Class 10

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 1.3 Works of a Glacier offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 1.3 Question Answer – Works of a Glacier

Answer in short : 2 Marks

Question 1.
What is a glacier?
Answer:
A glacier is a moving body of snow and ice which under the influence of gravity moves slowly over the land downslope.

Question 2.
What is an avalanche?
Answer:
Huge amount of snow and ice breaking off and falling along steep slopes of mountains is called an avalanche.

Question 3.
Classify glaciers.
Answer:

Question 4.
What are continental glaciers?
Answer:
In higher latitudes, glaciers cover almost the whole continent due to immense cold. These are called continental glaciers. Eg. – glaciers in Antarctica, Greenland, Iceland etc.

Question 5.
What are valley glaciers?
Answer:
Glaciers that flow through mountain valleys in higher latitudes and higher altitudes are called valley glaciers. Eg-Siachen glacier in the Karakoram range.

Question 6.
What are piedmont glaciers?
Answer:
When glaciers of higher latitudes reach the foothills of mountains, they still don’t melt due to immense cold. These are called piedmont glaciers.

Question 7. a
What is an arete?
Answer:
The thin steep ridge of the mountain lying between two adjacent corries is called an arete.

Question 8.
What is a pyramid peak ?
Answer:

When three or more corries are created on the surface of the same mountain, the sharp edged landform thus created looks like a pyramid. This is called the pyramid peak.

Question 9.
What are eskers?
Answer:

Long ridge of material deposited parallel to the direction of flow of glacial melt water is called an esker.

Question 10.
What are erratics?
Answer:
When glaciers melt, the boulders get deposited in an area where they may be a total mismatch with the surroundings. These are called erratics.

Question 11.
What are outwash plains?
Answer:

Materials washed out by glacial melt water and deposited in a variety forms are called outwash plains.

Question 12.
What are kettle lakes?
Answer:
The melt water from glaciers may get accumulated in holes created in outwash plains due to melting of detached mass of ice that might have been left partly or wholly buried. These are called kettle lakes.

Question 13.
What is an iceberg ?
Answer:
The huge masses of ice floating in the oceans are called icebergs. If continental glaciers spread till the coastline, the ocean currents cause the ice at the edge of the glaciers to break and float in the water. 8/9th parts of the icebergs lie beneath the water and only 1/9th part is seen above the surface.

Question 14.
What is snowline?
Answer:
The imaginary line above which the snow never fully melts or below which line, snow starts to melt is called mountain. The height of this line varies one climatic region to another.

Question 15.
What do you know about end moraines ?
Answer:
Moraines refers to the deposition by glaciers at the foothill region. When the shape of this depositions are horse-shoe shaped and have concave slopes, they are called end moraines.

Question 16.
What is paternoster lake?
Answer:
A glacier encountering weaker rocks at its base, will be able to erode deeper than when it experiences harder, less erodable rocks. As the glacier melts, lakes form where weaker rock was excavated, this lakes are called paternoster lake.

Question 17.
What is a nunatak?
Answer:
In a continental glacier, near the edges, where the ice layers are not so thick, some hills or domes may rise above the snowy surface, which have no deposition of snow on them. These bare rocky outcrops within the glacial snow are called nunataks.

Question 18.
What are the characteristics of continental glaciers ?
Answer:
The characteristics of continental glaciers are :

1. These glaciers are larger in volume and size than other types of glaciers.
2. These glaciers are thicker at the middle and thinner at the edges. Hence they look like domes.
3. Depth of these glaciers is greater compared to other glaciers.
4. The direction of flow of continental glaciers is from the centre towards the edges from all sides.
5. The edges of these glaciers break off to form icebergs.

Question 19.
What is a snout?
Answer:
In valley glaciers, the mass of ice flows through specific valleys. The walls and base of the valley provide immense friction and try to prevent the ice from flowing. Hence, the middle part of the glacier, which experiences less friction, seem to move forward. This appears like a tongue-shaped feature. This is known as the snout of the glacier. The snow of the snouts gradually melts to give rise to rivers.

Question 20.
Why are pyramidical peaks also called ‘horns’?
Answer:
The Matterhorn peak in Switzerland is an example of a pyramid peak. Hence, following the name of the peak, the pyramidical peaks are also called horns.

Question 21.
What is boulder clay ?
Answer:
Glaciers deposit unassorted load or debris when they start melting. If big boulders get deposited over a field of sandy and clayey deposits, the landform is called boulder clay or till.

Question 22.
What do you mean by a ‘Basket of eggs’ topography ?
Answer:
When numerous drumlins are formed due to glacial deoposition very close to each other, the region looks like numerous eggs placed in a basket. Hence, such a topograhy is called a ‘Basket of eggs’ topography.

Question 23.
What is an Agamuk ?
Answer:
The huge chunks of boulders and rock fragments deposited near mountains due to depositional work of glaciers form a typical landform called Agamuk.

Question 24.
What is an ice sheet?
Answer:
An ice sheet is a large mass of ice that covers the surrounding terrain and is greater than 50,000 km². This is also known as continental glacier.

Question 25.
What is crag and tail ?
Answer:
In a glaciated region, if any huge hard block of rock lies inbetween soft rocks, the glacier erodes the softrock while climbing up the huge hard rock. The soft rocks lying at the back of the hard rock from where the glacier descends, does not get eroded much compared to the front. Thus, the huge hard rock standing out is known as the crag and the band of softrock lying at the back is known as the tail.

Question 26.
What do you mean by ice age?
Answer:
Ice age is a period of long-term reduction in the temperature of the earth’s surface and the atmosphere, resulting in the presence or expansion of continental and polar ice sheets and alpine glaciers.

Question 27.
What are neve and firn?
Answer:
Neve is a granular, porous type of snow which has been partially melted, refrozen and compacted, leading to the formation of glacial snow. This forms the surface of the upper-end of the glacier. Firn is partially compacted neve. It is a type of snow that has been left over from the past seasons and has been recrystallized into a substance denser than neve. It is intermediate between snow and glacial ice.

Answer briefly : 3 Marks

Question 1.
How is a glacier formed ?
Answer:
In higher latitudes and higher altitudes, the regions above the snowline accumulated much snow due to immense cold. This snow is gradually compacted and converted to ‘neve’. This storage of ice gradually flows down the slope of land, hence forming a glacier.

Question 2.
What is a Bergschrund ?
Answer:
A Bergschrund is a long narrow crack developed at the source of the glacier. This is created when the mass of ice tends to flow down due to gravity and the mountain walls tend to hold back the ice due to friction.

Question 3.
Mention the methods by which a glacier erodes.
Answer:
The glacier can erode by the following methods:
(a) Plucking : As the glacier starts moving, the solid mass of ice plucks out any protruding rock that comes in the way. This is called plucking.
(b) Abrasion : As the glacier moves forward, the already plucked rock fragments rolls against the floor and walls of the valley and also against each other. This makes the rock fragments rounded and smooth. This is called abrasion.
(c) Frost Wedging : When glacial ice melts partially, the water percolates into the adjacent cracks and joints. Once again when it freezes, the volume of water (as ice) increases and exerts pressure on the walls of the cracks. Thus rocks break apart. This is called frost wedging.

Question 4.
What is a fjord?
Answer:
In higher latitudes, the glaciers near sea coasts erode their valleys so deeply that the base of the valleys seem to get lowered than the sea level as well. These regions get filled up with sea water and the higher walls look like gradually submerged ridges. Such a reigion is called a fjord. Eg-‘Sogne’ fjord of Norway.

Question 5.
Why are waterfalls common in hanging valleys ?
Answer:
In mountainous regions, where the smaller glaciers meet the main glacier, the main glacier curves deeper valleys than the smaller glaciers. When the ice melts, these smaller glacier valleys seem to hang over the main glacial valley, which is quite deeper. When water flows through the hanging valleys into the main valley, they obviously form waterfalls.

Question 6.
Why is the position of the snowline flexible ?
Answer:
The presence of permanent snow varies or depends on several factors – eg. latitudes, height, slope, season, wind direction, wind speed, heat content etc. Change in any of the factors results in melting of ice or falling of new snow. Hence, the previous snow line may get changed. Thus the snowline is flexible.

Question 7.
What is a drumlin ?
Answer:
Drumlins are long narrow deposition of boulders and clay brought down by glaciers at the foot hills of the mountains. They look like inverted boats. They are also known as ‘Basket of eggs’ topography.

Question 8.
Classify moraines.
Answer:
Moraines are the depositions of rock fragments and clay brought down by glaciers and deposited along their path of movement. They can be classified as :

(a) Side moraines : When the debris is deposited along the side walls of the glacial valley, they are known as side moraines.
(b) Medial moraines : When two glaciers meet, the side moraines of both the glaciers on one side tend to merge with each other. This deposition continues for a considerable distance and lies in the middle of the newly joint glacier.
(c) End moraines : When debris is deposited at the end of the glacier after which it starts melting into water, it is known as end moraines.

Question 9.
Differentiate between Roche moutonnee and Drumlin.
Answer:

Roche moutonnee	Drumlin
i. This looks like a high heap of rocks.	i. This looks like an egg basket or inverted boat.
ii. This is an erosional landscape of glaciers.	ii. This is a depositional landscape of glaciers.
iii. The side along the flow of the glacier is smooth, while the other side is rough.	iii. The side along the flow of the glacier is rough and the other side is smooth.
iv. This may lie single.	iv. This usually lies in groups.

Question 10.
Differentiate between Continental and Mountain Glaciers.
Answer:

Continental Glaciers	Mountain Glaciers
i. This occupies huge landmasses and spreads over almost the continents.	i. This occupies mountain valleys of high altitudes and high latitudes.
ii. Largest of all glaciers.	ii. Comparatively smaller glaciers.
iii. Usually depth of ice is very high.	iii. Usually have lesser depth of ice.
iv. Eg. – Lambert in Antarctica.	iv. Eg. – Gangotri, Yamunotri etc. of the Himalaya.

Question 11.
What are crevasses?
Answer:

Crevasses are cracks formed on the surface of glaciers. If the glaciers flow over a uniform slope throughout, crevasses are not formed. But if the surface underlying the snow is rugged and undulating, the glacier has to ride the higher parts and slope down the lower parts. Thus, a great force of tension works on the snow. This creates the crevasses.

Question 12.
On what factors does the erosive power of glaciers depend?
Answer:
The erosive power of glaciers depend on the following factors :

1. Speed : If the glaciers have greater speed, they have greater rate of erosion.
2. Depth of ice : Greater the depth of ice of the glacier, greater is its erosive power.
3. Permanency of the glacier : If the glacier remains so for a long period of time, its rate of erosion will also be much greater.

Question 13.
What is ‘Snowline’?
Answer:
Snowline is the boundary that marks the existence of permanent snow beyond a certain altitude due to very cold atmospheric conditions. According to F. J. Monkhouse, snowline indicates the lowest edge of continuous snow cover.

Question 14.
Name the different landforms created by glaciers in higher altitudes.
Answer:
The landforms created by glaciers on higher altitudes are – corrie or cirque, cirque lakes, arete, pyramid peak or horn, hanging valleys, spurs, fjords etc.

Question 15.
Name the different landforms created by glaciers in lower altitudes.
Answer:
The landforms created by glaciers on lower altitudes are – roche moutonnee, crag and tail, drumlin, esker, agamuk, till, kettle, kettle lakes, outwash plains etc.

Question 16.
Differentiate between a river valley and glacial valley.
Answer:

River Valley	Glacial Valley
i. V-shaped or I-shaped valleys are formed by rivers.	i. Glaciers form U-shaped valleys.
ii. In upper course, the down cutting of valley is more than side cutting.	ii. In glacial valleys, side cutting is more compared to down cutting.
iii. The valley walls are steep and the base is narrow.	iii. The valley walls are steep and the base is broad.
iv. Valleys in most regions are called gorges and those in dry regions are called canyons.	iv. Glacial valleys are of different types, eg-Alipne, Iceland type, mixed type etc.

Answer in details : 5 Marks

Question 1.
Explain the formation of corrie, arete and pyramidal peak by glacial erosion.
Answer:

Corrie, arete and pyramidal peak are landforms formed by mountain glaciers in the higher altitudes near the source of the glaciers.
(a) Corrie or cirque : Corrie or cirque in an armchair shaped or amphitheatre or spoon shaped depression created by the glacier on the higher slopes of the mountains from where the glacier starts flowing.
(b) Arete : The steep narrow sharp ridge like landform lying between two adjacent cirques are known as arete.
(c) Pyramidal peak : If three or more glaciers descend from the same mountain, formation of cirques and arete all around give a sharp and steep look to the peak, resembling a pyramid. This is known as the pyramidal peak.

Question 2.
Describe the formation of hanging valley and Roche moutonnee.
Answer:
Hanging Valley : In high altitudes, many small glaciers may come and meet with a large or main glacier. The smaller glaciers have lesser ice content and hence lesser erosive capacity than the main glacier. Hence, the valleys curved by smaller glaciers are lesser in depth than the main glacier. When the ice melts, these smaller glacial valleys seem to hang over the main glacial valley. This kind of a landform is called a hanging valley.
i
Roche moutonnee : If any resistant rock lies in the path of a glacier, the flowing ice and rock fragments polish the surface of the resistant rock on the side in the direction of flow of the glacier. The other side of the rock is scooped, scraped and plucked by the rock fragments and ice, thus making the surface rough and rugged, as the glacier moves forward. Such a landform, resembling the ‘back of a sheep’ is called a roche moutonnee.

Question 3.
Describe some landforms formed by glacial deposition.
Answer:
The landforms formed by glacial deposition are :

i. Moraines : Any landform formed by depositions of valley and continental glaciers is called moraines. The moraines can be mainly of three types – (a) Moraines deposited along side of glacial valley floor are called lateral moraines. (b) Where two lateral moraines of adjacent glaciers combine, the deposition lying in the middle of the main glacier is called medial
moraine. (c) Moraines deposited at the end of a glacier are called terminal or end moraines.

ii. Eskers : Long ridges of material deposited parallel to the direction of the flow of glacial melt water are called eskers.

iii. Erratics : These are depositions of boulders and rock fragments in an area where they are a total mismatch with the surroundings.

iv. Drumlins : These are low elongated hills formed by glacial deposits. They are also called ‘Basket of eggs’ topography.
v. Kames: These are small rounded hillocks of sand and gravel.
vi. Outwash plains : These are materials

Question 4.
Compare and contrast between the works of river and glacier.
Answer:

Item	Works of river	Works of glacier
(i) Definition	A flowing body of water coming downslope from high lands to lowlands due to gravity, meeting any sea, ocean, lake etc. is called a river.	A flowing body of huge amount of ice coming downslope from a mountainous region due to gravity is called a glacier.
(ii) Speed	Rivers have great speed in the mountainous region, medium speed in plateau region and less speed in the plains.	Glaciers have yery low speed throughout the course.
(iii) Path	River finds its path avoiding any obstacle by taking curves.	Glacier tends to flow in a straight path removing any obstacle that comes in the way.
(iv) Working capacity	Depends on slope of land, quality of rocks in the channel and water content.	Depends on amount of ice, slope of land and quality of rocks in the channel.
(v) Works	Erosion, transportation and deposition.	Erosion, transportation and deposition.
(vi) Methods of erosion	Hydraulic action, corrasion or abrasion, attrition, solution.	Plucking, abrasion and frost wedging.
(vii) Type of erosion	Mechanical and chemical	Only mechanical
(viii) Valley	V-shaped	U-shaped.
(ix) Erosional landforms	Gorge, canyon, waterfalls, pot hole, plunge pool, interlocking spur etc.	Corrie, arete, pyramid peak, hanging valley, roche moutonnee, crag and tail etc.
(x) Depositional landforms	Alluvial fan and cone, flood plain, natural levee, delta, sand bar, braided channel etc.	Moraines, eskers, kames, drumlin, erratics, outwash plains etc.

Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) :

Question 1.
Which of these regions has continental glaciers ?
(A) Himalaya
(B) Alps
(C) Andes
(D) Greenland
Answer :
(D) Greenland

Question 2.
Which landform is created by glacial erosion ?
(A) Arete
(B) Moraine
(C) Drumlin
(D) Plunge pool
Answer :
(A) Arete

Question 3.
Which landform is created by glacial deposition ?
(A) Cirque
(B) Hanging Valley
(C) Arete
(D) Moraine
Answer :
(D) Moraine

Question 4.
Cirques are
(A) Basins formed by river erosion
(B) Basins formed by wind erosion
(C) Vast amphitheatre like basin curved by glaciers
(D) None of these
Answer :
(C) Vast amphitheatre like basin curved by glaciers

Question 5.
Kettle holes are
(A) Depressions made by melting ice
(C) Depressions made by wind
(B) Depressions found at foot hills
(D) None of these
Answer :
(A) Depressions made by melting ice

Question 6.
Horn is created by
(A) One cirque
(B) Two cirques
(C) Cols
(D) Aretes
Answer :
(D) Aretes

Question 7.
Moraines are
(A) Depositions by rivers
(B) Depositions by glaciers
(C) Depositions by winds
(D) None of these
Answer :
(B) Depositions by glaciers

Question 8.
Drumlines are
(A) Boat-shaped depositions
(B) Narrow vallys
(C) Armchair shaped depression
(D) Pyramid peak
Answer :
(A) Boat-shaped depositions

Question 9.
Kames are
(A) Rift valleys
(B) Sand dunes
(C) Steep hills
(D) Long irregular hills formed by glacial deposition
Answer :
(D) Long irregular hills formed by glacial deposition

Question 10.
Outwash plain is
(A) Debris deposited by river
(B) Formed by silt deposition
(C) Debris deposited by ice at valley bottom
(D) None of these
Answer :
(C) Debris deposited by ice at valley bottom

Question 11.
Which landform is created by glacier?
(A) Inselberg
(B) Meander
(C) Pyramidal peak
(D) Gour
Answer :
(C) Pyramidal peak

Question 12.
Basket of eggs topography is related with
(A) Eskers
(B) Drumlins
(C) Outwash plains
(D) Corrie
Answer :
(B) Drumlins

Question 13.
Fjord coast is formed by
(A) Action of sea waves
(B) Submergence of river valleys
(C) Submergence of glacial valleys
(D) Action of wind
Answer :
(C) Submergence of glacial valleys

Question 14.
Hanging Valleys are formed by
(A) Mountain glaciers
(B) Continental glaciers
(C) Piedmont glaciers
(D) Coastal glaciers
Answer :
(A) Mountain glaciers

Question 15.
Glacial valley is
(A) I-shaped
(B) U-shaped
(C) V-shaped
(D) Y-shaped
Answer :
(B) U-shaped

Question 16.
The altitude over which snow never melts is called
(A) Snowline
(B) Glacier
(C) Tree line
(D) Cold wall
Answer :
(A) Snowline

Question 17.
Who commented – ‘A glacier is a mass of snow and ice that moves slowly over the land away from its placeof accumulation?
(A) Worcester
(B) Flint
(C) Lobeck
(D) Thombry
Answer :
(A) Worcester

Question 18.
The biggest glaciers on the earth’s surface are called
(A) Continental glaciers
(B) Cirque glaciers
(C) Niche glaciers
(D) Ice sheets
Answer :
(D) Ice sheets

Question 19.
Antarctica and greenland ice sheets are the examples of
(A) Mountain or valley glaciers
(B) Piedmont glaciers
(C) Continental glaciers
(D) Ice shelf
Answer :
(C) Continental glaciers

Question 20.
Which of the following is a floating thick ice sheet or ice cap attached to the coast?
(A) Ice field
(B) Ice shelf
(C) Valley glacier
(D) Cirque glacier
Answer :
(B) Ice shelf

Question 21.
The destruction of glacier front due to melting of ice consequently due to increase of temperature is called
(A) Advancement of glacier
(B) Stagnation of glacier
(C) Ablation of glacier
(D) None of these
Answer :
(C) Ablation of glacier

Question 22.
The glacier erodes its bed and side walls with the help of tools of erosion by the mechanism of
(A) Attrition
(B) Abrasion
(C) Corrosion
(D) Plucking
Answer :
(B) Abrasion

Question 23.
‘Head wall’ is a component of
(A) Tarn
(B) Nunatak
(C) U-shaped valley
(D) Cirque
Answer :
(D) Cirque

Question 24.
‘Corrie’ is the name of _____ in Scotland.
(A) U-shaped valley
(B) Arete
(C) Horn
(D) Cirque
Answer :
(D) Cirque

Question 25.
The line above which snow never meets in the high altitudes is called
(A) Snow line
(B) Glacier
(C) Iceberg
(D) Blow out
Answer :
(A) Snow line

Question 26.
______ part of an iceberg floats above the water surface
(A) 8 / 9
(B) 2 / 9
(C) 1 / 9
(D) 9
Answer :
(C) 1 / 9

Question 27.
Continental glaciers are seen is
(A) Himalayas
(B) Alps
(C) Andes
(D) Antarctica
Answer :
(D) Antarctica

Question 28.
The landform between two adjacent cirques is called
(A) Roches moutonnee
(B) Arets
(C) Pyramid peak
(D) Eskar
Answer :
(B) Arets

Question 29.
_____ is an example of an pyramidal peak
(A) Mont Blanc
(B) Matterhorn
(C) Mt. Abu
(D) Kanchenjunga
Answer :
(B) Matterhorn

Question 30.
The deepest fjord of the world is
(A) Dry galski fjord
(B) Geiranger fjord
(C) Soque fjord
(D) King oscar fjord
Answer :
(C) Soque fjord

Question 31.
Deep cracks on the surface of the mountain glacier are called
(A) Nunatak
(B) Creavasse
(C) Arete
(D) Cirque
Answer :
(B) Creavasse

Question 32.
A pyramidical peak formed due to recession and intersection of three or more cirques is called
(A) Horn
(B) Col
(C) Nunatak
(D) Arete
Answer :
(A) Horn

Question 33.
The higher peaks and mounds surrounded by ice from all sides are called
(A) Arete
(B) Nunatak
(C) Cirque
(D) Hom
Answer :
(B) Nunatak

Question 34.
Which glacial landform is formed by abrasion and plucking of step faults?
(A) Nunatak
(B) Roche Moutonne
(C) Grag and tail
(D) Glacial stairways
Answer :
(D) Glacial stairways

Question 35.
The rock debris carried by the glaciers are collectively called
(A) Tills
(B) Avalanches
(C) Glacial drifts
(D) Moraines
Answer :
(C) Glacial drifts

Question 36.
Which of the following terms refer to the depositional landforms of direct glacial origin?
(A) Moraines
(B) Talus
(C) Rock waste
(D) Regolith
Answer :
(A) Moraines

Question 37.
Which of the following are depressions in the outwash plains ?
(A) Kettles
(B) Cone Kames
(C) Beaded eskers
(D) Hummocks
Answer :
(A) Kettles

Question 38.
A tributary valley associated with the main glacial valley is called a
(A) Hanging valley
(B) V-shaped valley
(C) U-shaped valley
(D) None of these
Answer :
(A) Hanging valley

Question 39.
An armchain type of hollow cut into the mountain by a moving glacier is called a ______.
(A) U-shaped valley
(B) Roche moutonne
(C) Cirque
(D) Glacier lake
Answer :
(C) Cirque

Question 40.
Glacial troughs occupied by the sea are called
(A) Fjords
(B) Glacial groones
(C) Finger lakes
(D) None of these
Answer :
(A) Fjords

Question 41.
Fjord coasts are common in
(A) Norway
(B) Germany
(C) Sweden
(D) France
Answer :
(A) Norway

Fill in the blanks : 1 Mark

1. Glaciers flow faster in the ________ season.
2. The German word ‘berg’ means _______.
3. Bergschrunds are known as _______ in French.
4. The rock fragments of different sizes coming down by the melting of the glaciers is called _______.
5. The longest glacier of India is _______.
6. The Peterman glacier of greenland is a _______ glacier.
7. The ice line or snow line lies at the highest altitude in the _________ region.
8. The largest continental glacier of the word is the ______ glacier.
9. ________ is known as the land of fjords.
10. Corrie lakes are known as ______ in France.
11. The snow-less peaks in an ice covered regions are called _______.
12. Drumlins looks like _______.
13. The limit below which snow starts melting is called _______.
14. Eskar is a ________ landform formed by glacier.
15. Horizontal and parallel cracks or fractures found on the surface of a glacier are called _______.
Answer :
1. Summer
2. mountain
3. Rimaye
4. Boulder clay
5. Siachen
6. Continental
7. Equatorial
8. Lambort
9. Norway
10. Cirques
11. Nunatakes
12. inverted boats
13. snowline
14. Depositional
15. Crevasse

State True or False : 1 Mark

1. The period between two ice ages is called the non-ice age. [ ]
2. The outwash plain separated by a river is called the valley train. [ ]
3. Presently, the largest number of glaciers are found in Asia. [ ]
4. Eskers are formed by erosional work of glaciers. [ ]
5. Glaciers do not lie at the same altitude always. [ ]
6. The glacial valleys are U-shaped. [ ]
7. The floating blocks of ice in oceans are called snow lines. [ ]
8. The tongue-shaped part in front of a moving glacier is called a shout. [ ]
9. Matterhorn peak in the Alps is a pyramidical peak. [ ]
10. Small continental glaciers are known as glacier sheets. [ ]
11. Nunatakes are seen in polar region. [ ]
12. The submerged glacial valleys formed due to erosion by continental or mountain glaciers are called fjords. [ ]
13. The regions clustered with drumlines is also called ‘basket of eggs topagraphy’. [ ]
14. Waterfalls are formed from the meltwater of hanging valleys after deglaciation. [ ]
15. Altitude of snowline varies with latitudes. [ ]
Answer:
1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. False
8. True
9. True
10. False
11. True
12. True
13. True
14. True
15. True

Answer in few words : 1 Mark

Question 1.
What is a crevasse?
Answer:
Cracks that develop on the surface of a glacier.

Question 2.
What is snow line?
Answer:
The altitude above which there is permanent snow lying throughout the year is known as the snow line.

Question 3.
What is a glacier?
Answer:
A glacier is a body of ice that flows downwards along the slope of the land due to gravity.

Question 4.
What is a snout ?
Answer:
The glacier’s downstream end is called snout.

Question 5.
What is iceberg ?
Answer:
Huge blocks of ice that break off from glaciers and fall into the sea are called icebergs.

Question 6.
Where do piedmont glaciers lie ?
Answer:
At the foot of the mountains.

Question 7.
Which is the world’s longest continental glacier ?
Answer:
Lambert glacier in Antarctica.

Question 8.
What are the main works of a glacier?
Answer:
Erosion, transportation and deposition.

Question 9.
How are moraines formed ?
Answer:
By glacial deposition.

Question 10.
What are kames?
Answer:
Rounded hillocks of sand and gravel formed due to glacial deposition.

Question 11.
How does a landform comprising of several drumlins look like?
Answer:
Basket of eggs topography.

Question 12.
What kind of a glacier is Siachen in India ?
Answer:
Mountain or valley glacier.

Question 13.
What are compaction of granular snow called ?
Answer:
Firm.

Question 14.
Which continent has the maximum number of glaciers ?
Answer:
Antarctica.

Question 15.
Name the largest valley glacier of the world ?
Answer:
Lambert.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 2.3 Heat, Temperature and Global Warming offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 2.3 Question Answer – Heat, Temperature and Global Warming

Answer in short : 2 Marks

Question 1.
What is ‘insolation’?
Answer:
According to H.C. Gitchfield, radiant energy from the sun that strikes the earth is called insolation. Insolation is received in the form of shortwaves. The amount of insolation that comes to the earth’s surface is only one part of two hundred crore parts of the sun’s heat.

Question 2.
What is albedo?
Answer:
A very little fraction of the sun’s energy comes to the earth as insolation, of which the total energy is not absorbed by the earth. 34% of the insolation is reflected back to space by the dust, ice crystals and cloud present in the atmosphere. This is called ‘albedo’.

Question 3.
What is heat budget?
Answer:
The incoming solar radiation is balanced by an equal amount of outgoing radiation returned from the earth. This balance maintained between the insolation and outgoing radiation is called the ‘heat budget of the earth.’

Question 4.
How is the heat balance of the earth maintained ?
Answer:
The average temperature of the earth remains same more or less throughout the year. The 66% of insolation received during day time is radiated back during the night. Thus, although there may be some seasonal variations, total balance of heat throughout the year is never disturbed. This is how the heat balance of the earth is maintained.

Question 5.
What is the ‘normal lapse rate of temperature’?
Answer:
In the troposphere, the temperature of the atmosphere is inversely proportional to the altitude of a place. With every 1 km or 1000 m rise in altitude, temperature reduces by 6.4°C. This is known as the ‘normal lapse rate of temperature’.

Question 6.
On what factors does the amount of insolation depend?
Answer:
The insolation depends on several factors like – (a) length of day (b) distance between the sun and the earth (c) clarity of the atmosphere (d) angle of incidence of solar rays etc.

Question 7.
What do you mean by ‘inversion of temperature’?
Answer:
By the normal lapse rate, temperature reduces by 6.4°C with every 1 km rise in altitude. But in some cases, it is seen that temperature increases with increase in height. This phenomenon is known as the inversion of temperature. This is common in valleys of mountainous regions during early morning and late nights.

Question 8.
What do you mean by the ‘diurnal range of temperature’ ?
Answer:
The range of temperature between the maximum and minimum temperatures recorded in a single day is called the diurnal range of temperature.

Question 9.
What do you mean by Average or Mean temperature ?
Answer:
The average between the highest and lowest temperatures recorded in a day is called the average or mean temperature.

Question 10.
What is ‘Mean monthly temperature’ ?
Answer:
The average of the mean temperatures of all the days of a month is known as the mean monthly temperature.

Question 11.
What do you mean by the annual range of temperature?
Answer:
Annual range of temperature is the difference between the mean temperatures of the hottest and coldest months of the year.

Question 12.
What is average annual temperature?
Answer:
The average of the mean temperatures of all the months of the year is known as the average annual temperature.

Question 13.
What do you mean by Katabatic winds?
Answer:

Cold air in steep and deep valleys descends down and accumulates at the bottom due to gravity during the night. Such winds by which the cold air is forced to lie below the warm air is called Katabatic winds.

Question 14.
What do you mean by Anabatic winds?
Answer:

Cold air descends into valley bottoms during the night due to Katabatic winds. During day time, this air is gradually heated and warmed. This warm air starts rising along the valley walls. This is known as Anabatic winds.

Question 15.
Name the different temperature zones of the world.
Answer:
The different temperature zones of the world are :

1. The Torrid zone.
2. The North Temperature zone.
3. The South Temperate zone.
4. The North Frigid zone.
5. The South Frigid zone.

Question 16.
What do you mean by temperature zones or belts ?
Answer:

Temperature of the earth’s atmosphere tends to change significantly along with change in latitudes from the equator towards the poles. The earth being round, these latitudinal zones having similar temperature conditions can be demarcated as spherical belts or zones. These are known as temperature zones.

Question 17.
What is a isotherm ?
Answer:
Isotherms are imaginary lines drawn on a map joining places of the same average temperature for a specified period, supposing the places to be reduced to the sea level.

Question 18.
What is global warming ?
Answer:
Global warming is the process of gradual increase of the general temperature of the earth due to increase in the use of green house gases and many other reasons. Temperature of the earth has increased by 1° from 1900 to 2000 .

Question 19.
Name some green house gases.
Answer:
Some green house gases are : Carbon dioxide (C₂), Carbon monoxide (CO), Methane (CH₄), Nitrous Oxide (N₂O), Chloro fluoro carbon (CFC), Water vapour (H₂O), Ozone (O₃) etc.

Question 20.
What is El Nino?
Answer:
El Nino refers to the large scale ocean-atmospheric climatic interaction linked to a periodic warming in sea surface temperatures across the central and eastcentral equatorial Pacific Ocean. The effects of El Nino disturbs the global distribution of rainfall and temperature and also affect the seasons.

Question 21.
What is Solar constant?
Answer:
The rate at which energy reaches the earth’s surface from the Sun through perpendicular rays, usually taken to be 1388 watts per sq. meter is called solar constant.

Question 22.
What is the heat equator?
Answer:
Heat equator or thermal equator is a imagenary belt encircling the earth connects all places having highest mean annual temparature at each longitude around the globe. This line roughly followed the 5° North latitude.

Question 23.
What is Six’s maximum and minimum thermometer?
Answer:
It is a instrument measuring the temperature of the day in terms of maximum and minimum value. So that it helps to calculate the average temparature and the diurnal range of temperature.

Question 24.
What is effective solar radiation?
Answer:
The earth receives one part of two hundred crore parts of sun’s radiation. Of this, about 34% of the heat energy is reflected back to space as Albedo. The remaining 66% of the heat energy that heats up the earth’s surface directly or indirectly is called Effective Solar Radiation.

Question 25.
Why does the atmosphere get heated maximum at 2 pm. even though the vertical solar rays reach the earth’s surface at 12 noon?
Answer: The most important process of heating the atmosphere is radiation by the earth’s surface. Although the earth receives maximum heat through the vertical rays of the sun at around 12 noon, the rate of radiation is maximum at 2 p.m. Hence, the atmosphere gets heated to its maximum during this time.

Question 26.
Name the hottest and coldest places of the earth.
Answer:
The hottest place of the earth is Al Azizia of Libya in Africa (58°C). The coldest place is Vostok of Antarctica (-88°C).

Question 27.
When does a place experience the highest and lowest temperatures in a day?
Answer:
In a day, the highest temperature is experienced around 2 p.m. and the lowest temperature is experienced just before sunrise.

Question 28.
What do you mean by Torrid Zone?
Answer:
The zone spreading from \(23^{1 / 2}\)°N (Tropic of Cancer) to \(23^{1 / 2}\)° S (Tropic of Capricorn is known as the Torrid Zone. It is the hottest zone of the world.

Question 29.
What do you mean by the Temperate Zone?
Answer:
The zone lying between the Tropic of Cancer (\(23^{1 / 2}\)° N) and Arctic Circle (\(66^{1 / 2}\)° N) in the northern hemisphere and the zone between the Tropic of Capricorn (\(23^{1 / 2}\)° O) and Antarctic Circle (\(66^{1 / 2}\)° S) in the southern hemisphere are known as the Temperate Zones.

Question 30.
What do you mean by the Frigid Zone?
Answer:
The zone lying between the Arctic Circle (\(66^{1 / 2}\)° N) and the North Pole (90^{\circ N) in the northern hemisphere and the zone between the Antarctic Circle (\(66^{1 / 2}\)° S) and the South Pole (90° S) in the southem hemisphere are called Frigid zones.

Question 31.
What do you mean by Green House effect?
Answer:
The increasing concentration of green house gases in the atmosphere like Carbon dioxide, Methane, Chloro fluoro carbon, water vapour, ozone etc. are increasing the general temperature of the atmosphere by absorbing and holding back more and more heat. This gradual process of increasing the atmospheric temperature in general is called global warming, which is the outcome of Green House effect.

Answer in brief : 3 Marks

Question 1.
Differentiate between heat and temperature of the atmosphere.
Answer:

Heat	Temperature
i. Heat is an energy.	i. Temperature is the measure of the condition of heat of any object.
ii. Heat leads to change of temperature.	ii. Temperature is the result of heat.
iii. Two objects having same temperature may have different heat contents.	iii. Two objects having same heat content may have different temperatures.
iv. Measured in calories or joules with the help of calorimeter.	iv. Measured in degree centigrade or fahrenheit with the help of thermometers.

Question 2.
Why does temperature decrease with increase in altitude?
Answer:

Atmospheric temperature decreases with increase in altitude for the following reasons :

1. Insolation first heats up the earth’s surface. This heat is radiated into the atmosphere gradually heating the layers from bottom to top.
2. The upper layers of the atmosphere are less dense and can rapidly radiate out heat and get cooled.
3. Pressure is less in the upper levels of the air, hence their heat absorbing capacity is also less.
4. The dust and other particles present in the upper layers absorb most of the heat and hence the air remains cool.

Question 3.
Why is lowest temperature recorded during dawn or early morning ?
Answer:
The earth takes almost the whole night to radiate back the insolation that it receives during the day time. Hence it becomes coolest during the early morning or dawn, before the insolation of the next day starts.

Question 4.
What are the importances of temperature in the atmosphere?
Answer:
The importances of temperature in the atmosphere are:

1. Temperature helps in birth, growth and other activities of living things on the earth.
2. It helps in germination of seeds.
3. Difference in temperature in different regions of the earth brings about growth of different species of plants and animals in different regions of the world.
4. Rate of evaporation, formation of clouds, rainfall, snowfall etc. depend on temperature conditions of a place.
5. Difference in temperature of different places leads to difference in air pressure, hence leads to generation of winds.

Question 5.
Why is annual range of temperature of deserts very high?
Answer:
The reasons for great difference of temperature between hottest and coldest months in deserts are as follows :
(i) Deserts are composed of sand particles containing quartz which absorb and release heat very quickly. Hence extremes of temperature are seen.
(ii) Lack of vegetation in deserts attract very less rainfall. Hence extreme temperatures are seen.
(iii) The sandy soil of deserts have very less water holding capacity. Hence the soil gets heated very quickly and also release heat very quickly.

Question 6.
Explain the process of radiation in heating the earth’s atmosphere.
Answer:
The insolation received by the earth comes in the form of short wave radiations and reach the earth’s surface without heating the atmosphere much. When this heat is radiated back by the earth in the form of long waves, it is easily absorbed by the air surrounding it. This terrestrial radiation helps to heat up the atmosphere to the maximum.

Question 7.
What is the role of conduction in heating the atmosphere ?
Answer:
Conduction is the process in which one particle transmits heat to another particle. Air is a poor conductor of heat and only the lower layers of the atmosphere are heated by conduction. Thus, it is a less significant process of heating the atmosphere.

Question 8.
What is Convection?
Answer:
Transfer of heat by the movement of a mass or substance from one place to another is called convection. The air particles being heated from their contact with the earth’s surface become lighter and rise. The comparatively cool air particles in the upper layers are heavier and come down slowly. This process form air currents that are known as convection currents.

Question 9.
What is Advection?
Answer:
Advection is the process by which the hot air moves along the earth’s surface horizontally and heats up the cool air of some other place. By this process, the heat of the lower latitudes is transmitted towards the higher latitudes. This process may affect temperatures of adjacent local areas as well. Eg. – ‘Loo’ is transmitted by the process of advection.

Question 10.
What are the effects of El Nino?
Answer:
The effects of El Nino are :

1. Occurrence of El Nino considerably reduces rainfall in the south-east Asian countries, Indonesia, Australia and regions near the Indian ocean.
2. Rainfall occurs in Peru and Atacama desert region of South America.
3. Warm ocean curents influenced by the El Nino warm up the waters near the coastal region of Peru. Thus planktons cannot survive. This harms fish accumulation and fish catch.
4. It obstructs the blowing of monsoon winds, thus reducing rainfall.
5. It causes the weather of the western hemisphere to become warmer than normal.
6. The corals and other sea creatures may get killed.

Question 11.
What are the effects of La Nina ?
Answer:
The effects of La Nina are :

1. La Nina causes heavy rainfall in western part of Pacific ocean, south and eastern Asia and north and eastern Australia.
2. In the southern hemisphere, the months from December to February remain much moist and the equatorial region in Africa remains comparatively drier.
3. Tropical cyclones increase in South and Eastern Asia.
4. Severe droughts persist in Peru and adjacent areas in South America.
5. North-western parts of North America receive more rainfall than normal.
6.  Canada experiences severe cold winters.

Question 12.
Why is lowest temperature experienced during very early morning or just before dawn?
Answer:
The earth receives insolation throughout the day and radiates it back after sunset. It takes almost the whole night to radiate back all the heat before it starts receiving heat once again the next day. Hence, the atmosphere remains coolest during the dawn and very early morning, and the lowest temperatures are recorded during this time.

Question 13.
What are isotherms ? What are its characteristics?
Answer:
Isotherms are imaginary lines drawn on weather maps to join places having the same temperature at the same time. The characteristics of isotherms are:

1. The isotherms run almost parallel to the latitudes.
2. They run almost straight and parallel over the oceans, but there may be deviations and ups and downs when they run over the landmasses due to variations in climatic conditions over land.
3. Value of the isotherm goes on reducing from the equatorial to polar regions.
4. Lack of cloud cover allows insolation and radiation unhindered.

Question 14.
Why are cloudless nights cooler than the cloudy nights ?
Answer:
Cloud directly absorb 48% of sunlight in daytime which affect the insolation of the earth. Similarly when temperature of the earth is radiate in night time to balance the temperature on the surface of the earth, cloud prevents to radiate temperature. So that when the nights have cloud covered sky, these are warmer than the nights have clear sky or cloudless sky.

Question 15.
What do you mean by inversion of temperature?
Answer:
Generally temperature decreases with increasing height of the surface at a rate of 6.4°C per 1000 m. But in some exceptional cases, temperature is increase with increasing height of the surface. This phenomena is called inversion of temperature. In mountaineous regions, at night, there has been blown cold Katabetic wind from hill top to valley. As a result temperature on the hill top area are warmer than valley region.

Question 16.
Why the places of lower altitudes are warmer than the higher altitudes?
Answer:
Air density decreases with increasing height. In addition to this, amount of water vapour and dust particles are also decrease in higher altitudes. For these reasons, air is more warmer in low lying area and cooler in high.

Answer in details : 5 Marks

Question 1.
Explain the causes of difference in temperature in the atmosphere.
Answer:
The factors that cause difference in temperature in the atmosphere are :
(i) Latitude : The latitudes exercise the most dominant control over the duration of sunshine and thereby the length of the day. The higher is the latitude, the lower is the amount of heat received.

(ii) Altitude : By the normal lapse rate, temperature decreases by 6.4°C with every 1 km rise in altitude. Hence, higher altitude places are colder than lower regions.
(iii) Distribution of land and water bodies : Heat absorbing capacities of land and water bodies are not equal. Latent heat capacity of water is more compared to land. Hence, extremes of temperature are noticed on land, while water bodies show moderate range of temperature.
(iv) Wind : Hot winds blowing over cold areas tend to increase atmospheric temperature and vice versa.
(v) Ocean currents : Planetary winds influence ocean currents. Warm currents may be directed towards cold regions, thus increasing the temperature of the coastal regions, and vice versa.
(vi) Slope of land : In mountainous regions, one side receives more sunlight than the other. Hence, the slope that receives more sunlight is warmer than the opposite slope which is comparatively cooler.

(vii) Cloud cover : Cloud cover acts like an umbrella preventing escape of heat from the atmosphere, thus increasing temperature. Clear sky allows insolation and radiation at greater rates, thus resulting in large temperature differences between day and night.

(viii) Rainfall : Rainfall helps to reduce heat. Hence, heavy rainfall areas near the equator may appear to be less warm compared to less rainfall areas of tropical regions.
(ix) Vegetation : Dense vegetative cover stops solar energy to heat up the ground and also attract rainfall, hence influences the temperature conditions.
(x) Soil : Soils that can hold water, control temperature conditions as they do not get heated very fast. Dry and coarse soils get heated and cooled very fast.
(xi) Industrial and urban growth : Increase in number of industries, cars, cities and several urban activities tend to heat up the atmosphere more than rural areas.

Question 2.
Describe the temperature belts/zones of the earth in brief.
Answer:

The earth is divided into several temperature belts or zones according to the latitudes. They are : Torrid zone, North and South Temperate zones and North and South Frigid zone.

(i) Torrid zone: This lies from the Equator (0°) to the Tropic of Cancer (\(23^{1 / 2}\)° N) in the north and Tropic of Capricorn (\(23^{1 / 2}\)° S) in the south. The characteristics are:
(a) The sun gives vertical rays to this region.
(b) Length of day and night remains almost equal throughout the year.
(c) Average temperature is quite high (about 27°C )

(ii) North and South Temperate Zones : These zones spread from the Tropic of Cancer (\(23^{1 / 2}\)° N) to the Arctic Circle (\(66^{1 / 2}\)° N) in the north and from Tropic of Capricorn (\(23^{1 / 2}\)° S) to the Antarctic circle (\(66^{1 / 2}\)° S) in the south. The characteristics are :
(a) Sun gives medium inclined rays to this region.
(b) Average temperature is cooler than the Torrid zone.
(c) The \(23^{1 / 2}\)°-50° region is known as the warm temperate zone while the 50°-\(66^{1 / 2}\)° zone is known as the cool temperate zone.

(iii) North and South Frigid Zones : These zones spread from the Arctic Circle (\(66^{1 / 2}\) ° N) to the North Pole (90° N) in the north and from the Antarctic Circle .(\(66^{1 / 2}\)° S) to the South Pole (90° S) in the south. The characteristics are :
(a) The sun gives highly inclined rays to this region.
(b) Length of day and night is highly inequal.
(c) Average temperature remains below 0°C.
(d) Most of the time the region experiences snowfall and remains snow-covered.

Question 3.
What are the effects of global warming ?
Answer:
The effects of global warming are discussed below :
i. Melting of glaciers : Global warming increases the average temperature of the earth’s atmosphere, which results in melting of ice caps and glaciers. This will submerge coastal areas due to increase in level of sea water. The fluvial cycles will be disturbed and landforms will change. Many flora and fauna may be destroyed.

ii. Climatic change : The northern hemisphere will become hotter than the southern hemisphere due to presence of more land masses here. Amount of rainfall in Tropical regions will increase by 10-15%. The northern countries may experience flood and the southern countries will experience drought in the northern hemisphere.
Summers will be longer. Chances of thunder storms and cyclones will increase.

iii. Ecosystem : Change in climate due to global warming may result in extinction of many species of birds, animals and plants.

iv. Effect on vegetation and agriculture : Excessive heat may hamper the growth of coniferous trees in hilly areas. Mangroves may be drowned due to rise in sea water level. Some crops like corn, sugarcane, jowar, bajra etc. will have increased production while crops like rice, wheat, barley, soyabean, tobacco, jute etc. will reduce their growth.

v. Spread of diseases: The germs and bacteria will become highly active and spread diseases like dengue, malaria, yellow fever, encephalitis etc. Some tropical diseases may spread to higher latitudes also.

vi. Spread of deserts : High temperature and high rates of evaporation will turn many places arid and hence boost the spread of deserts.

vii. Forest fires : Too much heat will dry up leaves and branches and cause frequent forest fires.

Question 4.
What do you mean by green house gases? What are the uses of green house gases?
Answer:
The gases which play an important role in increasing the average temperature of the earth’s atmosphere are called Green House Gases. Some of the Green House Gases are Carbon Dioxide (CO₂), Carbon Monoxide (CO), Methane (CH₄), Chloro fluoro carbon (CFC), Nitrous Oxide (N₂O), Water vapour, etc. Uses – The Green House Gases are prepared naturally in the environment and are also sometimes the outcome of human activities. These gases are very important for life activities. The sun’s energy reaches the earth’s surface daily as insolation, and is radiated back daily. The Green House Gases trap the outgoing infrared radiation and send it back towards the earth’s surface. This helps to keep the earth’s atmosphere warm, which would have otherwise become so chilled due to out-radiation that no life would have been possible on earth. But the problem is, if the amount of Green House Gases increases drastically, they will hold back so much heat that it will increase the atmospheric temperature at alarming rates. This condition will also be not suitable for existence of life on earth.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 1.2 Works of a River offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 1.2 Question Answer – Works of a River

Answer in short : 2 Marks

Question 1.
What is the hydrological cycle?
Answer:
Water is present on the surface of the earth in rivers, lakes, oceans, ponds and other water bodies. This water gets evaporated by the sun’s heat and mixes with the atmosphere. Again, this vapour condenses and forms clouds and comes back to the earth’s surface as rain or snow. This cyclical movement of water from the earth’s surface and sub-surface to the atmosphere and vice versa is known as the hydrological cycle.

Question 2.
What is tributaries and distributeries ? Give example.
Answer:
Tributary : A tributary is a stream or a river which flows into a larger river. A tributary does not flow directly into a sea or ocean. For example, river Gomati and Son are tributaries of river Ganga.
Distributary : A stream that flows into a main-stream (or parent) river called distributary. For example, Hooghly is the distributary of Ganga.

Question 3.
What is peneplain?
Answer:
A more or less level land surface produced by erosion over a long period of time is called peneplain. It is a representation of a near-final stage of fluvial erosion. e.g.-Chotonagpur region.

Question 4.
What is Knick point ?
Answer:
Knick point refers to a particular point of the surface. where there is a sharp change in the slope of a river. After rejuvination, this particular point of sharp change of river slope occured, which is known as knick point.

Question 5.
What do you mean by rejuvination?
Answer:
The action of restoring a river or stream to a condition characteristic of a younger landscape is called rejuvination. Rejuvination occured for various reasons, i.e. earthquake, river captured etc.

Question 6.
What is a river ?
Answer:
A river is a flowing water body, which collects its water from rain and snow melt, flows down the hilly slopes through a natural channel due to gravitational force and meet with any other water body like ocean, sea, lake etc.

Question 7.
What is a river basin ?
Answer:
The area drained by the main river, the tributaries and distributaries from the source to the mouth is called the river basin.

Question 8.
What is a water-divide?

Answer:
The highland that separates two or more river basins lying adjacent to each other is called a water-divide. Usually the hills, mountains, ridges etc. act as waterdivides.

Question 9.
What is a river valley ?

Answer:
The channel through which a river flows, is known as the river valley. The shape and size of the river valley depends on the amount of water, depth of water and speed of the river.

Question 10.
What is an ideal river?
Answer:
An ideal river is one which has three prominent courses from source to mouth, i.e.- upper course or youth stage, middle course or maturity stage and lower course or old age stage.

Question 11.
Why is river Ganga known as an ideal river ?
Answer:
River Ganga is known as an ideal river because it exhibits all the three stages of a river. (i) The upper course lies from Gomukh to Haridwar, (ii) The middle course lies from Haridwar to Dhulian in West Bengal, (iii) The lower course lies from Dhulian to Gangasagar in West Bengal.

Question 12.
What is ‘Sixth power law’?
Answer:
The transportation capacity of a river depends on the river’s velocity and volume of water. If the velocity of the river is doubled, the transportation capacity is increased by 2⁶ = 64 times. This is known as the ‘Sixth power law’ of a river.

Question 13.
Name the methods by which a river erodes.
Answer:
A river erodes by the methods of – hydraulic action, corrosion or abrasion, attrition and solution.

Question 14.
Name the methods by which a river transports the eroded material.
Answer:
A river transports the eroded materials by – traction, saltation, suspension and solution processes.

Question 15.
Mention the factors on which the transportation capacity of a river depends.
Answer:
The transportation capacity of a river depends on – slope of the river valley, velocity of the river, volume of water, size, shape and characteristics of the loadbeing carried.

Question 16.
What is a pot hole ?

Answer:
The round pot-like holes cut on the river beds by the swirling water and the rock fragments by the process of corrosion or abrasion are called potholes.

Question 17.
What is a plunge pool ?
Answer:
The depression or hole created at the foot of a waterfall due to falling of water along with rock fragments with high velocity, is known as a plunge pool.

Question 18.
What is a cataract?
Answer:
When a series of waterfalls come down in steps over a staircase-like land form, it is known as a cataract.

Question 19.
What is a cascade?
Answer:
A series of small waterfalls of the same river lying close to each other is called a cascade.

Question 20.
What is a rapid ?
Answer:
When small streams or waterfalls come down with high velocity by jumping step by step over the area, it is called a rapid.

Question 21.
Name the different types of deltas.
Answer:
The different types of deltas are : Bird’s foot delta, Arcuate delta and Cuspate delta.

Question 22.
Give a brief introduction of the New Moore island.
Answer:
The newly formed island at the Indo-Bangladesh border, five kmsouth from the mouth of River Hariyabhanga in the Bay of Bengal, is known as the “New Moore’ or ‘Purbasha’ island.

Question 23.
What is a catchment area or catchment basin ?
Answer:
In the hilly regions, numerous small streams and springs of water flow from different directions and contribute the water to form a main river. These numerous thin streams and springs help to keep the supply of water continuously for the main river. This region, from the main river takes shape of a basin is called the catchment area or catchment basin.

Question 24.
What do you mea by ‘River regime’ ?
Answer:
According to F. J. Monkhouse, river regime refers to the seasonal variation of water volume in the river.

Question 25.
Mention the works done by a river in its course of flow.
Answer:
An ideal river has three stages in its course of flow. In the upper course, the river mainly erodes materials. In the middle course, the main work is transportation of the eroded load. In the lower course, the main work is deposition of the load transported so far.

Question 26.
What is ‘Cusec’ and ‘Cumec’?
Answer:
‘Cusec’ and ‘Cumec’ are units of measuring the volume of water flowing through a river. ‘Cusec’ refers to the amount of cubic feet of water flowing through a particular point of the river in one second time. ‘Cumec’ refers to the amount of cubic metres of water flowing through a particular point of the river in one second time.

Question 27.
What do you mean by the last limit of erosion of a river ?
Answer:
Last limit of erosion of a river refers to the last limit of the lower course of the river where its erosive power finally ends. Usually, the sea level is considered as the last limit of erosion of a river.

Question 28.
What do you mean by degradation by river ?
Answer:
In a river, if the load is lesser than the capacity of load that it can carry, it continues its work of erosion, thus lowering the river beds and widening the walls. This is known as degradation by river.

Question 29.
What do you mean by aggradation by river ?
Answer:
In a river, if the load is far more than the capacity of load that it can carry, it starts depositing the load, thus increasing the height of landforms and decreasing the depth of the river beds. This is known as the aggradation of river.

Question 30.
Name some important water-divides in India.
Answer:
The important water-divides present in India are :

1. The Himalayan range (the largest water-divide of India)
2. The Western Ghats (the second largest water-divide of India)
3. The Vindhya and Mahakal ranges (the third largest water-divide of India)
4. The Satpura range.

Question 31.
What is a ‘Fall line’?
Answer:
In a hilly region or a plateau region, when numerous small rivers flow towards a steep and almost vertical edge of a mountain ridge or plateau, a number of waterfalls are created in a line. This is known as a ‘Fall line’. Eg. – In North America, the Appalacian mountains meet the coastal plains in a steep slope, creating a series of waterfalls along the edge of the range.

Question 32.
Name the landforms created in the upper course of a river.
Answer:
The different landforms created in the upper course of a river are – V-shaped valleys, U-shaped valleys, gorges, canyons, waterfalls, plunge pools, pot holes, interlocking spurs etc.

Question 33.
Name the landforms created by deposition of rivers.
Answer:
The different landforms created in the lower course of a river are – alluvial cone, alluvial fan, flood plain, natural levee, meanders, sandbars, delta etc.

Question 34.
What is an arcuate delta?
Answer:
The deltas whose outer boundary lies in an arch or looks bow-shaped towards the sea are called arcuate deltas. Eg.- deltas of rivers Ganga, Nile, Hwang Ho etc.

Question 35.
What is a bird’s foot delta ?
Answer:

The deltas that look like a bird’s claws or fingers spreading one beside the other, are called Bird’s foot deltas. Eg. delta of river Mississippi in North America.

Question 36.
is a cuspate delta ?
Answer:

The deltas which have sharp edges towards the sea, and look like cusps or pointed teeth pointing towards the sea at the edge, are called cuspate deltas. Eg-deltas of rivers Tiber in Italy and Ebro in Spain.

Answer in brief : 3 Marks

Question 1.
When does a river start depositing its load ?
Answer:
The river starts depositing its load under the following conditions :
(a) If the volume of water in the river reduces due to less rainfall, drought, dry season or percolation through rock beds,
(b) If the slope of the river valley reduces, it also reduces the speed of the river.
(c) If load of the river increases.
(d) If the river flows through a lake for a certain length.

Question 2.
Differentiate between abrasion and attrition.
Answer:

Abrasion	Attrition
i. The river beds and walls get eroded by action of rock fragments hitting against them.	i. The rock fragments carried by the river hit against each other and reduce in size.
ii. Rock fragments collide against river beds and walls.	ii. Rock fragments collide against each other.
iii. This type of erosion is very effective.	iii. This type of erosion is less effective.
iv. This type of erosion creates pot holes, plunge pools etc.	iv. This type of erosion creates sand, silt, clay etc.
v. Depth and width of river channels increase.	v. Depth of river channel is reduced by certain deposition of silt or sand.
vi. Abrasion does not hinder transportation of materials by rivers.	vi. Attrition hinders transportation of materials to a certain extent.

Question 3.
Why are V-shaped valleys created in the upper course of rivers?
Answer:
The causes of formation of V-shaped valleys in the upper course of rivers are:

(a) The rivers have high velocity in the upper course. They cut downwards much more than sidewards. Thus the valleys look like a ‘V’.
(b) Sometimes the ‘I’ shaped valleys may collapse to form ‘V’ shaped valleys.
(c) The hard rocks of the river valley walls are difficult to erode by sidewise pressure of water than downward pressure.

Question 4.
Why is erosion predominant in the upper course of a river?
Answer:
Erosion is predominant in the upper course of a river as – (a) Steep slope of the region gives high velocity to the river and increases its erosive powers. (b) Volume of water remains high due to snow melt as well as rain water, which makes the river more active.

Question 5.
Differentiate between ‘Gorge’ and ‘Canyon’.
Answer:

Gorge	Canyon
i. Very narrow and deep valley created in hard rock mountainous regions.	i. Very narrow and deep valley created in soft rock arid and semiarid mountainous regions.
ii. Formed by down cutting of river much more compared to side cutting.	ii. Formed by down cutting of perennial rivers in arid regions, where side cutting is prevented due to lack of rainfall.
iii. Found in wet high fold mountain regions.	iii. Found in dry and arid regions and limestone regions as well.
iv. Resembles the alphabet ‘V’.	iv. Resembles the alphabet ‘I’
v. Eg. – Royal Gorge of Arkansas, Sampo Gorge of Tibet.	v. Eg. – Grand Canyon of the river Colorado, USA is the deepest canyon of the world.

Question 6.
Mention the conditions where a waterfall can be created.
Answer:
Water of a river falling freely from a certain height in the upper course of the river is called a waterfall. Waterfalls can be created by the following conditions:
(a) Hard and soft rock beds lying alternately horizontal, vertical or diagonal to each other.
(b) If a plateau meets a plain in a steep slope.
(c) Faulting across the river valley.
(d) Hanging valleys created by glacial action.
(e) Knick points created due to rejuvination of rivers.

Question 7.
Differentiate between alluvial cone and alluvial fan.
Answer:

Alluvial cone	Alluvial fan
i. When the river leaves the mountainous region and enters a region of less slope suddenly, it deposits its load like pebbles, sand, rock fragments etc. in the form of a cone. This is called an alluvial cone.	i. When water flows over the alluvial cones, the depositions of the cones get spread and looks like a halfcircle. This is known as an alluvial fan.
ii. This looks like a cone.	ii. This looks like a half-circle or a hand fan.
iii. Height of the cone is greater than the alluvial fan.	iii. Height of the fan is lower than the alluvial cone.
iv. Slope is steep.	iv. Slope is gentle.

Question 8.
Discuss briefly the different processes of transportation of load by a river.
Answer:
A river transports its load by the following processes:
(a) Traction : The heavier and large rock fragments are forced to flow down
along the river water by rolling on the floor of the river channel due to gravity.
(b) Saltation : The fragments of rocks are moved downstream by jumping over the river bed continuously.
(c) Suspension : The fine particles of the river’s load remain suspended in the river due to buoyancy of water while they are carried downstream.
(d) Solution : Soluble particles are dissolved in the river water and moved downstream.

Question 9.
What is a flood plain ?
Answer:

In the lower course, the speed of the river is much less due to very gentle slope of the land. The river starts depositing its load in the river bed itself, thus reducing its water holding capacity. During the rainy season, when excess water comes into the river, it overflows. Much of silt, sand and clay deposits also overflow with the water and spread over large areas. This process of repeated overflow and spread of silt develops an extensive plain on both sides of the river, known as flood plains.

Question 10.
What is a natural levee?
Answer:
When silt, clay etc, are deposited at the banks of a river in the middle course every year, the height of the banks are increased compared to the adjacent lands. This looks like a natural dam, and is known as a natural levee. Such features on either side of the river channel helps to increase the depth of the river bed and its water holding capacity.

Question 11.
Differentiate between the Catchment Area and River Basin.
Answer:

Catchment Area	River Basin
i. At the source of a river, numerous small streams and springs of water flow downwards from the surrounding highlands to supply water to the main river. This is known as the catchment area.	i. The main region through which the main river, tributaries and distributaries flow is known as the river basin.
ii. Main function of the catchment area is to supply water to the main river.	ii. Main function of the river basin is to collect water from rainfall and other tributaries and make it flow towards the sea.
iii. Catchment area lies only at the source of the river.	iii. River basin spreads after the catchment area till the mouth of the river.
iv. Catchment area is much smaller compared to the basin of the same river.	iv. River basin is many times larger than its own catchment area.

Question 12.
By what processes does the river erode in its course of flow ?
Answer:
A river erodes in the course of its flow by the following processes :

1. Hydraulic action : This is the process by which the river water itself exerts pressure and friction and causes erosion.
2. Corrosion : In this process the rock fragments and pebbles collide against the walls and floor of the river basin and cause erosion.
3. Attrition : The rock fragments and pebbles flowing in the river collide against each other and break into smaller fragments.
4. Cavitation : In a turbulent stream, numerous air bubbles are created. These bubbles exert severe pressure when they burst, thus can cause erosion.
5. Solution : Soluble materials may get dissolved in river water and get removed. This causes erosion.

Question 13.
On what factors does the transportation capacity of a river depend ?
Answer:
The transportation capacity of a river depends on the following factors :

1. Slope of land: Greater the slope of land, greater will be the velocity of the river, hence, greater will be the capacity of transportation.
2. Amount of water : Greater the amount of water, greater is the transporting capacity of a river.
3. Amount of load : Greater the amount of load, lesser is the transportation capacity.
4. Size and weight of load: Greater the size and weight of load, lesser is the transportation capacity.

Question 14.
On what factors does the erosive power of rivers depend?
Answer:
The erosive power of the rivers depend on the following factors :

1. Speed of the river: The speed of the river depends on the slope of the land. Higher the speed, greater the erosive capacity of the river.
2. Amount of water : Greater the amount of water present in a river, greater is its erosive power. It can be noted that in rainy seasons, when the water level of the rivers increases, their erosive powers also increase.
3. Nature of rocks in river bed : If the rocks of the river bed are soft in nature, the river will erode more. If the rocks are hard, erosion will be less.
4. River load: The amount of load carried by the river also influences erosive power of the river. Greater the amount of load, greater is the amount of erosion.

Question 15.
How are pot holes formed ?
Answer:

The river bed is much eroded by the rock fragments and pebbles being carried by the river itself. When these rock fragments hit constantly against the river bed, the softer rocks get eroded away, creating hollows or depressions. When water falls into these depressions, they swirl around and then move forward. These shallow depressions or hollows are called pot holes.

Question 16.
What is a meander?
Answer:

In the course of flow of a river, the speed of the river is much reduced from the middle course towards the lower course. This reduces the carrying capacity of the river. The river starts depositing materials within its own bed as well as the banks. Thus obstructions are created in the course of flow. To avoid these obstructions, the river starts taking curves gradually and elongates its course, so that all can be accommodated. These curved portions of the river are called meanders. Meanders may get intensely curved and cut off to form ox-bow lakes.

Question 17.
What is an ox-bow lake?
Answer:

In the middle and lower course of a river, the speed of the river reduces so much that the carrying capacity of the river also reduces. It starts depositing materials within its own bed as well as on the banks. Thus, the river starts taking curves, forming meanders. When these meanders take intense curves, they may get cut off from the main river due to depositions that block their way. The main river flows by in a straight path and the cut-off part remains stagnant, forming a lake. These lakes look like the foot of a horse or an ox. Hence, they are called ox-bow lakes.

Question 18.
What do you mean by river capture?
Answer:
When two streams are flow along a water divide, the stronger stream erodes faster and greater with the passage of time, the headward erosion of the stronger stream erode the water divider and flows instead down the bed of neighbouring weaker stream. This phenomena is called river capture. This can happen for several reasons, including earth movement, landslide or ice sheet sliding etc.

Question 19.
Classify deltas according to their origin and explain them.
Answer:
There are two types of deltas according to their origin, such as (A) Constructive and (B) Destructive deltas.
(A) Constructive delta : Rivers deposited all eroded materials (sand, silt etc) into its beds in the lower course and form triangled new land called delta. These deltas are also called constructive delta. Such as Majuli.
(B) Destructive delta : When these deltas are continuously changing their shape and size for the action of waves, and tides, they are called desctructive delta. Such as deltas of river Rhone

Question 20.
Why do floods occure frequently in the lower course of the river?
Answer:
Lower course of the rivers are prone to frequent floods. The reasons behind this are :
i. Surface slope is almost zero in the lower course of the river. So huge amount of water of the river can not able to flow with high velocity towards the sea.
ii. River beds are loaded with maximum deposits. Thus the depth of the river channel gradually decreases. During the rainy season, as the extra amount of water is added to the river, both the banks of the river get flooded.

Answer in details : 5 Marks

Question 1.
Describe the landforms created by erosion of river in the upper course.
Answer:
The various landforms formed in the upper course of the river are :

(a) Gorge or V-shaped valley : In the upper course, the down cutting force of the river is much more than lateral erosion. Hence, the channel develops more depth than width, and looks like a ‘V ‘ shaped valley.
(b) Canyan or I-shaped valley : When the river flows through an arid region made up of non-resistant rocks, most of its energy is spent in down-cutting rather than widening of the valley. Thus the valley developed looks like ‘I’ shaped.
(c) Pot holes : Round disc-like depressions curved by the swirling water and rock fragments on the bed or floor of the river are called pot holes.

(d) Waterfalls : When water of the river falls freely from a height due to very steep slope, it is called a waterfall. They are further classified into rapids, cataracts and cascades.

(e) Interlocking spurs : When a number of projecting ridges or spurs extend from opposite sides of the wall of a V-shaped valley alternately, they seem to overlap or interlock. Such a series of spurs are called interlocking spurs.

Question 2.
Discuss the landforms formed due to deposition in the middle course of a river.
Answer:

The landforms formed in the middle course of a river are :
(a) Alluvial cone : As the river descends from a mountain and enters into a plain, it deposits extra load at the foothills in the form of a cone. This is known as alluvial cone.
(b) Alluvial fan : When the alluvial cone spreads wider and looks like a half-wide or a hand fan, it is known as the alluvial fan.
(c) Flood plains : Flooding of the rivers spread silt and clay to extensive areas on both sides of the river channel. This forms the flood plains.

(d) Natural levee : Repeated flooding tends to increase the height of the river banks and looks like long extensive dams along the banks. This is called natural levee.
(e) Meanders : The river develops broad bends and ‘S’ curves while flowing through the depositions in the middle course. These are called meanders.

(f) Ox-bow lakes: When the curves of the meander comes too close, the loop tends to join, forming a neck. The curved portion of the loop is gradually cut-off by further deposition. This horse-shoe shaped stagnant water body is known as the ox-bow lake.

Question 3.
What is a delta ? Why do deltas develop at the mouth of the rivers?
Answer:
Velocity of the river is almost nil where it meets with the sea. Thus, the heaviest amount of depositions occur here. The main channel is broken into numerous distributaries as more and more depositions take place. The region acquires a triangular shape and looks like the Greek letter Delta (Δ), hence the name. Deltas develop under the following conditions :

(a) The sea bed near the mouth of the river is very shallow.
(b) Slope is negligible.
(c) Tidal action is low.
(d) Huge amount of bed load.
(e) Numerous tributaries of the main river to add up to the load.
(f) Low current of river water at the mouth.
(g) Wind blowing in opposite direction to the flow of river water.
(h) Enclosed sea with lesser disturbances.
(i) Long course of the river.
(j) Absence of lakes and other depressions in the path of the river.
(k) Wet and humid weather rather than dry weather.

Question 4.
Compare and contrast alluvial cone with delta.
Answer:

Alluvial cone	Delta
i. Formed due to deposition of materials at the foot hills of mountains when the river enters the plains from the mountains.	i. Formed due to heavy deposition of materials when the river tends to meet the sea at the lower course.
ii. Formed of coarse and bigger rock fragments deposited at the foot hills.	ii. Formed of very fine silt and clay particles deposited at the mouth of the river.
iii. Resembles a cone.	iii. Resembles a flat triangle area.
iv. Covers a smaller area.	iv. Covers a larger area.
v. No other classification.	v. Can be classified into bird’s foot, arcuate and cuspate deltas.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) : 1 Mark

Question 1.
A river is a part of the – cycle.
(A) Hydrological
(B) Biological
(C) Ecological
(D) Atmosphere
Answer:
(A) Hydrological

Question 2.
The river attains water from
(A) Rainfall
(B) Snow melt
(C) Rain and show melt
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Rain and show melt

Question 3.
Qarrying and removing of loose bedrocks by running water of a river is known as
(A) Corrosion
(B) Hydraulic action
(C) Solution
(D) Attrition
Answer:
(B) Hydraulic action

Question 4.
The process of erosion by collision between flowing rocks and the river bed and walls is called
(A) Corrosion
(B) Traction
(C) Solution
(D) Attrition
Answer:
(A) Corrosion

Question 5.
Erosion of materials by dissolving in river water is called
(A) Abrasion
(B) Attrition
(C) Solution
(D) Saltation
Answer:
(C) Solution

Question 6.
Wearing down of rock materials by collision against each other is known as
(A) Attrition
(B) Solution
(C) Transportation
(D) Saltation
Answer:
(A) Attrition

Question 7.
Large rocks and pebbles are dragged by the river by the process of
(A) Transportation
(B) Traction
(C) Saltation
(D) Solution
Answer:
(B) Traction

Question 8.
Rock fragments move downstream by jumping continuously by the process of
(A) Siltation
(B) Saltation
(C) Solution
(D) Attrition
Answer:
(B) Saltation

Question 9.
Rock fragments remain suspended and are flown down by
(A) Solution
(B) Suspension
(C) Siltation
(D) Saltation
Answer:
(B) Suspension

Question 10.
Soluble particles are carried away by
(A) Saltation
(B) Corrosion
(C) Suspension
(D) Solution
Answer:
(B) Corrosion

Question 11.
The beginning of a river is called the
(A) Channel
(B) Silt
(C) Course
(D) Source
Answer:
(D) Source

Question 12.
The path of the river is called the
(A) Channel
(B) Bed
(C) Source
(D) Mouth
Answer:
(A) Channel

Question 13.
Small rivers joining the main river are called
(A) Tributaries
(B) Distributaries
(C) Source
(D) Mouth
Answer:
(A) Tributaries

Question 14.
Small streams that flow out of the main river are called
(A) Tributaries
(B) Source
(C) Distributaries
(D) Mouth
Answer:
(C) Distributaries

Question 15.
Two rivers meet at the –
(A) Mouth
(B) Source
(C) Confluence
(D) Channel
Answer:
(C) Confluence

Question 16.
A landform of the upper course of the river is
(A) Alluvial cone
(B) Canyon
(C) Meander
(D) Ox-bow lake
Answer:
(B) Canyon

Question 17.
Pot hole is created in the course of river.
(A) Lower
(B) Middle
(C) Upper
(D) Everywhere
Answer:
(C) Upper

Question 18.
Natural levee are formed in course of river.
(A) Upper
(B) Lower
(C) Middle
(D) Everywhere
Answer:
(C) Middle

Question 19.
Sand bars and deltas are formed in cource of river.
(A) Upper
(B) Lower
(C) Middle
(D) Everywhere
Answer:
(B) Lower

Question 20.
Materials deposited by rivers are called
(A) Moraine
(B) Debris
(C) Salts
(D) Alluvium
Answer:
(D) Alluvium

Question 21.
How much of the landform formation is influenced by the work of rivers?
(A) 30 %
(B) 50 %
(C) 60 %
(D) 70 %
Answer:
(D) 70 %

Question 22.
Who named the landform ‘delta’ for the first time?
(A) Herodotus
(B) Pithagoras
(C) Thornbury
(D) Davis
Answer:
(A) Herodotus

Question 23.
Which instrument is used to measure the water current of a river ?
(A) Barometer
(B) Altimeter
(C) Currentmeter
(D) Rain gauge
Answer:
(C) Currentmeter

Question 24.
An example of a water divide in India is
(A) Western ghats
(B) Punjab plains
(C) Eastern coastal plains
(D) Ganga plains
Answer:
(A) Western ghats

Question 25.
The delta of river – looks like the teeth of a saw.
(A) Nile
(B) Tiber
(C) Ganga
(D) Mississippi
Answer:
(B) Tiber

Question 26.
A bird’s foot delta is seen in the river
(A) Mississippi
(B) Ganga
(C) Nile
(D) Rhine
Answer:
(A) Mississippi

Question 27.
Potholes are created in the river channels due to
(A) Friction
(B) Abrasion
(C) Action of bubbles
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Abrasion

Question 28.
Canyons are created due to
(A) Erosion
(C) Deposition of rivers.
(B) Transportation
(D) Transportation and deposition
Answer:
(A) Erosion

Question 29.
The Majuli island is located in the river
(A) Ganga
(B) Brahmaputra
(C) Indus
(D) Narmada
Answer:
(B) Brahmaputra

Question 30.
The depressions created at the base of waterfalls are called –
(A) Potholes
(B) Plunge pools
(C) Alluvial fans
(D) Oxbow lakes
Answer:
(B) Plunge pools

Question 31.
The largest river basin of the world is
(A) Nile basin
(B) Ganga basin
(C) Amazon basin
(D) Rhine basin
Answer:
(C) Amazon basin

Question 32.
The water flowing through a river channel is measured in
(A) Knots
(B) Cm
(C) Cusec
(D) Inch
Answer:
(C) Cusec

Question 33.
The erosional work of the rivers depends on
(A) Channel gradient
(B) River load
(C) Velocity
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 34.
Which of the following involves removal of loosened materials of the rocks of valley walls and valley floors with the help of erosional tools?
(A) Solution
(B) Abrasion or Corrasion
(C) Attrition
(D) Traction
Answer:
(B) Abrasion or Corrasion

Question 35.
Which of the following is the mechanical tear and wear of the erosional tools in themselves?
(A) Traction
(B) Corrosion
(C) Abrasion
(D) Attrition
Answer:
(D) Attrition

Question 36.
The level at which a river completely stops erosional work is called
(A) Base level
(B) End level
(C) Maximum level
(D) Local level
Answer:
(A) Base level

Question 37.
A very deep and narrow valley is called a
(A) Gorge
(B) Canyon
(C) Pothole
(D) Plunge pool
Answer:
(B) Canyon

Question 38.
Which of the following may be defined as a vertical drop of water of enormous volume from a great height in the long profile of the river?
(A) Terraces
(B) Rapids
(C) Cataracts
(D) Waterfalls
Answer:
(B) Rapids

Question 39.
Alternate bands of hard and soft rocks give birth to a series of small step-like falls called
(A) Cataracts
(B) Rapids
(C) Cascades
(D) Terracas
Answer:
(C) Cascades

Question 40.
Which of the following refers to the bends in the longitudinal courses of the rivers?
(A) Waterfalls
(B) River terraces
(C) River meanders
(D) River valleys
Answer:
(C) River meanders

Question 41.
Which of the following is the result of both erosion and deposition?
(A) River valley
(B) River terraces
(C) Plunge pool
(D) Meanders
Answer:
(D) Meanders

Question 42.
The depositional features at the foot hills of the Himalayas are called
(A) Bhangar
(B) Bhabar
(C) Khadar
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Bhabar

Question 43.
Which of the deltas are formed when the river water is as dense as the sea water?
(A) Birdfoot delta
(B) Estuarine delta
(C) Arcuate delta
(D) Truncated delta
Answer:
(C) Arcuate delta

Question 44.
Ganga delta is an example of
(A) Arcuate delta
(B) Birdfoot delta
(C) Estuarine delta
(D) Truncated delta
Answer:
(A) Arcuate delta

Question 45.
Grand Canyon in United States is the work of river
(A) Colorado
(B) Mississippi
(C) Tennessee
(D) Missouri
Answer:
(A) Colorado

Question 46.
The longest river of the world is :
(A) Mississippi-Missouri
(B) Nile
(C) Ganga
(D) Amazon
Answer:
(B) Nile

Question 47.
‘Kuick point’ of a river is seen is
(A) Ox-bow
(B) Flood plain
(C) Waterfall
(D) Pot holes
Answer:
(C) Waterfall

Question 48.
Alluvial cones are formed in the rivers
(A) Upper
(B) Middle
(C) Lower course
(D) None
Answer:
(B) Middle

Question 49.
The river valley created in the dry regions due to deepcutting of soft rocks are called
(A) Gorge
(B) Canyon
(C) Hanging valley
(D) Creavasses
Answer:
(A) Gorge

Question 50.
The very deep and narrow ‘v’ shaped valley are called
(A) Gorge
(B) Canyon
(C) Interlocking Spur
(D) Waterfalls
Answer:
(B) Canyon

Question 51.
The unit for measuring the volume of water flowing through a certain part of a river is said to be 1 cusec, when the volume of water flowing through is
(A) 1 cubic meter
(B) 1 cubic feet
(C) 1 cubic inch
(D) 1 cubic centimeter
Answer:
(D) 1 cubic centimeter

Question 52.
When the speed of the river increase by two times, its carrying capacity increased by
(A) 7
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 64 times
Answer:
(D) 64 times

Question 53.
The main cause of submergence of the island of sundarbans is
(A) Heavy rainfall
(B) Cyclone
(C) Rise in sea level
(D) Flood
Answer:
(C) Rise in sea level

Question 54.
The sediments depositions on the convex side of meanders are called
(A) Pool
(B) Point bar
(C) Pluge pool
(D) flood plain.
Answer:
(B) Point bar

Question 55.
A falline is a
(A) Band of hard rocks
(B) Chain of waterfalls
(C) Steepness of valley side
(D) All of these
Answer:
(B) Chain of waterfalls

Fill in the blanks : 1 Mark

1. V-shaped river valleys are found in the ________ stage of the river.
2. The formation of rapids and waterfalls is found in the _______ course of the river.
3. The delta in Inda is the largest delta of the world.
4. The breaks in the channel gradient caused by rejuismation of rivers are called ________.
5. The average height of natural levees is ________.
6. If the speed of the river is doubled, its carrying capacity increases by _______ times.
7. The gersoppa waterfalls are also known as ________.
8. The _______ delta of India is an active delta.
9. River _______ is known as the sorrow of Bengal.
10. The waterfalls move _______ of the river.
11. The narrow plain region between two rivers is called the ________.
12. The landform which separates two river systems is called the ________.
13. _______ lakes are created near delta regions.
14. Deltas are created in the _______ course of rivers.
15. Alluvial fans are created at the _______ of mountains.
16. River _______ is an inland river of India.
17. The New Moore island is known as _______ in Bangladesh.
18. A fault lying across the river in a mountanious region gives rise to ________.
19. In the upper course of a river, downcutting of valleys mainly occure due to ________.
20. The longest river of the world is river _______.
21. The island of Newmoore and Ghoramara have submerged due to ________.
22. The river erodes least in the _______ course.
23. The term meander came from the river ________.
24. Holes formed by abrason on river bed are called _______.
25. According to the name of _______ river, the zigzag course of a river is as meander.
Amswer:
1. Youthful
2. Upper/Youthful
3. Ganga-Brahmaputra
4. Knick points
5. 10 m
6. 64
7. Jog falls
8. Sundarban
9. Damodar
10. Headward
11. Doab
12. Water divide
13. Oxbow
14. Lower
15. Foothill
16. Luni
17. South Talpatti
18. Waterfalls
19. Abreasion
20. Nile
21. Rise in the sea level
22. Lower
23. Buyuk meanders
24. Pot holes
25. Meanders.

State True or False : 1 Mark

1. Interlocking spurs are found in the lower course of the rivers. [ ]
2. If slope of land increases, the speed of river reduces. [ ]
3. No delta has developed at the mouth of river Narmada. [ ]
4. River Godavari is an ideal river. [ ]
5. River Brahmaputra is the longest river of India. [ ]
6. The river Ganga rises from the Chemuyung Dung glacier. [ ]
7. The New Moore is a newly formed island of the Sundarbans. [ ]
8. The process of friction of rock fragments with the river bed is called abrasion. [ ]
9. The middle course of the river Ganga lies between Allahabad and Patna. [ ]
10. Canyans are formed in cold climatic regions. [ ]
11. The rivers mostly erode sidewards in the upper course. [ ]
12. Meanders are created when the speed of the river increases. [ ]
13. River Ganga is a perenial river. [ ]
14. The mouths of the rivers are generally wide. [ ]
15. Deep creeks and estuaries are found in the Sundarban regions. [ ]
16. The plains formed at the base level of erosion by rivers has been termed peneplains by Davis. [ ]
17. The Dasam falls have been formed in the river Subarnarekha [ ]
18. ‘Meander’ comes from the river Menderes in Turkey. [ ]
19. The largest river island of the world is Ilha-da-Marajo. [ ]
20. The hairpin bend of a river is also called the ‘elbow of river capture’. [ ]
21. The main work of the river in its mountaneous course is erosion. [ ]
22. Work of river starts above the snowline. [ ]
23. Potholes are created in the riverbeds due to abrasion and attrition. [ ]
24. The sea level is the last limit of erosion. [ ]
25. The Grand Canyon lies in the course of river Colorado. [ ]
26. The scientific study of the river is known as potamology. [ ]
27. Rapids are larger than cascade in dimension. [ ]
28. Waterfalls are mostly formed at the upper stages of the rivers. [ ]
29. Oxbow lakes are seen in the upper course of a river. [ ]
30. Canyons are ‘U’ shaped valley. [ ]
31. Pot holes are formed at the base of waterfall. [ ]
32. The confluence of Alakananda and Bhagirathi rivers is at Devprayag. [ ]
Answer:
1. False
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. False
6. False
7. True
8. True
9. True
10. False
11. False
12. False
13. True
14. True
15 . True
16 . True
17. True
18. True
19. False
20. True
21. True
22. True
23. True
24. True
25. True
26. True
27. False
28. True
29. False
30. False
31. False
32. True

Match the following :

List 1	List 2
A. Arcuate delta	1. Mississippi delta
B. Birdfoot delta	2. Yellow river delta
C. Esturanine delta	3. Nile delta
D. Abandoned delta	4. Hudson delta

codes:

Answer:
[D]

Answer in few words : 1 Mark

Question 1.
What is a river?
Answer:
A large stream of flowing water along the slope on the earth’s surface.

Question 2.
What are the main works of a river?
Answer:
Erosion, Transportation, Deposition.

Question 3.
How many courses does an ideal river have ?
Answer:
Three courses – upper, middle, lower.

Question 4.
Where does a river start and end ?
Answer:
The river starts at the source and ends at the mouth.

Question 5.
What is a river basin ?
Answer:
The area drained by the main river, tributaries and distributaries.

Question 6.
Name some landforms of the upper course of the river.
Answer:
V-shaped and I-shaped valleys, gorges, canyons, pot holes, waterfalls etc.

Question 7.
Name some landforms of the middle course of the river.
Answer:
Alluvial cones and fans, flood plains, natural levee, meanders, ox-bow lakes etc.

Question 8.
Name some landforms of the lower course of the river.
Answer:
Sand bar, delta, braided channel etc.

Question 9.
Which is the largest delta of the world ?
Answer:
The Ganga-Brahmaputra delta.

Question 10.
Where was the Lohachara island situated ?
Answer:
Sundarban.

Question 11.
How far does the upper course of river Ganga lie?
Answer:
Gomukh to Haridwar.

Question 12.
On which course of the river depositional activities are the least?
Answer:
Upper course.

Question 13.
What is the curved of a river is called ?
Answer:
Meandar.

Question 14.
Name the place where the river meets the sea.
Answer:
Estuary.

Question 15.
What is the sediment carried by the river called ?
Answer:
Bed load.

Question 16.
Name the process of erosion in which air bubbles trapped in small spaces implode to erode rocks.
Answer:
Cavitation.

Question 17.
Which is the longest estuary of the world ?
Answer:
Gulf of Ob.

Practicing with West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions and West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019 alongside detailed explanations can lead to a deeper understanding of the subject.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2019

Group-A

1. Write the correct answer from the given alternatives

1. The process by which the height of the earth’s surface increases is ………….
Answer: Aggradation.

2. Deep cracks on the surface of the mountain glacier are called ………….
Answer: Crevasse.

3. Annual range of temperature remains minimum in ………….
Answer: Equatorial climate region.

4. Cold local wind that blows in Rhone valley of France is called ………….
Answer: Mistral

5. The place where warm and cold ocean currents converge is called ………….
Answer: Cold wall.

6. When the distance between the earth and the moon is farthest, it is called-
Answer: Apogee.

7. In human body, contaminated water may cause ………….
Answer: Diarrhoea.

8. The main basis of state recognisation in India is ………….
Answer: Language.

9. The source of river Ganga is ………….
Answer: Gangotri glacier.

10. In India, the largest multipurpose river valley project is ………….
Answer: Bhakra-Nangal.

11. The state which ranks first in production of rice per hectare is ………….
Answer: West Bengal.

12. The required raw materials of iron and steel industry include.
Answer: All of them.

13. According to 2011 census the number of metropolis in india is ………….
Answer: 53

14. The latitudinal and longitudinal extension of million sheet topographical map is ………….
Answer: 4°x4°

Group-B.

1. If the statement is true, write ‘T’ and if false, write ‘F’ against the following :

1. Altitude of snowline varies with latitudes.
Answer: True

2. Wind velocity is measured with the help of Anemometer.
Answer: True

3. Salinity of sea-water is maximum in Equatorial region.
Answer: False

4. The highest plateau of India is Deccan Trap.
Answer: False

5. The old alluvial soil of Ganga plain is called Bhangar.
Answer: True

6. Vishakhapattanam is the only tax-free port of India.
Answer: False

7. Red coloured lines are used to show roads in satellite images.
Answer: False

2. Fill in the blanks with suitable words

1. Holes formed by abrasion on river bed are called pot holes.
2. Smog is formed by mixing of dust and fog during winter in industrial region.
3. Labrador current causes snowfall in New Foundland.
4. Waste paper is a solid/biodegradable type of wastes.
5. Tropical early jetstream forests south-west monsoon winds to blow over India.
6. The southernmost most paint of mainland India is kanyakumari.
7. Kolkata is the most populous city of India.

3. Answer in one or two words

1. Which type of rainfall is found in Temperate zone?
Answer: Frontal or cyclonic rainfall.

2. Which island of Sundarban was completely submerged due to global warming?
Answer: New Moore island.

3. Which type of natural vegetation is found in the desert region of India?
Answer: Xerophytes.

4. On which quarters of moon, does Neaptide occur?
Answer: 1st and 3rd quarters of the moon.

5. In which part of the course, river Ganga is maximum polluted?
Answer: Middle course.

6. Name one Zaid crop of India.
Answer: Aus rice, nuts, pumpkin, cucumber, etc.

7. Which state of India leads in ‘Rain-water harvesting’?
Answer: Tamil Nadu.

8. Where is the headuarter of ‘Survey of India’ located?
Answer: Dehradun.

4. Match the left column with the right column.

1. Prominence of ozone gas	a. Gurgaon
2. Research Institute of sugarcane	b. Jammu & Kashmir
3. Largest automobile manufacturing industrial centre	c. Stratosphere
4. Karewa	d. Lucknow

Answer:
1- c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b

Group-C

3. Answer the following in brief

Question 1.
What is denudation?
Answer:
After weathring, when the weathered earth materials are remained from their position by erosion and mass wasting, the surface beneath the debris becomes open and forms a new landform. This process of opening up of the new surface of the landform is called denudation.
Denudation-Weathering + Erosion + Mass wasting

OR.

What is inversion of temperature?
Answer:
By the normal lapse rate, temperature reduces by 6.4°C with every 1km or 1000m rise in altitude. But in some cases, it is seen that temperature increases with increase in height or altitude. This phenomenon is known as the inversion of temperature. This is common in valleys of mountainous regions during early morning and late night

Question 2.
What is ‘Inter-tropical convergence zone’?
Answer:
The Inter-tropical convergence zone is the region around the equator, extending up to about 5°-10° N and S latitudes. It is called so because the Northeastern and South-eastern Trade winds meet in this region.

OR.

State the definition of ocean current.
Answer:
A continuous and regular horizontal movement of ocean water in a fairly defined direction over a great distance on the surface or sub-surface of the ocean is called ocean currents. they are mostly caused by wind direction, rotation of the earth, temperature, salinity and density of ocean water, prsence and location of landmass, etc. Ocean currents are of two types-warm currents and cold currents.

Question 3.
Define waste management.
Answer:
Waste management is the method of collecting wastes scientifically, segregating then, taking steps for recycle, reuse and reduction, so that the ultimate damage or pollution caused by the wastes comes down to the minimum.

OR

What do you mean by radioactive wastes?
Answer:
Radioactive wastes are by-products of various nuclear technology processes. Industries generating radioactive wastes include nuclear medicine, nuclear research, nuclear power, manufacturing, construction, coal and rare-earth mining, nuclear weapons reprocessing, etc, Radioactive wastes include any material that is either intrinsically radioactive or that has been contaminated by radioactivity.

Question 4.
Where is Malnad region located?
Answer:
The Malnad region is located in the western part of the Karnataka plateau. This region is 320km long and 35km wide. It is highly dissected, and have deeply cut valleys.

OR.

Name two watershed regions of India.
Answer:
The main watershed regions of India are :

• The Himalaya and the Karakoram ranges.
• The Vindhya-Satpura ranges.
• The Western Ghats.

Question 5.
What do you mean by millet crops?
Answer:
Millets are a group of highly variable small-seeded grasses, widely grown in India as well as around the world as foodgrains for man and fodder for animals. The millets are hardy grains that can grow well in dry zones as rain-fed crops, under conditions of low soil fertility and low soil moisture. Eg- Jowar, Bajra, Ragi, etc.

OR.

Name one agro-based and one forest-based industries of India.
Answer:

• Agro-based industries in India: Sugar mills, rice mills, cotton textile industry, edible oil mills, tea industry, coffee industry.
• Forest-based industries in India: Paper industry, match box and card board industry, rubber industry, furniture industry.

Question 6.
State the definition of satellite imageries.
Answer:
Satellite imageries are photographs of the earth and other planets captured by imaging satellites that are installed in space. These are prepared by reading and representing the signals sent by the satellites with the help of high technological know-how.

OR.

State the use of Representative Fraction (R.F.)
Answer:
Representative Fraction (R.F) is a scale which is represented as a fraction that contains no unit. Hence, it can be used for any unit eg. cm to m or km, inch to feet, etc. It is readable and usable in any country with a unit system suitable to them.

Group-D

4. Give brief explanatory answers

Question 1.
State three differences between ‘Seif dunes’ and ‘Barkhans’
Answer:
Seif dunes

• The term Seif comes from the Arabian word ‘Seif’ meaning a straight sword.
• Formed like straight lines parallel to the wind direction
• They are narrow and straight and look like parallel ridges.
• They are very long dunes, Width is very less, but height may be a few be hundred metres.

Barkhans

• The term Barkhan comes from the Turkish word ‘Barkhan’ meaning sand mountain.
• Formed like a curve diagonal or perpendicular to wind direction.
• They are crescent-shaped dunes. The windward side is convex and the beward side is concave.
• They are not very huge in size. Widthh lies between 20-30m and height may around 30m.

OR.

Briefly explain any three factors to identify the mediterranean climate in Temperature-Rainfall graph.
Answer:
The Mediterranean climate can be identified with the help of the following factors :

• Average annual temperature remains about 13°- 18°c
• Average summer temperature is 14°-22°c
• Average winter temperature is 10°-14°c
• Average annual rainfall is 35-75cm, which mostly occurs during winter due to the moist westerly winds.

Question 2.
Briefly discuss any three effects of wastes on environment.
Answer:
The effects of wastes on the environment are :

• Solid wastes lying on the ground for a long time pollute the soil and water of the region. It may spread bad smell and cause air-pollution as well.
• Chemical wastes coming from pesticides, insecticides, etc. Tend to reduce nitrogen content of the soil and reduce fertility. Numerous animals and microorganisms may get killed, and land may gradualy become unproductive.
• Accumulation of wastes in rivers, lakes, ponds, oceans, etc. cause death of numerous aquatic plants and animals. Fishes may loose their reproductive capacity. Water ecosystems may get disrupted.
• Wastes disposed on grounds change the chemical properties of soils. Soils may become acidic and salty and unfit for vegetation growth.

OR.

Briefly discuss the role of students in waste management from any three perspectives.
Answer:
Effective waste management is best achieved at household level, and students can take an active role in this process. They can take up the following steps-

i. Reduce waste creation :

• Use towels and ceramic plates instead of paper napkins and disoposable plates.
• Use biodegradable shopping bags instead of plastic bags.

ii. Reuse things :

• Use old clothes, old toys, books, etc. from elders.
• Make innovative items from discarded things Eg- Penstand from soda cans, Rags from old clothes.

iii. Cleaning programmes :

• Awareness camps and demonstration programms regarding garbage disposal.
• Schools can arrange groups of students for regular survey, Whether the local people are following cleaning and garbage disposal systems or not.

Question 3.
Mention three differences about characteristic features of tropical evergreen and tropical deciduous vegetation of India.
Answer:

Tropical Evergreen forests	Tropical deciduous forest
i. Tropical evergreen forests are very dense.	i. Tropical deciduous forests are compartively less dense.
ii. The trees are very tall and highly branched.	ii. The trees are moderately tall and branched.
iii. The trees do not shed their leaves altogether in one season. Thus the forest appears green throughout the year.	iii. The trees shed their leaves together in the dry season, hence the name deciduous.
iv. The leaves of the trees create a canopy over the head of the forest and allow very little sunlight to penetrate the forest.	iv. The leaves of the trees are comparatively smaller in size, hence do not create a canopy over the head of the forest. Hence, the forests receives sufficient sunlight.

OR.

Explain with examples the influence of raw materials on the developments of industries in India.
Answer:
Development of industries in any region is dependent upon various factors. Raw materials is one of them.

a. Availability of a certain raw material in a region determines the development of a particular industry in that region. Eg-Availability of coal and iron are along with other necessary raw materials in the Asansol-Durgapur belt has helped in the growth of iron and steel industry in that region.

b. Unless the particular raw material is available in a particular region, the related industry cannot grow, even if all other necessary things are available. Eg-Sugar industry cannot develop in Rajasthan due to unavailability of sugarcane in the vicinity.

c. Nature of raw materials determines the location of the industry. Eg-Sugar mills must be located near the sugarcane producing regions, so that the canes can be moved to the mills very fast. If the raw materials are pure, like cotton industry can be located at the source of raw materials or at the market.

Question 4.
Briefly discuss about three main characteristic features of satellite imageries.
Answer:
The characteristic features of satellite imageries are :

• They can supply complete weather information and imagery of a full hemisphere at a time.
• Imageries can also be obtained in segments for detailed descriptions.
• They help in resource surveys, for eg-locating huge collection of fishes in ocean water, monitoring agricultural yields, etc.
• The informations collected by satellite imageries is digital, that can be easily analysed by computers.

OR.

Mention the merits and demerits of remote sensing.
Answer:
The merits of remote sensing are :

• Remote sensing helps to conduct surveys of regions from very long distances with the help of satellites, without coming in physical contact with the region.
• Surveys can be easily conducted during day or night time and on any kind of terrain.
• Most of the work in remote sensing is done with the help of computers and other sophisticated machines, Hence, very little man-power is required.

The demerits of remote sensing are :

• Remote sensing is a very expensive affair, as it includes use of highly sophisticated computers and machineries and satellite services.
• Remote sensing requires a special kind of training to analyse the images. Hence the images are not readable or usable for common people.
• Sometimes large scale engineering maps cannot be prepared from satellite data which makes remote sensing data collection incomplete.

Group-E.

5. Answer any two questions from the following :

Question 1.
Describe with sketches three major landforms developed by erosional work of rivers.
Answer:
The different landforms developed by the erosional works of rivers are :

i. Gorge or V-shaped valley: In the upper course of the river, the down-cutting force is much more than lateral of side-cutting force of erosion. Hence the channel develops more depth than width, and takes the shape of a V-shaped valley.

ii Canyon or I-shaped valley: When the river flows through an arid region made up of nonresistant rocks, most of its energy is spent in down-cutting rather than widening of the valley. Thus the valley takes the shape of an ‘I’-shaped valley.

iii. Pot holes: Round disc-like depressions curved by the swirling water and rock fragments on the bed or floor of the river are called pot holes.

iv. Waterfalls : When water of the river falls freely from a height due to very steep slope, it is called a waterfall. They are further classified into rapids, cataracts and cascades.

Question 2.
Explain the factors responsible for the formation of equatorial low pressure belt and polar high pressure belts.
Answer:
The factors responsible for the formation of equatorial low pressure belt are:

• The sun gives its maximum heat to this region through perpendicular rays. Hence, air gets heated, lightened and rises up.
• Presence of huge water bodies and much heat leads to high rates of evaporation. The air gets filled with water vapour and becomes light.
• Rotation of the earth tends to deflect air due to coriolis force.
• Presence of vast forests add up to water vapour in the air due to transpiration.

The factors responsible for the formation of polar high pressure belts are :

• The sun gives the most inclined rays to the polar regions. Heat is very less, hence the air is very cold and heavy.
• There is very less water vapour in the air, as the rate of evaporation is very less.
• Some air from the adjacent sub-polar low pressure belts rise and descend towards the poles, and increase the density of air over there.

Question 3.
Give an account of occurance of orographic rainfall with suitable example and diagram.
Answer:
Orographic rainfall is typically found in hilly and mountainous regions. When the moisture lader winds blowing from the sea strike against mountains, the humid winds rise up along the windward slope.

As they rise, they cool down and bring heavy rainfall to the windward slope. Such a rainfall caused due to hindrance or obstruction by a mountain is called orographic or relief rainfall. (‘Oro’-greek word meaning mountain).

Question 4.
Explain the causes responsible for the development of high tides and ebb.
Answer:
The causes responsible for the development of high tides and ebb tides are :
i. Gravitational pull of the moon: Although both the sun and the moon exert gravitational force on the earth the sun’s force is only 46% of that of the moon, due to its large distance from the earth compared to the moon. Hence, the moon’s influence on the tides is twice as strong as that of the sun.

The water of the earth nearest to the moon is pulled by its gravitational force. This makes the water on this side bulge, causing high tide. Waters on the opposite side also experience high tides at a comparatively lower scale. The areas perpendicular to these areas of high tide experience ebbs or low tides.

ii. Effect of centrifugal force for rotation of the earth: Rotation of the earth causes generation of centrifugal force. Which tends to throw the waters outwards. This causes the rise of water as tides. The regions lying perpendicular to the regions of high tides experience ebbs or low tides.

iii. Gravitational pull of the sun: The sun also helps to cause tides. When it lies in the same side as the moon, it causes very big tides. When the sun lies in the opposite direction to the moon, it causes weaker tides.

2. Answer any two questions from the following :

Question 1.
State the differences between the physical characteristics of North and South Indian rivers.
Answer:
The differences between the physical characteristics of the North and South Indian rivers are :

North Indian Rivers	South Indian Rivers
1. The North Indian rivers originate from the Himalayan range. Hence they are both rainfed and snowfed.	1. The South Indian rivers originate from the plateau region. Hence they are only rainfed.
2. The rivers are perennial, as they are both rainfed and snowfed.	2. The rivers tend to dry up in the dry season. Hence, they are non-perennial.
3. Most of the rivers exhibit their upper, middle and lower courses. Hence, they are ideal rivers.	3. Most of the rivers do not exhibit the three courses prominently. Hence, they are not ideal rivers.
4. The rivers are very long. They form ‘V’ and ‘I’-shaped valleys in the upper course.	4. The rivers are not very long. They mostly run through rugged regions and form less deep valleys.
5. The rivers are navigable in the middle and lower courses as the rivers are perennial and these regions have very gentle slope.	5. The rivers are not navigable as they are non perennial, and flow over rugged terrain.
6. These rivers have more number of tributaries.	6. These rivers have less number of tributaries.
7. These rivers carry a huge amount of silt and hence form big deltas at their mouth.	7. These rivers carry comparatively lower amount of silt, and hence form smaller deltas.

Question 2.
Give a brief account of alluvial and black soils of India.
Answer:

Alluvial soil	Black soil
1. Formed by deposition of sand, silt clay and organic matter brought down and deposited by rivers.	1. Formed by weathering of basalt rocks.
2. The colour of the soil varies from lightbrown to dark-grey.	2. The colour of the soil varies from black to dark-brown.
3. Found in the river valleys of India, especially along the middle and lower courses.	3 . Found in the plateau region of Maharashtra, parts of Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh, parts of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
4. Alluvial soil is best for growing crops like rice, wheat, sugarcane, jute, etc.	4. Block soil is best for growing crops like cotton, tobacco, jowar, wheat, etc.

Question 3.
State favourable physical conditions required for cultivation of wheat.
Answer:
The favourable physical conditions required for cultivation of wheat are :

• Temperature: Wheat prefers temperature around 155°c. The temperature should be low at the time of sowing, but as the time of harvesting approaches, higher temperature (about 21°c-26°c) is required for ripening of the crop.
• Rainfall: Wheat thrives well in areas receiving an annual rainfall of about 75cm – 100 cm. In areas receiving rainfall less then 50cm, the deficiency is recovered by irrigation.
• Frost: There should be atleast 100 frost-free days. Long gloomy or foggy weather is harmful for crop.
• Soil: Chernozem is the best suited soil for wheat. It also grows well in light clayey or heavy loamy soil.
• Land: Wheat grows well in well-drained slightly rolling plains

Question 4.
Discuss the importance of transportation system in India.
Answer
The importance of transportation system in India are –

• Transport system helps in moving agricultural products, industrial raw materials, finished manufactured goods, etc to the required regions.
• In helps in transportation of labor and other necessary things for the development of agricultural, industrial and other sectors.
• It makes different products available to all the corners of the country, so that uniform development can be made possible.
• It helps in growth of new towns and bigger cities and hence brings about urbanisation.
• It helps to remove regional disparities and inequalities.
• It makes administrative works easier.
• It helps to raise the National Income and bring about socio-economic development of the country.

Group-F.

Locate the following with appropriate symbols and names on the given outline map of India. Attach the map with the answer script.

1. Vindhya mountain
2. Loktak Lake
3. River Mahanadi
4. One-rainshadow region
5. One mangrove forest region.
6. One desert soil region.
7. One sugarcane producing region of north India.
8. One heavy engineering industrial centre of eastern India.
9. Vishakhapathnam Port.
10. A megacity of western coast.

OR
Answer any ten of the following questions :

1 Name the longest river of South India.
Answer: Godavari.

2 Which is the largest lagoon in the eastern coast of India?
Answer: Chilika lake in Odisha.

3 Name one tributary of Indus that flows through Punjab plain.
Answer: River Sutlej.

4 In which month kalbaisakhi occurs in India?
Answer: April-May.

5 Name a state having laterite soil.
Answer: Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh.

6 What type of natural vegetation grows on saline soil of India?
Answer: Mangrove vegetation.

7 Name one plantation crop produced in India.
Answer: Tea, coffee.

8 Where is the largest petro-chemical industry of India located?
Answer: Gujarat.

9 Name the most populous state of India according to 2011 census.
Answer: Uttar Pradesh.

10 What is the name of the international Airport of West Bengal.
Answer: Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose International Airport.

11 What are the dry river vallays of the deserts called?
Answer: Wadis.

12 In which layer of the atmosphere, disturbances are found?
Answer: Troposphere.

13 Name the highest peak of South India.
Answer: Dodabetta Peak.

14 Name and iron and steel industrial centre of West Bengal.
Answer: Kulti, Burnpur, Durgapur.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 2.2 Layers of the Atmosphere offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 2.2 Question Answer – Layers of the Atmosphere

Answer in short : 2 Marks

Question 1.
Name the different layers of the atmosphere.
Answer:
The different layers of the atmosphere are – Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Ionosphere or Thermosphere and Exosphere.

Question 2.
What is the Tropopause?
Answer:
Tropopause is the transition zone between the troposphere and the stratosphere. It extends for about 2-3 km. Here the temperature remains constant.

Question 3.
What is the Stratopause?
Answer:
Stratopause is the transition zone between the stratosphere and the mesosphere. Temperature in this zone remains constant.

Question 4.
What is the mesopause ?
Answer:
Mesopause is the transition zone between the mesosphere and the ionosphere or the thermosphere. Temperature in this zone remains constant.

Question 5.
What is the ozone layer ?
Answer:
There is a layer in the stratosphere at a height of 20-45 km, which has a high concentration of ozone gas. This portion of the stratosphere is called the ozone layer or the ozonosphere.

Question 6.
Describe the exosphere.
Answer:
The exosphere lies above the thermosphere and extends up to 960 km. It gradually merges with the interplanetary space.

Question 7.
What is normal lapse rate?
Answer:
A lapse rate is the rate at which temperature of the atmosphere decreases as the altitude increases in troposphere. Temperature decrease at the rate of 6.4°C per 1000 mt. in the troposphere.

Question 8.
What is the Van Allen radiation belt ?
Answer:
Energetic charged particles mostly originated from solar wind are captured by and held around the planet earth called Van Allen radiation belt. Earth has two such belts.

Question 9.
What do you mean by nacreaous cloud ?
Answer:
One of the polar stratospheric clouds, that consist of only ice crystals are called nacreous cloud. These are not harmful. These are mostly observed during twillight. These are not precipitation cloud.

Answer in briefly : 3 Marks

Question 1.
Describe the Troposphere.
Answer:
The lower-most layer of the atmosphere lying closest to the earth’s surface is called the Troposphere. It extends up to 18 km at the equator and 8 km at the poles. Temperature decreases by 6.4°C with rise of every 1000 m or 1 km. This is called the lapse rate of temperature. Most of the weather phenomena occur in this zone. Eg. – clouds, rainfall, storms etc.

Question 2.
Describe the stratosphere.
Answer:
The second layer of the atmosphere that lies above the troposphere and extends up to 80 km above the earth’s surface is called the stratosphere. In this zone, temperature goes on increasing with increase in height (about 4°C for every 50 km). A significant concentration of ozone gas is found in this layer, known as the Ozonosphere. Stratosphere has very less atmospheric disturbances. Some cirrus clouds form in the lower levels of this layer.

Question 3.
Describe the mesosphere.
Answer:
The third layer of the atmosphere that lies above the stratosphere is known as the mesosphere. This zone is marked by decrease in temperature with height. This is the coldest layer of the atmosphere. Meteors that come from the outer space towards the earth get burnt within this layer.

Question 4.
What are the characteristics of the ozone layer?
Answer:
The ozone layer is a part of the stratosphere. The main characteristics of this layer are :

1. Ozone constitutes about 1% of the stratospheric air.
2. Ozone is produced by the action of solar radiation on ordinary oxygen atoms.
3. Ozone layer acts as a shield, protecting us by absorbing most of the harmful ultra-violet rays of the sun.
4. Density of ozone gas is expressed by the ‘Dobson’ unit (DU). Lowest density of the layer is found in the equatorial region.

Question 5.
What do you mean by ozone depletion and ozone hole.
Answer:
Depletion or breaking of ozone molecules in the atmosphere is known as ozone depletion.

1. Average natural concentration of ozone dropped by 50% in 1987.
2. In some areas, the ozone layer totally disappeared which resulted in formation of ozone-less patches. These hollows are called ozone holes.
3. The chloro fluoro carbons (CFCs) are the chief culprits causing ozone depletion.

Question 6.
Mention the characteristics of the lonosphere.
Answer:
The layer of the atmosphere lying above the mesosphere is called the ionosphere or thermosphere. The characteristics of this layer are :

1. This layer extends up to 500 km above the mesopause.
2. The gases absorb X-rays and Ultra-violet rays and the temperature increases.
3. Radio waves are reflected back from this layer, thus helping in radio communication.
4. Auroras or strange interesting lights are produced in the ionosphere. These are called Aurora Borealis in the northem hemisphere and Aurora Australis in the southern hemisphere.

Answer in details :

Question 1.
Discuss the layers of the atmosphere.
Answer:
[Write about all the layers of the atmosphere discussed previously.]

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 2.1 Concepts of Atmosphere offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 2.1 Question Answer – Concepts of Atmosphere

Answer in short : 2 Marks

Question 1.
What is atmosphere?
Answer:
The thick blanket of air surrounding the earth, extending to a height of about 10,000 km above its surface, is known as the atmosphere. It is hold in place by the gravitational force of the earth.

Question 2.
What are Aerosols?
Answer:
Aerosols are very fine solid particles that remain suspended in the air. They act as the base of condensation for rainfall, snowfall, fog, dew, mist etc. They absorb solar radiation and keep the atmosphere warm. They are responsible for reflection of sunlight causing dawn and twilight. They also reflect light and make the sky appear blue.

Question 3.
Name the major gases of the atmosphere.
Answer:
The main gases of the atmosphere are : Nitrogen (78.084%), Oxygen (20.946%), Argon (0.934 %), Carbon dioxide (0.033 %).
Other gases present are : Neon, Helium, Krypton, Xenon, Hydrogen, Methane, Nitrous oxide, Radon, Ozone etc. Amongst these, Nitrogen, Argon, Neon, Helium, Krypton and Xenon are known as noble or inert gases.

Question 4.
What are the importances of oxygen in the atmosphere?
Answer:
Oxygen occupies about 21 % of the atmosphere. Importances of this gas are:

1. Oxygen helps to support life.
2. It helps to provide heat and energy in living organisms.
3. It helps in burning of fire.
4. It helps in the process of oxidation.
5. It causes rusting of iron.

Question 5.
Mention the importances of nitrogen gas in the atmosphere.
Answer:
Nitrogen occupies about 78 % of the atmosphere. Its importances are :

• Protein synthesis in living organisms.
• Increasing soil fertility.
• Manufacturing fertilisers.

Question 6.
Mention the importances of carbon dioxide.
Answer:
Carbon dioxide occupies a negligible percentage (0-033 %) in the atmosphere, but it is a very important gas.

1. It helps in photosynthesis and formation of glucose in plants.
2. It helps in carbonation of rocks during weathering.
3. It controls atmospheric temperature.
4. It controls or influences the climate.
5. It helps in weathering of limestone.

Question 7.
What is the homosphere ?
Answer:
According to D. S. Lal, “the term homosphere means the zone of homogenous composition’. It refers to that part of the atmosphere, where the composition is uniform.

Question 8.
What is the heterosphere?
Answer:
The atmosphere above the homosphere up to a height of 10,000 km is not uniform in composition with reference to its chemical composition and proportion. This part of the atmosphere is known as the heterosphere.

Question 9.
Why are the inert gases called so ?
Answer:
Gases like Nitrogen, Argon, Neon, Helium, Krypton and Xenon do not react with the components of atmosphere and the earth’s surface under normal circumstances. Hence they are called ‘inert gases’.

Question 10.
What is density of the atmosphere?
Answer:
The amount of gas molecules or the mass of gas molecules present in a unit volume of the atmosphere is known as the density of the atmosphere.

Answer in briefly : 3 Marks

Question 1.
What are the importances of water vapour in the atmosphere?
Answer:

1. Water vapour not only absorbs the sun’s incoming radiation (insolation), but also absorbs the heat radiated back by the earth, thus keeping the atmosphere warm.
2. It helps in formation of clouds, fog, dew, rainfall, snowfall etc.
3. Amount of water vapour influences occurrence of rainfall, snowfall, storms, and other environmental activities.
4. It helps the hydrological cycle to function properly.

Question 2.
Describe the importances of dust particles in the atmosphere.
Answer:
Dust particles mix with the atmosphere from various sources like – soil particles, salt particles from seas, solid particles coming out of cars and chimney smoke, cinder, ash etc. from volcanoes, ash from forest fires etc.
Importances of these particles in the atmosphere are :

• The dust particles act as the base of condensation for the formation of clouds, fog, mist, dew, rainfall, snowfall etc.
• They reflect and refract light.
• They help in occurrence of dawn, twilight and help the sky appear blue.
• They absorb insolation and back radiation from the earth and help to keep the atmosphere warm.

Question 3.
Mention the characteristics of the atmosphere.
Answer:
The main characteristics of the atmosphere are :

1. The atmosphere extends up to 10,000 km above the surface of the earth.
2. Density of the atmosphere reduces with height.
3. This contains the most important components that are inevitable for plant and animal life.
4. The atmosphere is invisible, but its presence can be felt evidently.

Question 4.
What are the characteristics of the ozone layer?
Answer:
Ozone gas is concentrated in the stratosphere at an altitude of 25-50 km above the earth’s surface. This layer is also called the ozonosphere. The characteristics are :

• 90% of ozone gas lies in this layer.
• It filters the ultra-violet rays that comes from the sun.
• It protects the biotic world from damage and disaster.
• Density of ozone gas is expressed in Doloson Unit (DU).
• Density of ozone gas is 250 DU near the equator, 350 DU in the mid latitudes and 450 DU in the polar regions.

Answer in details : 5 Marks

Question 1.
Name the main components of the atmosphere and discuss about them.
Answer:
The components of the atmosphere can be classified into two parts :
(a) Permanent components : The permanent components mainly constitute the gaseous elements those proportion does not change in the atmosphere.
They are : Nitrogen (78.084%), Oxygen (20.946%), Argon (0.934%), Carbon dioxide (0.033 %) and other gases like Nitrogen, Neon, Helium, Hydrogen, Xenon, Krypton, Methane, Radon, Ozone etc.

(b) Variable components : These include :
i) Water vapour : Amount of water vapour varies from place to place, time to time and depends on factors like heat, presence of water bodies, wind speed, humidity etc.

ii) Dust particles : Tiny solid particles coming from dust, salt grains, pollen grains, smoke, soot etc. remain suspended in the air in different amounts in different places. These are also called aerosols.

iii) Carbon dioxide : CO₂ is an important variable gas. Currently it constitutes about 0.03 %. of the atmosphere. It is a potent green house gas and plays a vital role in controlling the earth’s surface temperature.

Question 2.
Classify the layers of the atmosphere according to temperature.
Answer:
The atmosphere has been classified into five layers by Pattersen according to temperature.
i) Troposphere : The troposphere extends up to 18 km in the equatorial region to 7-8 km in the polar region above the earth’s surface. Temperature of this layer reduces by 6.4°C for every 1000 ~m rise in altitude. The lowest temperature

recorded here is -80°c at the highest limits of the troposphere near the equator.

ii) Stratosphere: This layer is above the troposphere, and is separated by the tropopause. Temperature of this layer goes on increasing with rise in altitude. It spreads up to 50 km above the earth’s surface. Temperature reaches to 0°C at the highest levels of the stratosphere. This layer is void of clouds and rainfall. A concentrated layer of ozone gas is found within this layer.

iii) Mesosphere : After the stratosphere, the mesosphere lies up to 80 km above the earth’s surface. This is the last limit of the homosphere. Temperature decreases with increase in altitude. This layer lies between the stratopause and the mesopause.

iv) Ionosphere or Thermosphere : This layer spreads up to 500 km from the earth’s surface after the mesopause. Temperature increases rapidly in this layer with rise in altitude, and reaches about 1200°C at the upper limits. In this layer, constant interaction of ultra violet rays, x-rays, α-rays, β-rays and γ-rays cause ionisation of the gases.

v) Exosphere : This layer spreads from 500-750 km above the earth’s surface.

Question 3.
Differentiate between the Homosphere and the Heterosphere.
Answer:

Homosphere	Heterosphere
i. The ratio of component gases of the atmosphere remains more or less same up to 88 km altitude. This layer is called the homosphere.	i. The ratio of component gases of the atmosphere does not remain the same beyond 88 km altitude. This layer is called the heterosphere.
ii. It spreads from 0-88 km above the earth’s surface.	ii. It spreads from 88-10,000 km above the earth’s surface.
iii. It comprises the troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere and parts of the thermosphere.	iii. It comprises parts of thermosphere, the exosphere and magnetosphere.
iv. It consists of gases, water vapour and dust particles.	iv. It consists of very little traces of water vapour and dust particles. The gases mostly lie in ionised forms.
v. All the weather conditions and changes occur within 6 km of the homosphere.	v. No weather changes are noticed in the heterosphere.
vi. Lower layers of the homosphere support life and related activities. The ozone layer protects the earth from sun’s harmful ultraviolet rays.	vi. The ionised gases of the heterosphere help in transmission of radio waves, thus helping to run mobiles, wireless sets, radios and other devices.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) : 1 Mark

Question 1.
The tropopause occurs at the equator at a height of :
(A) 5 km.
(B) 20 km.
(C) 18 km.
(D) 25 km.
Answer:
(C) 18 km.

Question 2.
97 % of the atmosphere lies within _____ km. of the surface of the earth :
(A) 50 km.
(B) 29 km.
(C) 5 km.
(D) 15 km.
Answer:
(B) 29 km.

Question 3.
The lower layer lonosphere is known as :
(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Ozonosphere
(D) Thermosphere
Answer:
(D) Thermosphere

Question 4.
The Mediterranean region receives rainfall :
(A) From trade winds in summer
(B) From trade winds in winter
(C) From westerlies in winter
(D) By convection in summer
Answer:
(C) From westerlies in winter

Question 5.
The atmospheric layer which reflects radio waves is called :
(A) Exosphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C)Troposphere
(D)Thermosphere
Answer:
(C)Troposphere

Question 6.
Atmosphere gets heated up :
(A) In the early morning
(B) At mid day
(C) At 2:00 pm.
(D) In the late evening
Answer:
(C) At 2:00 pm.

Question 7.
The most important component of the atmosphere which causes many weather phenomena is :
(A) Oxygen
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Water vapour
Answer:
(D) Water vapour

Question 8.
The lower layer of the atmosphere is known as :
(A) Mesosphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Ionosphere
(D) Troposphere
Answer:
(D) Troposphere

Question 9.
Tropopause is the zone that separates :
(A) Earth’s surface and Troposphere
(B) Troposphere and Stratosphere
(C) Stratosphere and lonosphere
(D) Earth’s surface and lonosphere
Answer:
(B) Troposphere and Stratosphere

Question 10.
Ionosphere is :
(A) The lowest region of the atmosphere
(B) The highest region of the atmosphere
(C) The middle most region of the atmosphere extending from 40 km. to 75 km.
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) The highest region of the atmosphere

Question 11.
The tropopause is situated at a height of over the equator
(A) 10 km.
(B) 15 km.
(C) 18 km.
(D) 22 km.
Answer:
(C) 18 km.

Question 12.
Most of the weather phenomena take place in the :
(A) Stratosphere
(B) Ionosphere
(C) Troposphere
(D) Mesosphere
Answer:
(C) Troposphere

Question 13.
________ of the effective atmosphere is found up to the height of 29 km.:
(A) 29 %
(B) 35 %
(C) 90 %
(D) 97 %
Answer:
(D) 97 %

Question 14.
Percentage of argon in the atmosphere is :
(A) 1 %
(B) 1.5 %
(C) 0.30 %
(D) 0.93 %
Answer:
(D) 0.93 %

Question 15.
Which one of the following is lowermost layer?
(A) Stratosphere
(B) Troposphere
(C) Troposphere or Stratosphere
(D) It is not certain
Answer:
(B) Troposphere

Question 16.
Normal Lapse rate is supposed to be:
(A) 6.5°C per 100m
(B) 6.5°C per 10m
(C) 6.5°K per 100m
(D) 6.0°K per 100m
Answer:
(A) 6.5°C per 100m

Question 17.
The average height of the troposphere over the poles is around :
(A) 16 km
(B) 14 km
(C) 8 km
(D) 6 km
Answer:
(D) 6 km

Question 18.
Medium and high frequency radio waves are reflected by which layer?
(A) E layer
(B) G layer
(C) F layer
(D) All of these
Answer:
(C) F layer

Question 19.
Isobars are :
(A) The lines of equal atmospheric pressure
(B) The lines of unequal atmospheric pressure
(C) The parallel lines of atmospheric pressure
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) The lines of equal atmospheric pressure

Question 20.
What is the characteristic of planetary winds:
(A) These flow from the belts of high pressure to the belts of low pressure
(B) These flow from the belts of low pressure to the belt of high pressure
(C) These do not flow to any centre of pressure
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) These flow from the belts of high pressure to the belts of low pressure

Question 21.
Wind in the southern hemisphere deflects towards left :
(A) Due to rotation of the earth
(B) Due to temperature
(C) Due to heating
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Due to rotation of the earth

Question 22.
The instrument used for measuring the atmospheric pressure is called:
(A) Barometer
(B) Hygrometer
(C)Altimeter
(D) Thermometer
Answer:
(A) Barometer

Question 23.
The mountaineers climbing the high peaks carry:
(A) Helium
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Oxygen
Answer:
(D) Oxygen

Question 24.
The sub-tropical high pressure belts are also known as :
(A) Doldrums
(B) Roaring forties
(C) Torrid zone
(D) Horse latitudes
Answer:
(B) Roaring forties

Question 25.
Besides the local winds and permanent winds, another type of winds are :
(A) Prevailing winds
(B) Horizontal winds
(C) Vertical winds
(D) Periodic winds
Answer:
(D) Periodic winds

Question 26.
If the incoming solar radiation is 100 % then scattering by dust particles is :
(A) 27 %
(B) 2 %
(C) 6 %
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) 6 %

Question 27.
The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of one gram of substance by 1°C is called :
(A) Specific heat
(B) Relative heat
(C) Absolute heat
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Specific heat

Question 28.
Horse latitudes are found between the latitudes :
(A) 5°N to 5°S
(B) 25°-35° in both the hemisphere
(C) 30°-45° in both the hemisphere
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) 25°-35° in both the hemisphere

Question 29.
The zone of _____ wind is also known as Hadley cells.
(A) Westerly
(B) Easterly
(C) Trade
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Trade

Question 30.
Which type of rainfall is called relief rainfall ?
(A) Convectional
(B) Orographic
(C) Cyclonic
(D) All of these
Answer:
(B) Orographic

Question 31.
Which of the following instruments is used for measuring the temperature?
(A) Barometer
(B) Thermometer
(C) Hydrometer
(D) Hygrometer
Answer:
(B) Thermometer

Question 32.
Anemometer is used to measure :
(A) The velocity of the earth
(B) The velocity of the waves
(C) The velocity of the winds
(D) The velocity of earthquake waves
Answer:
(C) The velocity of the winds

Question 33.
The actual mass of water vapour per unit volume of air is known :
(A) Relative humidity
(B) Absolute humidity
(C) Specific humidity
(D) Degree of saturation
Answer:
(B) Absolute humidity

Question 34.
The prevailing north-western westerly winds which blow vigorously between 40° and 60° south latitudes throughout the year are known:
(A) Sirocco
(B) Roaring forties
(C) Harmattan
(D) Pampero
Answer:
(B) Roaring forties

Question 35.
About 34 per cent of insolation being returned to space as short waves are known as :
(A) Effective solar radiation
(B) The earth’s Albedo
(C) Heat Transfer
(D) Terrestrial heat balance
Answer:
(B) The earth’s Albedo

Question 36.
The boundary zone developed at or near the mass of warm air where an advancing cold air strikes and forces the warm air upward is called :
(A) Warm front
(B) Cold front
(C) Occuluded front
(D) Warm air mass
Answer:
(B) Cold front

Question 37.
The rate of temperature decreases (C°) in the atmosphere per 1000 metre ascent is :
(A) 3.6° C
(B) 6.4° C
(C) 7.4° C
(D) 8.6° C
Answer:
(B) 6.4° C

Question 38.
Inversion of temperature is :
(A) Increase of temperature with altitude
(B) Decrease of temperature with altitude
(C) Uniform temperature
(D) Decrease of temperature with latitudes
Answer:
(A) Increase of temperature with altitude

Question 39.
The albedo of earth is :
(A) 25 %
(B) 35 %
(C) 45 %
(D) 55 %
Answer:
(B) 35 %

Question 40.
The total annual insolation is greatest at –
(A) The tropic of Cancer
(B) The tropic of Capricorn
(C) The equator
(D) The arctic circle
Answer:
(D) The arctic circle

Question 41.
The dry adiabatic lapse rate is :
(A) 6.4°C
(B) 10°C
(C) 8.5°C
(D) 2°C
Answer:
(B) 10°C

Question 42.
Jet stream is a :
(A) Warm Current
(B) Cold Current
(C) Local Wind
(D) Upper air westerlies
Answer:
(D) Upper air westerlies

Question 43.
The type of rainfall common at equatorial region is :
(A) Convectional
(B) Orographic
(C) Cyclonic
(D) Relief
Answer:
(A) Convectional

Question 44.
Doldrum is a zone of :
(A) Intertropical Convergence
(B) Intertropical Divergence
(C) Local wind
(D) Frontolysis
Answer:
(A) Intertropical Convergence

Question 45.
The highest temperature is recorded by :
(A) Mercurial thermometer
(B) Hot thermometer
(C)Alcohol thermometer
(D) Minimum thermometer
Answer:
(A) Mercurial thermometer

Question 46.
The lowest temperature is recorded by :
(A) Maximum thermometer
(B) Mercurial thermometer
(C) Alcohol thermometer
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Alcohol thermometer

Question 47.
What is the name of the scale meant for recording weather conditions?
(A) Fahrenheit
(B) Barometer
(C) Hydrometer
(D) Opisometer
Answer:
(A) Fahrenheit

Question 48.
Another scale used for recording weather conditions is known as :
(A) Hygrometer
(B) Hydrometer
(C) Opisometer
(D) Centigrade
Answer:
(D) Centigrade

Question 49.
Which of the following components of the atmosphere has increased during the last 200 years?
(A) Oxygen
(B) Water vapour
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Nitrogen
Answer:
(C) Carbon dioxide

Question 50.
The velocity of wind is recorded by :
(A) altimeter
(B) Barometer
(C) Anemometer
(D) Aneroid barometer
Answer:
(C) Anemometer

Question 51.
Horse latitudes lie :
(A) In the vicinity of 30° latitude both north and south of the equator
(B) In the vicinity of 50° latitude both north and south of the equator
(C) Between 50° and 60° latitude both north and south of equator
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) In the vicinity of 30° latitude both north and south of the equator

Question 52.
When warm air moves into a region of cold air it leads to the formation of :
(A) Cold front
(B) Warm front
(C) Cyclone
(D) Anticyclone
Answer:
(B) Warm front

Question 53.
Hurricanes are generally :
(A) Active over land
(B) Active over the sea
(C) Travelling in families
(D) Dust storms
Answer:
(B) Active over the sea

Question 54.
The tropical cyclones of the Bay of Bengal are usually called :
(A) Typhoons
(B) Hurricanes
(C) Depressions
(D) Willy willy
Answer:
(A) Typhoons

Question 55.
Jet Stream blows :
(A) From west to east
(B) From east to west
(C) From north to south
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) From west to east

Question 56.
In which region does rainfall occur throughout the year?
(A) Equatorial region
(B) Polar region
(C) Sub-polar region
(D) Middle-latitude region
Answer:
(A) Equatorial region

Question 57.
China type (Cw) has dry winter season because :
(A) Cool dry winds blow from interior of the continent
(B) There are no clouds
(C) Temperature is low
(D) Humidity is low
Answer:
(A) Cool dry winds blow from interior of the continent

Question 58.
Tropical deserts receive scanty rainfall because:
(A) They are away from the equator
(B) They do not have clouds
(C) Trade winds blow from the hot interior of the continent
(D) Cool currents blow along the coast
Answer:
(C) Trade winds blow from the hot interior of the continent

Question 59.
Which of the following is not a tropical desert:
(A) Kalahari
(B) Atacama
(C) Arabia
(D) Mongolia
Answer:
(D) Mongolia

Question 60.
Conduction is a process :
(A) That conducts heat from warmer to the cooler region until the two objects coming into contact get the same temperature
(B) That conducts heat from cooler to the warmer region
(C) That does not conduct heat to any of the objects coming into contact
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) That conducts heat from warmer to the cooler region until the two objects coming into contact get the same temperature

Question 61.
Humidity is the result of :
(A) Evaporation
(B) Transpiration
(C) Presence of heat
(D) Presence of moisture content in the air
Answer:
(D) Presence of moisture content in the air

Question 62.
Specific humidity is :
(A) The indicator of density of water vapour
(B) The maximum water content existing in the atmosphere
(C) It is the ratio of the mass of water vapour present to the total mass of air
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) It is the ratio of the mass of water vapour present to the total mass of air

Question 63.
What is relative humidity ?
(A) It is the ratio of specific humidity
(B) It is the indicator of moisture content of atmosphere
(C) It is the indicator of density of water vapour
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) It is the ratio of specific humidity

Question 64.
Annual range of temperature is maximum in :
(A) Equatorial region
(B) Sub-tropical region
(C) Middle latitudes
(D) Polar regions
Answer:
(C) Middle latitudes

Question 65.
The winds blowing from subtropical high pressure to sub-polar low pressure are :
(A) Westerlies
(B) Easterlies
(C) Polar winds
(D) Jet Stream
Answer:
(B) Easterlies

Question 66.
Doldrum belt is the region of :
(A) High pressure and strong winds
(B) Moderate pressure
(C) Low pressure and calm conditions
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Low pressure and calm conditions

Question 67.
Animometer is :
(A) An instrument that measures the wind speed
(B) An instrument that measures the air masses
(C) An instrument that measures speed
(D) An instrument that measures velocity
Answer:
(A) An instrument that measures the wind speed

Question 68.
Trade winds are :
(A) Moisturous
(B) Hot and wet
(C) Dry
(D) Wet
Answer:
(C) Dry

Question 69.
Beaufort scale is used to measure :
(A) Air pressure
(B) Wind velocity
(C) Wind direction
(D) Humidity
Answer:
(B) Wind velocity

Question 70.
The Torrid Zone lies between :
(A) The Equator and the Tropic of Cancer
(B) The Equator and the Tropic of Capricorn
(C) The Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn
(D) Precipitation and natural vegetation
Answer:
(C) The Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn

Question 71.
Nitrogen and Oxygen constitute of the total gaseous composition of the atmosphere.
(A) 93 %
(B) 95 %
(C) 97 %
(D) 99 %
Answer:
(D) 99 %

Question 72.
Which of the following is a Greenhouse gas ?
(A) Carbondioxide
(B) Ozone
(C) Oxygen
(D) Nitrogen
Answer:
(A) Carbondioxide

Question 73.
Most of the ultraviolet rays one absorbed by
(A) Hydrogen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Ozone
(D) Carbondioxide
Answer:
(C) Ozone

Question 74.
________ is a permanent gas in the atmosphere.
(A) Carbondioxide
(B) Ozone
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Hydrogen
Answer:
(C) Nitrogen

Question 75.
Atmospheric water vapour content is highest in the
(A) Temperate region
(B) Polar region
(C) Equatorial region
(D) Tropical region
Answer:
(D) Tropical region

Question 76.
The English word ‘atmosphere’ comes from the green word ‘atmos’, which means-
(A) Air
(B) Vapour
(C) Evaporation
(D) Envelop of gases
Answer:
(B) Vapour

Question 77.
The sky appears blue due to selective scattering of solar radiation by-
(A) Salt particles
(B) Dust particles
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Dust particles

Question 78.
Troposphere contains about ______ of the total gaseous mars of the atmosphere.
(A) 70 %
(B) 75 %
(C) 80 %
(D) 85 %
Answer:
(B) 75 %

Question 79.
Which of the following is also called the convective region?
(A) lonosphere
(B) Ozonosphere
(C) Troposphere
(D) Mesosphere
Answer:
(C) Troposphere

Question 80.
The wind velocity increases with height in the –
(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Stratopause
(D) lonosphere
Answer:
(A) Troposphere

Question 81.
The thickness of the stratosphere is highest at the –
(A) Poles
(B) Tropics
(C) Equator
(D) All of these
Answer:
(A) Poles

Question 82.
Which gas protects us from the harmful ultraviolet rays ?
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Oxygen
(C) Ozone
(D) Carbondioxide
Answer:
(C) Ozone

Question 83.
The credit for the discovery of ionosphere goes to –
(A) Napier Shaw
(B) Picardy
(C) Kennelly and Heaviside
(D) Teisserence de Bort
Answer:
(C) Kennelly and Heaviside

Question 84.
During the winter season, the stratosphere is warmest between the latitudes
(A) 50°-60°
(B) 50°-65°
(C) 50°-70°
(D) 50°-75°
Answer:
(A) 50°-60°

Question 85. ‘Aurora Borealis’ is produced in the
(A) Exosphere
(B) Ionosphere
(C) Mesosphere
(D) Stratosphere
Answer:
(B) Ionosphere

Question 86.
Match the following

Answer:

Question 87.
helps to keep the temperature of the earth’s surface moderate.
(A) Gases
(B) Water vapour
(C) Particulate matter
(D) All of these
Answer:
(B) Water vapour

Question 88.
Which of the following is an important feature of the Troposphere?
(A) It is isothermal in character
(B) There is maximum concentration of ozone
(C) There is a decrease of temperature with increase in altitude at a mean lapse rate of about 6.5°C
(D) There is a steep rise in temperature
Answer:
(C) There is a decrease of temperature with increase in altitude at a mean lapse rate of about 6.5°C

Question 89.
The outermost layer of the atmosphere is known as
(A) Exosphere
(B) lonosphere
(C) Mesosphere
(D) Ozonosphere
Answer:
(A) Exosphere

Question 90.
The gases which are predominant in the exosphere are
(A) Hydrogen and Neon
(B) Hydrogen and Ozone
(C) Hydrogen and Methane
(D) Hydrogen and Helium
Answer:
(D) Hydrogen and Helium

Question 91.
Troposphere, Stratosphere and Mesosphere are subdivisions of the
(A) Homosphere
(B) Heterosphere
(C) Chemosphere
(D) Pyrosphere
Answer:
(A) Homosphere

Question 92.
The atmosphere receives most of its energy from
(A) Sun
(B) Long wave terrestrial radiation
(C) Albedo
(D) Short wave terrestrial radiation
Answer:
(A) Sun

Question 93.
The transfer of heat through the molecules of matter in any body is called
(A) Radiation
(B) Convection
(C) Conduction
(D) Advection
Answer:
(B) Convection

Question 94.
The process of transfer of energy from one body to another without the aid of any material is called –
(A) Conduction
(B) Radiation
(C) Convection
(D) Advection
Answer:
(C) Convection

Question 95.
What percentage of outgoing longwave terrestrial radiation is absorbed by atmosphere?
(A) 60 %
(B) 70 %
(C) 80 %
(D) 90 %
Answer:
(D) 90 %

Question 96.
The increase in the concentration of CO₂ in the atmosphere will increase the
(A) Heat
(B) Greenhouse effect
(C) Radiation
(D) Evaporation
Answer:
(B) Greenhouse effect

Question 97.
The earth’s surface recelves maximum solar energy at about
(A) 11: 00 am
(B) 12 Noon
(C) 1: 00 pm
(D) 2: 00 pm
Answer:
(B) 12 Noon

Question 98.
The thermal inversion in the upper air is caused by the presence of
(A) Carbondioxide
(B) Ozone layer
(C) Water vapour
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Ozone layer

Question 99.
Which of the following surface receives very low insolation ?
(A) Snow cover
(B) Sand
(C) Black soil
(D) Forest
Answer:
(A) Snow cover

Question 100.
The horizontal distribution of temperature is represented and studied with the help of –
(A) Isotherms
(B) Isobars
(C) Isohyte
(D) Isohayline
Answer:
(A) Isotherms

Question 101.
The weight of air on unit area of the earth is called
(A) Air weight
(B) Air pressive
(C) Air mass
(D) Air volume
Answer:
(B) Air pressive

Question 102.
The atmospheric pressure is maximum at the
(A) Coastal areas
(B) Interior parts of continents
(C) Sea level
(D) All of these
Answer:
(C) Sea level

Question 103.
The standard air pressure at sea level is –
(A) 1018.25 m
(B) 1021.25 m
(C) 1013.25 m
(D) 1015.25 m
Answer:
(C) 1013.25 m

Question 104.
Which of the following pressure belt is thermally inducted?
(A) Subtropical high pressure belt
(B) Equatorial low pressure belt
(C) Subpolar low pressure belt
(D) Both ‘A’ and ‘C’
Answer:
(B) Equatorial low pressure belt

Question 105.
The winds blowing almost in the same direction throughout the year are called
(A) Prevailing winds
(B) Seasonal winds
(C) Local winds
(D) Variable winds
Answer:
(A) Prevailing winds

Question 106.
Winds blowing in a particular locality are called
(A) Seasonal winds
(B) Local winds
(C) Mountain winds
(D) Land and sea breeze
Answer:
(B) Local winds

Question 107.
Which winds are famous for there steady direction and wind speed?
(A) Westerlies
(B) Easterlies
(C) Polar winds
(D) Trade winds
Answer:
(D) Trade winds

Question 108.
The subtropical high pressure belt is the source of –
(A) Polar winds
(B) Trade winds
(C) Local winds
(D) Westerlies
Answer:
(B) Trade winds

Question 109.
The continent having the greatest monsoonal influence is –
(A) North America
(B) Asia
(C) South America
(D) Australia
Answer:
(B) Asia

Question 110.
Which of the following wind prevails on the eastern slopes of the Rocky mountains in Wyoming and Montana?
(A) Santa Ana
(B) Mistral
(C) Sirocco
(D) Chinook
Answer:
(D) Chinook

Question 111.
Which of the following is an intensely hot and dry wind of the Asiatic and African deserts?
(A) Khamsin
(B) Sirocco
(C) Simoom
(D) Harmatian
Answer:
(C) Simoom

Question 112.
Which of the following is a cold north-western wind that blows towards the western mediteranean basin from higher elevations?
(A) Mistral
(B) Bora
(C) Blizzard
(D) Harmattan
Answer:
(A) Mistral

Question 113.
The most important form of suspended water droplets caused by condensation is
(A) Fog
(B) Ice
(C) Cloud
(D) Frost
Answer:
(C) Cloud

Question 114.
is the most common form of precipitation
(A) Snow
(B) Rainfall
(C) Sleet
(D) Hail
Answer:
(B) Rainfall

Question 115.
Which of the following is a warm weather phenomena associated with lightning and thunder?
(A) Convectional rainfall
(B) Orographic rainfall
(C) Frontal rainfall
(D) All of these
Answer:
(A) Convectional rainfall

Question 116.
Which of the following rainfall occur due to ascent of air, forced by mountain barrier?
(A) Convectional rainfall
(B) Orographic rainfall
(C) Cyclonic rainfall
(D) All of these
Answer:
(B) Orographic rainfall

Question 117.
Indian monsoon is the best example of
(A) Convectional rainfall
(B) Cyclonic rainfall
(C) Orographic rainfall
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Orographic rainfall

Question 118.
Southern plateau in the east of Western Ghats is the example of
(A) Inversion of rainfall
(B) Cloud instability
(C) Maximum rainfall line
(D) Rain shadow area
Answer:
(D) Rain shadow area

Question 119.
The precipitation associated with cold fronts is always in the form of
(A) Snow
(B) Drizzle
(C) Thunder shower
(D) Sleet
Answer:
(C) Thunder shower

Question 120.
Most of the rains of temperate regions are received through
(A) Cyclonic rainfall
(B) Orographic rainfall
(C) Convectional rainfall
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Cyclonic rainfall

Question 121.
Which of the following pressure belt is called ‘Horse latitude’ ?
(A) Polar high pressure belt
(B) Subpolar low pressure belt
(C) Subtropical high pressure belt
(D) Equatorial low pressure belt
Answer:
(C) Subtropical high pressure belt

Question 122.
Which of the following winds blows parallel to the isobars, generally at a height of 600 m ?
(A) Gradient wind
(B) geostrophic wind
(C) Invariable wind
(D) Surface wind
Answer:
(B) geostrophic wind

Question 123.
The direction of surface wind is usually controlled by
(A) Pressure gradient
(B) Rotation of the earth
(C) Deflection forces
(D) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
Answer:
(D) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

Question 124.
The zone extending 5°N to 5°S along the equator is called
(A) Doldrums
(B) Horse latitudes
(C) Trade wind
(D) Westerlies
Answer:
(A) Doldrums

Question 125.
Winter precipitation in the Northern part of India is an example of ______ rainfall.
(A) Orographic
(B) Monsoonal
(C) Convectional
(D) Cyclonic
Answer:
(D) Cyclonic

Question 126.
The monsoon region is located in the ______ rainfall zero.
(A) Mediterranean
(B) Trade wind
(C) Subtropical
(D) Midlatitude
Answer:
(B) Trade wind

Question 127.
______ is an example of atmospheric disturbance.
(A) Rain
(B) Cyclone
(C) Fronts
(D) Winds
Answer:
(B) Cyclone

Question 128.
Temperate cyclones are formed where
(A) Contrasting air masses generally meet
(B) Same air masses generally meet
(C) No air masses meet
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Contrasting air masses generally meet

Question 129.
Which of the following is a real temperate cyclone?
(A) Dynamic cyclone
(B) Thermal cyclone
(C) Secondary cyclone
(D) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
Answer:
(A) Dynamic cyclone

Question 130.
The diameter of the temperate cyclone varies from
(A) 160-3200 km
(B) 170-3400 km
(C) 180-3600 km
(D) 190-3800 km
Answer:
(A) 160-3200 km

Question 131.
The vertical extent of an average cyclone is about
(A) 10-12 km
(B) 12-14 km
(C) 14-16 km
(D) 16-18 km
Answer:
(A) 10-12 km

Question 132.
Most of the cyclones and anticyclones in the westerly wind belt move from –
(A) East to West
(B) West to East
(C) North to East
(D) South to West
Answer:
(B) West to East

Question 133.
On an average, diameter of tropical cyclone ranges between
(A) 80-500 km
(B) 80-400 km
(C) 80-300 km
(D) 80-200 km
Answer:
(C) 80-300 km

Question 134.
Tropical cyclones affect the
(A) Interior areas of continents
(B) Coastal areas of continents
(C) Peninsular areas of continents
(D) Central areas of continents
Answer:
(B) Coastal areas of continents

Question 135.
Tropical cyclone develops in the regions
(A) of high latitudes
(B) of mid-latitudes
(C) Along the equator
(D) Lying between the tropics of Cancer and Capricorn
Answer:
(D) Lying between the tropics of Cancer and Capricorn

Question 136.
Tropical cyclones move from East to West under the influence of
(A) Easterlies
(B) Westerlies
(C) Polar winds
(D) Trade winds
Answer:
(D) Trade winds

Question 137.
________ develops in the Caribbean Sea and North Pacific Ocean during summer months.
(A) Hurricanes or Typhoons
(B) Tropical disturbances
(C) Tropical depressions
(D) Tropical storms
Answer:
(B) Tropical disturbances

Question 138.
_______ develops frequently in the Bay of Bengal and Arabian sea during the summer season.
(A) Tropical storms
(B) Tropical depressions
(C) Tropical disturbances
(D) Hurricanes or Typhoons
Answer:
(A) Tropical storms

Question 139.
Match the following :

Answer:

Question 140.
Tropical cyclones originate over warm oceans having average surface temperature of ______ during summer.
(A) 27° C
(B) 30° C
(C) 33° C
(D) 36° C
Answer:
(A) 27° C

Question 141.
Tropical cyclone influence the climatic conditions of India between
(A) April and September
(B) April and October
(C) April and November
(D) April and December
Answer:
(D) April and December

Question 142.
Which of the following is a funnel-shaped cyclone with thick clouds?
(A) Tornadoes
(B) Hurricanes
(C) Thunderstorms
(D) Depressions
Answer:
(A) Tornadoes

Question 143.
Auticyclones are vast areas of high pressure with a system of _______ surface winds.
(A) Diverging
(B) Converging
(C) Deformative
(D) Diffusing
Answer:
(A) Diverging

Question 144.
Auticyclones are indicative of –
(A) Humid weather
(B) Dry weather
C) Rainy weather
(D) Hot and dry weather
Answer:
(B) Dry weather

Question 145.
The diameter of anticyclones of mid-latitudes is about
(A) 2000 km
(B) 3000 km
(C) 4000 km
(D) 5000 km
Answer:
(B) 3000 km

Fill in the blanks : 1 Mark

1. Ozone layer was discovered by ________.
2. ‘El Nino’ means ________.
3. Barometer was discovered by ________.
4. A _____ is used to measure air pressure.
5. Air pressure is measured by the unit ________.
6. A ______ is used to measure aire temperature.
7. A ________ is used to measure humidity of air.
8. The westerlies are referred to as roaring forties along the ______ latitude.
9. the westerlies are referred to screaming sixties along the _______ latitude.
10. The _______ is a comparatively calur layer of atmosphere.
11. Van Allen radiation belt can be seen at an altitude of ________.
12. The temperature of the upper part of the mesosphere is about ________.
13. ________ are the chief ozone destroying gases.
14. The radio waves are reflected back to the earth from the ________.
15. Sea breeze blows during ________.
16. The _______ helps to detect rapid change in air pressure.
17. Pompero blows in the valley of river ________.
18. The _______ helps to measure wind speed.
19. In the tropical region, the deserts have been created on the side of the _______ continents.
20. The land breeze blows with the greatest speed during the ________.
21. If pressure gradient increases, wind speed ________.
22. By ferrel’s law, winds deflect towards the in the _______ southern hemisphere.
23. The mediterranearn region received rainfall during ________.
24. the cold wind blowing along the Adriatic Sea coast during winter is called ________.
25. The winds are called ‘snow eaters’.
26. The ________ winds are the heavy winds that descend along the mountain slopes.
27. Connectional rainfall occurs from _______ clouds.
28. Smoke and fog together produce ________.
29. Relative humidity is measured by the instrument called ________.
30. _______ is a rain shadow area in India.
Answer:
1. Charles Fabry and Henri Buisson
2. Christ child
3. Torricelli
4. Barometer
5. Milibar
6. Thermometer
7. Hygrometer
8. 40°
9. 60°
10. Stratosphere
11. 4000 km
12. (-) 93°C
13. CFCs
14. Ionosphere
15. Day time
16. Barogram
17. Rhine
18. Anemometer
19. Western
20. Early morning
21. Increases
22. Left
23. Winter
24. Bora
25. Chinook
26. Katabatic
27. Cumulonimbus
28. Smog
29. Psychrometer
30. Shillong/Eastern slope of Western Ghats

State True or False : 1 Mark

1. The CO₂ absorbs the ultraviolet rays of the sun. [ ]
2. The water vapour present in the atmosphere leads to the scattering of light. [ ]
3. Hydrogen gas concentrates at an altitude of 200-1100 km above the earth’s surface. [ ]
4. The meteors coming from outer space one burnt in the mesosphere of the earth’s atmosphere. [ ]
5. The jet planes fly through the stratosphere. [ ]
6. The thickness of the troposphere is about 8 km near the equator. [ ]
7. CFCs are emitted by refrigerators, air conditioners etc. [ ]
8. The tropopause lies between the stratosphere and mesosphere. [ ]
9. The boiling point of water by the Fahrenheit scale is 212°F. [ ]
10. High pressure prevails in the Arctic circle region. [ ]
11. Orographic rainfall occurs in the windward slope of the mountains. [ ]
12. In tropical regions, cyclones occur due to formation of fronts. [ ]
13. Inversion of temperature occurs in the stratosphere. [ ]
14. A local wind named Fohn blows in Alps mountainous region. [ ]
15. Due to the coriolis force, winds are deflected towards the right in the northern hemisphere, and towards the left in the southern hemisphere. [ ]
16. The 30°-35° latitudes are also known as horse latitudes. [ ]
17. The jet stream influences the monsoon winds. [ ]
18. Low pressure prevails in the centre of anticyclones. [ ]
19. The centre of the cyclone is known as an eye. [ ]
20. The westerlies blow with higher speed in the southern hemisphere than the northern hemisphere. [ ]
21. The anticyclone moves in a clockwise direction in the northern hemisphere. [ ]
22. Cyclones commonly occur in China. [ ]
Answer:
1. Flase
2. Flase
3. Flase
4. True
5. True
6. Flase
7. True
8. Flase
9. True
10. Flase
11. True
12. Flase
13. True
14. True
15. True
16. True
17. True
18. Flase
19. True
20. True
21. True
22. Flase

Answer in few words : 1 Mark

Question 1.
What is the envelop of air around the earth called?
Answer:
Atmosphere.

Question 2.
Which gas is needed by green plants?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide.

Question 3.
Which gas saves us from the harmful Ultraviolet rays ?
Answer:
Ozone.

Question 4.
Which is the densest layer of the atmosphere ?
Answer:
Troposphere.

Question 5.
What lies between the stratosphere and mesosphere?
Answer:
The Stratopause.

Question 6.
Which force is responsible for exertion of atmospheric pressure on the earth’s surface?
Answer:
The gravitational force of the earth.

Question 7.
What is the horizontal movement of air called ?
Answer:
Wind.

Question 8.
What is the other name for permanent winds ?
Answer:
Planetary winds.

Question 9.
Name two winds blowing in opposite directions.
Answer:
The easterlies or trade winds and the westerlies.

Question 10.
What type of a wind is the monsoon wind ?
Answer:
Periodic wind.

Question 11.
How is humidity represented ?
Answer:
In percentage.

Question 12.
By which process does water vapour in the air change into water ?
Answer:
Condensation.

Question 13.
What is ‘dew’?
Answer:
Tiny droplets of water that remain suspended in the air.

Question 14.
What is sleet?
Answer:
Rain and snow falling together.

Question 15.
Name two rain-bearing clouds.
Answer:
Cumulus and nimbus.

Question 16.
Where does relief rainfall occur?
Answer:
Windward side of mountains.

Question 17.
Does warm air hold more or less water vapour ?
Answer:
More water vapour.

Question 18.
Does speedy winds increase the rate of evaporation?
Answer:
Yes.

Question 19.
What is a saturated air ?
Answer:
Air that holds the maximum amount of water vapour that it can hold.

Question 20.
Name the instruments measuring humidity.
Answer:
Hygrometer.

Question 21.
What is measured by a Six’s Maximum and Minimum thermometer?
Answer:
Maximum and minimum temperatures of a day.

Question 22.
On what does the amount of rainfall depend ?
Answer:
Moisture content of the air.

Question 23.
What is the side of the mountain facing away from the wind called?
Answer:
Leeward side.

Question 24.
Which is the most widespread form of rainfall ?
Answer:
Orographic or relief rainfall.

Question 25.
Where are the meeting of warm and cold fronts common ?
Answer:
The middle latitudes.

Question 26.
Which season receives most of the rainfall on the earth’s surface?
Answer:
Summer.

Question 27.
Do the borders or interiors of the continents get more rainfall ?
Answer:
Borders of the continents.

Question 28.
Which is the hottest part of the earth ?
Answer:
The equatorial region.

Question 29.
Among on-shore and off-shore winds, which one has less moisture content?
Answer:
Off-shore winds.

Question 30.
What happens to relative humidity when temperature decreases ?
Answer:
Relative humidity increases.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 1.4 Works of Wind offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 1.4 Question Answer – Works of Wind

Answer in short : 2 Marks

Question 1.
Name the areas where wind action is predominant.
Answer:
Wind action is predominant in :
(a) Desert regions (tropical and subtropical)
(b) Arid regions adjacent to deserts.
(c) Coastal regions.

Question 2.
On what factors does the erosive actions of wind depend ?
Answer:
Erosive action of wind depends on :
(a) Wind speed (b) Amount of sand, pebbles etc. carried by the wind, (c) Rock structure of the region (d) Vegetation cover (e) Heat, humidity and amount of rainfall.

Question 3.
Name some famous deserts of the world.
Answer:
Sahara of Africa, Atacama of Chile, Gobi of Mongolia, Soneran of North America etc.

Question 4.
What is a ventifact ?
Answer:
In deserts where wind blows from a single direction, large rocks standing in the path of the wind get polished on one side due to abrasion. This one side polished face with sharp edges is called a ventifact.

Question 5.
What is loess?
Answer:
Plains formed by deposition of fine sand particles carried by wind far away from the place where they belong, are called loess or loess plains.

Question 6.
What is a dreikanter?
Answer:

In deserts where winds blow from different directions in different seasons, the big rocks lying in the path of the wind get polished on all sides due to abrasion. This multi sided polished faced with sharp edges is called a dreikanter.

Question 7.
What is an oasis ?
Answer:
In a desert, when sand is deflated from an area continuously, creating a deep hollow or basin, the level of grand water may get exposed. Thus water may seep out from this place forming a shallow water body. This is known as an oasis. A few plants may grow here. A few settlements may also develop.

Question 8.
What is a playa?
Answer:
Shallow lakes created in depressions surrounded by hills in a desert region are called playa.

Question 9.
What is a bajada?
Answer:
The plain land developed adjacent to a pediment by deposition of eroded materials in a deserted region, is called a bajada.

Question 10.
What is a pediment?
Answer:
When high plateaus or mountains in desert areas are lowered by wind abrasion, the sloping stony plains formed at the foot of the mountain is called a pediment.

Question 11.
What are mesa and butte?
Answer:

‘Mesa’ means ‘table’ in Spanish. In desert areas, if plateaus are highly dissected by wind erosion, the flat topped landforms thus formed are called mesa. When mesa gets eroded and reduced in size, they are called butte.

Question 12.
What is a gour?
Answer:
Due to wind abrasion, when the lower parts of big rocks get more eroded than the higher parts, the feature thus formed resembles like a mushroom. This narrow based and broad-topped landform is called a gour.

Question 13.
What is a wadi?
Answer:
In desert regions, narrow river valleys created by rainwater are called wadis. They remain dry for most of the year.

Question 14.
What is a ‘dhand’?
Answer:
In Rajasthan, low depressions created by deflation of sand by wind in desert regions are called ‘dhand’.

Question 15.
Name the northernmost hot desert and the driest hot desert of the world.
Answer:
Northernmost hot desert – Gobi desert, Driest hot desert – Atacama desert of Chile.

Question 16.
What is the rate of average rainfall in the hot deserts of the world?
Answer :
Averge rainfall in the hot deserts of the world is around $25 \mathrm{~cm}$ per year.

Question 17.
What kind of ocean currents pass beside the deserts of the world ?
Answer:
Except for the deserts in Asia, all the other deserts of the diferent continents of the world have cold currents flowing beside them.

Question 18.
What is a ‘Blow-out’ ?
Answer:
In a desert, when tonnes of sand are blown away by winds, thus creating a hollow or depression which is quite deep, is called a ‘Blow-out’. This is an erosional feature found in a desert. Eg. – Katara in Egypt.

Question 19.
Which desert in the world has the largest moving sand dunes ?
Answer:
Rub-al-Khali desert of Saudi Arabia, Asia.

Question 20.
What is an inselberg ?
Answer:
In a desert, the rocky surfaces get reduced by abrasion and attrition of wind action. But, if a resistant rock is present in the path of the wind, it cannot be eroded and lowered equally with the surrounding rock surfaces. Hence, they stand out like isolated or island mountains within the deserts. These are called inselbergs.

Question 21.
What are Barkhans?
Answer:
The crescent shaped sand dunes created in perpendicular direction to the direction of wind in a desert, are called Barkhans. Eg. – Such crescent sand dunes can be seen in the Sahara and Kalahari deserts in Africa.

Question 22.
What are Seif dunes?
Answer:
Seif dunes are sand dunes produced in a desert lying parallel to the dirction of wind. They can be several kilometres long but only a few metres wide.

Question 23.
What is an erg ?
Answer:
The huge deserts formed only of sand particles are known as ergs in Sahara. The same landforms are known as kums in Turkistan. Eg.-Rub-at-khali in Saudi Arabia is the largest erg in the world.

Question 24.
What is reg?
Answer:
The deserts formed of rock fragments of various sizes are known as reg in Algeria.

Question 25.
What are sand dunes?
Answer:
The sand particles moved by wind action in a desert and dumped in huge heaps are called sand dunes.

Question 26.
What is a desert pavement?
Answer:
A desert region composed of unequal pieces of rock fragments is called desert pavement.

Answer briefly : 3 Marks

Question 1.
What are the reasons for predominant wind action in arid regions?
Answer:
Although wind blows over the whole of the earth, its action is predominant in arid regions. This is because :

1. No obstacle in wind direction : In desert regions, due to lack of rainfall, there is no or very less vegetation cover. Thus wind blows unhindered with high speed.
2. Loose and exposed soil : Lack of vegetation makes the soil loose and exposed to wind action.
3. High diurnal range of temperature : Great difference between day and night temperature causes rocks to crack and break due to contraction and expansion. This makes the work of the wind easier.

Question 2.
What are the different methods of wind erosion?
Answer:
The different methods by which the wind erodes are:

1. Deflation : This refers to the process of remaining unsorted dust and sand particles by blowing out by winds.
2. Abrasion : By this method, the sand and rock particles carried by the wind rub, scour, groove, cut and polish any rock surface that comes in its way.
3. Attrition : By this method, the rock and sand particles carried by the wind strike against each other, break and reduce in size.

Question 3.
Differentiate between Yardang and Zeugen.
Answer:

Question 4.
Mention the factors on which the erosive power of wind depends.
Answer:
The erosive power of wind depends on – (i) Wind speed (ii) Amount and nature of sand, pebbles and rock fragments carried by the wind (iii) Nature of rock beds (iv) Vegetation cover (v) Heat, humidity and amount of rainfall.

Question 5.
What is a pediment ?
Answer:
When high plateaus or mountains in deserts are highly eroded and lowered by wind abrasion, the sloping stony plains formed at the foot of the mountains is called a pediment.

Question 6.
Differentiate between a Pediment and a Bajada.
Answer:

Pediment	Bajada
i. Formed by combined work of wind and water at the foot of the mountains due to erosion.	i. Formed by combined action of wind and water by deposition of sand, clay, pebbles etc.
ii. Lies at the foot of mountains highlands in deserts.	(ii) Lies in the stretch between a pediment and playa in a desert.
iii. It is a hard rocky region.	iii. It is formed by deposition of loose materials like sand, pebbles, gravels etc.
iv. Pediments are slightly concave in shape.	iv. Bajada are slightly convex and look something like alluvial cones.

Question 7.
What is a blow-out?
Answer:

The basins or hollows which are formed by sweeping away of loose, light and sandy particles by winds, are called blow-outs or deflation basins. They are known as ‘dhand’ in Rajasthan. The largest blow-out of the world is the Qattara depression in Egypt.

Question 8.
Differentiate between barkhans and seif dunes.
Answer:

Question 9.
What is loess plain ?
Answer:
An yellowish sediment produced by wind-blown silt deposition, usually in the size range of 20-50 micrometer, loosly cemented by calcium carbonate is called loess. The flat regions covered by such deposits are called loess plains. This helps to make farm land very fertile.

Question 10.
Why wind action also active in the coastal regions ?
Answer:
Action of wind is very active in desert area. But it is also active in coastal area, because :
1 . Open and extensive coastline helps to blow the sea breeze towards the land with no obstraction and cause erosion of coastal area.
2. Sea waves are help to break the rocks of coastal area into small granules which can be then easily blow away by the wind.
3. Uninterrupted wind blown through the coastal area carried sand prevent in the coast and formed landforms like sand dunes in the coastal region.

Question 11.
What is an Inselberg ?
Answer:

The German term inselberg means ‘Island mountain’. They are outstanding, rounded, steep-sided residual hills rising abruptly from nearby eroded flat surface. Their height may vary from 10-300 m.

Question 12.
Name the landforms formed by combined action of wind and water.
Answer:
Landforms formed by combined action of wind and water are : wadi, playa, pediment and bajada.

Question 13.
Name the regions where wind action is predominant in creation of new landforms.
Answer:
The regions where wind action is predominant in creation of new landforms are:

1. Deserts (Tropical and sub-tropical regions)
2. Semi-arid and dry regions adjacent to deserts.
3. Coastal areas.

Question 14.
How is sand particles formed in desert regions ?
Answer:
In deserts, due to high temperature fluctuations between day and night, the barren exposed rocks are severely expanded and contracted regularly. This causes breaking of the rocks into smaller parts and finally leads to the formation of sand. The pebbles and fragments of rocks borne by the wind hit against the rocky walls of mountains, hills or other land surfaces. This causes high rates of erosion, and thus leads to formation of sand. Presence of hard minerals in the broken rock fragments cause exploding action when they colide with the rock surfaces. This also helps in creation of sand.

Answer in details : 5 Marks

Question 1.
Name and describe the landforms formed by wind depostion.
Answer:
The different landforms formed by wind deposition are :
(i) Longitudinal or Seif dunes : Low but long ridges of sand particles lying parallel to the wind direction are called seif dunes. They may be 40-70 m. in height, about 100 m in width, and a few kilometres in length.

(ii) Transverse dunes: When dunes are formed perpendicular or transversely to the wind direction, they are called transverse dunes. They are common in deserts where sand supply is abundant and wind speed is moderate.

(iii) Barkhans : Crescentshaped sand dunes that receive wind from only one direction are called barkhans. They have two horns opposite to the wind direction.
(iv) Loess : Fine sand particles, carried by winds and deposited far away from their place of origin, forming extensive plants are called loess.

Question 2.
What are the main causes of spread of deserts or desertification?
Answer:
The main causes of desertification are :
(a) Physical causes :

1. Drought : Regular and repeated droughts may damage the soil permanently, preventing any vegetative growth, hence bringing in desertification.
2. Climatic changes : Green house effect and global warming may affect the climate of an area and advance desertification.
3. Soil erosion : Removal of top soil may also cause desertification.
4. Presence of mountains : Presence of mountains may obstruct moisture-laden winds to cause rainfall. Hence deserts may be created in the rain shadow areas.

(b) Man-made causes :

1. Over-grazing : Over-grazing may remove the vegetative cover of the soil permanently, and cause desertification.
2. Over-cultivation : Unscientific cultivation may cause removal of nutrients from the soil and cause further extension of deserts.
3. Uncontrolled irrigation : Over-irrigation may cause soils to become saline, loose fertility and tend to turn into deserts.
4. Deforestation : Cutting down of trees remove vegetative cover and cause desertification.

Question 3.
What are the methods of controlling desertification?
Answer:
The process of desertification is very difficult to stop totally. But certain steps may be taken for its control :

1. Controlled grazing : Grazing should be controlled, especially in arid and semiarid regions.
2. Cultivation : Cultivation of drought resistant crops must be encouraged near deserts.
3. Afforestation : Trees should be planted to cover up exposed areas.
4. Irrigation : Controlled irrigation helps to improve soil quality.
5. Others : Other steps that can be taken are – rain water harvesting, preventing salinity of soil, proper planning of land use, increasing consciousness among people etc.

Question 4.
What are the causes of desertification of Sahara? What are the remedial steps taken?
Answer:
Sahara in Africa is the largest hot desert of the world, covering about 91,00,000 sq km area.
Causes of desertification : (i) Extreme sand storms (ii) Lack of rainfall due to global warming (iii) Reduction of agriculture at the borders of the desert.

Preventive measures :

1. The Federal state and the govt. of Nigeria has taken up annual tree planting programmes. Free plants are distributed to be planted in agricultural fields and houses.
2. Heavy reforestation programmes are taken up in dry areas of Mali, Mauritania, Niger, Sudan, Senegal, Chad, Ethiopia etc.
3. Involvement of ladies, youth and students in reforestation and awareness programmes.

Question 5.
Mention the causes of spread of the Thar desert and the preventive measures taken.
Answer:
The Thar desert spreads over 2.34 million sq. km. in India over west Rajasthan, Gujarat, south west Punjab and parts of Haryana.

Causes of spread of desert : (i) High speed winds (ii) Large moving sand dunes (iii) High diurnal range of temperature (iv) Low rainfall (v) High rate of evaporation.
Preventive measures : (i) Reforestation is being done on the hill slopes in this region according to several government programmes. (ii) Artifical grasslands are being created to prevent movement of sand dunes in Barmer, Jaisalmer, etc. (iii) Trees that grow fast, are being planted to meet the demand of fuel wood of local people in Jaisalmer, Jhuijhunu etc.(iv) The Rajasthan canal has been constructed to irrigate and reclaim infertile land.

Question 6.
Name and describe three landforms created by erosive action of wind.
Answer:
The landforms created by erosive action of wind are :

(i) Gour : When the lower portions of a huge rock mass is eroded away much more compared to the upper portions, the landform thus formed resembles a mushroom. Such top heavy features are called ‘Gour’.
(ii) Yardang : When hard and soft rocks lie in bands in vertical direction to the direction of the wind the softer rocks get eroded very fast, while the harder rocks act like resistances and get less eroded. The harder rocks have rugged surfaces. These are called ‘Yardangs’.

(iii) Zeugen : When hard and soft rocks lie in bands perpendicular to the direction of wind, the soft rocks are eroded away very fast. The hard rocks stand out like broad topped and narrow-based landforms. These are called ‘Zeugens’.

Question 7.
Describe the different landforms formed by combined action of wind and water in desert areas.
Answer:
The different landforms formed by the combined action of water and wind in a desert region are :
(i) Wadi : In deserts sudden torrential rains lead to formation of valleys through which the collected rain water may flow like a river. In dry season, these valleys also remain dry.

(ii) Playa : Playas are small lakes found in deserts. They are highly saline and the water cannot be used for agricultural or household purposes.
(iii) Pediment : Pediment refers to the eroded and lowered plainlands that lie at the foot of the mountains.

(iv) Bajada : Bajada refers to the deposition of materials, brought down by wind as well as water and deposited beyond the pediment.

Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Loess is commonly formed by deposition of
(A) Silt by wind
(B) Sand by wind
(C) Silt by rivers
(D) Dust by volcanoes
Answer:
(B) Sand by wind

Question 2.
The crescent shaped sand dunes are called
(A) Barkhans
(B) Seif
(C) Yardang
(D) Arete
Answer:
(A) Barkhans

Question 3.
Landforms, not associated with wind erosion is
(A) Rock pedestal
(B) Zeugen
(C) Yardang
(D) Dunes
Answer:
(D) Dunes

Question 4.
Pediments are formed in
(A) Arid regions
(B) Coastal regions
(C) Glacial regions
(D) Valley regions
Answer:
(A) Arid regions

Question 5.
Gour can be found in
(A) Coastal area.
(B) Arid region
(C) Glaciated region
(D) Island area
Answer:
(B) Arid region

Question 6.
Lakes formed within sand dunes are called
(A) Dhands
(B) Dhrians
(C) Playas
(D) Shots
Answer:
(A) Dhands

Question 7.
Wadis are
(A) Mountain Valley
(B) Flower Valley
(C) Depressional Valley
(D) Dry Valley
Answer:
(D) Dry Valley

Question 8.
Bajada is a
(A) Erosional plain formed by wind
(B) Depositional plain formed by wind and water
(C) Erosional plain formed by river
(D) Depositional plains formed by glaciers
Answer:
(B) Depositional plain formed by wind and water

Question 9.
Yardang is formed by
(A) Glacial deposition
(B) Marine deposition
(C) Wind erosion
(D) Sea erosion
Answer:
(C) Wind erosion

Question 10.
Isolated hard resistant rocks scatterd in plain deserts are called
(A) Monadnocks
(B) Inselbergs
(C) Drumlins
(D) Spur
Answer:
(B) Inselbergs

Question 11.
The steep-sided, deeply undercut, overhanging rock ridges separated from one another by long grooves in desert floors of relatively softer rocks are called
(A) Dreikanters
(B) Ventifacts
(C) Zeugens
(D) Yardangs
Answer:
(D) Yardangs

Question 12.
Wind windows and window bridges are ______ land forms.
(A) Transportational
(B) Erosion
(C) Depositional
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Erosion

Question 13.
Accumulation of sands between obstacles are called
(A) Sand shadows
(B) Sand drifts
(C) Sand dunes
(D) Ripple marks
Answer:
(B) Sand drifts

Question 14.
The wind-borne materials deposited beyond the limits of the deserts by wind action are called
(A) Sand dunes
(B) Loess
(C) Ripple marks
(D) Barkhans
Answer:
(B) Loess

Question 15.
The loess formation in China is most prominent in
(A) North China
(B) East China
(C) South China
(D) West China
Answer:
(A) North China

Question 16.
Wind erosion in the arid and semi-arid regions is assisted by
(A) Chemical weathering
(B) Mechanical weathering
(C) Biological weathering
(D) Differential weathering
Answer:
(B) Mechanical weathering

Question 17.
Wind erosion is largely controlled and determined by
(A) Wind velocity
(B) Compositions of rocks
(C) Nature of Vegetation
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 18.
The process of removing, lifting and blowing away dry and loose particles of sads and dusts by wind is called
(A) Deflation
(B) Abrasion
(C) Attrition
(D) Corrosion
Answer:
(A) Deflation

Question 19.
Which of the following rocks are called ‘gara’ in Sahara?
(A) Dreikanter
(B) Dunes
(C) Stone lattice
(D) Mushroom rocks
Answer:
(D) Mushroom rocks

Question 20.
Wind transports materials by the process of
(A) Suspension
(B) Saltation
(C) Traction
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 21.
The mineral abundantly found in sand duhes is
(A) Quartz
(B) Kaolin clay
(C) Feldspar
(D) Clay
Answer:
(A) Quartz

Question 22.
The dunes formed along coasts and margins of deserts are called
(A) Longitudinal dunes
(B) Transverse dunes
(C) Bankhan dunes
(D) Parabolic dunes
Answer:
(B) Transverse dunes

Question 23.
The sand dunes formed parallel to wind direction are called
(A) Transverse dunes
(B) Barkhan dunes
(C) Parabolic dunes
(D) Longitudinal dunes
Answer:
(D) Longitudinal dunes

Question 24.
Which of the sand dunes have two horns ?
(A) Nebkha
(B) Barkhan
(C) Seif
(D) Transverse dunes
Answer:
(B) Barkhan

Question 25.
The example of the most significant wind blown deposits is
(A) Sand dunes
(B) Loess
(C) Ripple marks
(D) Playa
Answer:
(B) Loess

Question 26.
Loess is known as ‘Limon’ in
(A) France
(B) Nebraska
(C) Australia
(D) China
Answer:
(A) France

Question 27.
‘Inselberg’ was first named by
(A) W. M. Davis
(B) L. C. King
(C) R. L. Parker
(D) R. A. Bagnold
Answer:
(B) L. C. King

Question 28.
Seif dunes were first named by
(A) L.C.King
(B) W. Penck
(C) W. M. Davis
(D) R. A. Bagnold
Answer:
(D) R. A. Bagnold

Question 29.
The dry river channels in arid regions are called
(A) Wadi
(B) Bolson
(C) Salina
(D) Loess
Answer:
(A) Wadi

Question 30.
The salt lakes found in arid regions are called
(A) Bolson
(B) Wadi
(C) Playa
(D) Dhand
Answer:
(C) Playa

Question 31.
The shifting dunes of Rajasthan are locally known as
(A) Dhrian
(B) Barchan
(C) Loess
(D) Blow out
Answer:
(A) Dhrian

Question 32.
Cresentic dunes are called
(A) Seif
(B) Barchan
(C) Loess
(D) Blow out
Answer:
(B) Barchan

Question 33.
Pediments are formed by the ______ works of wind and temporary stream.
(A) Erosional
(B) Transportational
(C) Depositional
(D) Erosional and Depositional
Answer:
(A) Erosional

Question 34.
The hard rocks standing like dames or hills is a desert are called
(A) Mushroom rock
(B) Inselbergs
(C) Yardangs
(D) Bajada
Answer:
(B) Inselbergs

Question 35.
‘Gara’ is formed by the action of
(A) River
(B) Glacier
(C) Wind
(D) Waves
Answer:
(C) Wind

Question 36.
Barchans get gradually converted to
(A) Akle dunes
(B) Seif
(C) Gara
(D) Wadi
Answer:
(B) Seif

Question 37.
Marusthali means
(A) Land of the dead
(B) Rainshadow region
(C) A land of heavy rainfall
(D) Lack of camels.
Answer:
(A) Land of the dead

Question 38.
Mesas are eroded further to form
(A) Zeugen
(B) Butle
(C) Inselberg
(D) Yardang
Answer:
(B) Butle

Question 39.
The dome shaped low hills present is the peneplain regions are called-
(A) Monad rocks
(B) Gara
(C) Yardang
(D) Till
Answer:
(A) Monad rocks

Question 40.
In peneplain, low lying hill of hard rocks remains as residual landform is called
(A) Yardang
(B) Zeugen
(C) Sand dunes
(D) Inselberg
Answer:
(D) Inselberg

Fill in the blanks : 1 Mark

1. The playa lakes in the arid regions of Africa are known as _______.
2. The playa lakes in the desert region of Rajasthan are known as _______.
3. The crescent-shaped sand dunes lying perpendicular to the wind direction are called _______.
4. The vast sandy deserts in Sahara, lacking any vegetation are called _______.
5. The playa lakes are known as _______ in the desert regions of Mexico.
6. _________ is the largest sandy desert of the world.
7. _________ dunes are created from seif dunes.
8. The desert research centre of India is located at _______.
9. The term ‘dreikanter’ means _______.
10. _______ is a cold desert in India.
11. Loess comes from a German word meaning _______.
12. _______ has its origin in the Arabic word meaning ‘Sword’.
13. Thick loess deposits are found in _________ in India.
14. The desert lakes in Sahara are known as _______.
15. Oases are formed by ________ action of wind.
Answer:
1. Shots
2. Dhand
3. Barkhans
4. Erg
5. Bolson
6. Rub-at-khali desert in Saudi Arabia
7. Barkhan
8. Jodhpur
9. Three-sided
10. Ladakh
11. Loose materials
12. Seif
13. M.P.
14. Shalts
15. Erosion

State True or False : 1 Mark

1. Barkhans mean crescent-shaped dunes. [ ]
2. The largest desert of the world is Sahara. [ ]
3. The action fo wind is mostly noticed in high mountains [ ]
4. Barkhans are formed by erosional action of winds. [ ]
5. The sand dunes along the coastal region of Kerala are called terres. [ ]
6. The largest deflation hollow of the world is Qatara. [ ]
7. The driest desert of the world is Sahara. [ ]
8. The rocky part of the Sahara desert is called hamada. [ ]
9. The region between two seif dunes is called gasi. [ ]
10. Oases are created due to abrasion of wind. [ ]
11. Pediment is a type of plain. [ ]
12. The loward slope of the ventifact is smooth and sharp. [ ]
13. The landforms looking like mushrooms found in deserts are called yardang. [ ]
14. The Salt water lakes of deserts are called wadies. [ ]
15. The Taklamakan Desert lies in China. [ ]
16. ‘Mesa’ means ‘Chair’ in Spanish. [ ]
Answer:
1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. False
8. True
9. True
10. True
11. True
12. False
13. False
14. False
15. True
16. False

Match the following :

List 1	List 2
A. Sahara	i. Asia
B. Gobi	ii. Africa
C. Salina	iii. South America
D. Barkhan	iv. North America
E. Soneran	v. Kirghiz, Steppe region
F. Atacama	vi. Playa lake

Answer:

List 1	List 2
A. Sahara	ii. Africa
B. Gobi	i. Asia
C. Salina	vi. Playa lake
D. Barkhan	v. Kirghiz, Steppe region
E. Soneran	iv. North America
F. Atacama	iii. South America

Answer in few words : 1 Mark

Question 1.
What are sandy deserts known as ?
Answer:
Erg.

Question 2.
What are the moving sand dunes of Rajasthan called ?
Answer:
Dhrians.

Question 3.
What are rocky deserts known as ?
Answer:
Hamada.

Question 4.
What are ‘gours’ also known as ?
Answer:
Gara, or mushroom rocks or rock pedestals.

Question 5.
What are inselbergs?
Answer:
Outstanding rounded steep-sided residual rocks or hills in deserts.

Question 6.
What are deflation basins ?
Answer:
Hollows created in deserts by sweeping away or deflation of sand by wind.

Question 7.
What are dunes?
Answer:
Heaps of sand formed by wind deposition in deserts.

Question 8.
What are Barkhans?
Answer:
Crescent shaped sand dunes.

Question 9.
Which is the largest ‘hot’ desert of the world ?
Answer:
Sahara desert in Africa.

Question 10.
Where does the Thar desert lie in India ?
Answer:
West Rajasthan, Gujarat, South-western Punjab and parts of Haryana.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 History Book Solutions Chapter 6 Peasant, Working Class and Left Movements in 20th Century India:Characteristics and Observations offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 History Chapter 6 Question Answer – Peasant, Working Class and Left Movements in 20th Century India:Characteristics and Observations

Class 10 History Chapter 6 Question Answer WBBSE – Very Short Answer Questions (1 Mark)

Question 1.
What was the weakness of the peasants’ movement in India during the nineteenth century?
Answer:
Major weakness of the peasants movement of the nineteenth century was that they lacked unity and failed to grasp the real significance of colonialism.

Question 2.
What was the characteristic feature of the peasants’ movement in the twentieth century ?
Answer:
The characteristic feature of the peasants’ movement in the twentieth century was that as there was the emergence of political parties the discontent of the peasants merged with general anti-imperialist movement against the British.

Question 3.
What were the features of the anti-Partition agitation?
Answer:
The three main features of the anti-Partition agitation were Boycott, Swadeshi and National Education.

Question 4.
What was the major weakness of the anti-Partition agitation
Answer:
Despite its popular character the anti-Partition agitation was largely confined to the urban middle class.

Question 5.
Did any Leftist leadership of the peasants emerge during the anti-Partition agitation ?
Answer:
As Left politics was yet to emerge there was hardly any question of Leftist leadership of peasants during the anti-Partition agitation.

Question 6.
What was the relation between the Indian National Congress and the peasants’ movement during the Non Co-operation Movement ?
Answer:
With the support of the Congress leaders like Madan Mohan Malviya, Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabhbhai Patel the movement of the peasantry became a part of the national struggle for independence during the Non Co-operation Movement.

Question 7.
Who did initiate the process of organizing peasants on modern lines ?
Answer:
It was the members of the Home Rule League who initiated the process of organizing the Indian peasantry on modern lines.

Question 8.
How did the Kisan Sabha come to be established first in the United Province (U.P.) ?
Answer:
It was with the support of Madan Mohan Malviya that Kisan Sabha came into existence in 1918 with the initiative of Gaurisankar Misra and Indra Narayan Dwivedi.

Question 9.
How did the Indian Communists carry on their political activities amongst the peasantry before the formation of CPI ?
Answer:
Prior to the formation of the CPI the Indian Communists began their political activities among the peasantry through the nationalist mainstream, the Congress.

Question 10.
Why did the Eka Movement die an untimely death ?
Answer:
The Eka movement died an untimely death because of the severe repression of the colonial British rulers.

Question 11.
Under whose leadership did the peasants of Bardoli begin Satyagraha ?
Answer:
The peasants of Bardoli began Satyagraha under the leadership of Vallabhbhai Patel.

Question 12.
Under whose initiative was the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha organized ?
Answer:
Economically ruined peasants of Bihar were organized into Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha under the initiative of Sahajanand Saraswati.

Question 13.
Who were the founders of the Andhra Provincial Ryot’s Association ?
Answer:
In Andhra Pradesh the peasants’ organization named Andhra Pradesh Ryot’s Association came to be established under the initiative of N.G. Ranga and M.B. Naidu.

Question 14.
What was the new type of movement begun by the peasants of U.P. during the Civil Disobedience Movement ?
Answer:
The new type of peasants’ movement that began in U.P. was a call for ‘no-revenue and no-rent’ campaign.

Question 15.
Why is the second phase of the Civil Disobedience Momeve- ment in U.P. important ?
Answer:
The second phase of the Civil Disobedience Movement in U.P. was important because at that time people of the countryside were also drawn into the Congress agitation.

Question 16.
I Was the first left-wing peasants’ organization exclusively consisted of peasants ?
Answer:
The Indian Left-wingers initially did not conceive of an organization exclusively of the peasants, rather it was bracketed with workers.

Question 17.
What was the opinion expressed by R.S. Nimbkar, a veteran Communist leader, regarding the Bardoli Satyagraha of the peasants ?
Answer:
In the opinion of Nimbkar the Bardoli Satyagraha was an anti imperialist struggle of mixed classes of people, not exclusively of the peasants.

Question 18.
I Was the agrarian policy adopted by the Congress Socialists more radical than that of the Congress ?
Answer:
It is quite evident from the resolutions adopted by the Congress Socialists that the demands put forward by them were more radical than those of the Congress.

Question 19.
Mention an important aspect of the Quit India Movement.
Answer:
An important aspect of the Quit India Movement was that it did not assume the character of anti-landlordism.

Question 20.
In what way was the Quit India Movement different from the earlier movements in so far as the peasantry was concerned?
Answer:
Unlike the mass agitation launched by the Congress in 1920 and 1930 the peasantry was in no mood to undertake ‘no-rent, no-revenue’ campaign.

Question 21.
Which was the first peasant organization of the Communists?
Answer:
The All India Kisan Sabha (AIKS) set up in 1936 was the first peasant organization of the Communists on an all-India basis.

Question 22.
On what ground the Congress did not lend its blessings to the AU India Kisan Sabha set up by the Communists?
Answer:
The Congress leadership refused to give its blessings to the AIKS declaring at its Haripura Session (1938) that ‘Congress itself is in the main a kisan organization’.

Question 23.
When did the working class as it is understood today emerge in india?
Answer:
It was not before the second half of the nineteenth century that working class, as understood today, made their appearance in India.

Question 24.
How did the Congress react to the Partition of Bengal?
Answer:
The Benaras Session of the Congress (1905) made an emphatic protest against the Partition of Bengal as also the repressive measures adopted by the colonial British Government towards the protesters.

Question 25.
Mention a significant feature of the working class movement during the Non Co-operation Movement.
Answer:
A significant feature of the working class movement during that period was, the working class set up its own organization on an all India basis to defend its class rights.

Question 26.
Which was the first trade union proper in India?
Answer:
The Madras Labour Union set up by B.P. Wadia in 1918 was the first trade union proper in india.

Question 27.
How did the Congress assist the All India Trade Union Congress?
Answer:
In order to assist the AITUC the Congress formed a committee consisting of some prominent Congress leaders.

Question 28.
How did the Socialist influence in Indian politics strengthen the working class movement ?
Answer:
Various Socialist and Communist groups that had emerged in the meantime in different places were engaged in organizing labour movements.

Question 29.
Why was the Workers’ and Peasants’ Party important?
Answer:
The WPP was important because some of its units in different provinces emerged as the political party of the working class.

Question 30.
Would you say that during the Civil Disobedience the working class movement gained a foot-hold in the political thinking of the country?
Answer:
Indeed, it is evident from the fact that the workers all over the country participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Question 31.
What step did the British take to stem the tide of Communist influence on the workers.
Answer:
In order to hold back the growth of Communist influence the British Government put under arrests all the leading Communist and trade union leaders.

Question 32.
Why did the trade union movement register a phenomenal rise between 1937 and 1939?
Answer:
The pro-labour attitude of the Congress ministries (formed in 1937) in the provincial level served as an encouragement to the trade union activities.

Question 33.
What was the impact of the arrests of Gandhìji and other national leaders in 1942 on the working class of the country?
Answer:
As the news of the arrests spread workers of various places of the country went on strikes and hartals that lasted for a week.

Question 34.
Why did the Communists dissociate themselves from the Quit India Movement?
Answer:
The Communists, following the “People’s War” line dissociated themselves from the Quit India Movement.

Question 35.
How did the Socialist ideas initially percolate in India?
Answer:
Socialist ideas in India percolated initially througt the Indian soldiers who returned home from the theatres of the First World War.

Question 36.
Why were Nehru and Subhas deeply inspired by the Socialist ideas even remaining within the Congress?
Answer:
The reason for their Socialist leanings even remaining within the Congress fold was the realization that it was meaningless to have political freedom without achieving economic freedom.

Question 37.
For what did the indian independence League pressurize congress and Gandhiji?
Answer:
The Indian independence League pressurized the congress and gandhiji to start movement for the attainment of Poorna Swaraj (Complete Independence).

Question 38.
When was the communist party of india initially set up?
Answer:
The Communist Party of india was first formed in 1925 at tashkent (in erstwhile USSR).

Question 39.
What was the Impact of the Meerut Conspiracy Case on the Indian Communists?
Answer:
The Meerut Conspiracy case of 1929 gave a severe blow to the activities of the Communists of India.

Question 40.
Give an example to show how M.N. Roy turned a humanist from a Marxist.
Answer:
After India achieved her independnce M.N. Roy abolished the Radical Democratic Party, and founded the new Radical Humanist Association.

Class 10 History Chapter 6 Questions and Answers WBBSE – Short Answer Questions (2 Marks)

Question 1.
How did the peasants participate in the Anti-Partition Movement?
Answer:
Peasants’ participation in the Anti-Partition Movement was very much limited. Yet the Congress leadership did call upon the peasants to start no-rent campaign. Peasants’ disturbances that took place in Assam and Bengal perturbed the British rulers,

Question 2.
What was the involvement of the peasants In the Non Co-operation Movement?
Answer:
During the Movement the Indian peasantry also started voicing protests against their various grievances. The first peasants’ movement began at Rae Berili abd Faìzabad in present Uttar Pradesh. The peasants there even stopped paying illegal taxes.

Question 3.
How did the members of the Home Rule League organize the peasants?
Answer:
Members of the Home Rule League initiated the process of organizing the peasantry on modern lines. In United Province the Kisan Sabha was formed first in 1918,

Question 4.
What was the nature of the Eka Movement?
Answer:
In Oudh, in present Uttar Pradesh, the peasants’ movement assumed a significant character. There an armed band of peasants called Ekta or Eka became very active. The peasants took a vow that they would pay only the recorded rent and would not leave when ejected.

Question 5.
How did Baba Ramchandra organize the peasants?
Answer:
In 1920 Baba Ramchandra led a few hundred tenants in Allahabad. He invited the Congress leaders to see for themselves the living condition of the peasants. As a result Jawaharlal Nehru made several visits to the rural areas and developed close contact with the movement.

Question 6.
What was the Chauri Chaura incident that led to the withdrawal of the Non Co-operation Movement by Gandhiji?
Answer:
The Chaun Chaura incident was that in the village of the same name, near Gorakhpur, in Uttar Pradesh an infuriated mob set the nearby police station on fire. As a result a number of constables were burnt to death. The incident forced Gandhiji to withdraw the Non Co-operation

Question 7.
How was the Bardofi Satyagraha an Important chapter in the freedom movement of India?
Answer:
The Bardoli Satyagraha was an important chapter in the history of the freedom movement. It became a symbol of peasants’ protests in the country. The Satyagraha united a variety of the Indian people irrespective of their caste, creed or religion.

Question 8.
How did the Civil Disobedience Movement encourage the peasants’ movement?
Answer:
The Civil Disobedience Movement encouraged the peasants to launch a movement against the British administrators of India. Theirs was a new type of movement. The peasants resorted to ‘no-revenue and no-rent’.

Question 9.
Why did the Leftists form the Peasants’ and Workers’ Party?
Answer:
The Leftists initially did not conceive of an exclusively peasants’ organization. Rather it was bracketed with ‘workers’. Thus the Workers’ and Peasants’ Party came into existence by early 1927, and the Party initially functioned as a left-wing within the Congress.

Question 10.
How was the Indian peasantry mobilized under the Congress provincial ministries formed after the election of 1937 ?
Answer:
The Congress ministries formed in different provinces introduced legislations which gave at least some relief to the peasantry. This was an opportunity for the mobilization of the peasantry. The peasants either came out in open support for the legislation or demanded changes in it.

Question 11.
How did the Communists form their exclusive peasants’ organization?
Answer:
The Communists used the organizational strength of the Congress and the Congress Socialists to augment their influence on the peasantry. This was how the Communist workers laid the foundation of their peasant organization named All India Kisan Sabha in 1936.

Question 12.
Did the Congress openly support the workers’ movement during the anti-Partition Movement?
Answer:
The Congress as an organization did not corne out in open to support the workers’ movement during the anti-Partition Agitation. Yet many of the Congress leaders enthusiastically supported the labour strikes and formation of trade unions. Aswinilcumar Banerjee, Premtosh Bose and others were active in large number of strikes.

Question 13.
In what ways did the working class movement in India enter a new phase at the end of the World War I?
Answer:
By the time the First World War ended the industrial labourers had become conscious about the effective weapon of strike in filling their various demands. Further, the working class could not stay away from the mass awakening created by the participation of Gandhiji in the national freedom struggle.

Question 14.
How did the Congress lead the workers during the Civil Disobedience Movement?
Answer:
During the Civil Disobedience Movement the Congress raised the slogan that workers and peasants are the hands and feet of the Congress. Besides, the Great Indian Peninsular (Gil’) Railwaymen’s Union undertook Satyagraha in support of Gandhiji’s breaking of the Sait Law.

Question 15.
How did the workers of the country react to the arrest of Gandhiji during the Quit India Movement?
Answer:
As the news of the arrests of most of the prominent national leaders including Gandhiji spread a tumult of protest was raised. Workers of different places of the country went on strikes and hartals that lasted for a week. In some of the places the strikes continued for a longer period.

Question 16.
What was the reason for the leftist leaning of Nehru and Subhas even remaining within the Congress?
Answer:
The reason was their realization that it was meaningless to have political freedom without achieving economic freedom. Explaining his position as a ‘socialist’ Nehru said that he had become attracted to socialism considering the situation in India. Subhas, another socialist regretted that in a favourable situation in the 30s of the twentieth century congress showed no interest

Question 17.
What was the Meerut Conspiracy Case instituted against the Communists ?
Answer:
In the wake of the anti-Simon agitation the Communists organized large scale strikes of the industrial labour force. The British Government felt that the strikes and the labour agitation were all due to the machination of the Communists. Under such a Situation the British Government arrested all the prominent Communist labour leaders and the Mcerut Conspiracy Case lodged against them.

Question 18.
What was the People’s War line as adopted by the Communist Party during the Quit India Movement?
Answer:
Hitler’s attack on the Soviet Union became a turning point for the Indian Communists. The attack on the Soviet Union was considered as the war against the people and hence the “People’s War” line. Following the line the Communist Party asked its cadres to stay away from the Quit India Movement.

WBBSE Class 10 History Chapter 6 Questions and Answers – Analytical Answer Questions (4 Marks)

Question 1.
How during the twentieth century the peasant movement overcome most of the weaknesses ?
Answer:
Peasants’ movements were not rare in India prior to the twentieth century. But at that time the movements suffered from several weaknesses. As time rolled on it was possible to overcome the weaknesses.

• During the nineteenth century the Indian peasants had displayed enough courage and organizational ability. Yet they lacked unity and failed to grasp the real significance of colonialism.
• In the twentieth century the peasants could overcome most of the weaknesses of the peasant movement.
• With the emergence of political parties the discontent of the peasants was merged with general anti-imperialist movement against the British.

Question 2.
What was the nature of the participation of the peasants in the anti-Partition agitation ?
Answer:
The anti-partition movement assumed an all-India character in which different classes of people participated.

• Despite the popular character of the anti-partition movement it must be admitted that it was largely confined to the urban middle class.
• The peasants’ participation was very much limited. Indeed, the Congress leadership did call upon the peasants to start a no-rent campaign.
• The participation of peasants during the anti-Partition movement was no less significant. The indigo peasants of Champaran in Bthar rose in rebellion.
• Peasants’ disturbances took place in Assam and Mymensingh (in present Bangladesh). The Muslim peasants of Barisal (in present Bangladesh) were led by Aswini Kumar Datta.
• The Left politics did not emerge in India during the anti-Partition movement. As such there was no question of the Leftists’ leadership amongst the peasants.

Question 3.
How did the Congress help the peasantry to participate in the Non Co-operation Movement?
Answer:
At the call of Gandhiji lakhs of people all over the country joined the Non Co-operation Movement. During the movement the Indian peasantry also started voicing their protests against various acts of injustice done to them.

a. The Non Co-operation Movement encouraged the peasantry to align them with it. With the support of the Congress leaders like Madan Mohan
Malviya, Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabhbhai Patel and others the movement of the peasantry became a part of the national struggle for independence.

b. The members of the Home Rule League, who were really the supporters of the Indian National Congress, initiated the process of organizing the peasants on modern lines.

c. U.P. (United Province) was the province where Kisan Sabha was formed first. In fact, with the support of Madan Mohan Malviya Kisan Sabhc came into existence in 1918 by the initiative of Gaurisankar Misra and Indra Narayan Dwivedi. Formed in 1918 the Kisczn Sabha moved from strength to strength as years rolled on. During the Non Co-operation Movement it became difficult to distinguish between a Non Cooperation meeting and a Kisan Sabha gathering.

Question 4.
What was the Eka Movement?
Answer:
During the Non Co-operation days peasant discontent surfaced in the districts of Hardoi, Sitapur and the adjoining areas of present Uttaranchal. The movement grew under the name Ekta or Eka movement, literally meaning unity movement.

• The main grievance of the peasants under the Eka movement was the extraction of rent at a higher rate.
• Oppressions of the rent-collectors or the thikadars, as they were called constituted another cause of the peasants’ grievence.
• The Eka rebels took a vow in the name of religion that they would not pay the increased part of the revenue. They would pay only the recorded rent. They also vowed that they would refuse to do forced labour and shall not leave the land when ejected.
• The Eka movement was led by Passi Madari and Sahreb and other leaders who belonged to the lower caste.
• The Eka rebels accepted the discipline of non-violence as urged upon by the Congress and Khilafat leaders.
• The Eka movement died an untimely death due to the severe oppressios of the colonial British authorities.

Question 5.
Write in short about the Bardoli Satyagraha.
Answer:
Bardoli Satyagraha was a ‘no-tax’ movement of the peasants of Bardoli in Surat district of Gujarat.

• Bardoli fell under the Ryotwari land tenure in which the rate of tax used to be revised in every 30 years. 1926 was the year for the revision of tax. It was found that the hike in tax was unprecedented.
• The peasants of Bardoli under the leadership of Valiabhbhai Patel formally launched the Bardoli Satyagraha on 12 February 1928.
• The peasants of Bardoli during the Satyagraha in a non-violent and disciplined manner intensified the movement.
• Alarmed at the attitude of the peasants the British Government as a face-saving device reduced the rate of tax. Thus the movement was a successful one and came to an end in August 1928.
• Bardoli Satyagraha united a variety of Indian people irrespective of their class, creed and religion. The movement also had the support of all shades of political opinion. It became, indeed, a symbol of peasants’ protest in India.

Question 6.
What was the importance of Bardoli Satyagraha?
Answer:
The Bardoli Satyagraha is an important chapter in the history of the freedom movement in india.

• The movement united variety of the indian people irrespective of their class, creed, caste and religion, and thus was a blow to the British misconception of the ‘disunity’ amongst the indians.
• The movement had the support of all shades of political opinion the ‘moderates, liberals or constitutionalists because of the moderation and discipline the peasants of Bardoli had demonstrated.
• Bardoli satyagraha became the symbol of peasants’ protests in India.
• As pointed out by Prof Mndula Mukherjee in her article Bardoli Peasants’ Struggle 1928 that “Bardoli confirmed the Indian people were indeed on the way to becoming a nation.”

Question 7.
What was the nature of peasants’ participation in the Civil Disobeience Movement?
Answer:
Formation of the Congress Ministries in the majority of provinces after the election of 1937 marked the beginning of a new kind of peasant movement.

• Immediately before the Movement began the different Congress ministries had introduced legislations which aimed at giving some relief to the peasantry.
• This was an opportunity for the mobilization of the peasantry. The peasants either came out in open support for the legislation or demanded changes in it.
• An important aspect of the Quit India Movement was that even when the movement had spread from cities to the villages and countryside it did not assume the character of anti-landlordism. Professor Gyanendra Pandey pointed out that this was in marked contrast to the pattern of earlier events.
• The point may be explained by an example. For instance, unlike the mass agitation launched by the Congress in 1920 and 1930 the peasantry were in no mood to undertake no-rent or no-revenue movement.

Question 8.
Write in short how the Left organized the peasant movement during the Quit India Movement.
Answer:
Immediately before the Quit India call by Gandhiji the Communists used the organizational strength of the Kisan Sabhas of the Congress and the Congress Socialists to augment their influence among the peasantry. This was how the communist workers laid the foundation of their own organization, namely, the All India Kisan Sabha.

• The All India Kisan Sabha (AIKS) set up in 1936 was the first peasant organization of the Commmunists on an all-India basis.
• With the model of the Russian Revolution before them the Indian Communists showed greater interest in trade unions rather than the peasant movement.
• Indeed, a few Congress leaders were associated with the AIKS. Yet the Congress leadership refused to give its blessings to the Sabha, and it declared at the Haripura session of 1938 that the “Congress itself is in the main a kisan organization.”
• Organizationally, the AIKS was based on provincial Kisan Sabhas, and in some provinces, notably in Bihar, Bengal, UP and Madras the Communists were successful in organizing peasant unrest.
• The Communists had always wanted to work in active co-operation with the local Congress Committee. In an article published in the National Front P.C. Joshi defended a united front with the Congress so that every kisan struggle could be transformed into a people’s struggle.

Question 9.
How did the Congress help the working class movement during the Swadeshi upsurge ?
Answer:
Compared to the European countries the working class emerged rather late in India. Again, it was not before the World War I that the working class in India was organized on modern lines.

a. Swadeshi and Boycott, the two weapons of the anti-partition movement were together a landmark in the history of labour movement. Contemporary official survey has described the ‘industrial unrest’ during the period as a marked feature.

b. As regards the relations between the Congress and the labour it may be said that it was by and large indifferent to the question of labour during the early twentieth century when the anti-Partition agitation was going on in fulll swing. Although the Benaras Session of the Congress (1905) made an emphatic protest against the Partition of Bengal.

c. Though Congress as an organization did not come out in open to support the labour movement, many of the Congress leaders enthusiastically supported labour strikes and formation of trade unions.

It has been pointed out by Professor Sunil Kumar Sen that suddenly there was a slump in the nationalist interest in the labour movements after 1908. In some sporadic strikes that occurred in 1908-09 not many nationalist leaders were involved. Moreover, when the nationalist leaders were in jail the workers could not be mobilized in protest strikes.

Question 10.
What was the attitude of the Leftists towards the labour movement ?
Answer:
The anti-partition movement saw the faint beginnings of a socialist leaning among some of the nationalist leaders.

• In fact, they were imbued with the Marxist ideas that had been developing in Europe.
• Some extremist leaders openly urged for following the ‘Russian method’ of political general strike in India.
• The 14 September 1907 edition of Nabasakti openly advocated following the example of the working class movement in Russia when it said : The workers of Russia today are teaching the world the methods of effective protest in times of repression ______ will not Indian workers learn
  from them ?
• But all this remained a mere lip service as there was no real political strike in the labour intensive establishments (plantations, mines, etc), and it remained limited only to clerks and some Bengali jute mill workers.

Question 11.
What was the role of the Congress in organizing the working class during the Non Co-operation Movement ?
Answer:
The nationalist interest in organizing the labourers remained lukewarm till the inauguration of the Non Co-operation Movement, 1919¬1920. There was a resurgence of working class activities between 1919 and 1922.

• Formation of the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC), in 1920, was welcomed by the Congress. Not only that, to assist the AITUC the Congress formed a committee consisting of some prominent Congress leaders at the Gaya session of the Indian National Congress held in 1922.
• C .R. Das, the President of the Gaya Congress, in his Presidential
  address said that the Congress must ‘take labour and the peasantry in hand and organize them both ’
• Towards the closing days of Non Co-operation the two Congress leaders led a powerful strike in the East Indian Railway. The strike lasted for a few months (February to April).
• The Congress leaders, Darsanananda and Viswananda, thought of pressurizing the British through the powerful strike.
• After 1922 there was again a slump in the working class movement under the leadership of the nationalist leaders and the Congress. The next wave of working class movement was spurred by the Leftists.

Question 12.
How did the Leftists strengthen the working class movement during the Non Co-operation days ?
Answer:
Socialist influence in Indian politics between 1921 and 1924 definitely strengthened the working class movement.

• Various socialist and communist groups that had emerged in different places were also engaged in organizing labour movements.
• Despite British Government’s action restraining the activities of the communists the Workers’ and Peasants’ Party (WPP) was formed in 1927. The initiative was taken by the communist leaders like S.A. Dange, Muzaffar Ahmed, P.C. Joshi and Sohan Singh Josh.
• Though short-lived the WPP rapidly spread its organisation in the provincial and national levels.
• Another aspect of the WPP was that it functioned as a left-wing within the Congress. The WPP devoted itself, among other things, to the growth of class consciousness amongst the working class.
• The objective of the WPP was to strive for a broad anti-imperialist front for the achievement of complete independence with the ultimate aim of establishment of socialism in the independent country.
• Though the WPP was short-lived, its units in some of the provinces emerged as the political party of the working class.

Question 13.
How did Congress advance the cause of the working class during the Civil Disobedience Movement ?
Answer:
During the Civil Disobedience Movement the labour movement gained a foot-hold in the political thinking of the country. This is evident from the fact that the workers all over the country participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement.

• During the Civil Disobedience under the leadership of Gandhiji a Communist Party document (1930) admitted that virtually Congress was the only organization which was carrying on the fight against the British imperialism and therefore the workers began to follow the lead of the Congress.
• Indeed, during the Civil Disobedience the Congress (in Bombay) raised the slogan that “workers and peasants are the hands and feet of the Congress”.
• The GIP Railwaymen’s Union undertook Satyagraha in support of Gandhiji’s breach of the salt law.
• Gandhiji’s arrest on 4 May (1930) intensified the labour unrest. The news of his arrest led to a textile strike at Sholapur in Maharashtra.
• Congress volunteers practically set up something like a parallel government at Sholapur. In some other centres working class movements took various forms during the Civil Disobedience.
• After the arrests of national leaders the dock-labourers in Karachi, Choolai Mill workers in Madras, Budge Budge mill workers of West Bengal, etc. were very much active and even clashed with police.

Question 14.
How did the Leftists participate in the Civil Disobedience Movement ?
Answer:
Communist influence in the trade union movement became strong in 1928, after a period of slump.

• In Bombay, the communist-led Gimi Kamgar Union (GKU) organized a massive six-month long strike of the textile workers.
• Communist influence spread rapidly in Bombay and Bengal to the workers in the railways, paper mills, jute mills, etc.
• In Madras, the communist influence was strong in the Burma Oil Company.
• The British Government in India became alarmed at the growing unrest among the workers. It also became thoroughly convinced that the intensive labour movement was all due to the infiltration of socialist and communist ideas propagated to the workers by the Communist Party of India (CPI).
• In their efforts to hold back the growth of communist influence, the British Government put under arrests all the leading communist and trade union leaders.
• Subsequently, the labour movement in India weakened due to the split in the AITUC as also due to other factors. Nevertheless, workers participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement all over the country.
• The textile workers in Sholapur in Maharashtra went on rampage after the British police resorted to firing in order to stop an anti-British procession.
• During the movement the mill workers of Calcutta, dock labours of Karachi and the mill workers of Madras heroically clashed with the police. The British Government ruthlessly suppressed the insurgents. Many of the workers were sentenced to long-term imprisonment and several others were sentenced to death.

Question 15.
How did the Congress help the working class movement during the Quit India Movement ?
Answer:
The formation of Congress ministries in different provinces following election in 1937 gave a boost to the working class movement.

• During the tenure of the Congress ministries between 1937 and 1939 there was a phenomenal rise in the trade union movement. The number of trade unions increased from 271 to 562.
• It must be pointed out here that the pro-labour attitude of the Congress governments in the provincial level also served as an encouragement to the trade union activities.
• Even the Congress Working Committee in a resolution adopted expressed solidarity with the Bengal jute workers (1937). The resolution denounced the repressive measures taken on the workers by the non¬Congress provincial ministries of Bengal and Punjab.
• Another significant feature was that during the period under reference strikes organized by the trade unions mostly ended successfully, with victory of the struggling workers.
• With the opening of the Quit India Movement most of the prominent national leaders including Gandhiji were arrested. As the news of the arrests spread workers of various places of the country went on strikes and hartals that lasted for a week.
• Delhi, Lucknow, Jamshedpur, Madras, Bangalore, etc. were some of the main centres of the strikes. The Tata Steel Plant was shut down for thirteen days. In Ahmedabad the textile workers continued the strike for three and half months.

Question 16.
What was the impact of the Leftist ideal on the Congress movement ?
Answer:
During the 20s of the twentieth century the central figures in the resurgent national movement of the time were Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose. Both of them were deeply influenced by the Socialist ideas.

a. Apart from the Congressite leftists’ like Nehru and Bose there were many other Congress workers who were wedded to the leftist ideal. For example, Jayprakash Narayan, Achhut Patwabardhan, Minoo Masani, Narendra Deb and others had faith in socialism, yet not all of them were communists or Marxists.

b. However, in 1932, as detainees at the Nasik Central Jail, they all decided to draw up a socialist programme remaining within the Congress fold.

c. After their release this socialist group met at a meeting in Patna under the chairmanship of Acharya Narendra Dev.

d. In October 1934 a larger conference was organized from which was born the All India Congress Socialist Party.

e. The objectives as adopted in the meeting were :

• All powers to the people who are associated with production,
• Socialization of industries and all other productive organizations,
• State control over foreign trade.
• Abrogation of the zamindary and the raja-maharaja system.
• Distribution of land to the peasants,
• State to recognize the right to work
• Wage to be paid according to one’s need.

Question 17.
How was the Communist Party of India founded ?
Answer:
It may certainly be taken for granted that the Communist Party of India was first set up at Tashkent (in erstwhile Soviet Union) in October (or November) 1920.

a. Meanwhile various communist groups emerged in different parts of the country such as : in Bengal under the leadership of Muzaffar Ahmed; in Bombay under S.A. Dange and others. Similar groups also came into existence in Lahore (Punjab), Madras and many other places.

b. Attempts to coordinate the activities of the different groups under a central organization, however, did not succeed before 1925.

c. In 1924 efforts to organize a Communist Party received a setback when all the leading communist leaders were apprehended by the British police and brought them to trial under the ‘Kanpur Conspiracy Case’.

d. However, the very next year (1925) a conference was held at Kanpur in which different communist groups participated. It was from this conference that the Communist Party of India (CPI) was born. M.G. Ghate was later appointed its General Secretary.

Question 18.
What was the nature of participation of the Communist Party in the Indian national movement ?
Answer:
From the very beginning the Communist Party’s main form of political work was to organize peasants and workers and to work through them.

a. During the 20s of the twentieth century the communist organizers set up unions and organized strikes in India’s textile, jute and cotton mills, and in the railway workshops. But the greatest success was the strike for over six months by the Communist-led Gimi Kamgar Union in 1928. Such successes, however, were short-lived.

b. The Meerut Conspiracy Case (1929) gave a severe blow to the activities of the communists. But the communists inflicted a deadly blow on themselves by breaking their connection with the Congress.

c. The communist movement, however, was saved as many of the communists refused to stand apart from the Civil Disobedience Movement and actively participated in it.

d. There was a radical change in the situation in 1935 when the communists once again participated in the activities of the Congress.

e. The communists did not participate in the Quit India Movement. It has been pointed out by Professor Satyabrata Rai Chowdhuri that the Indian communists made mistake as regards national policy of the country. In reconciling the events at home with the international communist movement they were accustomed to look to the (erstwhile) Soviet Union rather than the potentialities of the Indian national movement.

Question 19.
What was the contributions of M.N. Roy in the Left Movement ?
Answer:
Narendranath Bhattachaiya is better known in history as M.N. Roy, being the short name for Manabendranath Roy.

• He was the founder of the Mexican Communist Party as also the Communist Party of India at Tashkent.
• After travelling widely M.N. Roy arrived in San Francisco in 1916. In America an emissary of Lenin contacted Roy. Lenin invited Roy to participate in the Second World Congress of the Communist International.
• Sometime later Roy was put in charge of Asian Bureau of Communist International with its headquarters at Tashkent. It was here in Tashkent that the Communist Party of India was formed on 17 October 1920 under Roy’s initiative.
• Roy came back to India in 1930 under the pseudonym “Dr. Mahmud’. But in 1931 he was apprehended and tried in Kanpur jail on the charge of sedition.
• After his release in November 1936 M.N. Roy joined the Indian National Congress and simultaneously he organized the League of Radical Congressman. But within a short time he resigned from the Congress due to difference of opinion with the Congress High Command.
• Later he set up a new party named Radical Democratic Party. Unlike the Communist Party of India Roy and his followers supported the war efforts because they considered declining imperialism as a lesser evil to Fascism, and to Roy Fascism was a menace to mankind.

Class 10 History Chapter 6 Questions and Answers West Bengal Board – Explanatory Answer Questions (8 Marks)

Question 1.
How did the Congress motivate the peasants and workers to participate In the anti-Partition Movement?
Answer:
The anti-partition movement assumed an all-India character in which different classes of people participated. The peasants and workers participated in the movement though in a limited scale.

1. Peasants:

• Despite the popular character of the anti-partition movement it must be admitted that it was largely confined to the urban middle class.
• The peasants’ participation was very much limited. Indeed, the Congress leadership did call upon the peasants to start a no-rent campaign.
• The participation of peasants during the anti-Partition movement was no less significant. The indigo peasants of Champaran in Bihar rose in rebellion.
• Peasants’ disturbances took place in Assam and Mymensingh (in present Bangladesh). The Muslim peasants of Barisal (in present Bangladesh) were led by Aswini Kumar Datta.

2. Working Class:

Compared to the European countries the working class emerged rather late in India. Again, it was not before the World War I that the working class in India was organized on modern lines.

a. Swadeshi and Boycott, the two weapons of the anti-partition movement were together a landmark in the history of labour movement. Contemporary official survey has described the ‘industrial unrest’ during the period as a marked feature.

b. As regards the relations between the Congress and the labour it may be said that it was by and large indifferent to the question of labour during the early twentieth century when the anti-Partition agitation was going on in fuill swing. Although the Benaras Session of the (1905) made an emphatic protest against the Partition of Bengal.

c. Though Congress as an organization did not come out in open to support the labour movement, many of the Congress leaders enthusiastically supported labour strikes and formation of trade unions.

d. It has been pointed out by Professor Sunil Kumar Sen that suddenly there was a slump in the nationalist interest in the labour movements after 1908. In some sporadic strikes that occurred in 1908-09 not many nationalist leaders were involved. Moreover, when the nationalist leaders were in jail the workers could not be mobilized in protest strikes the Eka movement was led by Passi Madari and Sahreb and other leaders who belonged to the lower caste.

e. The Eka rebels accepted the discipline of non-violence as urged upon by the Congress and Khilafat leaders.

2. Bardoli Satyagraha : Bardoli Satyagraha was a ‘no-tax’ movement of the peasants of Bardoli in Surat district of Gujarat.

• Bardoli fell under the Ryotwari land tenure in which the rate of tax used to be revised in every 30 years. 1926 was the year for the revision of tax. It was found that the hike in tax was unprecedented.
• The peasants of Bardoli under the leadership of Vallabhbhai Patel formally launched the Bardoli Satyagraha on 12 February 1928.
• The peasants of Bardoli during the Satyagraha in a non-violent and disciplined manner intensified the movement.
• Alarmed at the attitude of the peasants the British Government as a face-saving device reduced the rate of tax. Thus the movement was a successful one and came to an end in August 1928.
• Bardoli Satyagraha united a variety of Indian people irrespective of their class, creed and religion. The movement also had the support of all shades of political opinion. It became, indeed, a symbol of peasants’ protest in India.

Question 2.
What was the relations between the Congress and the peasantry during the Non Co-operation and the Civil Disobedience Movements
Answer:
During the periods of Non Co-operation and the Civil Disobedience the discontent of the Indian peasantry was marked by a new feature. The peasants were deeply influenced by the ongoing struggle for national freedom.

1. Non Co-operation Movement : At the call of Gandhiji lakhs of people all over the country joined the movement. During the movement the Indian peasantry also started voicing their protests against various acts of injustice done to them.

a. Meanwhile the Non Co-operation Movement encouraged the peasantry to align them with it. With the support of the Congress leaders like Madan Mohan Malviya, Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabhbhai Patel and others the movement of the peasantry became a part of the national struggle for independence.

b. The members of the Home Rule League, who were really the supporters of the Indian National Congress, initiated the process of organizing the peasants on modem lines.

c. U.P. (United Province) was the province where Kisan Sabha was formed first. In fact, with the support of Madan Mohan Malviya Kisan Sabha came into existence in 1918 by the initiative of Gaurisankar Misra and Indra Narayan Dwivedi. Formed in 1918 the Kisan Sabha moved from strength to strength as years rolled on.

d. During the Non Co-operation Movement it became difficult to distinguish between a Non Co-operation meeting and a Kisan Sabha gathering.

2. Civil Disobedience Movement: Though Gandhiji was unhappy over the peasants’ plight and protested against the zamindars’ oppressions on them, the Congress as an organization, till 1929 at least, was not tactically prepared to take the side of the peasants and thereby come into open conflict with the zamindars. However, the Indian peasantry during the 1930s really built up organization relying upon own strength.

a. The Great Depression of 1929 adversely affected the Indian peasantry. Increase in the revenue demand also pressed them very hard. Bardoli Satyagraha created a new enthusiasm amongst the peasantry. All this gave a new impetus to the Indian peasants.

b. Economically ruined peasants of Bihar were organized into Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (BPKS) under the initiative of Sahajanand Saraswati in 1929. In course of time Kisan Sabhas were established in other parts of the country as well.

c. The Civil Disobedience Movement by Congress, under the leadership of Gandhiji, served as an encouragement to peasants’ movement. During the Civil Disobedience years the peasants of U.P. (United Province at that time, later on Uttar Pradesh) began a new type of movement. It was a ‘no-revenue and no-rent’ campaign. It was a double edged weapon against the British.

d. The U.P. Congress passed a resolution to the effect that the national programme should include reduction of land tax. In fact, the peasants were experiencing a financial crisis as the international price of agricultural commodities had fallen. Moreover, with the decline in sale the profit was also reduced. In such a situation the All India Congress Working Committee accepted most of the resolutions passed by the U.P. Congress Committee, which satisfied both the peasants and the zamindars.

e. The second phase of the Civil Disobedience Movement lasted in U.P. until mid-1932. This time the people of the countryside were drawn into the Congress agitation. According to one estimate more than 10,000 Congress volunteers and agitators were convicted in U.P. alone.

f. Above was how the Congress advanced the cause of the Indian peasantry during the course of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Question 3.
What was the impact of the Great Depression of 1929 on Indian peasantry ? How did Congress support the peasantry during the Civil Disobedience Movement ?
Answer:
1. Impact of the Great Depression : The Great Depression of 1929 that occurred in the USA impacted the peasants and workers of India. The Great Depresion dealt a severe blow to the impoverished peasantry of India. The British Government instead of scaling down the burden of revenue increased it further causing distress to the peasants. The peasants were further burdened as there was a hike in the prices of manufactured goods. In such a situation while the peasants were forced to pay higher revenue their income fell considerably as an impact of the Great Depression.

2. Civil Disobedience Movement : Though Gandhiji was unhappy over the peasants’ plight and protested against the zamindars’ oppressions on them, the Congress as an organization, till 1929 at least, was not tactically prepared to take the side of the peasants and thereby come into open conflict with the zamindars. However, the Indian peasantry during the 1930s really built up organization relying upon own strength.

a. The Great Depression of 1929 adversely affected the Indian peasantry. Increase in the revenue demand also pressed them very hard. Bardoli Satyagraha created a new enthusiasm amongst the peasantry. All this gave a new impetus to the Indian peasants.

b. Economically ruined peasants of Bihar were organized into Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (BPKS) under the initiative of Sahajanand Saraswati in 1929. In course of time Kisan Sabhas were established in other parts of the country as well.

c. The Civil Disobedience Movement by Congress, under the leadership of Gandhiji, served as an encouragement to peasants’ movement. During the Civil Disobedience years the peasants of U.P. (United Province at that time, later on Uttar Pradesh) began a new type of movement. It was a ‘no revenue and no-rent’ campaign. It was a double edged weapon against the British.

d. The U.P. Congress passed a resolution to the effect that the national programme should include reduction of land tax. In fact, the peasants were experiencing a financial crisis as the international price of agricultural commodities had fallen. Moreover, with the decline in sale the profit was also reduced. In such a situation the All India Congress Working Committee accepted most of the resolutions passed by the U.P. Congress Committee, which satisfied both the peasants and the zamindars.

e. The second phase of the Civil Disobedience Movement lasted in U.P. until mid-1932. This time the people of the countryside were drawn into the Congress agitation. According to one estimate more than 10,000 Congress volunteers and agitators were convicted in U.P. alone. Above was how the Congress advanced the cause of the Indian peasantry during the course of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Question 4.
What was the relation between the Congress and the peasants as also the working class during the Quit India Movement ?
Answer:
1. The Peasants : Immediately before the Quit India Movement began the different provincial Congress ministries had introduced legislations which aimed at giving some relief to the peasantry. This was an opportunity for the mobilization of the peasantry. The peasants either came out in open support for the legislation or demanded changes in it.

An important aspect of the Quit India Movement was that even when the movement had spread from cities to the villages and countryside it did not assume the character of anti-landlordism. Professor Gyanendra Pandey pointed out that this was in marked contrast to the pattern of earlier events. For instance, unlike the mass agitation launched by the Congress in 1920 and 1930 the peasantry were in no mood to undertake no-rent or no-revenue movement (The Indian Nation in 1942 : p4).

2. The Working Class : The formation of Congress ministries in different provinces following election in 1937 gave a boost to the working class movement.

a. In fact, during the tenure of the Congress ministries between 1937 and 1939 there was a phenomenal rise in the trade union movement.

b. During this period the number of trade unions increased from 271 to 562.

c. It must be pointed out here that the pro-labour attitude of the Congress governments in the provincial level also served as an encouragement to the trade union activities. For instance, the Congress governments ensured civil liberties. That is to say, the people, under such governments, had the right to say, think and do what they wanted (as long as they respected other people’s rights).

d. Even the Congress Working Committee in a resolution adopted expressed solidarity with the Bengal jute workers (1937). The resolution denounced the repressive measures taken on the workers by the non Congress provincial ministries of Bengal and Punjab.

e. Another significant feature was that during the period under reference strikes organized by the trade unions mostly ended successfully, with victory of the struggling workers.

f. The Quit India Movement formally began on 9 August with arrests of most of the prominent national leaders including Gandhiji. As the news of the arrests spread workers of various places of the country went on strikes and hartals that lasted for a week. Delhi, Lucknow, Jamshedpur, Madras, Bangalore, etc. were some of the main centres of the strikes. In some places the strikes continued for longer periods. The Tata Steel Plant was shut down for thirteen days. In Ahmedabad the textile workers continued the strike for three and half months.

Question 5.
What was the nature of participation of the Communist Party in the National Movement ? What was the contributions of M.N.Roy ?
Answer:
1. Nature of Participation of the Communist Party : From the very beginning the Communist Party’s main form of political work was to organize peasants and workers and to work through them.

a. During the 20s of the twentieth century the communist organizers set up unions and organized strikes in India’s textile, jute and cotton mills, and in the railway workshops. But the greatest success was the strike for over six months by the Communist-led Girni Kamgar Union in 1928. Such successes, however, were short-lived.

b. The Meerut Conspiracy Case (1929) gave a severe blow to the activities of the communists. But the communists inflicted a deadly blow on themselves by breaking their connection with the Congress. The communist movement, however, was saved as many of the communists refused to stand apart from the Civil Disobedience Movement and actively participated in it.

c. There was a radical change in the situation in 1935 when the communists once again participated in the activities of the Congress.

d. The communists did not participate in the Quit India Movement. It has been pointed out by Professor Satyabrata Rai Chowdhuri that the Indian communists made mistake as regards national policy of the country. In reconciling the events at home with the international communist movement they were accustomed to look to the (erstwhile) Soviet Union rather than the potentialities of the Indian national movement.

e. However, after Hitler had invaded the Soviet Union in 1941 the Indian communists following the Peoples’ War line suspended all sorts of anti-imperialist activities lest that would weaken the anti-Fascist war efforts. In the thesis the question of India’s independence was subordinated to the victory of the Soviet Union in the World War II.

f. But this was an unreal expectation because the people of India wanted first to become independent with or without the victory of the Soviet Union. This line certainly isolated and discredited the Communist Party of India and the communists were isolated from the peasants and workers.

2. M.N. Roy’s Contributions : Narendranath Bhattacharya is better known in history as M.N. Roy, being the short name for Manabendranath Roy.

a. He was the founder of the Mexican Communist Party as also the Communist Party of India at Tashkent.

b. After travelling widely M.N. Roy arrived in San Francisco in 1916. In America an emissary of Lenin contacted Roy. Lenin invited Roy to participate in the Second World Congress of the Communist International.

c. Sometime later Roy was put in charge of Asian Bureau of Communist International with its headquarters at Tashkent. It was here in Tashkent that the Communist Party of India was formed on 17 October 1920 under Roy’s initiative.

d. Roy came back to India in 1930 under the pseudonym ‘Dr. Mahmud’. But in 1931 he was apprehended and tried in Kanpur jail on the charge of sedition.

e. After his release in November 1936 M.N. Roy joined the Indian National Congress and simultaneously he organized the League of Radical Congressman. But within a short time he resigned from the Congress due to difference of opinion with the Congress High Command.

d. Later he set up a new party named Radical Democratic Party. Unlike the Communist Party of India, Roy and his followers supported the war efforts because they considered declining imperialism as a lesser evil to Fascism, and to Roy Fascism was a menace to mankind.

 

Well structured WBBSE Class 10 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Resistance and Rebellion can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Resistance and Rebellion Class 10 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions (Tick off the correct ones)

Question 1.
The first attempt of the British colonists to establish control over forests was made by :
a. Forest Act of 1864
b. First Charter Act of 1855
c. Forest Act of 1865
d. Forest Act of 1878
Answer:
b First Charter Act of 1855

Question 2.
The Forest Act of 1878 divided Indian forests into which of the following categories?
a. Two categories
b. Three categories
c. Four categories
d Five categories
Answer:
b. Three categories

Question 3.
Which of the following suffered most as a consequence of the Forest Act?
a. Villagers
b. Agriculturists
c. Jhum cultivators
d. Wood-cutters
Answer:
c. Jhum cultivators

Question 4.
Which of the following is not applicable to the protests of the tribals against the forest laws?
a. Uprising
b. Insurgence
c. Mutiny
d. Rebellion
Answer:
d. Rebellion

Question 5.
Of the following which paved the way for settlement of land revenue on a permanent basis?
a. Gudem revolt
b. Chuar rebellion
C. Rangpur rebellion
d. Santhal rebellion
Answer:
c. Rangpur rebellion

Question 6.
Which of the following ultimately led the Chuars to burst out in rebellion?
a. Oppressions of the British rulers
b. Provision of the sun-set laws
c. Conversion of paikan into rent paying land
d. Levy of high land-revenue
Answer:
c. Conversion of paikan into rent paying land

Question 7.
Bheels of which of the following areas burst out in rebellion ?
a. Maharashtra
b. State of Dhar
c. Khandesh
d. Gujarat
Answer:
b State of Dhar

Question 8.
Under which of the following leader did the Santhals raise the banner of rebellion?
a. Dursut
b. Chil Naik
c. Hiria
d. Kanu
Answer:
d. Kanu

Question 9.
Of the following those who lent support to the rebel Santhals were :
a. Adivasis
b Local people
C. Chamars
d Carpenters
Answer:
c. Chamars

Question 10.
Of the following who was the leader of the rebel ryots of Rangpur?
a. Debi Singh
b. Dirjinarain
c Kanu
d. Sidhu
Answer:
b Dirjinarain

Question 11.
Of the following who was the Ijaradar against whom the ryots of Rangpur had a number of grievances?
a. Debi Singh
b. Durjan Singh
c. Dirjinarain
d. Madara Mahato
Answer:
a. Debi Singh

Question 12.
Of the following which section of people burst out in rebellion after the British occupied Khandesh ?
a. Chuar
b. Santhal
c. Kol
d. Bheel
Answer:
d Bheel

Question 13.
Of the following which was the area where the Kol tribals settled?
a. Khandesh
b. Chotonagpur
c. Santhal Parganas
d. Bankura
Answer:
b. Chotonagpur

Question 14.
The Bheel leader who was apprehended by the British was :
a. Durjan Singh
b. Bhalla Singh
c. Nadir Singh
d None of the above
Answer:
c. Nadir Singh

Question 15.
The Kol rebellion was occasioned by which of the following ?
a. Oppression of the British
b. Oppression of the local zamindars
c. Oppression of the money-lenders
d. Agrarian discontent
Answer:
d. Agrarian discontent

Question 16.
One of the leaders of the Kol rebels was :
a. Kanu
b. Bhundu Bhakat
c. Majnu Shah
d. Birsa Munda
Answer:
b. Bhundu Bhakat

Question 17.
The ultimate goal or objective of the rebel Santhals was :
a. To get rid of the moneylenders
b. To take possession of their habitat
c. To drive out the British officials
d. To bring an end to the British rule
Answer:
d. To bring an end to the British rule

Question 18.
In his youth Birsa Munda earned reputation first as a :
a. Preacher
b. Prophet
c. ‘Healer’
d. Leader
Answer:
c. ‘Healer’

Question 19.
Of the following what was stated to be the goal of the Mundari movement?
a. Uprooting of the Police stations
b. Independent mundaraj
c. To drive out the British from the area
d. To bring back golden age
Answer:
b. Independent mundaraj

Question 20.
The leader of the Sannyasi rebel was :
a. Bhawani Pathak
b. Majnu Shah
c. Dirjinarain
d. Debi Singh
Answer:
a. Bhawani Pathak

Question 21.
Of the following the rebellion that broke out prior to the Revolt of 1857 was :
a. Kol Rebellion
b. Santhal Rebellion
c. Munda Rebellion
d. Pabna Revolt
Answer:
b. Santhal Rebellion

Question 22.
Of the following rebels who made an attack upon the English officers?
a. The Fakirs of Barisal
b. The Garos of Pagal-Panthi sect
c. The Sannyasis of Burdwan
d. The Santals of Chotonagpur
Answer:
c. The Sannyasis of Burdwan

Question 23.
Of the following who founded the Pagal-Panthi sect ?
a. Majnu Shah
b. Karam Shah
C. Dirjinarain
d. Debi Singh
Answer:
b. Karam Shah

Question 24.
After the death of Karam Shah the leadership of the Garos of the Pagal-Panthi sect was taken over by :
a. Tipu
b. Majnu Shah
c. Dirjinarain
d. Debi Singh
Answer:
a. Tipu

Question 25.
The real cause of discontent of the Garos of the Pagal-Panthi sect was :
a. Oppressions of the British soldiers
b. Oppressions of the local zamindar
c. Oppressions of the thikadars
d. Tax levied became unbearable
Answer:
d. Tax levied became unbearable

Question 26.
Of the following who was the founder of the Wahabi Movement?
a. Haji Shariatullah
b. Syed Ahmed Barelvi
c. Abdul Wahab of Najd
d. Mir Nisar Ali
Answer:
c. Abdul Wahab of Najd

Question 27.
Of the following who carried the Wahabi Movement to Bengal ?
a. Haji Shariatullah
b. Syed Ahmed Barelvi
c. Abdul Wahab of Najd
d. Mir Nisar Ali
Answer:
d. Mir Nisar Ali

Question 28.
Of the following who built the fortress with bamboo and mud?
a. Haji Shariatullah
b. Syed Ahmed Barelvi
c. Abdul Wahab of Najd
d. Titumir
Answer:
d. Titumir

Question 29.
The real founder the the Wahabi Movement in India was :
a. Haji Shariatullah
b. Syed Ahmed Barelvi
c. Abdul Wahab of Najd
d. Mir Nisar Ali
Answer:
b. Syed Ahmed Barelvi

Question 30.
In which of the following years did the Barasat Rebellion break out ?
a. 1827
b. 1830
c. 1831
d. 1835
Answer:
c. 1831

Question 31.
In which of the following places did the Indigo Rebellion break out first?
a. Pura
b. Nadia
c. Barasat
d. Chaugacha
Answer:
d. Chaugacha

Question 32.
The foremost of the leaders of the Indigo Rebellion of Bengal was :
a. Ramratan Mallick
b. Mahesh Chandra Chattopadhyay
c. Digambar Biswas
d. Harish Chandra Mukhopadhyay
Answer:
c. Digambar Biswas

Question 33.
Outside Bengal the centre of the Indigo Rebellion was :
a. Rajgir
b. Champaran
c. Nadia
d. Darbhanga
Answer:
b. Champaran

Question 34.
Of the following peasants’ revolt the one that broke out due to enhancement of rent by the zamindars was :
a. Santhal Rebellion
b. Indigo Rebellion
c. Wahabi Movement
d. Pabna Revolt
Answer:
d. Pabna Revolt

Tick off True or False

1. The Forest Charter of 1855 made the teak wood government property.
Answer: True

2. The Forest Acts meant immense hardship to the urban people.
Answer: False

3. The Forest laws adversely affected the jhum cultivators.
Answer: True

4. The tribals protested against the Forest Acts by taking by illegally violating the provisions of the law.
Answer: True

5. An ‘uprising’ may be described as a protest against authority in a non-violent manner.
Answer: False

6. Revolution brings about fundamental changes.
Answer: True

7. Rangpur Revolt was basically a protest of the zamindars against the imposition of high rate of revenue by the colonial government.
Answer: False

8. Debi Singh, the revenue-collector of Rangpur, forced the ryots to pay land-revenue at an increased rate.
Answer: True

9. The protest of the tribals against the Forest Acts may be termed as ‘revolution’.
Answer: False

10. Rangpur Revolt basically was a protest of the peasants of Rangpur against the oppressions of the zamindar.
Answer: False

11. The ryots of Rangpur were forced to raise the banner of rebellion as the petitions sent to the district authorities for redressal of their grievances received no attention.
Answer: True

12. The tribal community of India as distinguished from the peasantry were not really peasants.
Answer: False

13. The Chuars were the tribals living in the territorial limits of south-west Bankura, north-west Medinipur.
Answer: True

14. As the Chuars were basically peasants they did not align themselves with Durjan Singh who was a zamindar.
Answer: False

15. The Chuars acted as the private army or paik of the zamindars and as such enjoyed rent-free land, i.e. paikan.
Answer: True

16. The Bheels of Khandesh resorted to plunder and loot of rich landholders in their vicinity.
Answer: True

17. Of the insurgent Bheel leaders mention may be made of Durjan Singh.
Answer: False

18. The Kol tribesmen grew restive over the increasing encroachment on tribal territories by the non-tribals like Jats and moneylenders.
Answer: False

19. In 1832 there were clashes between the British armed forces and the Kol rebels.
Answer: True

20. In their fight against the British soldiers the Kol tribesmen were joined by other tribesmen like Oraon, Ho and others.
Answer: True

21. Being unable to get justice through the law courts the Santhals took up arms against the British and their agents.
Answer: True

22. In Santali language the term hool means rebellion as such the Santhal rebellion is also known as Santhal Hool.
Answer: True

23. The Santhal Hool spread like wildfire before the British surrendered to the Santhals after a month-long battle.
Answer: False

24. The Santhal rebellion was the first organized resistance of the kind against the feudal oppressors.
Answer: True

25. Birsa the ‘healer’, the miracle-worker and preacher grew into a prophet.
Answer: True

26. The ancient system of forced labour was known as beth-begari among the tribals.
Answer: False

27. In the first stage of his career Birsa, as a preacher, predicted the coming of a golden age.
Answer: True

28. The Ulghulan or great revolt of the Mundas began when Birsa called upon his fellowmen to ‘rise, drive out or slay all the foreignets’.
Answer: True

29. The main centres of the Santhal Hool were Tamar, Tepa gand Khuti of the Ranchi district (in present Jharkhand)
Answer: True

30. Legal rights on land that the Mundas derived through the fool was an important outcome.
Answer: True

31. The characterisíic feature of the Mundari movement lies in the fact that the ideal of an independent Mundaraj set forth by Birsa was basically anti-British.
Answer: True

32. As a consequence of the Mundari movement the colonial British government in India was compelled to intratyce certain economic reforms.
Answer: False

33. The rebel sannyasis were led by Bhawani Pathak.
Answer: True

34. The leader of The rebellious fakirs was Dirji Shah
Answer: False

35. The Sannyasi and Fakir rebellions proceeded along two phases, namely, before and after the Bengal Famine
Answer: True

36. The British rulers imposed ban on the movement of the Sannyasis and Fakirs.
Answer: True

37. Breakdown of the economy of Bengal that led to the economic distress provoked the Sannyasis and Fakirs to burst out in rebellion.
Answer: True

38. The Pagal-Panthi religious sect was founded by a mendicant named Majnu Shah.
Answer: False

39. The Garos of the Pagal-Panthi sect burst out in rebellion against the oppressions of the zamindar of Sherpur.
Answer: True

40. The founder of the Ferazi community in Bengal was Haji Shariatullah.
Answer: True

41. The founder of the Wahabi Movement zas Muhammad Abdul Wahab of Najd (of Arabia).
Answer:
True

42. A believer in the Wahabi ideal Titumir directed his energies in organizing the peasants of Bengal against the oppressions of the zamindars, moneylenders and other agents of the British.
Answer: True

43. The Ferazi movement was unsuccessful 2.5 they had no political training.
Answer: True

44. The real name of the Wahabi Movement was Tariqah-iMuhammad.
Answer: False

45. The Wahabi Movement initiated by Syed Ahmed Barelvi was designed to revive the ways of the Prophet.
Answer: True

46. Syed Ahmed Barelvi, through the Wahabi Movement, wanted to convert the country to an ‘unholy land’
Answer: False

47. The Battle of Balakot was fought between the Wahabis and the Sikhs of Punjab.
Answer: True

48. The Indigo Revolt of Bengal broke out at a time prior to the Revolt of 1857
Answer: False

49. Peasants were evicted from villages with a view to augmenting the indigo plantation area.
Answer: True

50. Foremost among the leaders of the Indigo Revolt were Digambar Biswas and Bishnu Charan Biswas.
Answer: True

51. The Bengali middle class intelligentsia did not support the rebellious Santhals, but lend support to the indigo rebels.
Answer: True

52. Harish Chandra Mukhopadhyay as an editor of the Hindu Patriot had no hesitation in making public the grievances of the indigo cultivators.
Answer: True

53. The Tenancy Act of 1859 did not allow occupancy right to the peasants but allowed zamindars the right to increase rent at their sweet-will.
Answer: True

54. In the Pabna Revolt leadership came from the rich peasants, jotedars, village headmen and others.
Answer: True

Fill in the gaps by choosing the correct words

1. The most concrete outcome of colonialism related to global control of _____
Answer: Resources

2. The Forest Acts meant hardship to the _____
Answer: Villagers

3. A rebellion may be defined as a violent uprising of the _____ for a change even to a system of government.
Answer: Masses

4. The Rangpur Revolt was basically a protest of the peasants of Rangpur against the oppressions of the _____
Answer: Ijaradar

5. The rebel Chuars threw their lot with Durjan Singh who was a dispossessed _____
Answer: Zamindar

6. The British Government with a view to bringing an end to the anarchical condition created by the Bheels _____ Khandesh.
Answer: Occupied

7. In 1831 the _____ tribesmen of Chotonagpur burst out in rebellion.
Answer: Kol

8. The Kol insurrection started in 1831 when the farm of two ________ thikadars was plundered and burnt.
Answer: Sikh

9. The term ________ may be well applied to the Santhal Hool.
Answer: Rebellion

10. An important feature of the Santhal Hool was the support the Santhals received from the ________ and such others.
Answer: Doms

11. The Mundas very much resented the breakdown of their ________ system under the British rule.
Answer: Agrarian

12. Birsa Munda’s reputation in his youth as a ________ earned him popularity.
Answer: Healer

13. Within a short time after the Munda Rebellion the peasants of rulers ________ were successful to wrest similar rights from the foreign
Answer: Bihar

14. The discontent of the _____ against the British rulers remained smouldering in their hearts for many years following the Ulghulan.
Answer: Mundas

15. The Sannyasis and Fakirs were very much a part of the Indian _________
Answer: Society

16. ________ was the leader of the rebellious Fakirs.
Answer: Majnu Shah

17. The ________ of the Sannyasis and Fakirs was due to their economic distress.
Answer: Insurgency

18. It was a mendicant named ________ who founded the religious sect named Pagal-Panthis.
Answer: Karam Shah

19. Wahabi Movement of Bengal began with the rising in ________
Answer: Barasat

20. The Wahabi Movement was founded in ________
Answer: Arabia

21. The oppressive ________ were the targets of the insurgent Wahabis.
Answer: Zamindars

22. According to Syed Ahmed Barelvi, under the British rule India had become a ________
Answer: Unholy land

23. Apart from Bengal the other centre of indigo cultivation was ________
Answer: Bihar

24. The English translation of the drama Neel Darpan was actually done by ________
Answer: Michael Madhusudan Datta

25. It was for the first time that the Bengali ________ came out in the open to support the oppressed indigo cultivators.
Answer: Middle class

26. The Tenancy Act of 1859 did not allow ________ right to the peasants, while the zamindars were allowed to enhance rent freely.
Answer: Occupancy

Statement and Assertion

Question 1.
Statement : The Forest Acts meant hardship for all the classes of people associated with forest.
Assertion :
(a) The tribal women were disturbed as they were unable to cook food using fuel-wod collected from forests.
(b) The tribals petitioned to the government to repeal the Forest Acts.
(c) The villagers continued their activities by breaking the law.
(d) A major revolt was organized by the tribesmen of Gudem and Rampa.
Answer:
(a) The tribal women were disturbed as they were unable to cook food using fuel-wod collected from forests.

Question 2.
Statement : The Rangpur Rebellion was basically a protest of the peasants against the oppressions of the ijaradar.
Assertion :
(a) The petitions sent by the ryots being of no avail they took recourse to agitation:
(b) The Rangpur Rebellion paved the way for the settlement of landrevenue on a permanent basis.
(c) Debi Singh, the ijaradar, forced the ryots to pay land-revenue at an increased rate.
(d) The ryots assembled together and declared Dirjinarain as their leader.
Answer:
(c) Debi Singh, the ijaradar, forced the ryots to pay landrevenue at an increased rate.

Question 3.
Statement : The rebellious Chuars aligned themselves with zamindar in their struggle against the British Government in India.
Assertion :
(a) The Chuars acted as the private army of the local zamindars.
(b) The British Government forcibly converted the paikan into rent paying land.
(c) The paikan was rent-free land.
(d) Durjan Singh, the ijaradar, assembled a body of 2000 Chuars who set fire to the market-place and raided the countryside of Bankura and Medinipur.
Answer:
(d) Durjan Singh, the ijaradar, assembled a body of 2000 Chuars who set fire to the market-place and raided the countryside of Bankura and Medinipur.

Question 4.
Statement : The peaceful life of the Santals was disturbed by the foreign rulers as also their agents.
Assertion :
(a) Redress of their grievances being of no avail the Santals raised the banner of rebellion.
(b) The rebellion of the Santals, in their language was called the ‘Santal Hool’.
(c) The Santal rebels took up arms against the oppressors and set the goal of independence driving out the alien rulers as also their agents from the area.
(d) The Santal Hool had an anti-British character.
Answer:
(c) The Santal rebels took up arms against the oppressors and set the goal of independence driving out the alien rulers as also their agents from the area.

Question 5.
Statement : Revolt of the Pagal-Panthi religious sect is an example how the peasants burst into rebellion against the oppressions of the zamindars.
Assertion :
(a) Pagal-Panthi was a religious sect founded by a mendicant,Karam Shah.
(b) Karam Shah’s doctrine found popularity with the Garo hill tribes.
(c) The tax-hike made by the zamindar of Sherpur caused discontent among the Pagal-Panthi Garos.
(d) Revolt of the Pagal-Panthis yielded result as under instructions from the British Government the zamindar was compelled to withdraw the increased amount of land-revenue.
Answer:
(d) Revolt of the Pagal-Panthis yielded result, for, under instructions from the British Government the zamindar was compelled to withdraw the increased amount of land-revenue.

Question 6.
Statement : In the name of religion Dudumiyan declared that tie Zamindars had no right to levy tax on the cultivators, tenants or pensantis.
Assertion :
(a) The Ferazi Movement remained confined to a mere religious reform movement.
(b) Zamindars increased oppression on the peasants who had Ferazi leanings.
(c) The Ferazi Movement was basically an agrarian movement.
(d) The movement began as a religious one, later on it was strengthened by the participation of the peasant masses.
Answer:
(d) The movement began as a religious one, later on it was strengthened by the participation of the peasant masses.

Question 7.
Statement : The Indigo Revolt may be regarded as an important chapter in the history of organized political movement in India.
Assertion :
(a) The peasants were unwilling to cultivate indigo as they did not get the wage equal to their labour.
(b) The Indigo Revolt is important because for the first time considerable interest and support was shown by the Bengali middle class to the cause of the indigo cultivators.
(c) The powerful European indigo planters forced the peasants to grow indigo.
(d) The indigo planters did not hesitate to convert the best food-growing area into indigo cultivation resulting in decline in food production.
Answer:
(b) The Indigo Revolt is important because for the first time considerable interest and support was shown by the Bengall middle class to the cause of the indigo cultivators.

Match List I with List II

Question 1.
Match the following:

List I	List II
(a) The Bengali periodical that gave (a) The Forest Acts meant hardship to the villagers across the country.	(i) Neel Darpan (i) Rangpur Revolt
(b) Protest of the tribesmen against the penetration of state in forest.	(ii) Sufferings of the Jhum cultivators
(c) Reaction of the adivasi against the Forest laws.	(iii) Gudem and Rampa
(d) Revolt against the oppressions of the jjaradar.	(iv) Uprising

Answer:
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

Question 2.
Match the following:

List I	List II
(a) The Rangpur Revolt of the peasants was against an Ijaradar	(i) Dirjinarain
(b) Leadership of the rebel peasants of Rangpur	(ii) Debi Singh
(c) Rebelious Chuars aligned them with zamindar	(iii) Chuar Rebellion
(d) Take-over of the paikan land by the colonial government	(iv) Duijan Singh

Answer:
(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

Question 3.
Match the following:

List I	List II
(a) A section of the backward and warlike community of Central India	(i) Chil Naik
(b) Leder of the Bheel Revolt	(ii) Bheel
(c) In 1832 the Bheels burst out in rebellion	(iii) Colonial rulers and their agents
(d) Exploitation of the Kol tribesmen of Chotonagpur	(iv) State of Dhar

Answer:
(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

Question 4.
Match the following:

List I	List II
(a) Beginning of the Kol insurrection	(i) Rebellion
(b) Leadership of the Kol rebels	(ii) Hos, Oraons, etc.
(c) Some other tribesmen supported the Kol rebels	(iii) Plunder the farm of two Sikh thikadars
(d) The Santa! Hool	(iv) Buddhu Bhagat, Joa Bhagat, etc.

Answer:
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Question 5.
Match the following:

List I	List II
(a) The traditional socio-economic foundation of the tribals was shattered	(i) Beth-begari
(b) The medieval system prevalent tribals under the British amongst the	(ii) ‘neighbours’
(c) Munda Movement	(iii) Mundaraj
(d) Birsa’s objective	(iv) 1858

Answer:
(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

Question 6.
Match the following:

List I	List II
(a) Ban on the movement	(i) A religious sect
(b) Objectives of the Sannayasis and Fakirs prior to the Bengal Femine	(ii) Sannayasis and Fakirs
(c) Pagal-Panthis	(iii) Loot of property
(d) Leader of the Pagal-Panthis	(iv) Tipu

Answer:
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

Question 7.
Match the following:

List I	List II
(a) Wahabi Movement of Bengal	(i) Zamindars
(b) Origin of the Wahabi Movement	(ii) Barasat
(c) Titumir	(iii) Arabia
(d) Target of the Wahabi insurgents	(iv) Banser Kella

Answer:
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

Question 8.
Match the following:

List I	List II
(a) Ferazi, a kindered brotherhood	(i) Wahabis and the Sikhs
(b) Unsuccessful Feraji Movement	(ii) Syed Ahmed Barelvi
(c) Wahabi Movement in India	(iii) Lack of political training
(d) Battle of Balakot	(iv) Haji Shariatullah

Answer:
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Question 9.
Match the following:

List I	List II
(a) The Indigo Rebellion in Bengal	(i) 1859
(b) Indigo cultivators were reduced to a state of slavery	(ii) Digambar Biswas
(c) The Indigo Rebellion breaks ou	(iii) Chaugacha
(d) A leader of the Indigo Rebellion	(iv) The European indigo planters

Answer:
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Question 10.
Match the following:

List I	List II
(a) An eye-witness account of popular struggle for publication in Hindu Patriot	(i) Neel Darpan
(b) A popular drama projecting oppressions on the indigo cultivators	(ii) Sisir Kumar Ghosh
(c) Passive resistance by the Indigo cultivators	(iii) Pabna Revolt
(d) A Hindu-Muslim joint struggle against the zamindars	(iv) Forerunner of the operation Movement

Answer:
(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

Well structured WBBSE Class 10 History MCQ Questions Chapter 1 Ideas of History can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Ideas of History Class 10 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions (Tick off the correct ones)

Question 1.
Of the following which describes the essentials of history?
a. Studies of man as a social being living in a particular geographical and natural environment.
b. Studies how man laid the foundation of civilization.
c. Records of the dates and events that took place in the passage of time.
d. Studies of man as he lives in society.
Answer:
d. Studies of man as he lives in society.

Question 2.
Of the following which is considered one of the ingredients of history?
a. Diplomatic strategies
b. Studies of plants
c. Studies of insects
d. Studies in planets
Answer:
Diplomatic strategies

Question 3.
Of the following who favoured looking at history from below ?
a. R.C. Majumder
b. J.N. Sarkar
c. Ranke
d. Ranajit Guha
Answer:
d. Ranajit Guha

Question 4.
During which of the following periods did appear the new trend in historical studies called ‘Social history’?
a. 70s of the nineteenth century
b. 20s of the twentieth century
c. 50s of the twentieth century
d. 60s of the twentieth century
Answer:
d. 60s of the twentieth century

Question 5.
Of the following who said that Bengal youth could get to heaven playing football ?
a. Professor Niharranjan Roy
b. Ramchandra Guha
c. Swami Vivekananda
d. Ashis Nandy
Answer:
c. Swami Vivekananda

Question 6.
Who authored the book on the history of sports entitled Twenty two Yards of Freedom?
a. Ramchandra Guha
b. Ashis Nandy
c. Dr. Boria Majumdar
d. Niharranjan Roy
Answer:
c. Dr. Boria Majumdar

Question 7.
Which of the following was the earliest text on the Bengali food habits?
a. The Vedas
b. Charyapada
c. The History of Bengal
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Charyapada

Question 8.
Which of the following is the oldest preserved example of Indian music?
a. Rigueda
b. Natyashastra
c. Samaveda
d. Baul tradition
Answer:
c. Samaveda

Question 9.
The earliest music in Bengal was influenced by which of the following ?
a. Rabindrasangeet
b. Gitagovinda
c. Panchali gan
d. Chau Nritya
Answer:
b. Gitagovinda

Question 10.
Of the following who wrote his first play Anande Raho in 1882 ?
a. Girischandra Ghosh
b. Dasarathi Rai
c. Jogendra Gupta
d. Sridhar Kathak
Answer:
a. Girischandra Ghosh

Question 11
Which of the following is the most important ancient text on dance?
a. Sangitaratnakara
b. Natyashastra
c. Gaudiya Nritya
d. Chau Nritya
Answer:
b. Natyashastra

Question 12.
Of the following which the earliest available work on drama in Tamil ?
a. Kuttiyam
b. Tolkappiyam
c. Natyashastra
d. Meghadoota
Answer:
b. Tolkappiyam

Question 13.
Which of the following is regarded as the most elaborate treatise on ancient plays?
a. Kuttiyam
b. Tolkappiyam
c. Natyashastra
d. Abhijnana Sakumalam
Answer:
c. Natyashastra

Question 14.
Which of the following was the first Indian feature film ?
a. Pundalik
b. Harishchandra
c. Do Bigha Zamin
d. Hamraz
Answer:
b. Harishchandra

Question 15.
Of the following which was the only indigenous industry to emerge under colonialism ?
a. Steel
b. Tea
c. Cinema
d. Jute
Answer:
c. Cinema

Question 16.
Of the following which constitutes the earliest records for the history of clothing in India?
a. Indus Valley Civilization
b. Ramayana
c. Rigueda
d. Writings of Herodotus
Answer:
a. Indus Valley Civilization

Question 17.
Which of the following refers to the Paridhan as the garments in use in early India?
a. The Ramayana
b. The Mahabharata
c. The Rigueda
d. The writings of Kalidasa
Answer:
c. The Rigueda

Question 18.
Of the following who experimented with designs for a national dress for women of the country?
a. Sarala Devi
b. Jnanadanandini Devi
c. Priyadarshini Devi
d. Narayani Devi
Answer:
b. Jnanadanandini Devi

Question 19.
Of the following which was the common means of transport in early Bengal ?
a. Horse
b. Elephant
c. nauka
d. palki
Answer:
c. Nauka

Question 20.
Of the following which was very much in use in the 19th century Kolkata as a means of transportation?
a. Horse-driven carriages
b. Palanquins
c. Trucks
d. Elephant brigade
Answer:
b. Palanquins

Question 21.
Of the following which was the Buddhist text that was illuminated as a part of painting as a visual arts?
a. Kalighat paintings
b. Pahari drawings
c. Rajput paintings
d. Pancaraksha
Answer:
d. Pancarakaha

Question 22.
Of the following which was the centre of the Renaissance of modern Indian paintings?
a. Kolkata
b. Delhi
c. Bombay
d. Madras
Answer:
a. Kolkata

Question 23
Of the following who as the Principal of the Calcutta School of Art brought about fundamental changes of far-reaching consequences?
a. Nandalal Bose
b. Sorashi Kumar Saraswati
c. Ernest Binfield Havell
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Ernest Binfield Havell

Question 24.
Of the following who came to be noted both for painting and open-air monumental sculpture?
a Rabindranath Tagore
b. Ramkinkar Beij
c. Binod Behari De
d. Jamini Roy
Answer:
b. Ramkinkar Beij

Question 25.
Which in the following years did camera arrive in Kolkata ?
a. 1830
b. 1820
c. 1840
d. 1850
Answer:
c. 1840

Question 26.
In which of the following the physical aspect of photography for readers was explained?
a. Janmabhumi
b. Silpapushpanjali
c. Silappadukaram
d. Matribhumi
Answer:
b. Silpapushpanjali

Question 27
Of the following the lady member of the Tagore family of Jorasanko who was devoted to the art of camera was :
a. Kumudini Devi
b. Mrinalini Devi
c. Jnanadanandini Devi
d. Pratima Devi
Answer:
c. Jnanadanandini Devi

Question 28.
Of the following who initiated the first X-ray unit of diagnosing diseases?
a. Dr. Ajit Kumar Sarkar
b. Dr.N.K. Munshi
c. Dr. P. Chatterjee
d Dr. Nilratan Sircar
Answer:
d. Dr. Nilratan Sircar

Question 29.
What is the name of the scholarly writing on architecture ?
a. History of Indian and Eastern Architecture
b. An Imperial Vision
c. Silpasashtra
d. The Making of a New Indian Art
Answer:
c. Silpasashtra

Question 30.
One example of the Bhanja style of Bengal is :
a. Calcutta Museum
b. Kali temple at Dakshineswar
c. Belur Math
d. Saheed Meenar
Answer:
b. Kali temple at Dakshineswar

Question 31.
Which of the following books on art of architecture chiefly in Bengal around twentieth century?
a. Silpashastra
b History of Indian and Eastern Architecture
c. The Making of a New Indian Art d An Imperial Vision
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. The Making of a New Indian Art

Question 32.
From which of the following originated the ‘bungalow’ architectural style?
a. Odisha
b. Bengal
c Tamilnadu
d. Bihar
Answer:
b. Bengal

Question 33.
Of the following who urged upon the students to undertake studies in local history in an address to the Calcutta University?
a Rabindranath Tagore
b. Asutosh Mukherjee
c. Jadunath Sarkar
d Ramesh Chandra Majumder
Answer:
a Rabindranath Tagore

Question 34.
Of the following who made a detailed study of medieval cities in India?
a. Narayani Gupta
b. Aniruddha Roy
c. Irfan Habib
d. Ranabir Chakravarti
Answer:
b Aniruddha Roy

Question 35.
In India where is found the earliest reference to army?
a. The Ramayana
b. The Mahabharata
c. The Vedas
d. The Puranas
Answer:
c. The Vedas

Question 36.
The pioneering work of reconstructing the local history of some of the areas of Bangladesh was done by :
a. Satischandra Ghosh
b. Dinabandhu Mitra
c. Satischandra Mitra
d. Nikhilnath Ghosh
Answer:
c. Satischandra Mitra

Question 37.
One of the outstanding work on the military history of India during the colonial period is :
a. Military History of India and South Asia
b. From Plassey to Independence
c. Military History of India
d. The Eighteenth Century in India
Answer:
a. Military History of India and South Asia

Question 38.
Of the following books mention the one that deals with environment :
a. Modernity at Large
b. The Corner of a Field
c. Hunting and Shooting
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Hunting and shooting

Question 39.
Of the Following who pioneered the dissection of human body in the Calcutta Medical College?
a. Madhusudan Datta
b Madhusudan Bhattacharya
c. Madhusudan Gupta
d. Madhusudan Roy
Answer:
c. Madhusudan Gupta

Question 40.
The Bengali writer who seriously worked for the propagation of a modern scientific outlook was :
a. Acharya Prafulla Chandra Roy
b Jagadish Chandra Bose
c. Arjun Appadorai
d. Akshay Kumar Datta
Answer:
d. Akshay Kumar Datta

Question 41.
Of the following who has done a lot of researches with regard to the position of women in India ?
a. Pritilata Waddedar
b. Bina Das
c. Sukumari Bhattacharya
d. Mridula Mukherjee
Ans :
c. Sukumari Bhattacharya

Question 42.
Which of the following is regarded as the primary source of reconstructing history?
a. History books
b. Diaries, speeches, etc.
c. Journals
d. Magazines
Answer:
b. Diaries, speeches, etc.

Question 43.
Which of the following is regarded as the secondary source of reconstructing history?
a. Diaries
b. Speeches
c. A History book
d. Letters
Answer:
c. A history book

Question 44.
Of the following who came to be popularly known as the “father of revolutionary thought’?
a. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
b. Bipin Chandra Pal
c. Bagha-jatin
d. Behari Charan Das
Answer:
b Bipin Chandra Pal

Question 45.
Which of the following autobiographies is immensely valuable for the historian of modern India?
a. Jibansmriti
b. Jibaner Jharapata
c. Sattar Batsar
d. Yogi
Answer:
c. Sattar Batsar

Question 46.
In which of the following there are valuable pen-pictures of the luminaries of the contemporary Bengal’s cultural sky?
a. Jibaner Jharapata
b. Jibansmriti
c. Sattar Batsar
d. Yogi
Answer:
b. Nibansmriti

Question 47.
Of the following which one may be described as the collection of reports and comments about current events published on a daily basis?
a. Journal
b. Magazine
c. Little-magazine
d. Newspaper
Answer:
d. Newspaper

Question 48.
About which of the following historian Ramesh Chandra Majumder commented to be the first literary journal of its kind in Bengal ?
a. Somprakash
b. Bangadarshan
c. Bangadut
d. Samachar-darpan
Answer:
b Bangadarshan

Question 49.
Which of the following introduced a new style of writing in journalism ?
a. Bangadarshan
b. Samachar-darpan
c. Somprakash
d. Bangadut
Answer:
c. Somprakash

Question 50.
Of the following which helped the process of acculturation in Bengali society?
a. Cinema
b. Drama
c. Music
d. Photography
Answer:
d. Photography

Tick off True or False

1. The English term ‘history’ is derived from the Roman word historia.
Answer: False

2. History is not a set of laws of generalizations.
Answer: True

3. Mere dates and years of political events are not history proper.
Answer: True

4. Thinker like Ranke gave a new turn to historical thinking in the early part of the twentieth century.
Answer: True

5. ‘Social History’ is also known as the ‘New Social History’.
Answer: True

6. Sports and games are the objects of national identity.
Answer: True

7. Boria Majumder’s book entitled Twenty-Two Yards of Freedom is a landmark dealing with social history of cricket.
Answer: True

8. Ramchandra Guha enriched the history of sports by writing a number of books on the subject.
Answer: True

9. Professor Niharranjan Roy has collected accounts of Indian food habits and cuisine from ancient texts such as Charyapada.
Answer: False

10. The Indian Food: A Historical Companion written by K.T. Achaya outlines varieties of cuisines that collectively may be called ‘Indian Food’.
Answer: True

11. The oldest preserved example of Indian music is to be found in Meghadoota written by poet Kalidas.
Answer: False

12. Presently Indian classical musical tradition has two distinctive styles, namely, Carnatic and Hindusthani.
Answer: True

13. The earliest music of Bengal was least influenced by the Vaishnava poetry.
Answer: False

14. The Ballad songs of Bengal, collectively called Panchali gaan, created history.
Answer: True

15. The Kuchipudi dance belongs to the Tamil region.
Answer: True

16. Natyashastra is an important ancient Sanskrit work on Indian dance.
Answer: True

17. The monumental treatise on music Sangitaratnakara includes a chapter on the traditions of Indian dance.
Answer: True

18. Chau Nritya is a special dance form of Odisha.
Answer: False

19. Bhasa belonging to 5th century BC is one of the celebrated playwrights in Sanskrit drama.
Answer: True

20. The one who revived the age-old drama tradition of India from extinction is Mani Madhava Chakyar.
Answer: True

21. Tolkappiar is the author of the Tamil work Tolkappyam which is a guide book for writing and acting out plays.
Answer: True

22. Thirumalai was an art critique.
Answer: True

23. Girishchandra Ghosh wrote his first play Natyashastra in 1882.
Answer: False
.
25. Cinema arrived in India almost at the same time as it did in the major European cities.
Answer: True

26. India is a unique case globally as it has the only major indigenous film industry to emerge under the colonial rule.
Answer: True

27. India has its own historiography of clothing that dates long ago.
Answer: True

28. The earliest evidence of clothing goes back to the period of Rigueda.
Answer: False

29. In the medieval Bengali epic like Manasamangal there is a reference to boats as a means of water-transport.
Answer: True

30. As Buddhists the Pala kings of Bengal used to illuminate Buddhist manuscripts which are the earliest specimens of paintings survived.
Answer: True

31. The oldest painting of Sri Chaitanya is survived at Kunjaghata in Murshidabad, West Bengal.
Answer: True

32. With the fundamental changes brought about by Ernest Binfield Havell began the Renaissance of modern Indian art.
Answer: True

33. A centre of painting was established at Shantiniketan when Nandalal Bose joined the Kala Bhawan there.
Answer: True

34. The earliest photographic institution in Kolkata was Messers Bourne and shepherd.
Answer: True

35. The Photographic Society of Bengal founded in 1856 had only Englishmen as its members.
Answer: false

36. There were no women photographers working professionally in contemporary Kolkata.
Answer: False

37. The first X-ray unit of diagonising diseases was initiated by Jagadish Chandra Bose.
Answer: False

38. The Indian architecture was born in the bosom of the country and had not been influenced by any external agency.
Answer: False

39. The Bhanja is a form of architecture that was practiced in Bengal.
Answer:  True

40. Local history as a micro level studies help to uncover historical episodes in a particular area.
Answer: True

41. A demographer is one who studies population statistics.
Answer: True

42. The influence of environment moulds the thought and dealings in life of the respective people.
Answer: True

43. Silent Spring written by Rachel Carson is a well documented book emphasizing the detrimental effects on the environment as a result of the indiscriminate use of pesticide.
Answer: False

44. The Unquiet Wood, a book on environment has been authored by Rangarajan.
Answer: False

45. The story of science, technology and medicine began in a humble manner in Bengal.
Answer: True

46. Serampore Press published a mathematical treatise called Ganit.
Answer : False

47. The Hindu College presently Presidency University. was founded in the year 1818 .
Answer: False

48. In Bengal, Ramendra Sundar Trivedi’s fame rests on his popular science essays.
Answer: True

49. Aluwalia’s Rethinking Boundaries of Femintsm and Internationalism is a significant study on women.
Answer: True

50. Speeches are considered the secondary source for the reconstruction history.
Answer: False

51. Memoir is a collection of memories that an individual writes about moments of his or her life.
Answer: True

52. Bipin Chandra Pal’s Sattar Batsar is a memoir.
Answer: True

53. Bipin Chandra Pal in his memoirs tells us how Surendranath Banerjee emerged as a national leader endowed with a great power of oratory.
Answer: True

54. Rabindranath started writing his first autobiography Fibansmriti around the age of 50
Answer: True

55. Fibansmriti reflects the environment of the country in which he was brought up.
Answer: True

56. Jibansmriti is a landmark in the autobiographical writings in Bengali as it is written in chaste Bengali prose, spiced often in a subtle sense of humour.
Answer: True

57. Sarala Devi Cahudhurani was the first feminist of modern Bengal. She was also the first political leader of modern times.
Answer: True

58. Sarala Devi Chaudhurani in her Jibaner Sharapata wrote that the improvement of health and physique of young girls was essential to the success of the national movement.
Answer: False

59. Letters from a Father to Her Daughter was written by Jawaharlal Nehru.
Answer:  True

60. Periodicals and newspapers are not important source of information for the reconstruction of events.
Answer: False

61. The editor of Bangadarshan was Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
Answer: True

62. The Bangadarshan gave proof of its national consciousness when in 1882 it published articles on the wrongs done by the British administrators in India.
Answer: False

63. An important aspect of the print media newspapers, journals, etc. was that they made people conscious about the contemporary social problems.
Answer: True

64. The use and abuse of internet go together simultaneously.
Answer: True

Fill in the gaps by choosing the correct words

1. Eminent historian Bury said that History ………… is no less and no more. (arts/ science/ social science/ humanities)
Answer: Humanities

2. Historical studies are as variable as ………… itself. (history/ society/ human being/ nature)
Answer: Science

3. A new trend that appeared in the historical studies during the 60s of the twentieth century is called New ………… History. (political/ economic/ social/ environmental)
Answer: Social

4. Sports and games are the objects of national …………
Answer: Identity

5. Swami Vivekananda made the symbolic statement that Bengali youth could get to heaven playing …………
Answer: Football

6. Boria Majumdar’s book entitled Twenty-two Yards of Freedom is a landmark dealing with – history of cricket.
Answer: Social

7. Ramchandra Guha, a social historian, also enriched the domain of …………..
Answer: Sports

8. Food habits of a people is largely determined by – factors.
Answer: Climatic

9. Niharranjan Roy has collected accounts of Bengali food habits from ancient texts like …………..
Answer: Charyapada

10. The earliest music in Bengal was influenced by the Gitagovinda by …………..
Answer: Jaydeva

11. Bharata Muni was a sage of …………..
Answer: Tamilnadu

12. One of the most important ancient Sanskrit works on Indian classical dance is …………..
Answer: Natyashastra

13. Sangitaratnakara is a treatise that includes a chapter on Indian traditional …………..
Answer: Dance

14. Cinema arrived in India almost at the same time as it did in cities …………..
Answer: European

15. Objects, images, etc. are helpful to capture the lost history of Indian …………
Answer: Cinema

16. Statues and seals discovered from the sites of the Indus Valley Civilization are the source of knowledge for ………… used at that time.
Answer: Clothing

17. In Rigveda there is mention of garments known as …………
Answer: Paridhan

18. In the colonial period distinctive changes were noticeable in ………… pattern.
Answer: Dress

19. ……… and bullock carts were common means of transport in the early days.
Answer: Watercraft

20. The Palas of Bengal were Buddhists and as such they used to illuminate ………… manuscripts.
Answer: Buddhist

21. In the post-Pala period no ………… text has survived.
Answer: Illuminated

22. Ernest Benfield Havell was an author of many books on ………… arts.
Answer: Indian

23. Messers Bourne and Shepherd opened its studio in Kolkata and it had distinguished persons like ………… as its customers.
Answer: SriRamakrishnadeva

24. Shantiniketan became an important centre of art when ………… joined the Kala Bhawan there.
Answer: Nandalal Bose

25. Calcutta School of Industrial Arts, established in ………… started imparting instructions on photography.
Answer: 1854

26. There is reference to camera and photography in Rabindranath Tagore’s …………
Answer: Chokher Bali

27. Ramendra Sundar Trivedi’s essays on photography were serialized in the journal …….
Answer: Janmabhumi

28. ………… Devi was passionately devoted to the art of camera.
Answer: Jnanadanandini

29. ………… was pioneer in X-ray photography in the country.
Answer: Jagadish Chandra Bose

30. The origin of the ‘bungalow’ architectural style has its roots in …………
Answer: Bengal

31. The ………… of Kolkata is an example of the Bhanja style of architecture.
Answer: Dakshineswar Temple

32. As regards local history pioneering effort was ………… of Kumudnath Mallick.
Answer: Nadiya Kahini

33. ………… favoured the students to undertake studies in local history.
Answer: Rabindranath Tagore

34. The study made by Professor is a milestone in the urban history of India.
Answer: Narayani Gupta

35. The British started rebuilding the city of Kolkata after the Battle of –
Answer: Plassey

36. In the wake of global warming people are facing …………. hazard.
Answer: Environmental

37. John Mack’s book on chemistry in …………. was published from Serampore Press.
Answer: Bengali

38. A mathematical treatise called Ganit was published by the ……………………..
Answer: School Book Society

39. pioneered the dissection of human dead body.
Answer: Madhusudan Gupta

40. Jagadish Chandra Bose published his first book entitled Response in Living and Non-living from –
Answer: London

41. An important event of 1927 was the publication of U.N. Brahmachari’s research paper on –
Answer: Kala-azar

42. Real progress in science, technology and medicine began after ……….
Answer: 1947

43. Women in Modern India written by ……….. deals with women’s recent history.
Answer: Geraldine Forbes

44. Sattar Batsar is an autobiography written by ……………..
Answer: Bipin Chandra Pal

45. It is known from his autobiography that Rabindranath was groomed with a comprehensive mode of education comprising anatomy to –
Answer: Astronomy

46. ……………… was in close contact with the revolutionaries of Bengal.
Answer: Sarala Devi.

47. Periodicals and newspapers are important …………… of information.
Answer: Source

48. Bangadarshan was published from ………… in 1872.
Answer: Calcutta

49. Somprakash was first projected by ……………… and attained the foremost position among the Bengali newspapers.
Answer: Vidyasagar

Statement and Assertion

Question 1.
Statement: A new trend in historical studies appeared during the 60s of the twentieth century.
Assertion:
a. Economic history became a branch of study of history.
b. The new trend was called the New Social History.
c. Environmental studies became a part of the historical studies.
d. Annales aimed at devoting to the study of contemporary society and economics.
Answer:
b. A new trend was called the New Social History

Question 2.
Statement : Sports and games are the objects of national identity.
Assertion.
a. Vivekananda made the statement that Bengali youth could get to heaven playing football rather than reading Gita.
b. Ever since 1970s history of sports had caught on, and histories of sports came to be written.
c. When the Indian team had lifted the cup of victory playing against the British players in Calcutta, it was a great booster to the national spirit.
d. Books on cricket by Ramchandra Guha enriched the domain of sports by suggesting the possibility of opening international relations through cricket.
Answer:
c. When the Indian team had lifted the cup of victory playing against the British players in Calcutta, it was a great booster to the national spirit.

Question 3.
Statement : Music has been an integral part of India’s culture.
Assertion :
a. Bharata Muni classified musical instruments into five systems.
b. Bengali music was influenced by the Vaishnava poetry.
c. The melodies of the Samaveda are still sung in some Vedic sacrifices.
d. In the 19th century Bengali ballad songs created history.
Answer:
c. The melodies of the Samaveda are still sung in some Vedic sacrifices.

Question 4.
Statement : The historiography of dance exposes the important connection identity politics and the creation of classical dance.
Assertion :
a. Natyasashtra is an important ancient Sanskrit works.
b. Bengali dance forms have drawn heavily from the folk tradition.
c. Bharatnatyam is based on the treatise Natyasashtra.
d. The Kuchipudi dance creates and supports hegemonic version of the Telugu history.
Answer:
d. The Kuchipudi dance creates and supports hegemonic version of the Telugu history.

Question 5.
Statement : Drama or theatre historiography means study of the methodologies that determine how theatre history is written.
Assertion :
a. It is only recently that the theatre historians have paid attention to how theatre history is written.
b. Tolkappiyam is the earliest available Tamil drama available.
c. Generations of Indians have been influenced by the thoughts indicated in the Natyashastra.
d. Girishchandra Ghosh wrote his first play Anande Raho in 1882.
Answer:
a. It only recently that the theatre historians have paid attention to how theatre history is written.

Question 6.
Statement: In the historiography of Indian cinema none have tried to capture the lost history through objects, images, posters and artifacts.
Assertion:
a. Cinema arrived in India almost at the same time as it did in major European cities.
b. The question of Indian cinema in the background of colonialism and nationalism is a very complex one.
c. Dungarpur’s documentary entitled The Immortals unravels Indian cinema’s radiant past through images, posters, artifacts, etc.
d. Nationalist historians are reluctant to bestow Pundalik the honour of being the first Indian film.
Answer:
c. Dungarpur’s documentary entitled The Immortals unravels Indian cinema’s radiant past through images, posters, artifacts, etc.

Question 7.
Statement : History of clothing and fashion constitutes a large and sophisticated field of academic research.
Assertion :
a. India’s recorded history of clothing goes back to the period of Indus Valley Civilization.
b. The modern historiography of clothing is based across a series of academic spaces like social and economic history.
c. In Rigveda there is mention of garments known as Paridhan.
d. Present knowledge about the fashion and Indian clothing largely comes from the statues, sculpture and painting.
Answer:
The modern historiography of clothing is based across a series of academic spaces like social and economic history.

Question 8.
Statement : In ancient India elephants and horses were in use, both militarily and otherwise.
Assertion :
a. Palanquin was used as a means of transportation.
b. Bullock carts were used as a means of transportation.
c. Greek historians mentioned that the might of the Ganga kingdom consisted in the elephant brigade.
d. As a riverine country boat was the natural means of transportation.
Answer:
c. Greek historians mentioned that the might of the Ganga kingdom consisted in the elephant brigade.

Question 9.
Statement : Kolkata was the centre of the Renaissance of modern Indian painting.
Assertion :
a. Ernest Benfield Havell was an influential English art historian.
b. As the Principal of the Calcutta School of Art Havell brought fundamental changes in the curriculam of the institution.
c. Many of the graduates of the Calcutta Art School excelled as portrait painters.
d. A Handbook of Indian Art is one of the important books authored by Havell.
Answer:
c. Many of the graduates of the Calcutta Art School excelled as portrait painters.

Question 10.
Statement : The indigenous traditions of scholarly writing on architecture are embodied in the treatises called Shilpashastra.
Assertion :
a. Fergusson in his book revealed how India’s arts are more original and varied.
b. The British colonial architecture is discussed in detail by Art historian Metcalf.
c. The temple architecture of Bengal has a distinctive roofing style.
d. ‘Bungalow’ architectural style has its roots in Bengal.
Answer:
a. Fergusson in his book revealed how India’s arts are more original and varied.

Question 11.
Statement : Local history is an important area of socio-cultural studies.
Assertion :
a. Kumudnath Mallick’s Nadiya Kahini narrates the local history of Murshidabad.
b. Rabindranath Tagore urged upon the students to undertake local history.
c. Modern studies in history pay special attention to local history to unravel historical episodes.
d. Amanatullah’s History of Coochbehar deals with local history.
Answer:
c. Modern studies in history pay special attention to local history to unravel historical episodes.

Question 12.
Statement : The influence of environment moulds the thought and dealings in the life of the respective people.
Assertion :
a. In the wake of global warming people all the world over are facing environmental hazards.
b. People have become conscious about the detrimental effects of using pesticide indiscriminately.
c. Ramchandra Guha’s environmental studies are of particular importance.
d. Poetries of Rabindranath reveal the influence of landscape.
Answer:
b. People have become conscious about the detrimental effects of using pesticide indiscriminately.

Question 13.
Statement: The story of science, technology and medicine began in an humble way in Bengal.
Assertion :
a. It was not before 1824 that teaching of science began in the Hindu College.
b. Calcutta Medical College was founded in 1835 in Calcutta.
c. Madhusudan Gupta pioneered the dissection of human body.
d. In 1875 Bankim Chandra Chatterjee published his Bijnan Rahasya.
Answer:
a. It was not before 1824 that teaching of science began in the Hindu College.

Question 14.
Statement : The role of women in society has been studied by scholars of different branches of study.
Assertion :
a. As the cultivation was taken over by men women were debarred from tilling the ground.
b. The anthropologists accredited women with the discovery of agriculture.
c. Women take part in harvesting and other related activities.
d. Sukumari Bhattacharya has done a lot of researches with regard to the position of women in society.
Answer:
b. The anthropologists accredited women with the discovery of agriculture.

Question 15.
Statement : Sattar Batsar has documentary value from historical perspective.
Assertion :
a. Pal said that the songs in the Bengali drama staged in Kolkata rang the first stirrings of nationalist feelings.
b. According to Pal, patriotism was enunciated by the Hindu Mela founded by Jyotirindranath Tagore.
c. Pal tells how Surendranath emerged as a national leader.
d. In his youth Pal become a Brahmo activist under the guidance of Shivnath Shastri.
Answer:
b. Patriotism was enunciated by the Hindu Mela founded by Jyotirindranath Tagore.

Question 16.
Statement : Correspondences are important source of information for the reconstruction of the history.
Assertion :
a. In his Letters from a Father to his Daughter Nehru communicated to his daughter about the evolution of mankind.
b. Through the letters written to his daughter Nehru came closer to his daughter.
c. The bunch of letters communicated the essence behind the great Indian epics.
d. The letters of Nehru also leave room for further studies to the readers.
Answer:
a. In his Letters from a Father to his Daughter Nehru communicated to his daughter about the evolution of mankind.

Match List I with List II

Question 1.
Match the following:

List I	List II
a. Subaltern people	i. ‘New Social History”
b. Social Science Research Council	ii. Ranajit Guha, Gyanendra Pandey
c. National Game of England	iii. Social science
d. Boria Majumdar	iv. Football
e. Social science is also called	v. Cricket

Answer:
(a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (v), (e) – (i)

Question 2.
Match the following:

List I	List II
a. Social history of cricket	i. Vivekananda
b. Social historian who enriched the domain of sports	ii. Playing cricket
c. Bengali youth could get heaven playing football rather than reading Gita	iii. Twenty-two Yards of Freedom
d. International and political relations could be improved through	iv. Ramchandra Guha

Answer:
(a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)

Question 3.
Match the following :

List I	List II
(a) People’s food habit is also included in the study of	(i) Bharata muni
(b) Food habits of (a) people is largely determined by	(ii) Social history
(c) Historiography of performing arts includes	(iii) Climatic and geographical factors
(d) A sage of Tamilnadu who classified classical instruments into 5 systems	(iv) Music, dance, drama and cinema

Answer :
(a) – (ii) (b) – (iii), (c)  – (iv), (d) – (i)

Question 4.
Match the following:

List I	List II
(a) The treatise on music that includes a chapter on dance	(i) Physics as to engineering
(b)  Recognition of regional variant of dance as desipaddhatis	(ii) Sangitaratnakara
(c) Theatre historiography is to theatre history as	(iii) The best literature of the world
(d)  Abhijnana Shakuntalam of Kalidas	(iv)  Sarangadeva

Answer:
(a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)

Question 5.
Match the following :

List I	List II
(a) The oldest surviving theatre traditions of the world	(i) Tolkappiyam
(b) Tolkappiar is the author of the earliest Tamil work	(ii) Kutiyattam of Kerala
(c) Revival of the age-old drama traditions saved from extinction	(iii) Natyashastra
(d) Guideline treatise for writing and acting out plays	(iv) Mani Madhava Chakyar

Answer:
(a) – (ii),(b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)

Question 6.
Match the following :

List I	List II
(a) The ancient book that influenced the performing arts for generations	(i) Jogendra Gupta
(b) In Bengal after 1852 flow of dramas came from the pen of	(ii) Girischandra Ghosh
(c) In Bengal under whom drama passed to the professionals	(iii) National Theatre
(d) The year 1872 was a landmark in the development of drama	(iv) Natyashastra

Answer:
(a) – (iv),(b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)

Question 7.
Match the following :

List I	List II
(a) Cinema arrived in India at the same time as it did	(i) Film
(b)The first feature film of India	(ii) Dadasaheb Phalke
(c) The only major indigenous industry to develop in the colonial period	(iii) Pundalik
(d) Mythological film Raja Harishchandra	(iv) In the major cities of Europe

Answer:
(a) – (iv),(b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)

Question 8.
Match the following :

List – I	List – II
(a) India’s history of clothing dates back to	(i) Source of pre-historic clothing
(b) In Rigveda there is reference to garments	(ii) Fashion
(c) Seals and statues of the Indus Valley are a	(iii) Paridhan
(d) The thing that changes from time to time in respect of clothing	(iv) Indus Valley Civilization

Answer:
(a) – (iv),(b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)

Question 9.
Match the following :

List I	List II
(a) In a riverine country like India natural means of transport was used in early days	(i) Horse-driven carriages
(b)  In Charyapadas there is reference to water transport	(ii) Boat or nauka
(c) Sher Shah introduced a new system	(iii) Mercantile fleet of boats
(d)  In Kolkata the general system of transport was	(iv) Postal system by horse­men

Answer:
(a) – (ii),(b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)

Question 10.
Match the following :

List – I	List – II
(a) A few specimens of paintings survived belonged to a ruling dynasty of Bengal	(i)   E. B. Havell
(b) A research work in Bengali regarding the illuminated manuscripts	(ii) The Palas
(c) The centre of the Renaissance in modem painting	(iii)  Palayuger Chitrakala
(d) The one who brought about fundamental changes in painting	(iv) Kolkata

Answer:
(a) – (ii),(b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)

Question 11.
Match the following :

List – I	List – II
(a)  It was in 1840 that camera was available in Bengal	(i) Santiniketan
(b) Apart from Kolkata another centre of painting was the place where Nandalal Bose was the teacher	(ii) Kolkata
(c) The society established in 1856 in which there was a mixed membership of Indians and Englishmen	(iii) Shilpapushpanjali
(d) In a book Saraccandra Deb tried to photography	(iv) Photographic Society of Bengal explain the physical aspect of

Answer:
(a) – (ii),(b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)

Question 12.
Match the following :

List I	List II
(a) The Colonel who appealed to engage amateur photographers to take photographs of temples, houses, etc.	(i) Satyendranath Tagore
(b) Ramendrasundar Trivedi’s essay on photography	(ii) Mahim Chandra Thakur
(c) An ICS who was passionately devoted to camera	(iii) Jagadish Chandra Bose
(d) X-ray photography	(iv) Janmabhumi

Answer:
(a) – (ii),(b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)

Question 13.
Match the following :

List – I	List – II
(a) An art historian	(i) James Fergusson
(b) History of Indian and Lastem Architecture	(ii) Thomas Metcalf
(c) Tapati Guha Thakurta	(iii) Kali temple of Dakshineswar
(d) Bhanja style of architecture	(iv) The Making of a New Indian Art

Answer:
(a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)

Question 14.
Match the following :

List – I	List – II
(a) ‘Nadiya Kahini’ as a local history	(i) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) History of Coochbehar	(ii) Narayani Gupta
(c) Advice to the students to undertake study of local history	(iii) Amanatullah Ahmed
(d) Recent study in urban History	(iv) Kumudnath Mallick

Answer:
(a) – (iv),(b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)

Question 15.
Match the following:

List – I	List – II
(a) Kolkata, Sutanuti and Govindapur	(i) Sepoys
(b) The earliest known reference to army	(ii) Military history
(c) History that moulds the foreign policy of a country	(iii) The Vedas
(d) The army recruited by the East India Company	(iv) Kolkata

Question 16.
Match the following:

List – I	List – II
(a) Local history is linked with	(i) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Landscape of Gangetic Bengal	(ii) History of cities
(c) Environmental studies	(iii) Pesticide
(d) Detrimental effects on the environment	(iv) “Hunting and Shooting’

Answer:
(a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)

Question 17.
Match the following:

List – I	List – II
(a) Features of science Chemistry	(i) History of Hindu
(b) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee	(ii) Bangadarshan
(c) Acharya Prafulla Chandra Roy	(iii) Madhusudan Gupta
(d) Translation of a Sanskrit anatomy book	(iv) Bigynan Rahasya

Answer:
(a) – (ii),(b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)

Question 18.
Match the following:

List – I	List – II
(a) Studies in feminism	(i) Aluwalia
(b) Women discovered agriculture	(ii) Debarred from tilling soil
(c) Research on feminism	(iii) Women in Modem India
(d) Geraldine Forbes	(iv) Role of Women in Society

Answer:
(a) – (iv),(b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)

Question 19.
Match the following:

List – I	List – II
(a) Story of life	(i) Memoir
(b) Story from life	(ii) Autobiography
(c) Journals, editorials, etc.	(iii) Primary source of history
(d) Reports, narratives, speeches, etc.	(iv) Secondary source of history

Answer:
(a) – (ii), (b) – (i),  (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)

Question 20.
Match the following:

List – I	List – II
(a) Collection of ‘memory picture	(i) Sarala Devi
(b) “Father of revolutionary thought’	(ii) Jibcansmriti
(c) Suhrid Samiti	(iii) ‘Letters from Father to his Daughter’
(d) Nehru explained to Priyadarshini the difference between man and animals	(iv) Bipin Chandra Pal

Answer:
(a) – (ii), (b) – (iv),  (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)

Question 21.
Match the following:

List – I	List – II
(a) Bangadarshan	(i) Internet
(b) Somprakash	(ii) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(c) Printed journals, newspapers, etc.	(iii) Vidyasagar
(d) People restricted in a room country	(iv) Social problems of the

Answer:
(a) – (ii), (b) – (iii),  (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)