imagery is acquired, analysts typically go through a series of steps to prepare imagery for analysis.
iv. Creation of map : Once the mathematical relationship between the satellite data and the field data has been developed, it is applied to all pixels in the imagery to create a map. These maps are then put into the Geographical Information System (GIS).

Question 3.
Discuss the importances of Satellite imageries.
Answer:
The importances of satellite imageries are:

1. Satellite imageries give every detail of a region with maximum accuracy.
2. Information regarding landform, slope, ruggedness, presence of resources, etc. can easily available from satellite imageries.
3. The imageries can be acquired for multiple uses.
4. They are prepared very fast and are very useful.
5. In order to prepare the imageries, we don’t need to go physically to original places.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) 1 Mark

Question 1.
Satellite imageries are produced in India by
(A) ISRO
(B) NATMO
(C) ISI
(D) IIRS
Answer:
(A) ISRO

Question 2.
Information gathered by satellites are
(A) Digital
(B) Mechanical
(C) Thematic
(D) IIRS
Answer:
(A) Digital

Question 3.
Images cannot be taken in cloud cover without
(A) Solar cells
(B) Microwave sensors
(C)Flood lights
(D) Mathematical
Answer:
(B) Microwave sensors

Question 4.
The actual height of places above sea land are represented by
(A) Spot height
(B) Layer colouring
(C) Hectre
(D) Contours
Answer:
(A) Spot height

Question 5.
In a topographical map, relief is shown by
(A) Layering
(B) Hachuring
(C) Hill shading
(D) Contours
Answer:
(D) Contours

Question 6.
In a topographical map, settlements are represented by ___ colour.
(A) Red
(B) Black
(C) Brown
(D) Green
Answer:
(A) Red

Question 7.
Which one is used for storing data in computers?
(A) Magnetic tape
(B)VDU
(C) Floppy disc
(D) Joy Stick
Answer:
(D) Joy Stick

Question 8.
Satellite imageries are produced in USA by
(A) ISRO
(B) SPOT
(C) LANDSAT
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) LANDSAT

Question 9.
The term ‘Topography’ has originated from
(A) Greek
(B)Spanish
(C) French
(D) Latin
Answer:
(A) Greek

Question 10.
The physical and cultural characteristics of a place can be known from a
(A) Mouza map
(B) Topo map
(C) Weather map
(D) Political map
Answer:
(B) Topo map

Question 11.
The term ‘Topography’ means
(A) Description of river
(B) Discription of region
(C) Political conditon
(D) Description of weather
Answer:
(B) Discription of region

Question 12.
Topographical maps are read with the help of
(A) Graph
(B) Colours
(C) Conventional symbols
(D) Scale
Answer:
(C) Conventional symbols

Question 13.
The lines that represent height in a topographical map are called
(A) Contours
(B) Isobars
(C) Isohyets
(D) Isotopes
Answer:
(A) Contours

Question 14.
The contours in a topomap are drawn in
(A) Blue
(B) Black
(C) Red
(D) Brown
Answer:
(D) Brown

Question 15.
R.F. of a degree sheet of map is
(A) 1: 10,00,000
(B) 1: 2,50,000
(C) 1: 1,00,000
(D) 1: 50,000
Answer:
(B) 1: 2,50,000

Question 16.
Height of any place measured from the Mean Sea Level is called
(A) Point
(B) Spot height
(C) Bench Mark
(D) Survey station
Answer:
(D) Survey station

Question 17.
The total number of topographical maps constructed to represent the whole earth is
(A) 2232
(B) 2222
(C) 2322
(D) 3222
Answer:
(B) 2222

Question 18.
The contour interval in a topomap is
(A) 1 m or 5 m
(B) 10 m or 20 m
(C) 30 m or 50 m
(D) 50 m or 100 m
Answer:
(B) 10 m or 20 m

Question 19.
The 4° × 4° maps are called _____ in India.
(A) Inch sheet maps
(B) Degree sheet maps
(C) Foot sheet maps
(D) Million sheet maps
Answer:
(D) Million sheet maps

Question 20.
Satellite imageries are captured with the help of
(A) Camera
(B) Light
(C) Rays
(D) Sensors
Answer:
(D) Sensors

Question 21.
The location where the artificial satellites are set in the space is called
(A) Spot
(B) Sensor
(C) Platform
(D) Location
Answer:
(C) Platform

Question 22.
A satellite imagery is a
(A) Picture of the satellite
(B) Picture of the earth
(C) Picture of space
(D) Picture constructed with the help of information collected by the satellite.
Answer:
(D) Picture constructed with the help of information collected by the satellite.

Question 23.
What is the scale of a map representing 2 cm to 1 km ?
(A) 1: 10,000
(B) 1: 20,000
(C) 1: 50,000
(D) 1: 1,00,000
Answer:
(C) 1: 50,000

Question 24.
With the help of what does the sensor of a satellite take the photos of the surface?
(A) Rotation
(B) Oxygen
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Radiated heat
Answer:
(D) Radiated heat

Question 25.
An example of a sensor used in satellites is
(A) MISS
(B) LISS
(C) DISS
(D) TISS
Answer:
(B) LISS

Question 26.
The electro-magnetic waves that help satellites to capture photographs is received from the
(A) Moon
(B) Earth
(C) Sun
(D) Electric current
Answer:
(C) Sun

Question 27.
Remote Sensing was started in India in
(A) 1952
(B) 1962
(C) 1972
(D) 1982
Answer:
(B) 1962

Question 28.
The National Remote Sensing Agency (NRSA) is located in India in
(A) Kolkata
(B) Delhi
(C) Bhopal
(D) Hyderabad
Answer:
(D) Hyderabad

Question 29.
Blue colour in a topographical map depicts
(A) Settlement
(B) Water bodies
(C) Forest
(D) Hills
Answer:
(B) Water bodies

Question 30.
In a 1: 50,000 toposheet, the map number can be like
(A) 45 D/10
(B) 45 D
(C) 45 NW
(D) 45 SE
Answer:
(A) 45 D/10

Question 31.
The Map no. of the toposheet is written in the
(A) NE and SW of the map
(B) Middle of the map
(C) Top left side of the map
(D) Bottom left side of the map
Answer:
(A) NE and SW of the map

Question 32.
The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of a Million Sheet map is
(A) 4° latitude × 4° longitude
(B) 30′ latitude × 30′ longitude
(C) 1° latitude × 1° longitude
(D) 2° latitude × 2° longitude
Answer:
(A) 4° latitude × 4° longitude

Fill in the blanks : 1 Mark

1. Geostationary satellites are placed in an orbit at an altitude of _______ above the equator.
2. _______ satellites are mostly used for weather forecasting and communication purposes.
3. If the scale of the map is 1 cm = 1 km, the R F will be _______.
4. If the scale of the map is 2 inches to one mile, the R F will be _____.
5. Aerial photography came into practice in ________.
6. LISS-I, LISS-II and LISS-III are _______.
7. The inclination of the axis of the camera between _______ and angular position is known as tilt.
8. Photo images are drawn through aeroplanes on ________ projection.
Answer:
1. 36000 km
2. geostationary
3. 1: 1,00,000
4. 1: 31680
5. 1839
6. Sensors
7. Vertical
8. Central

State True or False : 1 Mark

1. The international series of topographical maps are also known as inch sheets. [ ]
2. The height of a place measured with respect to the sea level is known bench mark. [ ]
3. Larger the scale, smaller is the map. [ ]
4. NOAA is an artificial satellite. [ ]
5. OSM is the ‘Open Series Map’ [ ]
Answer:
1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True

Answer in few words : 1 Mark

Question 1.
What is the phase of sending the satellite to space and settling it in orbit called?
Answer:
Space segment.

Question 2.
What is the phase where the cameras in the satellite sense and take photographs of the target region?
Answer:
Sensor segment.

Question 3.
What is the phase where the satellite imagery is prepared finally?
Answer:
Ground segment.

Question 4.
What kind of features does a topographical map represent?
Answer:
Natural as well as artificial features.

Question 5.
Who produces topographical maps in India ?
Answer:
The Survey of India.

Question 6.
Where is the head office of the Survey of India located ?
Answer:
Dehradun, Uttaranchal.

Question 7.
What is a ‘Statement scale’ ?
Answer:
A scale where the ratio between ground distance and map distance is put in a statement.

Question 8.
What is a ‘Representative Fraction’?
Answer:
A scale where the relation between the ground distance and map distance is represented by a ratio. e.g. 1: 50,000

Question 9.
What is a linear scale?
Answer:
A graphical representation of the scale mentioned in statement or ratio.

Question 10.
What are the type of different satellite imageries ?
Answer:
Geo-stationary satellite and Sun-synchronus satellite.

Question 11.
What scale map is a topographical map?
Answer:
Large scale map.

Question 12.
Which maps are constructed with the help of conventional symbols that are common internationally?
Answer:
Topographical maps.

Question 13.
How are perennial rivers represented in a toposheet?
Answer:
With the help of blue colour.

Question 14.
How are non-perennial rivers represented in a toposheet?
Answer:
With the help of black colour.

Question 15.
Which colour represents roads and settlements in a toposheet?
Answer:
Red.

Question 16.
How is height represented in a toposheet?
Answer:
With contour lines drawn in brown.

Question 17.
What is represented by yellow colour in a toposheet?
Answer:
Agricultural land.

Question 18.
Which concern controls artificial satellites in India ?
Answer:
ISRO.

Question 19.
LISS, PAN, WiFS etc. are names of what ?
Answer:
Sensors used in satellites.

Question 20.
What are maps representing small areas on large paper called ?
Answer:
Large scale maps.

Question 21.
What are maps representing huge areas on small paper called ?
Answer:
Small scale maps.

Question 22.
What are the cameras used in satellites called ?
Answer:
Scanners.

Question 23.
When was INSAT 1A launched ?
Answer:
10th April, 1982.

Question 24.
What is a Radar?
Answer:
An active sensor of a satellite.

Question 25.
What is the smallest bit of a soft copy called ?
Answer:
Pixel.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 5.10 Transport and Communication System in India offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 5.10 Question Answer – Transport and Communication System in India

Answer in short: 2 Marks

Question 1.
List the different modes of transport.
Answer:
Roadways, railways, waterways, ropeways, pipelines, underground railways.

Question 2.
What is the Golden Quadrilateral ?
Answer:
The four important metropolitan cities of India, i.e. Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata have been inter-connected by four 6-lane National Highways. This is known as the Golden Quadrilateral. The total length of the Highways is 5,846 km.

Question 3.
What is the North-South Corridor?
Answer:
The National Highway that connects Srinagar in the north to Kanyakumari in the south, via Salem and Cochin, is known as the North-South Corridor. This is about 4000km long.

Question 4.
What is the East-West Corridor?
Answer:
The National Highway that connects Silchar (Assam) in the east to Porbandar (Gujarat) in the west is known as the East-West Corridor. This is about 3,300 km long.

Question 5.
What are inland waterways?
Answer:
Inland waterways lie within the country and connect various places through rivers, lakes, ponds or other waterbodies within the country.

Question 6.
What are international waterways ?
Answer:
International waterways connect two or more countries across the sea or ocean or along a river.

Question 7.
What is the importance of ropeways ?
Answer:
Ropeways help to connect two different places in a hilly region lying in two different hills. This reduces the physical distance between the places and also reduces the efforts of going upslope and downslope from one place to another.

Question 8.
What is the importance of pipelines?
Answer:
Pipelines help to transport liquid items, eg – mineral oil from mine areas to factories or from oil tanker ships to storage places can be done by pipelines. This reduces the risk of wastage and accidents.

Question 9.
What is the use of underground railways ?
Answer:
Underground railways, also known as tube railways or metro railways help to connect short distances through underground railway tracks. They are very fast and sophisticated.

Question 10.
What do you mean by communication?
Answer:
Communication refers to the process of getting in touch with people without actually moving from one place to another. This can be done with the help of telephone, radio, television, fax, internet, newspaper etc.

Question 11.
What are the different uses of cell phones?
Answer:
Cell phone is a modem mode of communication. It is portable to use and easy to handle. It can be used for calling, messaging, radio and television services, camera, GPS etc.

Question 12.
Name the different fields where internet can be used.
Answer:
Internet can be used in education, culture, medical treatment, trade, commerce, political issues etc. Internet helps to bring the world at the door steps.

Question 13.
What do you mean by transport ?
Answer:
The method of movement of goods and passenger from one place to another by physical displacement is called transport.

Question 14.
What are International roadways?
Answer:
Roadways that lie across the boundaries of adjacent or neighbouring countries are called International roadways.
e.g. :Kolkata-Dhaka roadway,
Raxaul-Kathmandu roadway,
Lahore-Amritsar – Delhi roadway, etc.

Question 15.
Classify the different type of roads found in India.
Answer:
(a) National highways
(b) State highways
(c) District road
(d) Village roads
(e) Border roads
(f) Expressways
(g) International roads.

Question 16.
What is the North-South Corridor?
Answer:
The North-South corridor is the National highway of India that connects Sri Nagar in the North to Kanyakumari in the south, touching Kochi and Salem. It runs for about 4000km.

Question 17.
What is the East-West corridor ?
Answer:
The East-West corridor is the National Highway that connects Porbandar in Gujarat in the west to Silchar in Assam in the east. It runs for about 3,300km.

Question 18.
How many trains ply in India per day?
Answer:
By 2013-14 Railway year book, in India, more than 21,000 trains ply daily, of which 13,000 are passenger trains.

Question 19.
How many passengers travel by trains everyday in India ?
Answer:
In India, according to 2013-14 Railway year book, about 2 crore 30 lakh passengers travel by trains everyday and reach more than 8,000 stations.

Question 20.
What is ‘Shipping Lane’ ?
Answer:
The particular routes taken by the cargo ships while transporting goods through the oceans are called ‘shipping lanes’.

Question 21.
What is ‘Shipping Line’ ?
Answer:
The companies whose ships and vessels ply in the oceans are called ‘Shipping lines’.

Question 22.
What kind of inland waterways are seen in India ?
Answer:
(a) Riverways
(b) Canals
(c) Lakes.

Answer in brief : 3 Marks

Question 1.
State the economic importances of transportation system.
Answer:
The economic importances of transport system are:

1. Utilisation of natural resources,
2. Movement of agricultural and industrial raw materials to factories and the finished products to markets,
3. Internal and international trade,
4. Increase of national income,
5. Regional specialisation of economic activities and employment etc.

Question 2.
What are the political importances of transport system ?
Answer:
The political importances of transport system are :

1. Security of the country,
2. National integration,
3. Rescue during disasters and accidents and distribution of food and relief,
4. Connecting remote comers of the country to developed areas to bring about overall development.

Question 3.
What are the social importances of transport system ?
Answer:
The social importances of transport system are :

1. Exchange of culture and education,
2. Urbanization and improvement of standard of living,
3. Removal of regional disparities.

Question 4.
List the importances of roadways.
Answer:
The importances of roadways are :

1. Different type of roads can be built to connect difficult and inaccessible regions.
2. They are beneficial for short distances.
3. Building and maintenance cost of roadways is lower than other modes.
4. Different types of vehicles can ply on roads.
5. They can be used anytime.

Question 5.
List the importances of railways.
Answer:
The importances of railways are :

1. Railways are faster than roadways and save time,
2. They help to connect distant places,
3. They can carry huge amount of goods and huge number of passengers at a time,
4. Once established, cost of maintenance is less,
5. They help to transport industrial and agricultural raw material as well as finished products,
6. They help to increase National income.

Question 6.
What are the advantages of waterways ?
Answer:
The advantages of waterways are:

1. They are cheap and have no cost of maintenance except dredging occasionally,
2. Huge volume of cargo can be transported at a time,
3. They enable national and international trade, exchange of culture and cordial relations with other countries,
4. The cause minimum pollution.

Question 7.
What are the importances of airways ?
Answer:
The importances of airways are:

1. They are the fastest mode of transport,
2. They can connect far off lands inspite of difficult terrain or presence of oceans in between.
3. They help in intemational trade, commerce, exchange of culture and maintaining cordial relations amongst countries.

Question 8.
What is internet?
Answer:
Internet is a mode of communication which connects the whole world like a net through computers. It is very useful in searching information of any kind through websites, sending letters or other information through e-mails, contacting several people throughout the world at a time through social network sites, etc. It is very helpful in education, culture, medical treatment, trade, commerce, political issues etc. Internet has helped to bring the world at the door steps.

Question 9.
List the problems of roadways in India.
Answer:
The various problems of roadways in India are :

1. Construction and maintenance of roadways incur a lot of cost.
2. India being a country of numerous rivers, cost of constructing roads increases manifolds for constructing bridges, lockgates and culverts over rivers.
3. Most of the roads are highly curved and not enough wide.
4. Road conditions become poor during the rainy season.
5. Traffic jams created on roads result in wastage of time, energy and money.
6. Roadways need constant maintenance and attention in order to give proper service.

Question 10.
What are the importances of ropeways?
Answer:
The importances of ropeways are :

1. This is very suitable for hilly regions and mine areas.
2. They attract many tourists in hill stations and act as a good source of national income.
3. Ropeways save both time and energy while transporting goods or passengers.
4. Trade and commerce through ropeways become very easy.
5. Relief materials can be sent very fast through ropeways during disasters and calamities.

Question 11.
List the importances of pipelines.
Answer:
The importances of pipelines are :

1. Pipelines are used to transport liquid materials like water, oil, natural gas, acids, etc. in different parts of India.
2. Pipelines can be constructed in landmass as well as in water bodies.
3. Pipelines save time and money for transportation.
4. Wastage of goods or resources is minimum.
5. Cost of maintenance is also low.

Question 12.
What are the problems of transportation through pipelines ?
Answer:
The problems of transportation through pipelines are :

1. Primary cost of construction is high.
2. Each type of product must be transported in a different pipeline.
3. Only liquid materials can be transported.
4. Lack of resources may keep the pipelines unused for long times.
5. Pumping machines and generators are needed.
6. Difficulties arise in repairing the pipelines constructed underground.

Answer in details : 5 Marks

Question 1.
Compare the roadways to railways.
Answer:

Roadways	Railways
i. They are the oldest mode of transport.	i. They have been developed after roadways.
ii. They are easy to build.	ii. They are difficult to build.
iii. Less cost of building and maintenance.	iii. High cost of building but less cost of maintenance once built.
iv. Many types of vehicles can ply.	iv. Only trains can ply.
v. Can be used at any time.	v. Trains ply at fixed times.
vi. Suitable for short distances.	vi. Suitable for long distances.
vii. Suitable for small bulk of goods and passengers.	vii. Suitable for huge bulk of goods and passengers.
viii. Used to connect different modes of transport as well.	viii. Does not connect different modes of transport.
ix. Comparatively slower.	ix. Comparatively faster.

Question 2.
Compare between transport by airways and waterways.
Answer:

Airways	Waterways
i. Fastest mode of transport.	i. Slowest mode of transport.
ii. High cost of aircrafts and fuel but no cost of maintenance of the airways.	ii. High cost of vessels and fuel but no cost of maintenance except dredging at times.
iii. Bulk of cargo and passengers can be transported.	iii. Bulk of Cargo and passengers is much more than airways.
iv. Very costly.	iv. Comparatively cheap.
v. Suitable for prishable products.	v. Not suitable for perishable products.
vi. Causes air pollution.	vi. Level of pollution is very less.
vii. Requires huge vaccant lands for constructing runways and terminals.	vii. Requires land only for construction of the ports, but usually vast warehouses and godowns are built nearby.

Question 3.
Discuss the role of transport system in the economic development of a country.
Answer:
Transport is a very impertant service sector that plays an immense role in the economic development of the country.

1. It helps to transport excess agricultural products to regions of scarcity.
2. Success of any type of agriculture depends much on transport system.
3. Transport plays an important role in modernisation of agriculture.
4. Decentralisation of different activities and organisations is dependent on transport.
5. It helps to increase national income.
6. It helps in collection of revenue from different sectors.
7. It helps in mobilising labour.
8. It helps in management and spread of an industry worldwide.
9. It helps in globalisation of different products.
10. It helps in coming up of new settlements and urbanization of rural areas.
11. It helps to remove regional disparities and inequalities.
12. Administrative works become easy with the help of population.
13. Transport system helps to maintain National Integration.

Question 4.
Describe the Golden Quadrilateral.
Answer:
The quadrilateral created by joining the four metropolitan cities of India i.e., Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai by roadways, is called the golden quadrilateral. The project was taken up by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAl) in 1999 on 2nd January. The main aim of the project was to construct 6-lane roads connecting these cities. Length of the roads constructed between the cities is as follows :

1. Delhi to Mumbai – 1419km.
2. Mumbai to Chennai -1240km.
3. Chennai to Kolkata – 1668km.
4. Kolkata to Delhi – 1453km. The project was completed in 2011.

Question 5.
Differentiate between the Transport system and the Communication system.
Answer:

Transport System	Communication System
i. Physical displacement of goods and passengers occur.	i. No physical displacement of goods and passengers.
ii. Deals with transport of goods and people only.	ii. Deals with exchange of news, informations, orders, decisions, etc.
iii. Several means of communication are – bus, lorry, train, tram, boat, ship, rocket, helicopter, etc.	iii. Several means of communication are – post, telephone, telegraph, telex, mobile phone, internet, e-mail, etc.
iv. A comparatively slow system.	iv. A comparatively fast system.
v. Chances of accident is very high.	v. Chances of accident is almost negligible.
vi. Cost of transportation is high.	vi. Cost of communication is quite low.

Question 6.
What are the problems of airways in India?
Answer:
The different problems of airways in India are :

1. Number of air routes in India is quite less.
2. Airways do not yet connect all the countries of the world to India.
3. Many big cities are not connected with airways.
4. The huge cost of air transport keep the common people away from it.
5. The airways are often not fed with other connecting transport systems adequately.
6. The fuel used in aircrafts is not available in India in huge amounts. It has to be imported.
7. The Indian airways companies face tremendous competition from the international airways companies.
8. Number of modern aircrafts and multi-speciality airports is quite less.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Transport is needed to carry
(A) Goods
(B) Passengers
(C) Goods and passengers
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Goods and passengers

Question 2.
The oldest mode of transport is
(A) Railways
(B) Roadways
(C) Airways
(D) Waterways
Answer:
(B) Roadways

Question 3.
National Highways run between
(A) States
(B) Districts
(C) Metropolitans
(D) Towns
Answer:
(A) States

Question 4.
The National Highways connect
(A) Districts
(B) Cities
(C) Countries
(D) States
Answer:
(D) States

Question 5.
The National Highway connecting Srinagar and Kanyakumari is called the
(A) Golden triangle
(B) East-West corridor
(C) North-South corridor
(D) Bermuda triangle
Answer:
(C) North-South corridor

Question 6.
International waterways are found in
(A) Oceans
(B) Lakes
(C) Rivers
(D) Ponds
Answer:
(A) Oceans

Question 7.
National waterways are actually
(A) International waterways
(B) Inland waterways
(C) Local waterways
(D) Seaways
Answer:
(B) Inland waterways

Question 8.
The most speedy mode of transport is
(A) Ropeway
(B) Airway
(C) Railway
(D) Roadway
Answer:
(B) Airway

Question 9.
There are – international airports in India
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 13
Answer:
(C) 12

Question 10.
The Indira Gandhi International Airport is in
(A) Mumbai
(B) Kolkata
(C) Chennai
(D) Delhi
Answer:
(D) Delhi

Question 11.
The Chhatrapati Shivaji International airport is in
(A) Mumbai
(B) Delhi
(C) Kolkata
(D) Chennai
Answer:
(A) Mumbai

Question 12.
The ropeways are best for
(A) Plains
(B) Plateaus
(C) Hilly regions
(D) Deserts
Answer:
(C) Hilly regions

Question 13.
Which is a mode of communication ?
(A) Radio
(B) Car
(C) Airport
(D) Railway station
Answer:
(A) Radio

Question 14.
Internet works through
(A) Newspapers
(B) Computers
(C) GPS
(D) E-mails
Answer:
(B) Computers

Question 15.
The most recent mode of communication is
(A) Internet
(B) Roadways
(C) Radio
(D) Fax
Answer:
(A) Internet

Question 16.
The best mode of transport to cover long distances over land is :
(A) Roadways
(B) Railways
(C) Airways
(D)Waterways
Answer:
(B) Railways

Question 17.
In length of railways in the world, India ranks :
(A) 1 st
(B) 2 nd
(C) 3 rd
(D) 4 th
Answer:
(D) 4 th

Question 18.
The longest railways in India is :
(A) Northern railway
(B) Southern railway
(C) Eastern railway
(D) Western railway
Answer:
(A) Northern railway

Question 19.
Railways were started in India in :
(A) 1850
(B) 1851
(C) 1852
(D) 1853
Answer:
(D) 1853

Question 20.
Total length of railways in India is :
(A) 64,000km
(B) 65,000km
(C) 66,000km
(D) 67,000km
Answer:
(B) 65,000km

Question 21.
Head Quarters of Indian railway is located in :
(A) Delhi
(B) Kolkata
(C) Mumbai
(D) Bangalore
Answer:
(A) Delhi

Question 22.
The head quarters of Eastern railway is located in :
(A) Kolkata
(B) Bhubaneswar
(C) Guwahati
(D) Asansol
Answer:
(A) Kolkata

Question 23.
The headquarters of Western railway is located in :
(A) Bhopal
(B) Delhi
(C) Goa
(D) Mumbai
Answer:
(D) Mumbai

Question 24.
The longest National Highway of India is :
(A) NH-1
(B) NH-7
(C) NH-5
(D) NH-2
Answer:
(B) NH-7

Question 25.
The state highways are maintained by :
(A) Central govt.
(B) State govt.
(C) Local govt.
(D) Municipality
Answer:
(B) State govt.

Question 26.
The North-South corridor joins Srinagar with :
(A) Kanyakumari
(B) Digboi
(C) Chennai
(D) Vizag
Answer:
(A) Kanyakumari

Question 27.
Number of state highways present in West Bengal is :
(A) 12
(B) 15
(C) 17
(D) 19
Answer:
(D) 19

Question 28.
The length of inland waterways in India is :
(A) 14,500km
(B) 15,000km
(C) 15,500km
(D) 16,000km.
Answer:
(A) 14,500km

Question 29.
The largest port of India is :
(A) Kolkata
(B) Chennai
(C) Kandla
(D) Mumbai
Answer:
(D) Mumbai

Question 30.
The tax-free port of India is :
(A) Murmagaon
(B) Kochi
(C) Kandla
(D) Vizag
Answer:
(C) Kandla

Question 31.
The main tea exporting port of India is
(A) Paradweep
(B) Kandla
(C) Vizag
(D) Kolkata
Answer:
(D) Kolkata

Question 32.
A totally hightech and computer controlled port of India is
(A) Navseva
(B) Kolkata
(C) Murmagaon
(D) Chennai
Answer:
(A) Navseva

Question 33.
Metro rail runs in how many cities in India ?
(A) 8
(B) 7
(C) 6
(D) 5
Answer:
(C) 6

Question 34.
The busiest road of India is :
(A) NH-7
(B) G. T. Road
(C) NH-34
(D) NH-35
Answer:
(B) G. T. Road

Question 35.
The highest road of the world is :
(A) NH-7
(B) NH-2
(C) Leh-Lasa road
(D) Jammu-Kashmir road
Answer:
(C) Leh-Lasa road

Question 36.
The longest navigable river of India is :
(A) Ganga
(B) Brahmaputra
(C) Indus
(D) Godavari
Answer:
(A) Ganga

Question 37.
Highest density of roadways is in :
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Gujarat
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
(A) Maharashtra

Question 38.
Movement of goods and passengers from one place to another is called:
(A) Communication
(B) Movement
(C) Travel
(D) Transport
Answer:
(D) Transport

Question 39.
The northern and southern corners of India are connected by the :
(A) National Highways
(B) North-South corridor
(C) East-West corridor
(D) Golden Quadrilateral
Answer:
(B) North-South corridor

Question 40.
The eastern and western corners of India are connected by the
(A) Golden Quadrilateral
(B) East-West Corridor
(C) National highways
(D) District roads
Answer:
(B) East-West Corridor

Question 41.
The first metro rail in India was started in
(A) Delhi
(B) Bangalore
(C) Mumbai
(D) Kolkata
Answer:
(D) Kolkata

Question 42.
The largest national waterway of India is
(A) Brahmaputra waterway
(B) Allahabad Haldia waterway
(C) Mahanadi waterway
(D) Ernakulam-Kollam waterway
Answer:
(B) Allahabad Haldia waterway

Question 43.
The longest pipeline of India is between
(A) Nunmati-Siliguri
(B) Hajira-Vijaypur – Jagdishpur
(C) Barauni-Haldia
(D) Kandla-Mathura
Answer:
(B) Hajira-Vijaypur – Jagdishpur

Question 44.
Lowest transport cost is incurred by :
(A) Railways
(B) Roadways
(C) Waterways
(D) Pipelines.
Answer:
(D) Pipelines.

Question 45.
The office of the Inland Waterways Authority of India is located in :
(A) Kolkata
(B) Allahabad
(C) Noida
(D) Delhi
Answer:
(C) Noida

Fill in the blanks : 1 Mark

1. The ________ air transport in India provides off-shore and on-shore services to ONGC.
2. ________ is the deepest land-locked and protected port in India.
3. The National Highway ________ is known as the Sher Shah Suri Marg.
4. The Indian Railways are the ________ largest railway system in the world running with electricity.
5. The Indian railways have been divided into ________ zones.
Answer:
1. Pawan Hans
2. Vishakhapatnam
3. NH-1
4. Fourth
5. 18

State True or False : 1 Mark

1. The most important commodity in India’s internal trade is coal. [ ]
2. The Kolkata port is famous for exporting iron ore. [ ]
3. The Jawaharlal Nehru port is a port functioning with modern technologies. [ ]
4. The Namma Metro plies in Hyderabad. [ ]
5. Computers are the means of modern communication system. [ ]
Answer:
1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True

Answer in few words : 1 Mark

Question 1.
What do you mean by ‘Transportation’?
Answer:
Movement of goods and people from one place to another.

Question 2.
Name the different modes of land surface transport.
Answer:
Roadways, railways.

Question 3.
Which is the oldest mode of transport?
Answer:
Roadways.

Question 4.
What are International waterways ?
Answer:
Waterways that connect two or more countries across the sea or ocean or along a river.

Question 5.
Name some major seaports of India.
Answer:
Vizag, Chennai, Paradweep, Mumbai, Kandla, Kochi etc.

Question 6.
Name the airport in Kolkata.
Answer:
Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose International Airport.

Question 7.
What are underground railways also called ?
Answer:
Tube railways or metro railway.

Question 8.
Name some modes of communication.
Answer:
Telephone, radio, television, fax, internet, newspaper etc.

Question 9.
How do mobiles or internet communicate from one place to another?
Answer:
Through satellites.

Question 10.
What are letters written through internet called?
Answer:
e-mail.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 5.6 Natural Vegetation of India offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 5.6 Question Answer – Natural Vegetation of India

Answer in short : 2 Marks

Question 1.
Where wet deciduous forests are found in India ?
Answer:
Lower slopes of the Himalayas, Assam, West Bengal, Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka and the adjoining regions.

Question 2.
Mention the climatic conditions where dry deciduous forests grow.
Answer:
Dry deciduous forests are mostly found in areas having a mean annual temperature of 23°-27° C, an annual rainfall for 50-100 cm and humidity ranging from 51% to 58%.

Question 3.
Where tidal forests are found in India ?
Answer:
In India, Mangrove forests are found in Sundarbans (WB), the Mahanadi delta, Godavari delta, Krishna delta, Cauvery delta and the coasts of Andaman and Nicobar islands.

Question 4.
What is Social forestry?
Answer:
Social forestry is defined as ‘Forestry outside the conventional forests’. The barren or infertile lands near about villages are converted to forest lands after treating the soil. The villagers take care of the forest and plant trees of their choice, in order to meet their daily needs.

Question 5.
What is Agro-forestry?
Answer:
Agro-forestry is any sustainable land-use system that maintains or increases total yields by combining food crops with tree crops and livestock on the same land, either alternately or at the same time. This system is adopted for both ecological as well as economic benefits.

Question 6.
Name the major types of forest found in India.
Answer:
Major types of forest found in India are Tropical evergreen rain forests, Tropical deciduous forests [sub-divided into Dry deciduous and Wet deciduous], Semi desert and desert vegetation, Tidal or mangrove forests and Mountain forests.

Question 7.
What is a forest?
Answer:
Presence of a huge number of trees of different or same species in a particular area is known as a forest.

Question 8.
What is natural vegetation?
Answer:
Vegetation that grows with the help of natural entities like soil, water, sunlight, CO_2, without the interference of man, is known as natural vegetation.

Question 9.
Where are evergreen forests found in India ?
Answer:
Evergreen forests are found in India in :

1. Andaman and Nicobar islands.
2. Western slope of western ghats.
3. The north-eastern hilly region.
4. Terai-Duars region at the foothills of Himalaya.

Question 10.
Why have evergreen forests grown in the western slopes of the western ghats?
Answer:
The western slopes of the Western Ghats receive about 300-400 cm of rainfall from the Arabian Sea branch of the south-west monsoon. Thus this region is suitable for the growth of evergreen trees.

Question 11.
Why is there very little coniferous forests in India ?
Answer:
The main climatic condition needed for coniferous forests is long chilling winters and short cool summers. Only a few places in India enjoy this kind of a climate. Eg.- Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Sikkim, Darjeeling district of West Bengal. Hence, amount of coniferous forests in India is quite less.

Question 12.
Why does Jammu possess dense forests while Ladakh is bare, even though both are situated in the same state?
Answer:
Jammu and Ladakh both lie in the state of Kashmir. Jammu lies in the windward slope of the Pir Panjal range. It receives enough rainfall and hence has dense forests. On the other hand, Ladakh lies in the leeward side and rainshadow area of the mountains. Hence, vegetative growth is very less here due to lack of rainfall.

Question 13.
Where do coniferous forests lie in India ?
Answer:
Coniferous forests are found in India in the Eastern Himalayas (3000-4000 m) as well as the Western Himalayas (2000-4000 m).

Question 14.
Name some coniferous trees.
Answer:
Pine, fir, deodar, spruce, laurel, willow, elm, silver fir, etc.

Question 15.
What is ‘Green gold’?
Answer:
The Himalayan mountains are covered with dense forests from 500-4000 m altitude. This region is a very important part of the environment as it houses numerous rare and important species of plants and huge biomass. Thus, this forest is known as the ‘Green gold’.

Question 16.
What do you mean by conservation of forests ?
Answer:
The process of scientific and rational utilisation of forests and forest products along with securing them for future use by the next generations is called conservation of forests.

Question 17.
What do you mean by ‘Forest Management’ ?
Answer:
Maintenance of forests by government’s forest workers, NGOs and the local people together for a common interest, is known as ‘Forest Management’.

Question 18.
Name some trees of the evergreen forests of the tropical regions.
Answer:
Mehogany, Chaplas, Sissoo, Garjan, Rubber, Rosewood, Iron wood, Ablus etc.

Question 19.
Name some trees of the Tropical wet deciduous forests.
Answer:
Sal, Teak, Mango, Peeple, Neem, Kendu, Khayer, Arjun, Siris, Sandal wood, Palash, Mahua etc.

Question 20.
Name some tropical desert plants.
Answer:
Babul, Khayer, Palm, Cactus, Acacia etc.

Question 21.
What are Alpine meadws?
Answer:
The long stretches of grasslands that grow in the Himalayas at an altitude of 3,500-5,000 m are called Alpine meadows. They grow in the region between the tree line and the permafrost region.

Answer in brief : 3 Marks

Question 1.
What are the characteristics of wet deciduous or monsoon type forests?
Answer:
The characteristics of monsoon type or wet deciduous forests are :
(i) The trees shed their leaves in the dry season and grow new leaves by the rainy season.
(ii) Majority of the trees are broad-leaved and yield hard-wood.

Question 2.
What are the characteristics of Dry deciduous forests or scrubs?
Answer:
The characteristics of Dry deciduous forests are :

1. These forests consist of stunted trees and bushes which are widely scattered.
2. They fade away into scrubs and thorny bushes that are typical of desert region.
3. Trees are only 6 to 10 m high.
4. They have long roots which enable them to obtain water from deep underground.

Question 3.
Describe the desert and semi-desert vegetation.
Answer:
(i) The type of vegetation is thorny shrubs and bushes. These are called Xerophytic plants and have adaptations to withstand drought.
(ii) Some short coarse grasses grow here and there, where conditions are more drought like.

Question 4.
Describe the growth of tidal forests.
Answer:
Tidal forests or mangroves flourish in tide washed coastal areas where mud and silt have accumulated. The trees have different adaptations to support them in the wet soil. Eg – stilt roots, prop roots, buttress roots. Some breathing roots also pop out of the soil to allow the roots to acquire oxygen from the air.

Question 5.
What kind of forests grow on mountainous regions above 1500 m height?
Answer:
On mountainous regions above 1500 m height, temperate conifer trees such as pine, fir, oak, maple, deodar, laurel, spruce and cedar grow. At the yet higher altitudes, plants like rhododendrons and junipers are found. Beyond these vegetation belts, alpine grasslands appear upto the permanent snowfields.

Question 6.
List the regions where Wet deciduous forests grow in India.
Answer:
The various areas where Wet deciduous forests grow in India are :

1. Terai-Duars region at the foothills of the Himalaya.
2. Eastern slope of the Western Ghats.
3. Chotanagpur plateau.
4. Plains of the Western coasts
5. Plains of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Telengana. Karnataka and Kerala.

Question 7.
Name the areas where Dry deciduous forests grow in India.
Answer:
In India, Dry deciduous forests grow in :

1. Rain shadow area of the Western Ghats.
2. Highlands of Central India.
3. Eastern parts of Aravalli range.
4. Upper Ganga and Sutlej basins.
5. Several parts of the peninsular plateau.

Question 8.
List the regions where mangrove forest is found in India.
Answer:
In India, mangrove forest is found in :

1. Sundarban in the delta region of river Ganga.
2. Pimbavaram near Chidambaram of Tamil Nadu.
3. Bhitarkanika of Odisha in the Mahanadi delta.
4. Godavari and Krishna delta regions in Andhra Pradesh.
5. Cauvery delta region in Tamil Nadu.
6. Malabar coast of Kerala.
7. Kutch region of Gujarat.
8. Lower Luni valley of Rajasthan.
9. Khambat region of Gujarat.
10. Andaman and Nicobar islands.

Question 9.
Name the different trees found in different forests of the Himalayan region.
Answer:

Type of forest	Trees
i. Evergreen	Birch, maple, ash, chestnut, poplar, walnut, ablus, alder, chaplas, etc.
ii. Mixed deciduous	Sal, teak, sissoo, bamboo, cane, garjan, jarul, etc.
iii. Coniferous	Pine, fir, oak, birch, deodar, cedar, poplar, rhododendron, nuxvomica, magnolia, etc.
iv. Alpine	Grasslands and bushy trees like juniper, rhododendron, etc.

Question 10.
Where is desert vegetation found in India? Name the main species of trees.
Answer:
Desert vegetation is found in India in :

1. Thar desert region of Rajasthan.
2. Kutch and Kathiawar regions of Gujarat.
3. Deserted or arid regions of South Punjab.

The main species of trees are-khayer, babul, date palm, cactus, different kinds of grasses and bushy plants, etc.

Answer in details : 5 Marks

Question 1.
Describe briefly the forests of India.
Answer:
Forests in India can be broadly classified as follows:
i. Tropical Evergreen rainforests : These forests grow in regions of temperature 25°-27° C and rainfall 200-300 cm. These are very dense forests with tall broad leaved trees, and thick undergrowth. These forests are difficult to exploit for commercial purposes. Main species are – rosewood, iron wood, champa, gurjan chaplas etc. They are found in the windward slopes of western ghats, hilly regions of north-east India, West Bengal and Odisha.

ii. Tropical deciduous forests :
(a) Wet deciduous or monsoon type forests : This grows in regions of temperature 26°-27° C, rainfall 100-200 cm and humidity 60-80%. Majority of trees are broad-leaved and yield valuable hard wood. They shed their leaves in the dry season. Main species are teak, sal, sandalwood, deodar, bluegum, ebony, sisam, palash, arjun etc. They are found in the lower slopes of the Himalayas, Assam, West Bengal, Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka and adjoining areas.

(b) Dry deciduous forests : They are found in regions having temperature of 23°-27° C, rainfall 50-100 cm and humidity 51%-58%. These forests consist of stunted trees (6 to 10 m) and bushes that fade away into scrubs and thorny bushes. They have long roots that draw water from deep underground. Main species are – babul, wild palm, acacia etc.

iii. Semi desert and desert vegetation : These vegetations grow in very hot and arid regions with rainfall less than 50 cm. The trees are mostly thorny shrubs that can withstand drought. Some short coarse grass are also found. Main species are – cactus, babul, acacia etc. They are mostly found in Rajasthan, parts of Gujarat, Punjab etc.

iv. Tidal forests : They grow on the tide washed coastal plains where there is accumulation of mud and silt. They are also called Mangroves. They have supporting as well as breathing roots to help them survive in the soft moist and saline soil. Main species are sundari, keora, garan, hetal, hogla etc. They are found in the Sundarbans (WB) and deltas of rivers Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Cauvery and along the coast of Andaman and Nicobar islands.

v. Mountain forests : Mountain forests vary according to altitude (a) On the foothills of Himalayas upto 1500 m, evergreen trees such as sal, teak, bamboo and cane grow abundantly.

(b) On higher slopes of 1500 m-3500 m, temperature conifer trees like pine, fir, oak, maple, deodar, laurel, spruce, cedar etc grow. At higher altitudes, rhododendrons and junipers are found. Beyond this, the alpine grasslands appear and fade away near the permanent snow fields.

Question 2.
List the different uses of forests.
Answer:
The different uses of forests are :

1. Forests help to maintain the ecological balance of the earth.
2. Forests are the houses of numerous species of plants, animals, insects, birds etc.
3. The trees provide wood for various construction, industrial and domestic purposes.
4. They provide raw materials for paper, matchstick, cardboard, furniture and other industries.
5. Apart from wood, forests also provide with useful items like leaves, roots, gums, raisins, nuts, fruits etc.
6. Forests provide employment to many people directly and indirectly.

Question 3.
What is Forest Conservation ? What is its need ?
Answer:
‘Forest Conservation’ refers to the proper and need based utilisation of forests without hampering the environment and the species of plants and animals residing there. The needs for Forest conservation are :

1. To reduce soil erosion
2. To control floods and droughts
3. To control spread of deserts
4. To control global warming
5. To maintain the ecologial balance.
6. To conserve the species of plants and animals and prevent their extinction.

Question 4.
What methods can be taken up for Forest Conservation ?
Answer:
The different methods that can be taken up for forest conservation are :

1. Afforestation or re-planting of trees after deforestation, especially on hill slopes.
2. Prevention of felling of immature trees.
3. Converting forests into Reserve Forests in order to preserve flora and fauna.
4. Controlled grazing of animals on grasslands so that small and young plants and new grass are not hampered.
5. Protection from forest fires by removing dry branches and leaves.
6. Use of substitute fuel other than wood.
7. Use of modern equipments in felling of trees, so that other trees are not hampered.
8. Enactment of laws to prevent indiscriminate felling of trees.
9. Taking up programmes like ‘Van Mahotsav’ and planting of new saplings.
10. Increasing public consciousness.
11. Proper utilisation of forest resources without westage.

Question 5.
Differentiate between Social forestry and Agro-forestry.
Answer:

Social forestry	Agro-forestry
i. Barren and discarded land beyond the forested areas are taken care of by NGOs, voluntary organisations and local people to plant trees and grow a new forest.	i. Barren or infertile lands belonging to farmers are taken care of to grow trees for wood, green manure medicinal plants, fruits etc.
ii. Creation of new forests help to control soil erosion, maintain ecological balance, reclaim infertile land, supply useful forest products etc.	ii. Use of barren and infertile land belonging to farmers help in making the land economically fruitful. It also increases soil fertility, supplies important daily needs, prevents soil erosion, meets demand for fire wood, supplies fodder for animals etc.
iii. Such forests are grown in discarded lands beside agricultural plots, along railway lines and roadways, along river valleys, in religious places, schools, offices, etc. in burial grounds, crematories etc.	iii. Such forests are grown in the lands belonging to the farmers themselves, which have become infertile and unproductive.
iv. It is a co-operative and joint venture of NGOs, voluntary organisations and local people.	iv. It is generally a personal or social venture.
v. Available products are fruits, roots, fire wood, animal fodder, honey, wax, lax etc.	v. Available products are fire wood, wood for furniture, green manure, medicines, fruits etc.

Question 6.
Describe the characteristics of the evergreen forests.
Answer:
The characteristics of the evergreen forests are :

1. The trees do not shed their leaves altogether in one season. Hence the forest appears evergreen.
2. The forest is very dense.
3. The trees are very tall and highly branched.
4. The leaves of the trees are broad, thick and dark green in colour.
5. The trees occur in different layers in the forest, starting from tall trees to creepers.
6. The leaves create a canopy over the head of the forest and allow very little light to penetrate the forest.
7. The forest is moist and dingy. It holds the highest variety of flora and fauna.

Question 7.
Describe the characteristics of Wet deciduous forests.
Answer:
The characteristics of wet deciduous forests are :

1. The trees shed their leaves altogether in the dry season. Hence they are called deciduous.
2. The woods acquired from the deciduous trees are hard and highly valuable.
3. Most of the trees have straight trunks that are smooth and plain. But some trees may have rough surface of trunks.
4. The trees are highly branched.
5. Age rings are prominent in the trunks of the trees.

Question 8.
Describe the characteristics of Dry deciduous forests.
Answer:
The characteristics of dry deciduous forests are :

1. The main type of Vegetation found here is grasslands.
2. The trees are of short height (6-10 m tall).
3. The trees shed their leaves in the dry season.
4. The forest is bushy.
5. The forest is not dense and the trees are distributed haphazardly here and there.
6. These forests are known as Savannah forests of the Deccan plateau region of India due to predominance of grasslands.
7. The wood collected is mostly used as fire wood.
8. Sabai grass found here is used for making paper.
9. Leaves of several plants have much economic importances. Ex- Kendu leaves are used to make ‘biris’. Sal leaves are used to make plates and bowls.
10. Different kinds of raisins and gums are acquired from these forests.

Question 9.
What are the characteristics of desert vegetation of the tropical region?
Answer:
The charackeristics of tropical desert vegetation are :

1. The trees are provided with thorns and the leaves are usually very small.
2. The roots are very long in order to collect water from deep down into the soil.
3. Most of the trees have juicy stems and contain chlorophyll.
4. Average height of the trees is 6-10 m. They are mostly bushy in nature.
5. Most of the trees have leaves and branches covered or coated with cuticle, so as to prevent excess loss of water through transpiration.

Question 10.
Discuss about the mangrove forests found in India.
Answer:
Mangrove forests exist in the hot tropical and sub-tropical climatic regions along the coastal regions. The regions which receive 150 cm of rainfall and 26°-28° C temperature and are influenced by tides twice a day are most suitable for the growth of mangrove forests.
Characteristics :

1. The soil remains moist due to tidal action. Hence the trees are evergreen.
2. The trees grow several supporting roots like stilt roots, prop roots and buttress roots to hold them upright in the soft, moist soil.
3. The trees are also provided with breathing roots that pop out of the soil to trap oxygen directly from the air.
4. The trunks are juicy and are highly branched.
5. The trees are medium tall, woody and sometimes bushy.

Question 11.
Discuss the influence of climate on the natural vegetation in India.
Answer:
Climate plays the most important role in creating the natural vegetation of a region. The distribution of natural vegetation in India according to climatic conditions is discussed below :
i. High temperature and high rainfall : Evergreen forests grow in regions of temperature 20°-30° C and average rainfall of 200 cm. The regions of such forests are- (i) North eastern hilly region, (ii) Terai-Duars region of the foot hills of Himalaya, (iii) Andaman and Nicobar islands. (iv) Western slopes of Western Ghats.
Main species : Sissoo, Garjan, Rosewood, Mehogani, Chaplas, Iron Wood, Bamboo, Rubber, etc.

ii. High temperature and moderate rainfall: The regions having average temperature of 20°-30° C and average rainfall of 100-200 cm have deciduous types of forests. Regions : (i) Eastern slopes of Western Ghats, (ii) Madhya Pradesh, (iii) Jharkhand, (iv) Chattisgarh, (v) Uttar Pradesh, (vi) Odisha etc. Main species : Sal, Shimul, Teak, Mahua, Palash, Banyan, Peepal, etc.

iii. High temperature and low rainfall : The regions having average temperature of 25°-30° C and average rainfall 50-100 cm have grassland type of vegetation with short and bushy trees. Regions : (i) eastern parts of Rajasthan, (ii) Kutch and Kathiawar regions of Gujarat, (iii) Rain shadow areas of the Westen ghats. Main species : Sabai grass, other bushy trees.

iv. High temperature and very low rainfall : The region having average temperature around 40° C and average rainfall below 50 cm have desert type of vegetation with scarce distribution of thorny bushes.
Region : This kind of vegetation is seen in the Marusthali region of Rajasthan. Main species : Babul, Acacia, Cactus, etc.

v. Difference in rainfall according to altitude : In the mountainous region of the Himalayas, temperature goes on decreasing with increase in altitude. Also, distribution of rainfall varies with altitude. The series of forests thus developed from lower to higher altitudes are – Evergreen forests, Deciduous forests, Coniferous forests and Alpine forests till the treeline is reached.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) : 1 Mark

Question 1.
The minimum forest cover necessary to maintain ecological balance is
(A) 50% of the total land area
(B) 40% of the total land area
(C) 33% of the total land area
(D) 25% of the total land area
Answer:
(C) 33% of the total land area

Question 2.
Which state in India has the largest area under forests ?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Assam
Answer:
(B) Madhya Pradesh

Question 3.
How much area of the country is under forest :
(A) 23 per cent
(B) 25 per cent
(C) 30 per cent
(D) 40 per cent
Answer:
(A) 23 per cent

Question 4.
Coniferous forests in India are :
(A) 3 per cent
(B) 5 per cent
(C) 7 per cent
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) 3 per cent

Question 5.
Coniferous forests in India are found in :
(A) The Himalayas
(B) The Nilgiri Hills
(C) Annamalai Hills
(D) Western Ghats
Answer:
(A) The Himalayas

Question 6.
Broad leaf forests in India are :
(A) 75 per cent
(B) 97 per cent
(C) 90 per cent
(D) 80 per cent
Answer:
(B) 97 per cent

Question 7.
Largest non-reporting area in India is in
(A) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Nagaland
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Mizoram
Answer:
(A) Jammu and Kashmir

Question 8.
Of the total reporting area in the India the area under forests consitutes
(A) 21.6%
(B) 12.8%
(C) 10.7%
(D) 43.2%
Answer:
(A) 21.6%

Question 9.
The name of mangrove forest of the Ganga delta is
(A) Bhitarkanika
(B) Cudappa forest
(C) Sundarban
(D) Bharatnagar
Answer:
(C) Sundarban

Question 10.
Sundarban in West Bengal is the habitat of
(A) The tiger
(B) The elephant
(C) The lion
(D) The deer
Answer:
(A) The tiger

Question 11.
Kaziranga National Park is in
(A) Bihar
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Assam
(D) Manipur
Answer:
(C) Assam

Question 12.
Tropical Deciduous forests are found in areas of rainfall per year.
(A) 25 to 50 cm
(B) 50 to 100 cm
(C) 100 to 200 cm
(D) More than 200 cm
Answer:
(C) 100 to 200 cm

Question 13.
Lowland grasses occur in the plains of
(A) Punjab
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
(A) Punjab

Question 14.
The ‘Nilgiri and Annamalai Hills’ have got :
(A) Tropical type of Vegetation
(B) Deciduous forests
(C) Coniferous forests
(D) Evergreen forests
Answer:
(D) Evergreen forests

Question 15.
In India about _____ of the total land area is under forests.
(A) 50%
(B) 27%
(C) 22.3%
(D) 29%
Answer:
(C) 22.3%

Question 16.
The object of ‘Van Mahotsava’ in India is the____
(A) Cultivation of a large belt of trees
(B) To worship the trees
(C) To show reverence to the trees
(D) To stop felling the trees
Answer:
(A) Cultivation of a large belt of trees

Question 17.
________ is an evergreen tree
(A) Sissoo
(B) Teak
(C) Palash
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Sissoo

Question 18.
________ trees grow over the chotanagpur plateau
(A) Deciduous
(B) Evergreen
(C) Coniferous
(D) Alpine
Answer:
(A) Deciduous

Question 19.
Mangrove trees are found in the
(A) Deltas
(B) Deserts
(C) Plains
(D) Mountain
Answer:
(A) Deltas

Question 20.
In the Evergreen Forests, rainfall should be
(A) Scanty
(B) Heavy
(C) Moderate
(D) Altogether sparse
Answer:
(B) Heavy

Question 21.
Forest is a resource.
(A) Non renewable
(B) Renewable
(C)Fund
(D) Flow
Answer:
(B) Renewable

Question 22.
The lowest forest cover is seen in
(A) Asia
(B) Africa
(C) North America
(D) South America
Answer:
(A) Asia

Question 23.
The Bhitarkanika forest in Odisha is famous for
(A) Equatorial trees
(B) Coniferous trees
(C) Dry deciduous trees
(D) Mangrove trees
Answer:
(D) Mangrove trees

Question 24.
The state of India under largest forest cover is
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Chattisgarh
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
Answer:
(A) Madhya Pradesh

Question 25.
Highest percentage of forest is seen in
(A) Manipur
(B) Sikkim
(C) Nagaland
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer:
(B) Sikkim

Question 26.
Forest is a __________ resource.
(A) Social
(B) Personal
(C) National
(D) International
Answer:
(C) National

Question 27.
Mangrove forests are seen in
(A) Polar regions
(B) Desert regions
(C) Hilly regions
(D) Coastal regions
Answer:
(D) Coastal regions

Question 28.
__________ is called a natural sponge.
(A) Marshlands
(B) Forests
(C) Deserts
(D) Ozone layer
Answer:
(B) Forests

Question 29.
Type of forests found in saline soil is
(A) Mangrove
(B) Tundra
(C) Mediterranean
(D) Coniferous
Answer:
(A) Mangrove

Question 30.
Most of India’s forest cover is
(A) Evergreen
(B) Deciduous
(C) Bushy
(D) Coniferous
Answer:
(B) Deciduous

Question 31.
Gewa trees belong to
(A) Mangroves
(B) Deserts
(C) Deciduous forest
(D) Alpine forests
Answer:
(A) Mangroves

Question 32.
In India, the Forest Research Centre is in
(A) Dehradun
(B) Jodhpur
(C) Kolkata
(D) Indore
Answer:
(A) Dehradun

Question 33.
Type of forest found at the foothills of the Himalayas is
(A) Deciduous
(B) Evergreen
(C) Bushy
(D) Coniferous
Answer:
(B) Evergreen

Question 34.
Type of forest found in the rain shadow area of Western Ghats is
(A) Mangrove
(B) Coniferous
(C) Alpine
(D) Grasslands
Answer:
(D) Grasslands

Question 35.
In the Himalayan range, above 400 m altitude lies the
(A) Coniferous forest
(B) Alpine forest
(C) Mangrove forest
(D) Evergreen forest
Answer:
(D) Evergreen forest

Question 36.
In the Himalayan range, above 3000-4000 m lies the
(A) Deciduous forest
(B) Coniferous forest
(C) Alpine forest
(D) Mangrove forest
Answer:
(B) Coniferous forest

Question 37.
Type of Vegetation found in Andaman and Nicobar islands is
(A) Evergreen
(B) Deciduous
(C) Cactus
(D) Coniferous
Answer:
(A) Evergreen

Question 38.
Natural vegetation is mostly controlled by
(A) Relief
(B) Soil
(C) River
(D) Climate
Answer:
(D) Climate

Question 39.
An example of a coniferous tree is
(A) Pine
(B) Ebony
(C) Garan
(D) Sal
Answer:
(A) Pine

Question 40.
Wet deciduous forest is seen in an area of rainfall
(A) 200 cm
(B) 100-200 cm
(C) 50-100 cm
(D) 25-50 cm
Answer:
(B) 100-200 cm

Question 41.
The vegetation found in deserts is
(A) Halophytes
(B) Cactus
(C) Deciduous
(D) Evergreen
Answer:
(B) Cactus

Question 42.
Mangrove forests grow in Sundarbans due to
(A) Laterite soil
(B) Black soil
(C) Saline soil
(D) Red soil
Answer:
(C) Saline soil

Question 43.
Vegetation found in the chotanagpur plateau region is
(A) Evergreen
(B) Deciduous
(C) Coniferous
(D) Desert Type
Answer:
(D) Desert Type

Question 44.
The north eastern hilly region is covered with
(A) Evergreen forests
(B) Deciduous forests
(C) Alpine forests
(D) Mangrove forests
Answer:
(A) Evergreen forests

Question 45.
The type of forest found in the plateau region of West Bengal is
(A) Evergreen
(B) Dry deciduous
(C) Mangrove
(D) Wet deciduous
Answer:
(B) Dry deciduous

State True or False : 1 Mark

1. Champa, toon, garjan, etc. trees are mostly found in West Bengal and Assam. [ ]
2. Selva-type of vegetation is found in Orissa. [ ]
3. The largest reserve of Sal is found in the forests of the peninsular India. [ ]
4. Acacia, Euphorbia and Tamarix plants are caracteristic of hill forests. [ ]
5. The natural vegetation in the Deccan plateau is mainly controlled by rainfall. [ ]
6. Blood-worts are mostly found in western Himalayas. [ ]
7. The tropical plants which need continuous high temperature for growth are called microtherms. [ ]
8. Tamarix is a common plant of deciduous forests. [ ]
Answer:
1. True
2. False
3. False
4.False
5. True
6. True
7. False
8. False

Match the following :

List I	List II
A. Tropical evergreen forest	1. Andaman Island
B. Monsoon forest	2. Mizoram
C. Dry Savanna	3. South-West Andhra Pradesh
D. Mangrove	4. Sahyadris

Answer:

List I	List II
A. Tropical evergreen forest	2. Mizoram
B. Monsoon forest	4. Sahyadris
C. Dry Savanna	3. South-West Andhra Pradesh
D. Mangrove	1. Andaman Island

Answer in few words : 1 Mark

Question 1.
What do you mean by natural vegetation?
Answer:
Vegetation that grows with the help of soil, water, sunlight and other physical environment, without the interference of man.

Question 2.
Name some evergreen trees.
Answer:
Rosewood, champa, gurjan, chaplas, sissoo, iron wood, etc.

Question 3.
Mention the required rainfall and temperature levels for wet deciduous forests.
Answer:
Temperature 26°-27° C, rainfall 100-200 cm.

Question 4.
What are the main trees of wet deciduous forests ?
Answer:
Teak, sal, sandalwood, deodar, sisam, jackfruit, mahua, palash, arjun, bamboo etc.

Question 5.
Where are dry deciduous forests found in India ?
Answer:
Central deccan plateau, south-east of Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana, Parts of Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh.

Question 6.
What is the other name of Tidal forests ?
Answer:
Mangrove forests or Littoral forests.

Question 7.
Name some mangrove trees.
Answer:
Sundari, keora, goran, gewa, hogla, golpata, etc.

Question 8.
Where is semi-desert vegetation found in India ?
Answer:
Rajasthan, parts of Gujarat, Punjab, Karnataka.

Question 9.
Which factors influences natural vegetation the most?
Answer:
Climate.

Question 10.
What is the name of the process where man plants trees to build a forest?
Answer:
Afforestation.

Question 11.
In which year was the National Forest Policy of India taken ?
Answer:
1952.

Question 12.
How much portion of India’s total forest cover lies in West Bengal ?
Answer:
About 2.4%.

Question 13.
How tall does the bushy vegetation grow?
Answer:
Less than 3 m.

Question 14.
What kind of vegetation is found in the slopes of the Himalayan mountains?
Answer:
Coniferous forests.

Question 15.
Where is Alpine forest found in India ?
Answer:
Above 3000-5000 m altitude in the Himalayan range.

Question 16.
Name two mangrove forests of India.
Answer:
(i) Sundarban in West Bengal
(ii) Bhitarkanika in Odisha.

Question 17.
Name the first Reserved Forest of India.
Answer:
Jim Corbett National Park, Uttar Pradesh.

Question 18.
Why do halophytes need extra breathing roots ?
Answer:
The wet boggy soil does not allow them to breath within the soil.

Question 19.
To which direction will the forested zone of India shift due to global warming?
Answer:
Towards the north.

Question 20.
When was ‘Joint Forest Management’ started in India ?
Answer:
1989.

Question 21.
Why is the forest called a natural sponge?
Answer:
It absorbs CO₂ and releases O₂.

Question 22.
Which forest houses lions in India ?
Answer:
Gir forest of Gujarat.

Question 23.
How much land area of West Bengal lies under forests ?
Answer:
About 14%.

Question 24.
Where do mangrove forests grow ?
Answer:
River deltas and coastal areas.

Question 25.
Which tree of Karnataka is world famous ?
Answer:
Sandalwood tree.

Question 26.
What is the shape of the coniferous trees?
Answer:
Tall, conical, with very less branching.

Question 27.
When was Sundarban declared as the ‘World Heritage forest’?
Answer:
1989.

Question 28.
What are the most important means of forest conservation ?
Answer:
Afforestation and increasing consciousness of people.

Question 29.
Which Union Territory of India has the largest forest cover ?
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar islands.

Question 30.
What kind of trees are most found in India ?
Answer:
Dry deciduous trees.

Question 31.
How are forest fires caused ?
Answer:
Due to friction between the tree branches in the hot season in the torrid zone.

Question 32.
What special adaptations are seen in mangrove trees?
Answer:
Supporting roots and breathing roots.

Question 33.
What kind of a tree is rosewood?
Answer:
Evergreen tree.

Question 34.
What kind of trees grow in deserts?
Ans.
Xerophytas.

Question 35.
What are forests known as for their capability to control air pollution?
Answer:
Natural sponge.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 5.3 Water Resources of India offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 5.3 Question Answer – Water Resources of India

Answer in short : 2 Marks

Question 1.
Name the countries through which the river Indus flows.
Answer:
Tibet, Jammu and Kashmir of India, and Pakistan.

Question 2.
Name the five tributaries of river Indus in India.
Answer:
Rivers Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej.

Question 3.
Name the left bank tributaries of Ganga.
Answer:
Rivers Gomoti, Ghagar, Kosi, Gandak.

Question 4.
Name the right bank tributaries of Ganga.
Answer:
Rivers Yamuna, Son, Damodar, Ajay.

Question 5.
Why is river Kosi called the Sorrow of Bihar ?
Answer:
The river Kosi causes much flood during the rainy season. Hence it is called the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’.

Question 6.
Why are the Himalayan rivers perennial ?
Answer:
The Himalayan rivers get the water supply from snow-melt water throughout the year and rainfall in the rainy season. Hence, they are perennial.

Question 7.
Name some tributaries of the river Brahmaputra.
Answer:
Rivers Subanasiri, Kameng, Manas and Sankosh on the right bank. Rivers Buridihang, Dibang, Kapili and Dhansiri on the left bank.

Question 8.
Mention the course of river Narmada.
Answer:
River Narmada rises from the Amarkantak peak of the Mahakal hills from a spring, flows through a rift valley and finally drains into the gulf of Khambat.

Question 9.
Name two rift valleys of India.
Answer:
The valleys of rivers Narmada and Tapti.

Question 10.
What do you mean by an inland river ?
Answer:
A river which has its source from a moutain or highland, flows through the land and finally drains into a lake or other inland water body, is called an inland river. Eg-River Luni of Rajasthan.

Question 11.
Write about the course of river Godavari.
Answer:
The river Godavari (1,465 km) has its source in the Trimbakeswar in the Western Ghats and drains into the Bay of Bengal. Due to its great length, it is often called the Ganga of the south.

Question 12.
What is a lake?
Answer:
A lake is a depression on the surface of the earth filled with natural water coming from rainfall, snow melt, rivers or underground water.

Question 13.
What is a Kayal or lagoon ?
Answer:
A Kayal or lagoon is a water body surrounded by land on three sides and one side connected to the sea. In many cases, sea water may get arrested by sand bars on three sides and form lagoons or kayals. Eg-Chilka lake in Odisha, Vembanad lake in Kerala.

Question 14.
What is a multi-purpose project ?
Answer:
A multi-purpose project is one in which a river is dammed for various purposes like – irrigation, flood control, generation of hydro-electricity, water transport, fisheries, controlling soil erosion, etc.

Question 15.
Which states of India are mostly irrigated by canals ?
Answer:
The states that are mostly irrigated by canals are – Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, West Bengal, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, etc.

Question 16.
Which states in India are mostly irrigated by tanks ?
Answer:
Most parts of the peninsular India came under tank irrigation. The states predominated by this are – Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha. Apart from these, some areas of West Bengal, Bihar and Gujarat also practice tank irrigation.

Question 17.
What is the advantage of well irrigation ?
Answer:
Wells can be dug very near the fields, so that water can be provided for cultivation very easily.

Question 18.
What is the disadvantage of well irrigation?
Answer:
Wells cannot be dug where the soil is hard or the land is rocky. It is also not possible in areas where water table is very low.

Question 19.
What are inundation canals ?
Answer:
The inundation canals are those which flow during the rainy season when the rivers are in flood.

Question 20.
What are the advantages of canal irrigation?
Answer:
Canals can be divided into branches for reaching water to fields easily. Sometimes the canals can be used for fishing, navigation or other activites.

Question 21.
What are the disadvantages of canal irrigation?
Answer:
Water level in canals may rise or fall according to availability of water in different seasons. Canals cannot be drawn on hard rocky surfaces or sandy deserts.

Question 22.
What do you mean by rain water harvesting ?
Answer:
Rain water harvesting is the accumulation and storage of rain water to reuse rather than allowing it to run off. Its uses include water for gardening, livestock, irrigation, domestic use, etc. It can also be treated and used as drinking water.

Question 23.
Where does the river Indus rise?
Answer:
The river Indus rises in the springs of Sengge Khabab at an altitude of 5,180 m and about 100 km north of Manas Sarovar.

Question 24.
Name the states through which the tributaries of river Indus flow in India.
Answer:
The tributaries of river Indus flow in India through the states of JammuKashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Punjab.

Question 25.
Where does the river Ganga rise from ? What is it known at the source?
Answer:
The river Ganga rises from the Gomukh cave of Gangotri glacier in the Kumaon Himalayas of Uttarakhand. At the source it is known as river Bhagirathi.

Question 26.
Which is the longest river of India ?
Answer:
The longest river of India is river Ganga. It flows through India for 2,071 km out of the total length of 2,510 km.

Question 27.
Where does the river Yamuna rise?
Answer:
The river Yamuna rises from the Yamunotri glacier of Kumaon Himalayas in Uttarakhand. It meets with river Ganga as a right bank tributary in Allahabad.

Question 28.
Which two rivers meet to form river Ganga ?
Answer:
Rivers Bhagirathi and Alokananda meet at the Dev Prayag to form river Ganga.

Question 29.
Why are the Himalayan rivers called Antecedent rivers ?
Answer:
The Himalayan rivers like Ganga, Indus, Brahmaputra existed even before the emergence of the Himalayan mountains. The rise of the mountains have only changed the courses of the rivers. Thus, these rivers are called antecedent rivers.

Question 30.
Name the states thrugh which river Ganga flows in India.
Answer:
The river Ganga flows through Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and West Bengal.

Question 31.
Name the states through which river Brahmaputra flows in India.
Answer:
The river Brahmaputra flows through Arunachal Pradesh and Assam in India.

Question 32.
Name four tributaries of river Narmada.
Answer:

• Hiran
• Barna
• Orsang
• Kolar.

Question 33.
Through which states does the river Narmada flow ?
Answer:
The river Narmada flows through Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat.

Question 34.
Name two west flowing rivers of India.
Answer:
Narmada and Tapti.

Question 35.
On which side of the Satpura range is the river Narmada situated ?
Answer:
River Narmada lies to the north of the Satpura range.

Question 36.
Name a famous waterfall on the river Narmada.
Answer:
Dhuandhar waterfalls near Jabalpur in Madhya Pradesh.

Question 37.
Where does river Tapti rise?
Answer:
River Tapti rises from a hot spring called Multai in the Mahadev hills of Madhya Pradesh.

Question 38.
Name four tributaries of river Tapti.
Answer:

• Purna
• Girna
• Bori
• Bheghar.

Question 39.
Which is the highest waterfall of India ?
Answer:
The highest waterfall is the Jog waterfalls on river Sharavati in Karnataka. It is 275 m high.

Question 40.
Mention the course of river Mahanadi.
Answer:
River Mahanadi rises from the Shihawa hills of Rampur district of Chattisgarh and flows into the Bay of Bengal.

Question 41.
Through which states does river Mahanadi flow ?
Answer:
River Mahanadi flows through Chattisgarh and Odisha.

Question 42.
Name two tributaries of river Mahanadi.
Answer:

• River Brahmani
• River Baitarani

Question 43.
Which is the longest river of South India ?
Answer:
The largest as well as the longest river of South India is the river Godavari.

Question 44.
Where does the river Krishna rise?
Answer:
The river Krishna rises in the hills of Mahabaleswar (1,337 m) in the Western Ghats.

Question 45.
Through which states does the river Krishna flow ?
Answer:
River Krishna flows through Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telengana and Andhra Pradesh before meeting the Bay of Bengal.

Question 46.
Which famous dam is built on river Krishna ?
Answer:
The famous dam built on the river krishna is Nagarjuna Sagar Dam.

Question 47.
Name few tributaries of river Krishna.
Answer:
Some tributaries of river Krishna are river Koyna, Bheema, Tungabhadra, Vedavati, Ghat prabha, Musi, Doodh Ganga etc.

Question 48.
Where does the river Cauvery rise?
Answer:
River Cauvery rises in the Brahmagiri hills (1,341 m) of Coorg district of Karnataka.

Question 49.
Name some tributaries of river Cauvery.
Answer:
Some tributaries of river Cauvery are river Himavati, Bedmati, Amaravati, Lakshmana, Tirtha, Simsa, Bhavani etc.

Question 50.
Name the famous waterfalls on river Cauvery.
Answer:
The famous waterfalls on river Cauvery is the Shivasamudram.

Question 51.
Through which states does the river Cauvery flow ?
Answer:
The river Cauvery flows through Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.

Question 52.
Name two famous lakes of Jammu-Kashmir.
Answer:
Dal Lake and Wular lake.

Question 53.
Name two famous lakes of Uttarakhand.
Answer:
Nainital and Bheemtal.

Question 54.
Name two artificial lakes of India.
Answer:

• Osman Sagar in Telengana.
• Pushkar lake in Ajmer district of Rajasthan.

Question 55.
Name four famous irrigation canals constructed in Uttar Pradesh.
Answer:

1. Upper Ganga canal
2. Lower Ganga canal
3. Sarda canal
4. Yamuna canal.

Question 56.
Name four irrigation canals in Punjab.
Answer:

1. Upper Bari Doab canal
2. Sirhind canal
3. Bhakra canal
4. Bist Doab canal.

Question 57.
Name two irrigation canals of West Bengal.
Answer:

• Damodar canal
• Mayurakshi canal.

Question 58.
Which is the largest canal of India ?
Answer:
The largest canal of India is the Indira Gandhi canal or the Rajasthan canal.

Question 59.
Which is the longest canal of India ?
Answer:
The longest canal of India is the Sarda canal of Uttar Pradesh.

Question 60.
Name two perennial canals of India.
Answer:

• Sarda canal of Uttar Pradesh
• Yamuna canal of Punjab.

Question 61.
Which state in India possesses the maximum irrigated land?
Answer:
The maximum irrigated land lies in Punjab. Here, about 94 % of agricultural land is under irrigation.

Question 62.
Which state has the lowest irrigated land in India ?
Answer:
The lowest irrigated land lies in Jammu-Kashmir (only about 1.3 % of total agricultural land).

Question 63.
Which is the longest dam in India ?
Answer:
The longest river dam in India is the Hirakud dam constructed on the river Mahanadi in Odisha.

Question 64.
Which is the highest dam in India ?
Answer:
The highest dam in India is the Bhakra dam constructed on the river Sutlej in Himachal Pradesh.

Question 65.
Which is the largest multipurpose project in India ?
Answer:
The largest multipurpose project in India is the Bhakra-Nangal project on the river Sutlej.

Question 66.
Where has the ‘Sardar Sarovar Project’ been constructed ?
Answer:
The Sardar Sarovar Project has been constructed on river Narmada in Gujarat.

Question 67.
Name the dams constructed under the Damodar Valley Project.
Answer:
The Damodar Valley Project had a plan of constructing 8 dams. But due to lack of funds, only 4 dams could be constructed. These are :

• Maithan
• Panchet
• Konar
• Tilaiya

Question 68.
Name the hydel power stations under the DVC.
Answer:

1. Panchet
2. Maithan
3. Tilaiya

Question 69.
Name the thermal power stations under the DVC.
Answer:

1. Bokaro
2. Durgapur
3. Chandrapura
4. Wariya

Question 70.
Which states lead in irrigation by wells and tubewells?
Answer:
The states of Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan lead in irrigation by wells and tubewells.

Answer in brief : 3 Marks

Question 1.
Describe the course of the river Indus.
Answer:
The river Indus rises in the springs of Sengge khabab at an altitude of 5,180 m, about 100 km north of Manas Sarovar. It enters Indian territory in Jammu and Kashmir. It flows through Ladakh, Baltistan and Gilgit to finally emerge at of the hills of Atlock. It flows through India for about 709 km, and then enters Pakistan. The main tributaries of Indus in India are – Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej.

Question 2.
What do you mean by an ‘ideal river’ ?
Answer:
A river which has three distinct courses, that is the upper course in the hilly region, the middle course in the plateau or highland region and the lower course in the plain region is called an ideal river. Eg-River Ganga.

Question 3.
Describe the upper course of the river Ganga.
Answer:
The river Ganga rises from the Gomukh cave of the Gangotri Glacier in the Himalayas. Here it is known as river Bhagirathi. Sweeping westwards for 35 km from Gomukh, the Bhagirathi turns south and flows for another 140 km through the lesser Himalayas. When the Alokananda, originating from the glacial snout of Alakapuri Glacier joins the Bhagirathi at Dev Prayag, it is called the Ganga. From its source at Gomukh till Haridwar, is the upper course of the river Ganga. From Haridwar to the Raj Mahal hills is the middle course, and from the Raj Mahal hills to the Bay of Bengal is the lower course of the river.

Question 4.
Why are the rivers of south India more speedy than the rivers of north India?
Answer:
The rivers of south India, eg-Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery, Tungabhadra, etc. rise from the hills of the peninsula of India and flow through the plateau region before entering the sea. This plateau is made of igneous rocks, which are very resistant and hard to erode. Also, the rivers flow along the slope of the terraces and hills formed due to lava deposition. There is hardly any presence of plains. Hence, the rivers are very speedy.

Question 5.
Why are the south Indian rivers not perennial like the north Indian rivers?
Answer:
The north Indian rivers rise from the snow-clad mountains of the Himalayas. They get their supply of water from snow-melt as well as heavy orographic rainfall that hit the mountains. Hence, they are perennial. The south Indian rivers rise from the lower hills of the plateau region, which are not snow clad. Hence, they receive water only from rainfall. But rainfall does not occur througout the year. The rivers tend to dry up when there is no supply of rain water. Hence, they are non-perennial.

Question 6.
Why does most of the east flowing rivers form deltas?
Answer:
Most of the east flowing rivers form deltas because :

1. The speed of east flowing rivers is less, hence scope of silt deposition is more.
2. Numerous tributaries of these rivers contribute much silt along with water.
3. The continental shelf on the eastem cost is very gentle, which helps in accumulation of silt.
4. The length of the east flowing rivers is much more. Hence, the amount of eroded material is also quite more and the rate of deposition of these materials is also high.

Question 7.
Write a short note on tubewell irrigation.
Answer:
A tubewell is a deep bore dug into the ground with drilling equipments for drawing out ground water with the help of a pump. Tubewells have proved to be very useful in the alluvial plains of Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. U.P. has the highest number of tubewells. There are about 31,000 tubewells in the country which irrigate about 60 lakh hectares of bud. About 23 % of total irrigated area in India is served by tubewells.

Question 8.
List the advantages and disadvantages of well and tubewell irrigation.
Answer:
Advantages :

• Less costly, hence poor farmers can also afford.
• Water can be drawn out as per requirement.
• Can be constructed very near to the fields.
• The water drawn from underground is rich in minerals, which make it very useful to make the soil fertile.

Disadvantages :

• This kind of irrigation is usually constructed individually, and not in group.
• This can irrigate only a small area.
• Some wells and tubewells may dry up due to use for many years.
• Dependent of level of water in the undergound reservoir.
• Arsenic contamination may result due to overuse of water.

Question 9.
List the advantages of irrigation.
Answer:
The advantages of irrigation are:

• It helps to increase food production.
• It helps to modify the quality of soil.
• It helps to reduce risk of catastrophic damage by droughts.
• It helps to increase national income.
• It increases labour employment and improves the standard of living.
• It provides with the domestic and industrial water supply.
• Sometimes it is used for generation of hydro-electric power.

Question 10.
What are the disadvantages of irrigation?
Answer:
The disadvantages of irrigation are :

• Water logging.
• Rise in salinity or alkalinity of soil.
• Hampers aeration of soil.
• Pollution of underground water.
• Colder and damper climate indirectly caused by irrigation processes cause out break of diseases like malaria.

Question 11.
Discuss the impacts of overusing ground water.
Answer:
The several impacts for overusing ground water are :
(a) Water table may be lowered due to rapid evaporation and drawing out of water.
(b) Wells, ponds etc. may dry up in warm seasons, or due to overdrawing of water.
(c) Too much extraction of ground water creates a partial vacuum which may lead the land surface to collapse.
(d) Too much drawing of water may lead to droughts and soil damage.
(e) Quality of ground water will gradually deteriorate.
(f) Arsenic contamination may result due to drawing of water at very high rates.

Question 12.
What is a watershed ?
Answer:
The highland that separates two adjacent river catchment areas is called a ‘watershed’. They are important because the flow of water in the catchment area, the speed and volume of water, the amount of silt generated, etc. depend on the nature of the watershed.

Question 13.
Why is tubewell irrigation popular in north India ?
Answer:
Tubewell irrigation is popular in north India because :

1. The lndo-Gangetic plain is composed of soft porous sedimentary rocks which can be dug easily.
2. The porous layers of the rocks allow recharge of groudwater easily, hence water is easily available in tubewells dug in this region.
3. The water table in this region is near the surface, thus it can be acquired by minimum digging.
4. Tubewells are less expensive to construct than canals and other means of irrigation.

Question 14.
What are the advantages of rain water harvesting ?
Answer:
The advantages of rain water harvesting are :

1. It provides an independent water supply during regional water restrictions or droughts.
2. It can mitigate flooding of low lands.
3. It helps to sustain groundwater level.
4. It ensures availability of potable water, clean and free from salinity.
5. It helps to re-use runoff water for gardening, livestock, irrigation, domestic use, etc.

Question 15.
Why are rivers Narmada and Tapti west flowing ?
Answer:
The rivers Narmada and Tapti are west flowing because :

1. The slope of the land over which these rivers flow is from east to west.
2. The Western Ghats do not exist in the region where these rivers flow. Hence, they meet the Gulf of Khambat without any hurdles.
3. These rivers flow through rift valleys. Hence, they have made their way through the narrow valleys along the fault lines very easily.

Question 16.
Why don’t the west-flowing rivers form deltas before meeting the sea?
Answer:
The west-flowing rivers of India, i.e. Narmada and Tapti do not form deltas at their mouths because :

1. Length : The rivers flow for a short length and do not have enough water or amount of load. (Narmada – 1312 km, Tapti – 928 km)
2. Tributaries : These rivers have a very few tributaries. Hence, contribution of load is also very less.
3. Type of rock : The rivers flow over hard rocky surface. Hence, amount of eroded material is small.
4. Speed : The rivers flow with great speed, thus removing and discarding all the load far away from the mouths.
5. Continental shelf: The continental shelf in the region where the rivers meet the Gulf of Khambat is quite steep. Thus, accumulation of silt to form deltas is difficult.

Question 17.
Differentiate between Wells and Tubewells.
Answer:

Wells	Tubewells
i. Wells are dug in soft soil and water is pulled out by hand or with the help of animals.	i. Tubewells are constructed by inserting metal or nylon pipes in soft soil and pulling out water by pumps.
ii. Help to pull out water from shallow levels.	ii. Help to pull out water from deep levels.
iii. No requirement of electric or other power resources.	iii. Cannot work without using power from petrol, diesel, electricity etc.
iv. Radius of well is large.	iv. Radius of pipeline is very small.
v. The mouth of the well remains open.	v. The mouth of the pipe remains in the pump.

Question 18.
Mention the states where canal irrigation is predominant.
Answer:
Canal irrigation is predominant in – Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, West Bengal, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat etc.

Question 19.
Differentiate between inundation canals and perennial canals.
Answer:

Inundation canals	Perennial canals
i. In rainy season, the excess water of the rivers is diverted for imigation and other works through canals.	i. Water from perennial rivers is used for irrigation and other purposes throughout the year.
ii. Usually usable in rainy season and remain dry in dry season.	ii. Usually usable in all seasons throughout the year.
iii. Usually seen in flood-prone areas.	iii. Usually seen in areas where perennial rivers flow.
iv. Usually constructed in the delta regions or lower courses of rivers.	iv. Usually constructed in the middle course or the plain lands of a river.
v. Helps in flood control.	v. No remarkable influence in flood control.

Question 20.
What is a Multi-purpose river project? What are its aims?
Answer:
A project on a river that is planned for economic and social development of a place by using the water of the river for multiple purposes, is called a multipurpose project.
Aims – The different aims of a multi-purpose project are – (i) Irrigation, (ii) Production of hydro-electric power, (iii) Flood control, (iv) Navigation and water transport, (v) Supply of drinking water, (vi) Pisciculture, (vii) Building of bridges, (viii) Construction of roadways and railways, (ix) Scope of employment to a huge population, (\mathrm{x) Control of soil erosion, (xi) Development of tourist spots, (xii) Afforestation, (xiii) Development of new settlements.

Answer in details : 5 Marks

Question 1.
Describe the course of river Ganga.
Answer:
Ganga is the main and longest river of India. Its total length is 2,510 km, of which 2,071 km flows through India.

Upper course : The river Ganga rises from the glacial snout Gomukh of the Gangotri glacier. It is then called Bhagirathi. It meets with river Alokananda at the Dev Prayag, after which the river comes to be known as the Ganga. The upper course of Ganga extends from Gomukh to Haridwar for about 320 km. Middle course : It stretches from Haridwar to Dhulian in West Bengal. The left bank tributaries are Ram Ganga, Gomoti, Ghaghra, Gandak, Kosi, etc. The right bank tributaries are – Yamuna and Son. Yamuna is the largest and most important tributary of the Ganga.

Lower course : The lower course extends from Dhulian in Murshidabad (WB) to the Bay of Bengal. The river divides into two branches near Giriya district of Mushidabad as Bhagirathi and Padma. The Padma enters Bangladesh and meets the Bay of Bengal from there. The Bhagirathi flows southwards through West Bengal as Hooghly river. The main left bank tributaries are – Jalangi, Ichhamati, Churni, etc. The right bank tributaries are – Brahmani, Dwarka, Ajay, Mayurakshi, Damodar, Rupnarayan, Kangsabati, etc. The Bhagirathi Hooghly, along with the Padma, form the world’s largest delta before meeting the Bay of Bengal.

Question 2.
Describe the course of river Brahmaputra.
Answer:
The Brahmaputra river is 2700 km long, of which 885 km flows through India. It rises from the Chemayundung glacier, south west of Manas Sarovar. It flows eastward through Tibet where it is known as Tsang-Po. After taking a sharp bend towards the south, it enters India through a deep gorge in the east of Namcha Barwa in Arunachal Pradesh as Dihang. The river Dihang meets with rivers Dibang and Lohit and then flow as a single river called Brahmaputra. It flows through Assam from the east near Sadiya to the west upto Dhubri and then takes a sharp turn towards the south and enters Bangladesh as river Yamuna. The important right bank tributaries are-Subansiri, Barali, Manas, Teesta, etc. The left bank tributaries are – Buri, Dihing, South Dhansiri, etc.

Question 3.
Discuss the importances of lakes, canals and reservoirs in human life.
Answer:
The importances of lakes, canals and reservoirs in human life are –
i. Irrigation : Lake water can be used for irrigation and make cultivation possible in adjacent areas.

ii. Flood control : Lakes and reservoirs help to hold the excess runoff from rain water and help to control floods.
iii. Fishing : The water bodies help in cultivation of fish and ensure supply of protein based food to the locality as well as outside.
iv. Transport : Large lakes may act as a mode of transport by boats and steamers.
v. Tourism : Beautiful scenery and pleasant weather near lakes and resevoirs attract many tourists, thus gain econonic importance as tourist spots.

Question 4.
What is the impact of overuse of ground water?
Answer:
The biggest reservoir of fresh water on earth is ‘ground water’ which holds more than 20 times of total surface water (lakes, rivers, ponds, etc.). Ground water is pumped out to meet agricultural, industrial and domestic depends. But overuse of ground water may cause several problems –

1. Lowering of water table.
2. Drying up of wells, ponds, etc.
3. Subsidence and collapse of land surface.
4. Drought and damaged soil.
5. Deterioration of water quality.

In India, over 16 % of ground water resources are over exploited, mainly in north western, western and peninsular regions. If this trend continues, 60 % of India’s acquifers will be in critical condiions in coming 20 years.

Question 5.
Write a short note on the Damoder Valley Project.
Answer:
The Damodar Valley Project is the first Multi-purpose project in independent India. It was started in 1948. It was based on the Tennessee Valley Project of USA. The Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) has been developed on river Damodar in Jharkhand and West Bengal. It consists of a series of dam on this river and its tributaries. The river Damodar rising in the chotanagpur plateau region, fluctuates in water level too much. In the rainy season it causes dreadful floods destroying life and property. Hence, it is known as the ‘Sorrow of Jharkhand (Bihar)’.

The DVC has constructed multi-purpose dams at Tilaiya (on river Barakar), Konar (on river Konar), Maithon (on river Barakar) and Panchet (on river Damodar). Hydel power stations have been constructed at Maithan, Tilaiya and Panchet. The 672 m long and 11.58 m deep barrage on the river Damodar at Durgapur, 226 km long irrigation canals help to irrigate about 5 lakh hectares of land. The thermal power stations at Bokaro, Chandrapura, and Durgapur produce about 1,081 MW of electricity. The DVC has now handed over its overall control to the Govt. of West Bengal.

Question 6.
What is Watershed management?
Answer:
Watershed management refers to the scientific use and utilisation of water recources to stop soil erosion, increase soil fertility, control floods, prevent siltation of river beds and maintain proper land use patterns. The various methods that are used in watershed management are –
i. Slope management : The higher slopes of the river basin that are prone to land slides and soil erosion can be taken care of by planting trees, grasslands, stopping jhum cultivation. Guard walls can be built in some cases to protect the land.
ii. Flood control : Floods can be controlled by dredging of rivers, ponds, lakes etc and increasing their water holding capacities.
iii. Gully erosion : Gully erosion and sheet erosion can be controlled by planting trees across the flow of runoff and building small dams at places.
iv. Contour farmıng : Contour farming, terrace farming etc. can help to stop soil erosion and increase water seepage to increase the ground water level.
v. Multi-purpose projects : Multi-purpose projects can be planned for purposes like irrigation, hydel power, fish culture, flood control, water transport, control of soil erosion, tourism, etc.

Question 7.
Discuss about rain water harvesting in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Rain water harvesting is the accumulation and storage of rain water for reuse, rather than allowing it to run off. Its uses include water for gardening, livestock, irrigation, domestic use, etc. It can also be used as drinking water.

Tamil Nadu : Tamil Nadu receives rainfall twice a year. Hence, it is the best region for rain water harvesting. In order to augment ground water resourses, it has been made mandatory in Tamil Nadu to provide rain water harvesting structures in all buildings. The arrangement is such deviced that after the first rain washes away the dirt and dust of the roofs, water can be collected and stored. Different type of devices are used for different types of roofs. Presently, 40 % of rain water is being stored underground. In Chennai alone, a 150 \mathrm{sq . \mathrm{km underground water reservoir meets the scarcity of water.

Question 8.
Describe canal irrigation system in India.
Answer:
The method of irrigation by digging canals from rivers towards agricultural fields through the soft silty soil is known as canal irrigation. Canal irrigation is popular in plains where the slope of land is moderate.
Areas – The areas under canal irrigation in India are Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, Delta regions of rivers, etc.
Types – Canals are usually of two types –
(i) Perennial canals – Which have water throughout the year as they are dug from perennial rivers.
(ii) Inundation canals – Which receive water when the rivers are in flood in rainy season.
Amount of canal irrigation – About 50 % of canals are spread over Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh. About 38 % of agricultural land is irrigated by canals.

Question 9.
What is rain water harvesting ? What are the different methods of rain water harvesting ?
Answer:
The process of collecting rain water from roof tops and other open places for reuse for different purposes is called rain water harvesting.
The different methods of rain water harvesting are –
i. Construction of tanks – Rain water can be collected in natural or artificial tanks, ponds, lakes, etc. in the rainy season and can be used later in the dry season.

ii. Construction of Small dams – Higher dams disrupt the natural flow of water in the rivers to a great extent. This may cause many adverse effects. But construction of small and low dams to stop the flowing water only by portions may come out to be a very useful method of rain water harvest.

iii. Collection of rain water – Rain water can be collected from roof tops and other open surfaces or areas which receive heavy rainfall from the monsoons.

iv. Proper use of ground water – The ground water utilisation may be improved from 35-40 % to 60 % by implementing proper methods of acquiring the ground water. Unplanned water acquiring processes must be prevented with the help of rules and regulations.

v. Ground water recharge – Scope must be given for percolation of rain water into the soil for recharge of underground water. In some cases, there may be the need for recharging ground water artificially.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Which of the following is a Trans-Himalayan river?
(A) Ganga
(B) Yamuna
(C) Sutlej
(D) Ravi
Answer:
(C) Sutlej

Question 2.
Which of the following rivers is not a tributary of Ganga ?
(A) Gomati
(B) Gandak
(C) Kosi
(D) Ghagra
Answer:
(D) Ghagra

Question 3.
Which of the following rivers lies in a rift valley ?
(A) Luni
(B) Chambal
(C) Sone
(D) Tapti
Answer:
(D) Tapti

Question 4.
Narmada originates from its source situated in the state of :
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
(C) Madhya Pradesh

Question 5.
The Jog falls are situated on the :
(A) Tapti river
(B) Sharavati river
(C) Cauvery river
(D) Bhima river
Answer:
(B) Sharavati river

Question 6.
Why is the Delta of the Indus small compared to the Delta of the Ganga?
(A) The Indus traverses a shorter distance than the Ganga
(B) The Indus is not as broad as the Ganga
(C) The path of the Indus is through arid area while the Ganga collects more water along its path to the sea
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) The path of the Indus is through arid area while the Ganga collects more water along its path to the sea

Question 7.
The Indian rivers of the Indus Basin are :
(A) Sutlej, Beas and Ravi
(B) Ganga, Beas and Sutlej
(C) Betwa, Sone and Kosi
(D) Gomati, Kosi, Gandak
Answer:
(A) Sutlej, Beas and Ravi

Question 8.
Beas flows through the State of –
(A) Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan
(B) Punjab, Haryana and Jammu
(C) Punjab and Himachal Pradesh
(D) Punjab and Haryana
Answer:
(D) Punjab and Haryana

Question 9.
River Cauveri flows through the States of-
(A) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu
(B) Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu
(C) Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu
(D) Kerala, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
(B) Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu

Question 10.
Ganga beyond Farakka, when it enters Bangladesh, is known as :
(A) Padma
(B) Meghna
(C) Hooghly
(D) Swaran Ganga
Answer:
(A) Padma

Question 11.
Which of the following has almost the same point of beginning ?
(A) Ganga and Indus
(B) Ganga and Brahmaputra
(C) Beas and Tapti
(D) Indus and Brahmaputra
Answer:
(D) Indus and Brahmaputra

Question 12.
The river that flows between the Vindya and the Satpura Mountain is :
(A) Maki
(B) Narmada
(C) Tapti
(D) Sharavati
Answer:
(B) Narmada

Question 13.
The Alakananda and the Bhagirathi meet at :
(A) Prayag
(B) Devaprayag
(C) Haridwar
(D) Rishikesh
Answer:
(B) Devaprayag

Question 14.
The left bank tributary of the Ganga is the :
(A) Sone
(B) Gomati
(C) Yamuna
(D) Damodar
Answer:
(B) Gomati

Question 15.
The river Chambal flows into the :
(A) Tapi
(B) Ganga
(C) Yamuna
(D) Narmada
Answer:
(C) Yamuna

Question 16.
The name “The Gift of the Indus” is given to :
(A) U.P
(B) Gujarat
(C) Sindh
(D) Rajasthan
Answer:
(C) Sindh

Question 17.
Tapti flows into the :
(A) Arabian sea
(B) Cambay Gulf
(C) Gulf of Kutch
(D) All of these
Answer:
(B) Cambay Gulf

Question 18.
The town situated at the mouth of the river Tapti is :
(A) Surat
(B) Broach
(C) Honnavar
(D) Joypur
Answer:
(A) Surat

Question 19.
Jog Falls is across the river:
(A) Sharavati
(B) Cauvery
(C) Krishna
(D) Godavari
Answer:
(A) Sharavati

Question 20.
The source of Godavari is :
(A) Amarkantak
(B) Triambak
(C) Mahabaleswar
(D) Nasik
Answer:
(B) Triambak

Question 21.
Machalipatnam is located at the mouth of :
(A) Tapi
(B) Cauvery
(C) Krishna
(D) Godavari
Answer:
(C) Krishna

Question 22.
The main tributary of the Cauvery is the :
(A) Parna
(B) Vennan
(C) Vettar
(D) Coleroom
Answer:
(D) Coleroom

Question 23.
Porunai is another name of the :
(A) Ganga
(B) Cauvery
(C) Vaighi
(D) Tamiraparani
Answer:
(D) Tamiraparani

Question 24.
The Vaigai river rises in the :
(A) Coorg
(B) Agastiya Hills
(C) Cardamom Hills
(D) Anaimudi
Answer:
(C) Cardamom Hills

Question 25.
The dam across Periyar is at :
(A) Amaravati
(B) Thekkady
(C) Palani
(D) Krishna
Answer:
(B) Thekkady

Question 26.
Tungabhadra flows into the river:
(A) Godavari
(B) Cauvery
(C) Palani
(D) Krishna
Answer:
(D) Krishna

Question 27.
Important west flowing river is :
(A) Mahanadi
(B) Cauvery
(C) Krishna
(D) Narmada
Answer:
(D) Narmada

Question 28.
Bhakra-Nangal is a …… project.
(A) multipurpose
(B) power
(C) irrigation
(D) none
Answer:
(A) multipurpose

Question 29.
Mettur is the most important multipurpose project for the state of :
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(D) Tamil Nadu

Question 30.
Kosi Project is a joint venture of :
(A) India and Bangladesh
(B) India and Nepal
(C) India and Bhutan
(D) Bhutan and Nepal
Answer:
(B) India and Nepal

Question 31.
Sivasamudram fall is across river :
(A) Godavari
(B) Krishna
(C) Sharavati
(D) Cauvery
Answer:
(D) Cauvery

Question 32.
The Ganga enters the great plains at :
(A) Agra
(B) Allahabad
(C) Patna
(D) Haridwar
Answer:
(D) Haridwar

Question 33.
The peninsular rivers have their source in the :
(A) Satpura
(B) Western Ghats
(C) Himalayas
(D) Bay of Bengal
Answer:
(B) Western Ghats

Question 34.
The most important tributary of the Ganga is :
(A) Tapti
(B) Yamuna
(C) Periyar
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Yamuna

Question 35.
The rivers Narmada and Tapti flow into the Gulf of :
(A) Bay of Bengal
(B) Kutch
(C) Mannar
(D) Khambhat
Answer:
(D) Khambhat

Question 36.
The Yamuna joins the Ganga at :
(A) Delhi
(B) Haridwar
(C) Allahabad
(D) Calcutta
Answer:
(C) Allahabad

Question 37.
The northern channel of Cauvery is called :
(A) Hemavathi
(B) Coleroom
(C) Bhavani
(D) Son
Answer:
(B) Coleroom

Question 38.
The river Krishna enters the Bay of Bengal near :
(A) Hyderabad
(B) Vijayawada
(C) Masulipatnam
(D) Nellore
Answer:
(B) Vijayawada

Question 39.
The biggest artificial reservoir is :
(A) Nijam Sagar
(B) Govind Vallab Pant Sagar
(C) Stanley Reservoir
(D) Govind Sagar Lake
Answer:
(B) Govind Vallab Pant Sagar

Question 40.
Rihand Project is mainly a ….. project :
(A) Drinking
(B) Irrigation
(C) Power
(D) Multipurpose
Answer:
(D) Multipurpose

Question 41.
This flows through a rift valley :
(A) Ganga
(B) Mahanadi
(C) Tapti
(D) Luni
Answer:
(C) Tapti

Question 42.
A dam is located at Sambalpur on the Mahanadi river :
(A) Damodar
(B) Bhakra
(C) Hirakud
(D) Nagarjuna Sagar
Answer:
(C) Hirakud

Question 43.
River Damodar is a tributary of :
(A) Yamuna
(B) Sabarmati
(C) Ganga
(D) Ajoy
Answer:
(C) Ganga

Fill in the blanks : 1 Mark

1. The Ganga river comes from the Gangotri glacier which is located at a height of ________ m. in the north of the Kedarnath peak.
2. The river Ganga carries about ________ of the water of the total drainage of India.
3. The river ganga meets river ________ near Gaalundo.
4. Most of the drainage of Himalayas is ________ .
5. The river Gomti meets the river Ganga near ________ .
6. The river ________ flows in India, Bangladesh and Tibet.
7. The ________ waterfalls lie in the upper course of the river Narmada.
8. The ________ lake in India has the highest salinity.
9. The river Brahmaputra is known as ________ in Tibet.
10. The river ________ changes its course frequently
Answer:
1. 6600
2. 25 %
3. Brahmaputra
4. Antecedent
5. Gazipur
6. Brahmaputra
7. Kapil dhara
8. Sambhar
9. Tsang po
10. Kosi

State True or False : 1 Mark

1. About 15 % of the agricultural fields in India are irrigated with the help of wells. [ ]
2. Rajasthan ranks first in India in well and tube well irrigation. [ ]
3. The Bhakra-Nangal multipurpose project has been constructed on the river Krishna. [ ]
4. The Hirakud dam has been constructed on the river Mahanadi. [ ]
5. The Bhakra-Nangal project is the longest multipurpose project of India [ ]
6. The Koleru lake is the largest sweet water lake in India. [ ]
7. The Pangong lake is the highest lake of the world. [ ]
8. The largest lake of western India is the Loktak lake. [ ]
9. Pulicat lake is the largest lake of Kerala. [ ]
10. The Wular lake is a salt water lake. [ ]
Answer:
1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. True
6. True
7. True
8. False
9. False
10. False

Match the following : 1 Mark

List I (Rivers)	List II (Tributaries)
A. Indus	1. Mahananda
B. Ganga	2. Bhima
C. Krishna	3. Wainganga
D. Godavari	4. Nubra

Answer:

List I (Rivers)	List II (Tributaries)
A. Indus	4. Nubra
B. Ganga	1. Mahananda
C. Krishna	2. Bhima
D. Godavari	3. Wainganga

Answer in few words : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Where does the river Indus rise?
Answer:
From the springs of Sengge Khabab, 5,180m high, 100 km north of Manas Sarovar.

Question 2.
Name some Himalayan tributaries of Indus.
Answer:
Gantang, Zaskar, Dras, Shyok, Shigar, etc.

Question 3.
Where does the river Sutlej rise?
Answer:
In lake Rakas in Tibet, 4,555 m high.

Question 4.
Where does the river Beas rise?
Ins.
Beas kend near Rohtang Pass at an elevation of 4,361 m.

Question 5.
Where does the river Ravi rise?
Answer:
From the Kulu hills near Rohtang pass.

Question 6.
How does the river Chenab rise?
Answer:
Formed by union of two streams, the Chandra and the Bhaga.

Question 7.
Where does the river Jhelum rise?
Answer:
From a spring at Verinag in the south-eastern part of the vale of Srinagar.

Question 8.
How muh area does the Ganga basin cover of the total land surface of India?
Answer:
25 %

Question 9.
Where does the river Ganga rise ?
Answer:
Gomukh cave of Gangotri glacier.

Question 10.
What is the source of river Alakananda?
Answer:
Alakapuri Glacier.

Question 11.
Which two rivers meet at Devaprayag ?
Answer:
Alakanada and Bhagirathi, forming river Ganga.

Question 12.
Which two rivers meet at the Rudraprayag ?
Answer:
Alakananda and Mandakini.

Question 13.
How far does the upper course of Ganga extend?
Answer:
Gangotri glacier to Haridwar.

Question 14.
How far does the middle course of Ganga extend?
Answer:
Haridwar to Raj Mahal hills.

Question 15.
How far does the lower course of Ganga extend?
Answer:
Raj Mahal hills to the Bay of Bengal.

Question 16.
Name an ideal river of India.
Answer:
River Ganga.

Question 17.
Name the largest tributary of river Ganga.
Answer:
River Yamuna.

Question 18.
Where does river Yamuna rise ?
Answer:
Yamunotri glacier.

Question 19.
Where does river Yamuna meet river Ganga ?
Answer:
At Sangam in Allahabad.

Question 20.
Name some tributaries of Yamuna on the right bank.
Answer:
Chambal, Sindh, Betwa, Ken.

Question 21.
Where does river Kosi rise?
Answer:
From the Tibet plateau.

Question 22.
Which river is called the Sorrow of Bihar?
Answer:
River Kosi.

Question 23.
Where is the source of river Brahmaputra ?
Answer:
Chemayundung glacier south-west of Manas Sarovar.

Question 24.
What is river Brahmaputra known as in Tibet ?
Answer:
River Tsangpo.

Question 25.
Which two rivers meet to form river Brahmaputra.
Answer:
Rivers Dihang and Dibang.

Question 26.
Name an inland river of India.
Answer:
River Luni of Rajasthan.

Question 27.
Name the west flowing rivers of peninsular India.
Answer:
Rivers Narmada and Tapti.

Question 28.
Where does river Narmada rise from ?
Answer:
Amarkantak Peak of the Mahakal Range.

Question 29.
Where does river Tapti rise from?
Answer:
Mahadeo hills.

Question 30.
Where does the river Tapti drain its water finally?
Answer:
Gulf of Khambat.

Question 31.
Where is the source of river Mahanadi ?
Answer:
Near Amarkantak Peak of the Mahakal range.

Question 32.
Name the main tributaries of river Mahanadi.
Answer:
Rivers Brahmani and Baitarani.

Question 33.
Name the longest river of peninsular India.
Answer:
River Godavari.

Question 34.
What is river Godavari also known as ?
Answer:
The Ganga of the south.

Question 35.
Where is the source of river Krishna?
Answer:
Mahabaleshwar hills.

Question 36.
Name the major tributaries of river Krishna.
Answer:
Rivers Bhima and Tungabhadra.

Question 37.
Where is the source of river Cauvery ?
Answer:
Brahmagiri hills of Westem Ghats.

Question 38.
Name the main tributaries of river Cauvery.
Answer:
Rivers Himavati, Bhavani, Bedavati, Shimsa.

Question 39.
Name the famous waterfalls on river Cauvery.
Answer:
Shivasamudram.

Question 40.
Name 2 kayals or lakes of Kerala.
Answer:
Vembanad (largest) and Ashtamudi.

Question 41.
Name 2 lakes of Jammu and Kashmir.
Answer:
Dal lake, Wular lake.

Question 42.
Name 2 lakes of Uttarakhand.
Answer:
Bheemtal and Nainital.

Question 43.
Name 2 artificial lakes of India.
Answer:
Osman Sagar of Telengana, Puskar lakes of Rajasthan.

Question 44.
Name two irrigation canals of West Bengal.
Answer:
Damodar canal, Mayurakshee canal.

Question 45.
Name the largest irrigation canal of India.
Answer:
The Indira Gandhi canal or the Rajasthan canal.

Question 46.
Which is the longest canal of India ?
Answer:
Sharada canal of Uttar Pradesh.

Question 47.
Name an inundation canal of India.
Answer:
Hijli canal of West Bengal.

Question 48.
Name two perennial canals of India.
Answer:
Sharada canal of UP, Damodor canal of West Bengal.

Question 49.
Which state of India is maximum irrigated ?
Answer:
Punjab (about 94 % of cultivated land).

Question 50.
Which is the longest river dam of India ?
Answer:
Hirakud dam on river Mahandi in Odisha.

Question 51.
Name the highest dam of India.
Answer:
Bhakra Nangal dam on river Sutlej in Punjab.

Question 52.
Name the largest multipurpose project of India.
Answer:
Bhakra-Nangal Project.

Question 53.
Where is the ‘Sardar Sarovar Project’ located ?
Answer:
On river Narmada in Gujarat.

Question 54.
Name the dams under Damodar Valley Corporation.
Answer:

1. Mythan
2. Panchet
3. Konar
4. Tilaiya.

Question 55.
Which state ranks first in use of wells and tubewells for irrigation?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh.

Question 56.
Which state ranks first in rain water harvesting ?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu.

Question 57.
Which region is apt for digging wells for irrigation?
Answer:
Regions with soft soil and ample of ground water.

Question 58.
How much area is under canal irrigation in India ?
Answer:
45 % of total irrigated area.

Question 59.
On which river is the Mythan dam constructed?
Answer:
River Barakar.

Question 60.
On which river is the Panchet dam constructed?
Answer:
River Damodar.