WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 6 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Chapter 2 Question Answer – Shape of The Earth

Objective Type Questions :

Question 1.
What is the shape of the Earth?
Answer:
An oblate spheroid.

Question 2.
What is the equatorial diameter of the Earth?
Answer:
12,757 km.

Question 3.
What is the polar diameter of the Earth?
Answer:
12,714 km.

Question 4.
Who was the first sailor to circumnavigate the Earth?
Answer:
Magellan.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

Question 5.
Who was the first Greek philosopher to prove that Earth is spherical?
Answer:
Aristotle.

Question 6.
Who was the first scientist to prove that Earth is a spheroid?
Answer:
Newton.

Question 7.
Who was the first geographer who attempt to measure the size of the Earth?
Answer:
Eratosthenes.

Question 8.
Who was the first Indian Astronomer to describe the Earth as sphere?
Answer:
Aryabhatta

Question 9.
Which eclipse gives the evidence that the Earth is round?
Answer:
Lunar Eclipse.

Question 10.
What is the equatorial circumference of the Earth?
Answer:
40,077 km.

Question 11.
What is the polar cicumference of the Earth?
Answer:
40,009 km.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

Question 12.
How much part of the Earth is covered with water?
Answer:
71%.

Question 13.
Which one of the earliest proofs of the Earth’s sphericity, is the most conclusive and practical?
Answer:
Shadow of the Earth at Lunar Eclipse.

Question 14.
What do you understand by the term ‘oblate spheroid’?
Answer:
A sphere with unequal diameter.

Question 15.
Which force creates a bulge at the equatorial region?
Answer:
Centrifulgal force.

Question 16.
Where is Bedford level canal located?
Answer:
In UK.

Question 17.
Who was the scientist to perform Bedford level canal experiment?
Answer:
A.R.Wallace.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

Question 18.
What is the difference between polar diameter and equatorial diameter of the Earth?
Answer:
43 km.

Define and give very short answer of the following briefly 2 marks each

Question 1.
What is a spheroid ?
Answer:
A spheroid is not a perfect sphere. It is a sphere of rotation.

Question 2.
What is Geoid ?
Answer:
Geoid means Geo+oid. It means Earth shaped i.e., a spheroid.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

Question 3.
What is centrifugal force ?
Answer:
A force which acts away from the centre of a circle.

Question 4.
What is Horizon ?
Answer:
Horizon is the line where Earth and sky seem to meet.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Geocentric?
Answer:
In olden days, it was believed that the Earth is the centre of Solar System.

Question 6.
What is heliocentric ?
Answer:
It means the idea that Sun is the centre of the Solar System.

Question 7.
What is circumnavigation ?
Answer:
To sail round the Earth without changing direction.

Question 8.
Explain the spherical hori-
Answer:
Where Earth and sky appear to meet. It always look spherical due to spherical Earth.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

Question 9.
How does circumnavigation determine the Earth’s shape?
Answer:
Because it is possible to circumnavigate only the spherical Earth.

Question 10.
How do aerial photographs zon. help ?
Answer:
The photographs taken from space show spherical Earth.

Question 11.
Why is the shape of the Earth described as oblate spheroid?
Answer:
Because it is flattened at the poles and bulging at the equator.

Answer the following questions briefly : 3 marks each

Question 1.
Name the ancient Geographers and their views regarding shape of the Earth.
Answer:
In olden days, it was believed that the Earth is the centre of Solar System. To a common man, Earth appeared as a flat disc. Anaximander took it as cylindrical, Aristotle, Ptolemy, Aryabhatta and Pythagoras gave proofs that Earth is a sphere.

Question 2.
Name some modern Geographers and their views about shape of the Earth.
Answer:
(a) Magellan, after circumnavigation of the Earth, showed it to be a sphere.
(b) Copernicus proved that the Earth moved round the Sun.
(c) Galileo proved spherical shape of the Earth.
(d) Newton proved Earth to be a spheroid.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

Question 3.
Why does the Sun not rise at the same time everywhere in the world?
Answer:
If the Earth were flat, the whole world would have the sunrise and sunset at the same time. As the Earth is spherical and rotates from West to East, places in the East see the Sun earlier than the places in the West.

Question 4.
“The whole of the approaching ship is not visible at one time.” Why ?
Answer:
Along its curved surface, the appearance of a ship is gradual. We see first the smoke, then the mast and then the hull. If the Earth were flat, the entire ship would be seen all at once.

Question 5.
How can you prove that the Earth is a shape by looking at the Pole Star ?
Answer:
The Pole Star is at an angle of 90° at the North Pole. Its angle decreases towards the equator. It can happen only in an arc of a circle on surface of a sphere.

Question 6.
Briefly describe the shape of the Earth.
Answer:
The Earth is not a perfect sphere. Due to its rotation on its axis, the shape of Earth is bulging at equator and flattened at poles. It is a spheroid.

Question 7.
How did Earth get its atmospheric blanket?
Answer:
From the rotating cloud of gas and dust, heavy elements were separated. The remaining cloud of gases formed the atmosphere and functions as a blanket.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

Question 8.
“Even when the Earth is spherical, if appears to be flat.” Discuss.
Answer:
The actual shape of the Earth is spherical. The curvature of the Earth is small as compared to its big size. For a small area upto 100 sQuestion mile, this curvature is negligible. Therefore, it appears flat.

Question 9.
Why is the Earth slightly flattened at the poles ?
Answer:
The Earth is not a perfect sphere. It is slightly flattened at both the poles. It is due to the centripetal force produced by the rotation of the Earth.

Question 10.
Why does the Earth have an equatorial bulge?
Answer:
The rotation of the Earth produces centrifugal force acting outwardly on the surface of the Earth. Thus, the equatorial parts are pulled away from the centre. With the result, equatorial circumference is longer than the polar circumference by 125 km.

Question 11.
What is the latest and most convincing proof of the Earth’s spherical shape ?
Answer:
Photographs of the Earth have been taken by Apollo-astronauts from high altitudes. These give a true perspective view of the curvature from outer space. These show clearly the curved edge of the Earth. This is the most convincing proof.

Answer the following questions : 5 marks each

Question 1.
(a) Which Eclipse provides evidence to show a spherical Earth ?
(b) Who was the first scholar to provide this evidence?
(c) How did he prove that the Earth is a sphere ?
Answer:
(a) The lunar eclipse proves that the Earth is a sphere
(b) Aristotle was the first scholar to show this.
(c) The shadow cast by Earth on the Moon during the lunar eclipse is circular. Only a spherical Earth casts a circular shadow.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 9

Question 2.
State four traditional proofs of the Earth’s spherical shape.
Answer:

  1. The shadow cast by Earth on the Moon during a lunar eclipse is always circular.
  2. The Sun, planets and other heavenly bodies are spherical in shape.
  3. The Sun rises and sets at different times in different places due to curvature of the Earth.
  4. Circumnavigation round the Earth is a proof of its spherical shape.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 10

Question 3.
(a) Who was the first geographer to measure the circumference of the Earth ?
(b) What observations did he make?
(c) How did he calculate the circumference of the Earth?
Answer:
(a) In olden days, man was unable to determine the size of the Earth due to his limited knowledge. About 2000

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 11

years ago (in 230 BC) an Egyptian astronomer, Eratosthenes made the first attempt to measure the circumference of the Earth.

(b) He assumed that the Earth was a sphere. On 21st June, he observed at Syene (Aswan) in Egypt that the Sun was directly overhead at that place. At Alexandria, on the same day, the Sun was not directly overhead at noon. It was 7° 12 minute away from the vertical. Eratosthenes measured the distance between Syene and Alexandria. It was found to be 5000 stadia (925 km).

(c) Thus, assuming that the Earth’s circumference measured 360°, he calculated the circumference of the Earth.
7.2° angle on the circumference = 925 km
1° angle on the circumference = \(\frac{925 \times 10}{72}\) 360° angle on the circumference
= \(\frac{925 \times 10 \times 360}{72}\) = 46,250 km
This measurement was very close to the modern accurate measurement of 40,000 km.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

Question 4.
Describe any three experiments to prove the Spherical Shape of the Earth.
Answer:
(i) If you observe a ship approaching sea coast, the top of the mast is seen first and the hull, lower parts are seen gradually. Due to the curvature of the Earth, the whole ship is not seen at one time.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 12

(ii) Fix three poles of equal length at equal distance on the ground. These do not give a horizontal level. The top of the middle pole looks higher than the other two poles due to the curvature of the Earth. This experiment was done by Mr. A.R. Wallace on Bedford canal.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 13

(iii) If you look around at the Earth’s horizon (where Earth and sky appear to meet), it will everywhere and always appear circular. It widens with increasing altitude due to Spherical Earth.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 14

Question 5.
What is the shape of the Earth ?
Answer:
Nowadays, scientific knowledge and observations have proved that the Earth is spherical in shape. But the actual mea-
surements of Earth’s dimensions have revealed that Earth is not a perfect sphere. It is slightly bulging at the equator and flattened at both the poles. It is an oblate spheroid. Its equatorial diameter is longer than its polar diameter by 43 km.

Question 6.
What is ‘Geoid’ ?
Answer:
The Earth has a unique shape. It is not similar to anything. A special term ‘Geoid’ is used to describe the shape of the Earth. It means ‘Earth shaped’. It is a combination of two words (Geo+oid) and it means a shape identical to spheroid shape of the Earth.

Identify the correct answers 1 mark each

Question 1.
The average radius of the Earth is
(a) 5400 km
(b) 6,400 km
(c) 7,400 km
(d) 8,400 km
Answer:
(b) 6,400 km

Question 2.
The shape of the Earth is like the
(a) Cylinder
(b) Mango
(c) Pear
(d) Apple
Answer:
(c) Pear

Question 3.
Eratosthenes calculated the circumference of the Earth to be about.
(a) 1,52,000 stadia
(b) 2,52,000 stadia
(c) 3,52,000 stadia
(d) 4,52,000 stadia
Answer:
(b) 2,52,000 stadia

Question 4.
Greek philosopher and mathematician Pythagoras (572-500 B.C.) was among the first to suggest that the shape of the Earth was
(a) like a globle
(b) like a box
(c) like a cylinder
Answer:
(a) like a globe

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

Question 5.
From the space, the Earth looks
(a) black
(b) brown
(c) red
(d) blue
Answer:
(d) blue

Question 6.
During a lunar eclipse, the shadow of the Earth on the Moon appears as
(a) a straight line
(b) an arrow
(c) a box
(d) an arc of a circle
Answer:
(a) an arc of a circle

Question 7.
Due to sphere shape of the Earth, the Pole star at the North Pole can always be observed at
(a) 30° in the sky
(b) 60° in the sky
(c) 90° in the sky
(d) 180° in the sky
Answer:
(c) 90° in the sky

Question 8.
Megallan, the Portuguese explorer sailed completely around the Earth and returned to his starting point is
(a) Britain
(b) Spain
(c) Japan
(d) France
Answer:
(b) Spain

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

Question 9.
As one travels southwards, an angle of Pole star (North pole)
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
(d) becomes zero
Answer:
(d) decreases

Fill in the blanks with correct words 1 mark each

1. Polar circumference of the Earth is less than _______.
Answer:
Equator

2. The Earth bulges a little at the and is flattened at the _______.
Answer:
Equator

3. The shape of the Earth is described by scientists, have truely given the name ‘geoid’ meaning ‘_______’ or ‘_______’.
Answer:
Earth-shaped/Earth like form

4. During lunar eclipse shadow of _______ and its curvature can be observed with naked eye.
Answer:
Earth

5. The polar diameter of the Earth is _______.
Answer:
12,714 km

6. A Greek philosopher and scientist named _______ was the first to declare that the Earth is round.
Answer:
Aristotle

If the sentence is true, write ‘T’ and if false write ‘F’ against the following 1 mark each

1. If the earth was flat the pole star would have the same height for all latitudes.
Answer:
True

2. The height of the pole star in the sky varies with the latitude.
Answer:
True

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

3. When three ships are approaching the shore, the observer first see only one ship. The others lie below his line of vision.
Answer:
True

4. During an eclipse of the Moon, the shadow of the Earth which is thrown on the Moon, is always straight line.
Answer:
False

5. If the Earth was flat, the rising Sun would be seen at all places at the same time.
Answer:
True

6. Due to spherical shape of the Earth, places in the east see the rising Sun earlier.
Answer:
True

Shape of The Earth Class 6 WBBSE Notes

Earth : A unique planet. The Earth is a unique planet (Watery planet or Blue planet) because it is the only planet on which life exists.

Shape of the Earth : In olden days, people regarded the Earth as a plane surface, i.e., flat. But Anaximander, Aristotle, Ptolemy, Aryabhatta and Pythagoras gave proofs to show the Earth as a sphere.

Modern Views : Modern views confirm the spherical shape of the Earth, Magellan, Galileo, Copernicus, Newton proved the Earth to be a spheroid, i.e., a sphere of rotation. The Earth has the shape of Geoid. It is flattened at the poles and bulging at the equator.

Size of the Earth : An Egyptian Astronomer, Eratosthenes (230 BC) was the first to measure the size of the Earth. The equatorial diameter is 1,22,756 km. while polar diameter is 12,713 km.

In the old days, the Earth was considered to be a flat disc with steep edges. It was also thought that all heavenly bodies revolved around the earth. Early ideas of Universe were influenced by religious thoughts and practices. The Hindus believed that Universe was shaped like an egg-Brahmanda. According to Vedas, Earth was flat circular with a heaven above. Aryabhatta, the famous Indian astronomer, however, believed that the earth was spherical in shape and rotated on its axis. In Europe, the Greek philosopher Pythagoras was the first to state that the Earth was spherical in shape, there was considerable opposition to this idea in those days.

Nowadays, scientific knowledge and observations have proved that the Earth is spherical in shape. But the actual measurements of Earth’s dimensions have revealed that Earth is not a perfect sphere. It is slightly bulging at the equator and flattened at both the poles. It is an oblate spheroid.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

The Earth is not flat –

If the Earth were a flat disc, then the rising Sun would have been seen at all places at the same time. This does not happen. Places in the east see the rising sun earlier.

When a ship approaches land, its funnel or mast is seen first and then the full. If the Earth had been flat, the whole ship would have been seen at one time.

The Earth is a sphere : Proof of sphericity of the Earth (How did we discovered the Earth is round?)
Several things show that the shape of the Earth is rounded or sphere.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 1

Indirect Proofs –

Sunrise and Sunset : The Sun does not rise at the same time in every country. It rises in London, for example, some 5 hours later than in Mumbai. If the Earth were flat, the sunrise would be everywhere at the same time.

Sighting a ship : An observer watching through a telescope the approach of a ship seas first the smoke then the funnels, and then the hull. If the Earth were flat we would see the whole of the ship at one time. This proofs the rounded shape of the Earth.

The Earth’s shadow: The shadow cast by the Earth on the Moon during the lunar eclipse is circular. Only a round body can cast a circular shadow. All heavenly bodies like the Sun, Moon and other planets appear circular in all positions. The Earth and other heavenly bodies must be rounded and spherical in shape.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 2

Travelling Round the Earth: As the Earth is spherical in shape, it is possible to circumnavigate the Earth. Magellan was the first to go round the Earth in a ship and complete his voyage without encountering a sharp edge. An aeroplane can fly round the world. If we travel continually in the same direction, we return eventually to our starting point.

The Bedfort Level

Experiment: An experiment was made many years ago in the Bedford Level Canal area in Britain. A.R. Wallace did this experiment. The water level of the canal provided the base of measurement. Three poles were fixed at intervals of about 5 km. such that the poles were rising to the same height about the level of water in the canal.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 3

When a telescope was placed that in such a way that the top of pole A was in line with of pole C, it was found that the line of sight was intersecting the middle pole B. This would not happen if the Earth were flat. The middle pole B appeared higher owing to the curvature of the Earth.

The spherical horizon : The limit of the horizon at a place is circular and the horizon widens as the height of the observer increases. This again indicates the spherical shape of the Earth.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 4

Effect of gravity : The weight of a substance is related to the effect of force of gravity on that substance. It is found that an object weighs nearly the same at all places on the Earth. This means that the force of gravity is nearly equal to all places. This is possible only when the Earth is a sphere.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 5

Position of the pole star : The pole star appears vertically overhead at the North Pole. If the Earth were flat, the pole star should be overhead at all places on the Earth.

This is not the ease. The angle of elevation of the pole star is about 40° at London and 0° at Singapore or on equator. This is possible only when the earth is spherical in shape.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

Direct Proofs –

Aerial Photographs : The most clinching evidence of the spherial shape of the Earth is obtained from photographs taken from space. Pictures taken by satellites show the spherical shape of the Earth. The astronauts from the moon have taken pictures of the Earth showing its spherical shape.

Artifical Satellites: Artificial Satellites and many space probes are put in orbit on the assumption that the Earth is spherical. The calculations have proved correct and the space probes of other planets of the Solar System have provided valuable data.

Earth as an Oblate Spheroid –

Definition of Oblateness of the Earth : A sphere which is slightly flattened at two opposite ends is called an oblate spheroid or oblate ellipsoid. The Earth is not, in fact, a perfect sphere, it has an equatorial bulge and a polar flattening. This type of spherical shape is known ‘oblate spheroid’.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 6

Proofs of the Oblateness of the Earth –

Difference between the length of the Equatorial diameter and Polar diameter:

The Earth has got an equatorial diameter of 12,757 km. through east-west and a polar diameter of 12,714 km. through north-south. In length the equatorial diameter is larger than the polar diameter by 43 km. Hence there is a slight bulging at the equator and a flattening at the two polar regions. This is caused by the rotation of the Earth.

Length of circumferences : The length of equatorial circumference is 40,076 km and the polar circumference is 40,009 km. The legnth of equatorial circumference is larger than the polar circumference by 67 km. Thus the Earth has got a shape of an oblate spheriod.

Concept of Geoid : Earth is not a perfect sphere. It is also not a simple oblate spheroid. A study of satellite orbits has already revealed that the Earth is not a perfect oblate ellipsoid or a perfect sphere as it was previously thought to be.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 7

The high mountains like Himalayas or deep valleys are also just a dot when we consider the size of the Earth. The Earth ‘bulges out’ a little at the equator and is flattened at the poles. There are much bigger depressions and bumps on its surface.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 8

These are areas of low atmospheric pressure which produce climatic changes. In as much as Earth is unique, its shape is also unique. Scientists have truly given the name ‘geo’ to this form or ‘geoid’ meaning ‘earth like form’ or earth shaped.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 6 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 11 Maps offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Chapter 11 Question Answer – Maps

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps 1
Look above that there is a scale drawn on the right side of the map. One can get answers to all questions from this scale. How?

Question 1.
What is the distance of the school from Subho’s house?
Answer:
Measure the distances in centimetre PQ, QR and RS by scale. The total distance is 8cm. The scale of the map is given as 1cm to 100 metre. Then the actual distance is 8 x 100 or 800 metre. So the distance between ‘A’ and ‘B’ is 1cm, then actual distance between them is (1 x 100 x m)=100m.

Now distance between B to C=5 cm, then actual distance between them is (5 x 100m) = m. and distance on map between C to D is 2 cm and then actual distance between them (2 x 100x m)=200 x m. The total distance from Subho’s house to school is (100 m+500 m+200 m) = 800 metre.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

Question 2.
Try to understand and solve the following chart’s question marked.

Distance on map Distance on ground Scale = \(\frac{map distance}{ground distance}\)
5cm 25km 1cm=5 km
10cm 100 km (a) ?
2cm (b) ? 1cm=30m

Answer:
WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps 2

Give a single technical term for the following : (1 mark each)

Question 1.
The science of map making.
Answer:
Cartography

Question 2.
Numbers and letters given to the network of lines on a map.
Answer:
Grid

Question 3.
The four directions of the compass – north, south, east and west.
Answer:
Cardinal directions

Question 4.
A straight line, drawn to scale, divided in terms of distances on the earth.
Answer:
Linear Scale

Question 5.
Map showing mountains, plateaus, plains, rivers etc, of an area.
Answer:
Physical Map

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

Question 6.
A collection of maps bound into a book.
Answer:
Atlas

Question 7.
The most important tool in the study of geography.
Answer:
Map

Question 8.
The instrument used to find directions on the earth.
Answer:
Compass

Answer the following questions briefly: (2 mark each)

Question 1.
What are the five components of a map?
Answer:
Title, Direction, Scale, Legend or Key and Grid Systems are the five components of a map.

Question 2.
What are the four cardinal directions ?
Answer:
North, South, East and West.

Question 3.
What is map?
Answer:
Map is a flat, symbolic representation of the earth or a part of the earth’s surface.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

Question 4.
What is cartography?
Answer:
The science of map making is called cartography.

Question 5.
What is globe?
Answer:
Globe is a very small, but true model of our earth. Earth is really 30 to 40 million times bigger than the globe in your classroom. Globe is shaped exactly like the earth-like a ball or sphere.

Question 6.
What do you mean by political map?
Answer:
Political map gives information about country, state, country boundaries etc.

Question 7.
What is sketch?
Answer:
A sketch is a rough drawing based on memory and spot observation and not to scale.

Question 8.
What is a plan?
Answer:
A drawing of a small area on a large scale is called a plan.

Answer the following questions briefly: (3 mark each)

Question 1.
Why are maps more useful than a globe?
Or
what are the advantages of maps?
Answer:

  • The whole earth cannot be studied at a time from a globe.
  • Globes do not show a large number of details, which can be shown on maps.
  • Distance cannot be measured on a globe because it is a curved surface.
  • A comparative study of two areas is not possible on a globe.
  • Maps can easily be handled.
  • Maps can easily be incorporated in books or bound in Atlases.
  • Maps can be drawn to any scale.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

Question 2.
Define the term ‘scale’.
Answer:
Scale is a map-land ratio. Map distance and ground distance always bear a ratio. Scale is a ratio in which distance between two points on a map bears the actual distance between the corresponding (same) points on the ground.

Question 3.
What is the necessity of ‘scale’?
Answer:

  • Scale is the most important and essential thing of a map. Without a scale, we have only a sketch or a diagram and not a geographic map.
  • It is necessary to draw a scale to show the relative position of different places on the map.
  • Every map has a definite ratio to the Earth. It is not possible to make the map of the same size because 25,000 miles or 40,000 km of paper will be required to draw the equator.
  • Maps are generally reduced in size. They are said to be drawn to scale. Thus, scale is a necessity in drawing a map.

Question 4.
Distinguish between a map and a plan.
Answer:
Plans are drawn on large scale. Plan shows details of a small area. It is true to scale and shows correct direction. Whereas a map is drawn on a small scale. It shows important features of a large area. A map shows continents or countries, while a plan is used for showing buildings, schools, play grounds etc.

Question 5.
Which map provides detail information?
Answer:
Large scale maps are larger in size. Small areas are shown on large maps. The scale is generally 6: 1 mile. These show man made and natural features with the help of symbols.

Identify the correct answers (MCQ): (1 mark each)

Question 1.
An accurate representation of the earth as a whole is made by……..
a. a map
b. a globe
c. a plan
d. a sketch
Answer:
b. a globe

Question 2.
The drawing of the whole or part of the earth’s surface on a sheet of paper is called a ……..
a. globe
b. sketch
c. painting
d. map
Answer:
d. map

Question 3.
Maps showing different states and countries of the world with their boundaries are called ……..
a. Physical Map
b. Relief Map
c. Political Map
d. Thematic Map
Answer:
c. Political Map

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

Question 4.
Which of the following is not drawn to scale?
a. a sketch
b. a plan
c. a map
d. a globe
Answer:
a. a sketch

Question 5.
The Latin word ‘mappa’ means ……………
a. cloth or napkin
b. book or paper weight
c. pencil or scale
d. paper or ink
Answer:
a. cloth or napkin

Question 6.
The science of map making is called ……………..
a. Geography
b. Cartography
c. Oceanography
d. Calligraphy
Answer:
b. Cartography

Fill in the blanks with the correct words: (1 mark each)

1. A …………. is a person who draws maps.
Answer: Cartographer

2. The map projection that is chiefly used for maps of the world, was first made in 1569 by a Dutchman called………….
Answer: Gerardus Mercator

3. If the north line is not shown, north is usually is the …………. of the map.
Answer: Top

4. …………. scale maps show the countries of the world.
Answer: Small

5. The blue colour is used in map for showing ………….
Answer: water bodies

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

6. A …………. is an approximate representation of the earth.
Answer: globe

If the sentence is true, write ‘T’ and if false write ‘F’ against the following. (1 mark each)

1. Distances are measured from a map using the scale of the map.
Answer: True

2. Plans are drawn on a smaller scale than maps.
Answer: False

3. Maps of the world are more accurate than globes.
Answer: False

4. Maps are more commonly used than globes.
Answer: True

5. An ‘Atlas’ is a book that contains maps of different parts of the world.
Answer: True

6. A sketch is always drawn with the help of a scale.
Answer: False

7. The science of map making is called topography.
Answer: False

8. The bottom of the map is taken as the west.
Answer False

9. A small-scale map represents small areas of the earth.
Answer: False

10. The larger area covered by a map, may distorted also.
Answer: True

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

11. The meaning of the symbols used on a map is called legend.
Answer: True

Maps Class 9 WBBSE Notes

Map : A map is a representation or a drawing of the earth’s surface or a part of it drawn on a flat surface according to scale.

Types of Map : Maps are of various types. Some of them are the following

  • Physical Maps-These maps focus on natural features of the earth such as mountains, plateaus, plains, oceans, forest, rivers etc.
  • Political Maps-Maps focusing on villages, towns and cities and different countries and states of the world with their boundaries are known as political maps.
  • Thematic Maps-Thematic maps are of various types such as road maps, rainfall maps, maps showing distribution of forests, industries etc. These maps focus on some specific information.

Components of Maps : Distance, direction and symbol scale, are the three components of maps.

Scale of Maps : On most maps, everything is shrunk, or scaled down. To understand a map. There are three common types of scales-

  • Verbal statement,
  • Linear scale and
  • Representative Fraction (R. F.).

Maps according to scale : Small scale Map and Large Scale Map.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps 3

Introduction: The Earth is a sphere, rather like a ball, but flattened at the poles. The most accurate model of the Earth is a globe. However, the earliest maps were drawn on flat surfaces because people then thought that the earth was flat, with sides and corners.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

The word ‘map’ comes from the Latin word ‘mappa’ meaning cloth as many of the earliest maps were drawn on skins, parchment and cloth. The globes are not so easy to carry. Moreover, landforms, roads, railways, towns and villages etc. cannot be properly drawn.

Definition of Map :

A map is a flat, symbolic representation of the earth or a part of the earth’s surface according to the scale. Maps represent the whole or part of the earth’s surface on flat surface according to the scale. As it is quite impossible to flatten a round shape completely, so the northern and southern portions of the earth are stretched which results in distortion in representing large areas on maps.

Therefore, maps do not represent the earth’s surface as accurately as globes but they cannot replace maps, because maps show selected features such as landforms, railways, roadways, etc., clearly. Moreover, a map is a pictorial representation of a small or big area on a plane surface.

Advantages of Maps :

Maps have special advantages of their own. Advantages of maps are-

  • They can be carried and handled easily.
  • Such features as landforms, roads, railways, towns and villages, etc. can better be shown on maps as compared to a globe.
  • A map is a pictorial representation of a small or big area on a plane “surface”.
  • Only a map is an accurate representation or a drawing of the earth’s surface or a part of it.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

Types of maps : There are several types of maps.

1. Political Maps : Maps showing different states and countries of the world with their boundaries are called Political Maps.
WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps 4

2. Physical Maps : Maps showing mountains, plains, plateaus, rivers and oceans etc., are called Physical Maps.
WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps 5

3. Thematic Mans Maps showing selected features of an area such as weather conditions, density of population, vegetation, roads and railways, etc., are called Thematic Maps.
WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps 6

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

Facts about Map:

The word ‘Map’ has come from the Latin word mappa meaning cloth as many of the earliest maps were drawn on skins, parchment and cloth. The most ancient map of earth was discovered in Babylon. This map was drawn on a terracotta plaque in 5th century BCE.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps 10

The most famous ancient maps of the world were made in the second century A.D. by the Greek scholar, Claudius Ptolemy. He based his drawings on mathematical calculations, along with information provided by sailors and explorers. In the 16th century (1578) geographer Mercator published the first book on maps. He titled it ‘Atlas’ after the Greek God ‘Atlas’. In present times too, a book of various maps is known as ‘Atlas’.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps 11
Globe and Map are keys in learning geography. Even though the globe is a small model of the earth, it is not possible to get much information about any country or continent and it is difficult to carry a globe to all places. An easier way to get information about the earth is the map. But it is difficult to draw a curved surface or round earth on a flat surface of a paper.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

Maps represent the whole or part of the earth’s surface on a flat surface according to the scale.

1. The science of map-making is called cartography. A map projection is the way in which cartographers show the curved surface of the earth on a flat map. One of the projection we see very often is that mode in 1569 by the Dutchman Gerardus Mercator.

However, it is impossible to draw a round earth on a flat surface. Reproducing the spherical surface on a flat piece of paper is a major challenge for cartographers. Every map has some distortion. A map can retain either the correct size of the countries or the correct shapes of very small areas, but not both at the same time. The larger area covered by a map may distorted also.

Basic Elements of a Map

The five basic parts or elements of a map which form important sources of information are the title, directions, scale, legend and grid system.

1. Title : All maps should have a title which tells the reader what the map is about.
Example : Physical map of India.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps 12

2. Direction :
Most maps show direction with an arrow that points to the direction of the north called a north line. Directions are always measured from North. The four directions such as North, South, East, West are called Cardinal directions.

They are shown on the maps by arrows with letters N,S,E,W etc. Generally the top of the map shows the North. Besides these, we also have intermediate directions such as North-East, North-West, South-East and South-West which is indicated by the north-south line on the map. If the north line is not shown, we presume that north is in the top of the map.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

3. Scale: Maps represent the part of the earth’s surface according to the scale which represents the ratio or proportion between the distances on the map and the actual distances on the ground. The scale of a map may be indicated by a simple statement method such as 1 Centimetre to 1 Kilometre. The scale may be shown by a straight line, This is called the linear scale.

Another method of representing a scale on a map is by a Representation Fraction, e.g. 1 : 10,00,000 or \(\frac{1}{10,00,000}\) which means 1cm on a map indicates 10,00,000cm on the ground.

4. Conventional signs or symbols or Legend :
Conventional signs or symbols in different colours are used to indicate a lot of information about physical and cultural features of the area. The use of symbols makes the map clearer and easier to read. Sometimes, colours are also used to show certain physical features in Atlas Maps. It is called Layer colouring Method.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps 13

5. Grid System : A grid is a set of lines used to find the exact locations of places on a map. Most maps use the latitude and longitude system, called the geographic grid to find places. Some signs and symbols are used when we draw a big area in a small space in the map.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

Small Scale Map : Maps that represent large regions or areas (e.g. Earth, Continents and Countries) of the earth are called small scale maps. An atlas is an example of a small scale map as it shows large areas like continents and countries. Here 1cm in the map distance =250km on the ground distance. One does not get much information from a small scale map.

Large scale map : Maps which show small regions or areas (village or city maps) are called large scale maps. Here 1cm in the map distance = 2km on the ground distance. One gets detailed information from a large scale map.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 6 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Chapter 1 Question Answer – The Universe and The Solar System

Objective Type Questions :

Question 1.
In which unit the distances of universe are measured?
Answer:
Light year

Question 2.
What is the speed of light ?
Answer:
1,86,000 miles or 3,00,000 km per second

Question 3.
Which planet is known as ‘blue planet’?
Answer:
Earth

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 4.
Which planet is known as ‘red planet’?
Answer:
Mars

Question 5.
Which is the brightest plaent?
Answer:
Venus

Question 6.
Which planet has the largest number of satellites?
Answer:
Jupiter

Question 7.
Which planet has only one satellite?
Answer:
Earth

Question 8.
Name the largest satellite of the Solar System.
Answer:
Titan

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 9.
Name the planets between the Sun and the Earth.
Answer:
Mercury and Venus

Question 10.
What is the smallest planet in the Solar System?
Answer:
Mercury

Question 11.
Name the planet closest to the Sun.
Answer:
Mercury

Question 12.
Name the planet farthest from the Sun.
Answer:
Neptune

Question 13.
What is the position of the Earth from the Sun?
Answer:
Third

Question 14.
Name the first astronaut who landed on the Moon.
Answer:
Neil Armstrong

Question 15.
Which planet is known as Earth’s twin?
Answer:
Venus

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 16.
How many planets are there in the Solar System ?
Answer:
Eight

Question 17.
Name the largest planet of the Solar System.
Answer:
Jupiter

Question 18.
How much time does a ray of sunlight take to reach the Earth?
Answer:
About 8 minutes

Question 19.
How much time does a ray of moonlight take to reach the Earth ?
Answer:
About one second

Question 20.
Which planets have no satellites?
Answer:
Mecury, Venus

Question 21.
Which planet has three rings round it?
Answer:
Saturn

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 22.
What is the distance between the Sun and the Earth?
Answer:
150 million km

Question 23.
Which star is known as ‘Evening Star’ or ‘Morning Star’?
Answer:
Venus

Question 24.
What is the direction of rotation of Venus planet?
Answer:
From East to West

Question 25.
Name the two satellites of Mars.
Answer:
Deimos and Phobos

Question 26.
Name two Indian astronauts who went into space.
Answer:
Rakesh Sharma and Kalpana Chawla

Question 27.
How many satellites are there in Solar System?
Answer:
About 100

Question 28.
How many stars are there in our Galaxy ?
Answer:
About 1,00,000 million stars

Question 29.
Which is the centre of the Solar System – Sun or Earth ?
Answer:
Sun

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 30.
State the significances of atmosphere.
Answer:
It acts as a Protective Blanket around the Earth

Question 31.
What is meant by Hydrosphere?
Answer:
The layer of water on the surface of the Earth is called the Hydrosphere.

Question 32.
What is the period of rotation of Moon?
Answer:
27 days 7 hours 43 minutes

Question 33.
Why is Mars an object of great interest amongst planets nowadays ?
Answer:
Due to possibility of life on it

Question 34.
What is the Red Spot?
Answer:
Red soil on the mars containing iron, silica, titanium.

Question 35.
Which planet is tilted at an angle of 98° ?
Answer:
Urenus

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 36.
Name the planet whose polar caps show seasonal changes.
Answer:
Mars

Question 37.
With which planet do you associate the Great Red Spot?
Answer:
Jupiter

Question 38.
Name one gas found in the upper layer of the cloud of this planet.
Answer:
Ammonia and Methane

Question 39.
Which two planets are our closest celestial neighbours?
Answer:
Venus and Mars

Question 40.
The yellow face of the Sun is called-
Answer:
Photosphere

Question 41.
The outer layer of the Sun is called-
Answer:
Corona

Question 42.
The Sun moves faster at its equator than at its poles. At equator the rotation takes about-
Answer:
30 days

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 43.
Light year is the unit of-
Answer:
Distance

Question 44.
Which planet is said to be cruel according to Indian astrology ?
Answer:
Saturn

Question 45.
Which planet shows the same face towards Sun ?
Answer:
Mercury

Question 46.
The Moon’s orbit is inclined to the Earth’s orbit at an angle of about-
Answer:
5 degree

Question 47.
From new Moon to full Moon, more and more of the Moon’s illuminated half faces the Earth and the Moon is said to be-
Answer:
Waxing

Question 48.
From full Moon to new Moon, less and less of the Moon’s illuminated half faces the Earth, so it is said to be-
Answer:
Waning

Question 49.
Which unmanned spacecraft landed on Mars in 1976 ?
Answer:
Viking-1

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 50.
Which two poisonous gases are found on Jupiter ?
Answer:
Ammonia and Methane

Question 51.
Who discovered the Uranus planet?
Answer:
Sir William Herschel

Question 52.
What is the average temperature of the Earth?
Answer:
17°C

Question 53.
Planet is like a greenhouse.
Answer:
Venus

Question 54.
Planet spins on its axis from east to west.
Answer:
Venus

Question 55.
The planet which has the shortest day?
Answer:
Jupiter

Question 56.
The Halley’s Comet is seen from the earth after every-
Answer:
76 years

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 57.
Name of the largest planetoid is-
Answer:
Ceres

Question 58.
Celestial body which radiats heat and light-
Answer:
Star

Question 59.
The planet having the longest orbit around the Sun is-
Answer:
Neptune

Question 60.
The natural science that deals with the study of celestial objects is-
Answer:
Astronomy

Question 61.
The theory that explains the expanse of the universe is-
Answer:
Big Bang Theory.

Define the following briefly : 2 mark each

Question 1.
What is an orbit ?
Answer:
Orbit is the fixed path along which the planets revolve round the Sun.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 2.
What are Sunspots ?
Answer:
The dark patches or black spots on the bright surface of the Sun are known as Sunspots.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Asteroids?
Answer:
Millions of tiny planets made of cosmic fragments found in the wide gap between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter are known as Asteroids.

Question 4.
What are Comets ?
Answer:
Comets are heavenly bodies, with a head and a tail, formed by condensation of small particles of gas and rock fragments.

Question 5.
What are Meteors ?
Answer:
Meteors are small fragments of metallic rock scattered in the Solar System. Meteors burn when they enter the Earth’s atmosphere and are called ‘Shooting Stars’.

Question 6.
What do you understand by “Meteorites”?
Answer:
The unconsumed parts of the Meteors which reach the earth’s surface are known as Meteorites.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 7.
What is universe ?
Answer:
Universe is a vast, infinite, heavenly space which comprises all the heavenly bodies, the Sun, the planets and several galaxies of stars.

Question 8.
What is a light year ?
Answer:
A light year is the distance which a ray of light would cover in a year’s time (About 9.5 Trillion kilometre).

Question 9.
What is Galaxy ?
Answer:
A Galaxy is a group of millions of shining stars scattered regularly in space. It is also known as the Milky Way or Akash Ganga.

Question 10.
What are the satellites?
Answer:
Satellites are small spherical bodies which revolve around a particular planet.

Question 11.
What is new Moon?
Answer:
When the Moon shows its dark side to the Earth.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 12.
What is full Moon ?
Answer:
When the Moon shows full face to the Earth.

Question 13.
What is Astronomy?
Answer:
It is the study of positions and motions of heavenly bodies.

Question 14.
What are shooting stars?
Answer:
When a meteor enters the Earth’s atmosphere, it burns and is called a shooting star.

Question 15.
What is cosmology ? known as cosmology.
Answer:
The study of Solar System is known as cosmology.

Identify the correct answers (MCQ) : 1 mark each

Question 1.
Which planet shows the same face towards the Sun
(a) Earth
(b) Neptune
(c) Venus
(d) Mercury
Answer:
(c) Venus

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 2.
Which planet experiences all the season as of earth
(a) Saturn
(b) Uranus
(c) Mars
(d) Pluto
Answer:
(c) Mars

Question 3.
In Indian astrology, which one is cruel planet
(a) Mars
(b) Saturn
(c) Venus
(d) Uranus
Answer:
(b) Saturn

Question 4.
Which of the following is the cold planet
(a) Uranus
(b) Mars
(c) Venus
(d) Jupiter
Answer:
(d) Jupiter

Question 5.
Phobos and Demos are the satellite of
(a) Venus
(b) Neptune
(c) Mars
(d) Saturn
Answer:
(c) Mars

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 6.
The age of the universe is about
(a) 10 billion
(b) 15 billion
(c) 20 billion
(d) 18 billion
Answer:
(b) 15 billion

Question 7.
The word nebula is Latin means
(a) rain
(b) clouds
(c) frost
(d) drizzle
Answer:
(b) clouds

Question 8.
The word planasthai in Greek means
(a) to return
(b) to come
(c) to wander
(d) to see
Answer:
(c) to wander

Question 9.
The word Solaris in Latin means
(a) Planet
(b) Sun
(c) Star
(d) Moon
Answer:
(b) Sun

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 10.
Which planet experiences all the season as of earth
(a) Saturn
(b) Uranus
(c) Mars
(d) Jupiter
Answer:
(c) Mars

Question 11.
What position earth occupies in size from Sun
(a) 2nd
(b) 5 th
(c) 7 th
(d) 4 th
Answer:
(b) 5 th

Question 12.
Which two planets are nearly alike in size
(a) Neptune and Uranus
(b) Mercury and Venus
(c) Mars and Pluto
(d) Mercury and Mars
Answer:
(a) Neptune and Uranus

Question 13.
Which planets are called the ‘big four’?
(a) Jupiter, Saturn, Earth and Mars
(b) Jupiter, Uranus, Pluto and Earth
(c) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune
(d) Saturn, Uranus, Neptune and Earth
Answer:
(c) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 14.
Which two planets are called twin planets ?
(a) Venus and Earth
(b) Mercury and Venus
(c) Earth and Mars
(d) Pluto and Neptune
Answer:
(a) Venus and Earth

Question 15.
Halley’s Comet reappears after about
(a) 56 years
(b) 76 years
(c) 96 years
(d) 106 years
Answer:
(b) 76 years

Question 16.
Name the planet of which the orbit is very eccentric ?
(a) Neptune
(b) Pluto
(c) Uranus
(d) Saturn
Answer:
(b) Pluto

Fill in the blanks with correct words : 1 mark each

1. Heavenly bodies which radiates heat and light are called ____.
Answer:
Stars

2. The Earth is located at the _____ position from the Sun.
Answer:
Third

3. The Sun is about _____ million km. away from the Earth.
Answer:
150

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

4. Uranus completes one revolution in _____ years.
Answer:
84 years

5. The milky way is barred _____ shaped galaxy.
Answer:
Spiral

6 . _____ is called the ‘red planet’.
Answer:
Mars

7. The Moon has about _____ th the gravity of the Earth.
Answer:
1 / 6

8. The speed of the Moon’s revolution is about _____ km / hr.
Answer:
3,683

9. _____ was the first man to orbit around the Earth.
Answer:
Col. Yuri Gagarin

10. _____ became the first man to walk on the Moon.
Answer:
Neil Armstrong.

If the sentence is true, write ‘T’ and if false write ‘F’ against the followings : 1 mark each

1. Planets move around the Sun in circular orbits.
Answer: False

2. Satellites are smaller than the planets.
Answer: True

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

3. Saturn is the largest planet in the solar system.
Answer: False

4. The Moon reflects light from the Earth.
Answer: False

5. The Earth appears as a blue planet from space.
Answer: True

6. Rakesh Sharma was the first Indian to fly into space.
Answer: True

7. Kalpana Chawla was the first Indian woman in space.
Answer: True

8. Meteors are popularly known as ‘shooting stars’.
Answer: True

9. An asteroid is a tiny planet revolving around the Earth.
Answer: False

10. Uranus is the largest planet in the Solar System.
Answer: False

The Universe and The Solar System Class 6 WBBSE Notes

Earth : A unique planet. The Earth is a unique planet (Watery planet or Blue planet) because it is the only planet on which life exists.

The Universe : The science of Cosmology and Astronomy and solar system.

The Solar system : Solar system consists of the sun, planets, satellites, comets, asteroids and meteors. The Sun is the centre of the solar system. The sun is a vast hot gaseous mass. The distance between the Sun and the Earth is about 150 million kilometres. Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune are eight planets. The gravitational force of the Sun keeps the planets in their orbits.

Life on Planets : The Earth is a unique planet because life exists only on this planet. Other planets have no atmospheres. There is a possibility of life on Mars.

Other Heavenly bodies : There are about 100 satellites revolving around different planets. The Earth has one satellite-Moon. Neil Armstrong, an American Astronaut was the first man to land on Moon on 21st July 1969. Comets are heavenly bodies with a head and a tail. Halley’s comet is visible on Earth after a period of 76 years.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Introduction :

A star-studded sky on a cloudless night is a facinating sight. It is very wonderful to watch the sky after the sunset. One would first see one or two bright dots shining in the sky. Soon you would notice the number of shining dots increasing. Then you cannot count them any more. The whole sky is filled with tiny shining objects – some of them are bright and others are dim. It seems as if the sky is studded with diamonds. That is why “Twinkle, twinkle, little star” is a significant line of a nursery rhyme. All objects that pertain in the sky are called celestial bodies. The Sun, the Moon and millions of shining objects in the sky are also celestial bodies. Sometimes celestial bodies are called heavenly bodies. Stars, planets, comets, meteors, meteorites, asteroids are all celestial bodies. The stars in this infinite space or sky cling together in groups. Each large group is called the galaxy.

The Universe :

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 1

Definition : The Universe can be defined as everything that exists, everything that has existed, and everything that will exist. The Universe is all of space and time (space time) and its contents, which includes planets, moons, minor planets, stars, galaxies, the contents of intergalactic space and all matter and energy. The size of the entire Universe is still unknown.

Etymology : The word ‘Universe’ derives from the Old French word ‘univers’, which in turn derives from the Latin word ‘Universum’. The latin word was used by Cicero and later Latin authors in many of the same senses as the modern English word is used.

How vast is the Universe? : The Universe is indeed very vast in size and infinite space having millions of galaxies and heavenly bodies. The vastness of the Universe cannot be easily imagined, in view of great distances involved. Distances between heavenly bodies cannot be expressed in units like kilometre or mile which are used for measuring this Universe. A light year is the unit adopted for measuring distances in the Universe. The Star nearest to the Sun is Proxima Centauri. It takes about four years for light to travel the distance between Proxima Centauri and the Earth. Then it is very difficult to imagine how big the Universe is ! Scientists are still trying to find out more and more and more about it. We are not certain about its size, but we know that all of us-you, I belong to this Universe.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

How did the Universe originate?

The Universe consists of all things that exist planets, stars and galaxies. The origin of this Universe has its root in the “Big Bang Theory”, Most astronomers beliese that the Univetse came into existerce about 15 billion years ago in a gigantic explosion celled the Bia Bang. Acconding to this theory, about 15 billici years ago all of the matter and energy of space wes concentrated at one point. Thus there was a tremendous explosion.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 2

This explosion is lanown as the Big Beng in present drys. Small atoms formed within mirnutes of the explosion and the process of creation was started. All of the matter and energy, even the space itself, which were compressed into an infinitely small volume, then began to expand at an incredible rate. Within two to three minute, the whole thing that grown to the size of the solar system. In course of time it cooled enough to form Hydrogen and small amount of Helium gas. The Bia Beng modet states that the exrliest state of the Universe was extremely hot and dense and that it suberquently expanded.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 3

The initial hot, dense state is celled the Planck epoch, a brief period extending from time seto to one planck time unit. During the Planck epoch, all types of matter and all types of energy were concentrated into a dense state, where gravitation is belisved to have been er strong es the other fundamental foroes, and all the forces may have been unified. During the bilions of years that followed, immense heat and huge energy together with the gases and coemic clouds fomed the so called Universe. The golaxy was created by this Big Bang process and from them the sters, the planets and other cosmic objects wete formed or we see it today. The expansion of unikerse is still continuing.

Age of this Universe : The gigantic explosion is called the “Big Bang” which cccured 15 billion years ago. The age of the Univetse is thus considered about 15 billion years starting from the Big Bang episode. The current estimate of the age of the Universe is about 13 billion years.

The Celestial Bodies  :
Definition : All objects that belongs to the sky are called celestial bodies. The Sun, the Moon and millions of shining objects in the clear night sky are also celestial bodies. Sometimes celestial bodies are called heavenly bodies. Stars, planets, comets, meteors, meteorites, asteroids are all celestial bodies. Some celestial bodies have their own heat and light and are called stars. Some heavenly bodies do not have their own heat and light. They receive the light from the stars. These are called planets, clusters of millions of stars in the Universe are called Galaxies.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Galaxy :
Definition : A large group of stars, dust and light gases bound together by their own gravity is called a galaxy. It is a flattened system of different shapes and sizes. Several galaxies make up the Universe. There are 10″ galaxies in the Universe. Our Solar System is a part of the Universe which consists of clusters of millions of stars. These are called galaxies.
Earth’s Galaxy : Earth’s galaxy is called the Milky Way or Akash Ganga. The Milky way is a large spiral-shaped galaxy. It spans about 100,000 light years across and is about 10,000 light years thick at the centre.

Why its name Milky Way?

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 4

Earth’s Galaxy is called the Milky Way because it appears as a soft glowing light of billions of stars so far away that they cannot be seen individually. With his telescope, Galileo discovered this band of light was produced by countless individual stars which the naked eye cannot resolve.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Nebula :
Terminology : The word ‘nebula’ is derived from the Latin word for ‘Clouds’.
Definition : A nebula is the cloudy luminous patch of gas (cosmic cloud), made up of dust, hydrogen, helium gas, whirling around the centre of an eddy in the space. More than one nebula is called nebulae.
Formation : Scientists think the Nebulae are the hot gaseous form of matter. When the Nabulae cool, the stars are born.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 5
Hubble, Wyse and Mayall have found new facts about the nebulae after making special studies.
Types : The Nabulae belong to two types-(i) Galactic Nebulae and (ii) Extra Galactic Nebulae.

(i) Galactic Nebulae : These nebulae exist within our Milky Way. Their sizes are thousands times larger than our solar system.
(ii) Extra-galactic Nabulae: These nebulae are situated away from our Milky Way. They have a definite and similar shape. Some are spiral nebulae.

How the Sun, the solar system were formed?

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 6
About 4.6 billion years ago the Solar System was just a spinning disc of dust and gas. These gases, mainly hydrogen and partly helium, together with dust in space created a cosmic cloud. This cloud then got disturbed by various cosmic factors and thus squeezed. Gradual cooling caused gradual contraction in the size.

The disc gradually formed a nebula called solar nebula. The more the size of the nebula continued to decrease, the more the velocity of rotatory motion continued to increase. Thus, the nebula started spinning at a faster speed and consequently centrifugal force became so great that it exceeded the centripetal force. The outer layer of the disc, the matters became thinner and fragmented. The particles, either began to stick together or collided with others to form clumps. They began to revolve around the centre of the so called concentrated mass (new born Sun) due to its central gravitational pull.

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The central part of the nebula which remained behind became the Sun and originate nine rings and thus nine planets have been formed. Some rings also separated from the gaseous mass of the planets and revolved round them as sub-planets. The remaining part of the original gaseous mass became the Sun. These planets and sub-planets along with the Sun are known as Solar System or Solar Family. However, in our own Solar System the members may be grouped into the following six categories :

  • Stars
  • Planets
  • Satellites
  • Comets
  • Meteores
  • Asteroids.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Stars :

Definition : Some celestial bodies in the Universe are very huge and hot. They are made up of various gases. They have their own heat and light, which they emit in large amounts. These celestial bodies are called stars. The Sun is also a star. The Sun is the nearest star to the Earth. It is about 14.70 crore kilometre away from the Earth. The light of the Sun takes eight minute and twenty second to reach the earth.

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Physical Properties : Stars are self luminous bodies. It means they have their own heat and light. Stars are made up of hot gases giving out flames. They are usually very big in size but they are very far away from our earth. That is why they look very small. There are millions of stars in this limitless sky.

Why stars seems twinkling to us ?
The light from the stars passes through different layers of the atmosphere with varying densities. As a result, stars seem twinkling to us.

Second nearest star : Next to the Sun, the second nearest star is the Proxima Centauri or Alpha Centauri. It lies at a distance of about 4.25 light years from the earth. It was discovered in 1913. The mass of this star is 0.1 times than that of the Sun.

Sources of heat and light : Stars are intensely hot, glowing masses which produce massive energy. Hydrogen is the primary elements of building block of stars. The main source of the heat of a star is due to the conversion of Hydrogen gas into Helium gas. This heat is the primary source of self-illumination or shining of the stars.

Number of visible stars : There are 1022 stars in the Universe. It has been estimated that about 8000 stars visible from the Earth by the naked eye. Out of this, 4000 stars are visible in the Northern Hemisphere and 4000 in the Southern Hemisphere. In either hemisphere, 2000 stars are visible at any given time. The other 2000 stars are located in the day time sky and are not visible due to the brightness of the Sun.
Constellations : While watching the clear night sky, you may notice various

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patterns formed by different groups of stars. These are called constellations. These constellations were named in honour of mythological characters. They hardly bear resemblence to names they are given. Today, 88 constellations are recognised.

Ursa Major or Great Bear is visible throughout the year in the northern sky in most of the Northern Hemisphere. The seven brightest stars of Ursa Major form a pattern known as the Big-Dipper in USA, the Plough in U.K. and Saptarshi in India. It’s name means ‘the great bear’. Orion, the hunter, is one of the most beautiful of all constellations. It is seen in the south-southwestern sky. In Bengal it is known as Kalpurush.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

The Sun :
Definition : The Sun is a medium size star situated at the centre of a huge rotating solar system consisting of nine planets (now eight planets except Pluto), their satellites and numerous small bodies known as asteroids. Its gravitational pull holds the other members in orbit and governs their motion.

Shape, size and colour : The shape of the Sun is perfectly spherical or round. Although it is slightly less than average sized star. Like all stars it is a ball of hot glowing gaseous body in the sky. The Sun is 13 lakh times bigger than our earth. It has a radius of about 700,000 km. The Sun is gaseous and not solid like the Earth. It looks big and bright because it is comparatively nearer to us or Earth. It is yellowish in colour and is of medium shape and size among the stars. Astronomers describe it as ‘a yellow dwarf’.

Weight and Volume : Though Sun is made up of hot gases i.e., very light substances it will still weight over 750 times more than all the planets put together. In volume Sun is so big that a million earths would fit into it. It is 1.3 billion (1 billion = 1000000000) times the volume of the Earth.

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Temperature : We get heat and light from the Sun. The surface temperature of the Sun is about 6000° C. In the core of the Sun, the temperatue is estimated to be about 20,000,000°C. Such extremely high temperatures are produced by the conversion of hydrogen into helium by the process of fusion. Heat is generated by this process and the Sun radiates energy in the form of electro-magnetic radiation. Solar prominences rise like huge flames hundreds of kilometer from the Sun’s surface.

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Time takes for light : The Sun is about 150 million (1 million = 10,00000) km away from the Earth. Light, which travels at the speed of 3,00,000 km per second, takes about 8.5 minutes to reach the Earth from the Sun.

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Layers of the Sun : From centre to the surface of the Sun, there are four distinctive layers; they are-

(a) Core : Interior core of the Sun, consist of hydrogen and helium gases with a temperature is called Solar core. The temperature at the core or centre of the Sun is around 1.4 million °C.

(b) Photosphere: The visible yellow face around the core of the Sun is called the photosphere or the sphere of light where, the temperature is about 6000° C. The rays and heat radiate from it.

(c) Chromosphere : Surrounding the photosphere is Chromosphere (temperature 32,400°C) which is pink or reddish in colour. The flames of the chromosphere go up thousands of kilometre and are called Prominences.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

(d) Corona : It is the uppermost layer of the Sun. It is visible to unaided eyes only during solar eclipses. Temperature of the Corona is about 2,700,000° C, hot enough to emit X-rays.
Density of Gas : The density of the gas in each layer decreases with the increasing altitude, just as the earth’s atmosphere thins with height. The corona, accordingly, is the least dense of the Sun’s layer.

Planets :
Definition : Some celestial bodies are made up of solid material. Since they not made of burning gases they do not have heat and light of their own. They only reflect the light which they receive from a star. Such celestial bodies are called planets. The Sun is a star and our Earth is also a planet which receives its light and heat from the Sun (star).

Etymology : The word ‘planet’ comes from the Greek word ‘planetai’ which means ‘wanderers’ as they seemed to move about or wander in the sky. All planets are revolving around the Sun in their respective elliptical orbits. Time taken for a complete revolution in each case is fixed.
Revolution speed of planets : All planets revolve the Sun in ellipse-like orbits. Their average speed including Pluto is 22.7 km per second. The planets closer to the Sun move faster than those which are more distant from it.

A Rotation of planets : Each planet rotates at different speed about their respective axis. All except Venus rotates in an anti-clockwise direction. It is really surprising that Venus rotates in a clockwise direction. To every one’s astonishment Venus sees the Sun rising in the West.

Smallest and closest planet : Mercury is the smallest planet in the Solar System and closest planet to the Sun.

  • A Earth’s position : In terms of distant from the Sun, the Earth’s position is third.
  • Largest planet : Jupiter is the largest planet in the solar system.
  • Brightest planet : Venus is the brightest planet in the solar system.
  • Number of planets : Our solar system is made up of eight planets. In order of their distance from the Sun, these are : Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune.

An easy way to memorise the name of the planets in order of their distance from the Sun is :
“My Very Efficient Mother Just Served Us Nuts”

Classification of planets : Almost all the planets fall into two groups :

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(a) Inner planets : Mercury, Venus, Mars and Earth are called the Inner planets. They are also known as terrestrial (earth like) planets.
(b) Outer planets : These lie beyond the orbit of Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune are the Outer planets.

There is another way of grouping the planets-
(a) Inferior planets : Mercury and Venus are called inferior planets because they lie closer to the Sun than the Earth.
(b) Superior planets: All the planets which have their orbits outside the Earth’s orbit are called superior planets.

Comparison of Stars and Planets :

Stars Planets
1. A star is made up of hot, burning gases. 1. Planets are made up of solid material like rocks and stones.
2. Stars emit light of their own. 2. They shine because of the light they reflect from the Sun.
3. Stars twinkle. 3. Planets do not twinkle.
4. Stars are very big. 4. Planets are very small as compared to the stars.
5. Stars are very hot. 5. Temperature of planets depends on its distance from the Sun.
6. There are millions of stars. 6. There are nine planets.
7. The Sun is an exmaple of a star. 7. The Earth revolves around the Sun. It is an example of a planet.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

The brief description of the planets of our Solar System is given below :

Inner Planets:

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1. Mercury: The Innermost planet : Mercury is the nearest planet to the Sun and smallest planet in the solar system. It is named after the messenger of the Roman Gods.

  • Distanc: Its distance is about 58 million km.
  • Diameter : Its diameter is 4878 km.
  • Max. and Min.

Temperature :
The maximum temperature of this planet is 430°C and minimum temperature at opposite side is – 180°C.

  • Rotational Period : 58 days.
  • Length of day : 58 days, 15 hrs 30 minutes
  • Length of year : 87.97 days.
  • Satellite : None.
  • Revolutionary Speed : It is the swiftest planet and completes one revolution in 88 days.

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Venus : The veiled planet : Venus is named after the Roman Goddess of love and beauty.

  • Distance from Sun : It is the second planet from the Sun and lies 107 million km distance from the Sun.
  • Size : It is like the Earth in size and mass and hence also known as the “Earth’s twin”.
  • Diameter : 12104 km.
  • Average surface temperature : It is the hottest planet in the Solar System and its average surface temperature is 450°C. It is the warmest planet.
  • Orbital period : 225 days.
  • Length of day : 243 days, 14 minutes.
  • Direction of rotation : It spins clockwise, opposite to that of Earth.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Earth : The Blue Planet : It is the largest of the inner planets. It is the fifth largest planet in the solar system and third in distance from the Sun. The Earth is known as the “Watery planet” or the “Blue planet”. It is the only known planet which has life on it.

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  • Distance from the Sun : 150 million km.
  • Average surface temperature of the Earth : 15°C or + 14°C
  • Length of day : 23 hrs, 56 minutes, 4 seconds.
  • Length of year : 364 days, 48 minutes, 46 seconds approximately 365.25 days.
  • Average speed of Revolution : 29 km. per second and direction of the revolution is anti-clockwise.
  • Satellite : One (moon).

Earth : The Blue, Watery Planet The “full Earth” was an unknown spectacle before the Apollo space flights. Such photographs of the Earthhave vastly increased our knowledge of weather patterns and climate. The Earth is called a waterly planet because 70% of its surface is covered with water. The Earth reflects about one third of the light that falls on it. The Earth’s atmosphere scatters the light and creates a predominantly blue planet.

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Mars : The Red Planet :
Mars is named after the Roman God of war. Its iron-rich red soil and pink sky give it the name ‘Red planet’. ‘

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  • Distance from the sun : 228 million km (1.5 times that of Earth).
  • Average surface temperature: -25° C,
  • Length of day : 24 hours, 37 minutes,
  • Length of year : 1 year and 321.73 days.
  • Satellites : 2 (Phobos and Deimos).
  • Size : Small (diameter less and 25km).
  • Discovered : In 1877.

Jupiter : The Giant Planet : Venus is named after the Roman Goddess of love and beauty. It is the largest planet of the Solar System. About 1300 Earthsized balls could fit within this enormous planet.

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Jupiter rotates faster than any other planet. This fast spin causes high winds. D

  • Average surface temperature : 150° C.
  • Length of day : 9 hours, 50 minutes.
  • Length of year : 11 ye ars and 315 days.
  • Distance from the sun : 778 million km.
  • Satellites : 63
  • Size : Diameter ranges from 3000 km to 5000 km.
  • Discovered : In 1610 by Galileo Galilei.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Saturn : The Jewel Planet : Saturn is named after Jupiter’s father in Roman mythology. It is the second largest planet and the most beautiful planet in the solar mainly because of its spectacular rings. Which are made up of ice and icecovered-dust particles. The other giant planets also have rings, but the saturn’s rings are brighest and most complex.

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  • Average surface temperature: -178°C
  • Length of Day : 10 hours, 41 minutes..
  • Length of year : 29 years and 167.25 days.
  • Distance from the Sun : 1,400 million km (9.6 times that of Earth)
  • Satellites : 18 known (22 or more expected).
  • Discovered : Between 1655 and 1684.

Uranus : A Planet on its side : Uranus is named after the Roman God of the sky. This planet is about 4 times the size of Earth. Its axis is fitted at 98°. Unlike the other planets that spin like tops as they circle the Sun. Uranus seems to be rolling along its orbit. It completes one revolution in 84 years. This planet appears greenish in colour because the methane gas present absorb the reddish colour from the sunlight.
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  • Average surface temperature: -213° C.
  • Length of day : 16 hours, 48 minutes. It spins on its side, clockwise, opposite to that of Earth.
  • Length of year : 84 years and 3.65 days.
  • Distance from the Sun : 2870 million km.
  • Satellites: 15.
  • Discovered : Between 1787 and 1948.

Neptune : The Last Giant : Neptune is named after the Roman God of the sea, the son of Saturn and brother of Jupiter. Neptune is very similar to Uranus and can be considered its twin.

  1. Average surface temperature: -214° C
  2. Length of day : 16 hours, 3 minutes.
  3. Length of year : 164 years and 288.54 days.
  4. Distance from the sun : 4,500 million km.
  5. Satellites : 8.
  6. Discovered : Between 1787 and 1948.

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Pluto : The Dwarf Planet : Once it considered to be the ninth planet in the Solar System. Pluto’s orbit is unusual. It is highly elongated and tilted at an angle of 17° as compared to the orbits of the rest of the planets and for these causes Pluto was declared to be a ‘Dwarf Planet’ by the astronomers in 2006. According to them, dwarf planets cannot repel a celestial body that intrudes into its orbit and it is another cause for termed as dwarf planet Pluto, even smaller than the Moon, completes one revolution in 248 years. It has one satellite, named Charon (son of Pluto). Pluto was discovered in 1978.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Comparative Details of planets

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Negative values of rotation period indicate that the planet rotates in opposite direction to that it revolves round the Sun.

Satellites :

Definition: The celestial bodies which rotate on their own axes and revolve round the planets are called satellites. The satellites revolve around the planets in the same way as the planets revolve around the Sun. Satellites shine by reflecting light from the Sun. These natural satellies are frequently referred as ‘Moon’ Humanmode satellite: They are artificial bodies. They are designed by scientists to gather information about universe.

Word Origin : The word satellite has its root in the Latin ‘Satelles’, which means ‘attendant’. The word ‘satellite’ means a follower and they follow the planets in their paths around the Sun. Planets and their satellites: Satellites are opaque bodies like the planets shining by reflected sunlight falling on them. All planet’s do not have satellites. As a result of recent space exploration the number of known satellites has increased. Saturn has the largest number of satellites, namely 20. It is now known that there are at least 57 satellites in the Solar System. Four satellites Ganymede and Callisto of Jupiter, Titan of Saturn and Triton of Naptune are larger than Mercury, the smallest planet. Most of the satellites are too small to hold an atmosphere around them. Titan, the largest satellite of saturn has an atmosphere around it.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

The Moon :

Moon, the only natural satellite of the Earth, is our nearest heavenly body being only 3,85,000 ~km away from the Earth. It is about 50 times smaller than the Earth.

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The diameter of the moon is about one-fourth the Earth’s diameter. The day temperature may be as high as 127° C and the temperature may drop down to -173° C just before the lunar dawn. Due to lack of atmosphere there is no weather, no clouds, no rain, no wind and no water on its surface.

The moon moves around the earth on an elliptical orbit at an average speed of about 3700 ~km per hour. It completes one revolution around the earth in 27 days. The time taken to complete one rotation in about 29 days.

Since moon takes almost the same time to rotate on its axis and complete one revolution, the same side of the Moon always faces the Earth. The Moon has about 1 / 6 th the gravity of the Earth. So if you weighted 100 kg on Earth you would weigh 16.6 kg on the Moon.

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Phases of the Moon : The Moon’s
appearance changes
as it moves around the Earth. These changing shapes, or the changes in the Moon’s visible shape are known as the phases of the Moon.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

1. New Moon : When the moon is between the Earth and the Sun, the part of the Moon facing the Earth is in complete darkness. This position is called the New Moon
2. Waxing Crescent: Three days after the New Moon, a thin illuminated surface of the Moon is visible from the Earth.
3. First Quarter: On the 7th day after the New Moon, the Moon looks like a luminous halfcircle.
4. Waxing Gibbous : On the 10 day after the New Moon, more than half, but less than full portion of the Moon is lighted.
5. Full Moon : On the 14th day after the New Moon, the Moon shows its full lighted surface. This face is the Full Moon.
6. Waning Gibbous : The 17th day after the New Moon is waning gibbous.
7. Last Quarter : On the 21st day after the New Moon, again the Moon looks like a luminous half circle. This phase is the Last Quarter.
8. Waning Crescent: On the 28th day after the first New Moon, once again the New Moon occurs. This circle is repeated every month. The period of time from one Full Moon or New Moon to the immediate next one is called a Lunar Month.

Eclipse : An eclipse is the darkening of a heavenly body when the shadow of one object in space falls on another object.

1. Lunar Eclipse : A lunar eclipse occurs when the earth (small object) is between the Sun (large light source) and the Moon, i.e., the Sun, Earth and Moon are in a straight line with the Earth in between the Sun and the Moon. The shadow of the Earth falls on the Moon.
2. Solar Eclipse : A solar eclipse occurs when the Sun Earth and Moon are in a straight line with the Moon positioned in between the Sun and the Earth. The shadow of the Moon is cast on the Earth.

Other Members of the Solar Family –

1. Asteroids : Definition : Thousands of small planetary bodies which revolve around the sun in big gap of about 550 million km. between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter are called asteroids. Asteroids are also called Planetoids or minor planets. Facts about Asteroids : They are rocky objects. This has come to be called the asteroid belt. So far more than 5000 asteroids have been identified and catalogued. They are irregular in shaped. Regardless of size and shape, all asteroids rotate on their axes every 5 to 20 hours. Mean period of their revolution is 4.5 years. The largest or biggest of the asteroids in Ceres, has a diameter of about 1000 km.

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Meteors and Meteorites :

Definition : When asteroids collide with one another, fragments of rock may break off. These pieces may find their way towards the Earth.

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Such objects are called meteors. Meteors are popularly known as ‘shooting stars’. Meteors are usually small and burn up before they can reach the earth’s surface. When meteors are large and do not burn up completely, they land on the earth’s surface and are known as meteorites. Sometimes a large meteorite strikes earth and make large holes, called Craters. Such a meteorite struck Siberia in Russia in 1908 . The most famous site is the Meteor Crater in Arizona of USA. The Crater is 1.2 km across and 170 metre deep.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Comets : Visitors of the Solar System –

Definition : Comets are bright objects with an elongated tail which have curved orbits around the Sun. As they have long orbits they appear at long intervals. Comets are heavenly bodies with a head and a tail. Word Origin : The word comet comes from the Latin word ‘Stella Cometa’ meaning ‘hairy star’.

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Orbit and movement : Comets move around the Sun in irregular orbits but their orbits are such elongated ellipse that it takes them hundreds and sometimes even thousands of years. Comets have been compared to large dirty snowballs.

The comet becomes visible only when it travels close to the sun. Example: The most famous comet is Halley’s Comet. Its orbital period averages 76 years. It was seen in 1910 and last sighted in 1986 . It is due to return in 2061 or 2062.

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What is coma? A comet is characterised by a long, luminous tail. But this is visible only when the comet’s orbit passes close to the Sun. When the comet travels close to the Sun, the ice melts to a head of gas called coma.

Space Venture or Journey to Sapce

During the years since world war II, a new science of space technology and astronautics has developed and the first successful man made earth satellite was Sputnik-I, launched by Russia on october 4, 1957.

For centuries man had hoped that one day he would set foot on the Moon. On 4th October, 1957, the Soviet spaceship Sputnik-1 had gone beyond the force of gravitation and moved round the Earth for 56 minutes at a height of 900 ~km. In the same year Russia had sent another spaceship, Sputnik-II, with a passenger dog named Laika. But unfortunately Sputnik-II was destroged in the space.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Advancement of Space and Moon Exploration –

1. Space exploration began with the launching of Russia’s Sputnik-1 into space on October 4, 1957.
2. Sputnik-2 followed a month later and carried with it a dog ‘Laika’.
3. The USA entered the space arena on January 31, 1958 with the launching of the Explorer-1.
4. In October 1959, the Russian satellite Luna- 3 sent pictures of the far side of the moon.
5. In 1959 Russian scientists had launched manless Lunik-1 and Lunik-2 directly towards the moon.

But Lunik-2 dashed against the Moon and was broken. At the end of the year Lunik-3 was launched successfully and it began to move around the Moon and televised the picture of the Moon’s opposite side.

6. First honours for space flight went to Russian Air Force Major Yuri Gagarin in 1961.
7. The first women cosmonaut, Valentina Tereshkova of Russia (now CIS) flew into space in June 1963 and stayed for about 3 days in the orbit.
8. Later Russian moon-ship Lunik-9 alighted in the Moon and had sending pictures to the Earth.
9. In 1966 and 1967 American Scientists had sent several spaceships with men and they came back with resourceful information about the Moon.
10. The man stepped on to the surface of the Moon for the first time on July 21,1969 at 8.26 a.m. as per Indian standard time. The rocket named Saturn was launched from the Cape Kennedy Space Centre at Florida, USA on July 16, 1969. A giant spacecraft, Appollo-II was fitted atop the Saturn. The Apollo-II carried Eagle, the lunar landing craft.

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Three astronauts, named Neil Armstrong, Michael Collins and Edwin Aldrin Jr. got into ApolloII. As the craft came near the Moon, the astronauts prepared to land. Michael Collins stayed in the spacecraft while the other two entered the lunar module Eagle. When everything was ready, the Eagle separated from space-craft and headed towards the Moon. As it reached the Sea of Tranquility – a vast dry plain or maria, the lunar module landed on its spidery legs. Then, the hatch of the Eagle was opened and Neil Armstrong stepped on to the Moon.

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Just after landing on the Moon Armstrong remarked with joy, ‘That’s one small step for a man, one giant leap for mankind’. After 30 minutes Aldrin came down from the Eagle to become the second man on the Moon.

Other Explorations

USSR sent up the unmanned Luna-16 (September 12, 1970) and Luna-17 (November 19, 1970). Luna-16 picked up Moon Soil samples and returned to the earth on September 24, 1970.

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India’s Space Research

ISRO (Indian Space Research Organization)the government institution that conducts and supervises space research in India. India’s first artificial satellite was Aryabhatta. Bhaskara-1, Bhaskara-2, INSAT, etc. are a few others satellites. The first Indian to travel successfully to space was Rakesh Sharma in 1984. The first Indian lunar vehicle from earth to land successfully on the moon was Chandrayana (2008).

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

India’s first Moon exploration by Chandrayaan-1 carried four Indian payloads and six foreign made science instruments, including the Moon Minerology Mapper (M3) which first detected water molecules on the surface of the Moon. ISRO’s (Indian Space Research Organisation’s) Chandrayaan-1 spacecraft, launched in October 2008. had experienced instrument failures earlier this year, leading to loss of communication with the spacecraft and prompting the agency to end the lunar mission in August.

Notable Indian Astronauts :

Kalpana Chawla : She was the first Indian-American astronaut and was the first Indian woman in 1997.

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She went into space as a mission specialist on space shuttle Columbia in 1997 and spent about 372 hours in space. Her second space mission was on January 16, 2003. On February 1, 2003,

her space shuttle columbia met with a disaster during re-entry into the earth’s atmosphere and along with all the seven crew members Kalpana Chawla died.

Rakesh Sharma : He was the first Indian to fly into space aboard Soyuz T-II on 2nd April, 1984. He spent eight days in space in the Salyut-7 space station.

Sunita Williams : She was an American astronaut of Indian origin holds the record for the longest single space flight by a woman for about 195 days. She is accredited with a record 50 hours 40 minutes of most space walk time for a woman.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Do you know?

Question 1.
What is sky?
Answer:
The space above the earth that you can see when you look up, where clouds and the Sun, Moon and Stars appear. The sky is limitless. The sky is bright blue in colour, like the sky in a clear day.

Question 2.
What is a light year?
Answer:
A light year is the unit adopted for measuring distances in the Universe. A ray of light travels at a speed of 300,000 km per second. A light year is the distance which a ray of light would cover in a year’s time. This works out to 9.5 million million kilometre.

Question 3.
What is epoch?
Answer:
A length of time, which is a division of a period.

Question 4.
Origin of the word Solar:
Answer:
The word ‘Solar’ comes from the Latin word ‘Solaris’ meaning ‘Sun’.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 5.
Some well-known Constellations :
Answer:
Some well-known Constellations with their Indian names are given below :

  1. Ursa major (Great Bear)-Saptarishi
  2. Ursa minor (Little Bear)-Dhruva Matsya
  3. Orion (Hunter)Mirga
  4. Draco (Dragon)Kaleya
  5. Scorpio-Vrishchika.

Question 6.
Orbit
Answer:
All the eight planets of the Solar System revolve around the Sun in fixed paths. These paths are elongated. They are called orbits.

Question 7.
Why is venus hotter than Mercury (nearest planet to the Sun), even though venus is further away (second nearest to the Sun) from the Sun?
Answer:
It is all for the atmosphere that venus has. The intense heat is the result of accumulation of CO2 (carbon dioxide) and SO2 (sulfur dioxide) gas in the atmosphere of this planet. Radiation from the Sun is absorbed by the plaent (venus) and the heat emitted is trapped by the CO2 in venus’s atmosphere which creates increase of heat extensively. The atmosphere of the venus is made up of mostly carbon dioxide which traps the heat of the Sun, making the surface temperature as high as 450° C.

Question 8.
Why is Venus called veiled planet ?
Answer:
Venus is surrounded by a thick cloud cover hence known as the ‘veiled planet’.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 9.
Why is Venus known as ‘evening star’ and ‘morning star’?
Answer:
Venus is the first to be seen in western night sky. It is never seen throughout the night. It rises before dawn and sets at sunset. These happen due to clockwise rotation of venus.

West Bengal Board Class 6 Geography Book Solution in English WBBSE

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Question Answer West Bengal Board

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Book Solutions West Bengal Board

Physical Geography

Regional Geography

WBBSE Class 6 Solutions

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Well structured WBBSE 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Europe in the Twentieth Century Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
The Bolshevik Revolution broke out in Russia in-………
A. 1915
B. 1916
C. 1917
D. 1918
Answer:
C. 1917

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 2.
The formation of Union of Soviet Socialist Republic was formally declared in-………
A. 1920
B. 1921
C. 1922
D. 1923
Answer:
C. 1922

Question 3.
The Bolsheviks captured power in Russia by the-………
A. November Revolution
B. July Revolution
C. February Revolution
D. October Revolution
Answer:
D. October Revolution

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 4.
A special secret police was formed by the Bolsheviks called-………
A. Duma
B. Cheka
C. Soviets
D. Aurora
Answer:
B. Cheka

Question 5.
What was the date and year of Bloody Sunday?
A. 9 January 1905
B. 12 January 1905
C. 4 April 1906
D. 9 August 1906
Answer:
A. 9 January 1905

Question 6.
Rasputin was-……….
A. Minister
B. Czar of Russia
C. Mystic Saint
D. Close relative of Czar
Answer:
C. Mystic Saint

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 7.
Bolshevik Revolution was led by-………
A. Stalin
B. Lenin
C. Trotsky
D. None of them
Answer:
B. Lenin

Question 8.
Who was known as ‘Czar The Liberator’?
A. Czar Alexander II
B. Czar Nicholas II
C. Czar Alexander III
D. Czar Nicholas III
Answer:
A. Czar Alexander II

Question 9.
The leadership in the march to St. Petersburg by the workers was given by-………
A. Stalin
B. Father Gapon
C. Trotsky
D. Lenin
Answer:
B. Father Gapon

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 10.
The emperor of Russia is called-………
A. Sultan
B. Czar
C. Kaiser
D. Chancellor
Answer:
B. Czar

Question 11.
Who was the first to be proclaimed Czar of Russia?
A. Czar Alexander I
B. Alexander II
C. Nicholas II
D. Ivan IV
Answer:
D. Ivan IV

Question 12.
Who first introduced Czarism?
A. Mikhial Romanov
B. Czar Peter the Great
C. Alexander II
D. Ivan IV
Answer:
D. Ivan IV

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 13.
Czarism ended in the year-……………..
A. 1905
B. 1900
C. 1917
D. 1927
Answer:
C. 1917

Question 14.
The father of modern Russia-……………..
A. Ivan IV
B. Nicholas II
C. Czar Peter the Great
D. Alexander I
Answer:
C. Czar Peter the Great

Question 15.
The Romanov dynasty came to an end during the reign of-……………..
A. Nicholas I
B. Alexander I
C. Alexander II
D. Nicholas II
Answer:
D. Nicholas II

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 16.
The Russian Revolution broke out during the reign of-……………..
A. Nicholas I
B. William II
C. Nicholas II
D. Ivan IV
Answer:
C. Nicholas II

Question 17.
The party which gave leadership in the Russian Revolution of 1917 was-……………..
A. Bolshevik Party
B. Young Italy
C. Menshevik Party
D. Nazi Party
Answer:
A. Bolshevik Party

Question 18.
The leader of November Revolution was-……………..
A. Luvov
B. Kerensky
C. Trotsky
D. Lenin
Answer:
D. Lenin

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 19.
Who put forward ‘April Thesis’?
A. Trotsky
B. Karl Marx
C. Stalin
D. Lenin
Answer:
D. Lenin

Question 20.
The meaning of ‘Pravda’ is -……………..
A. Truth
B. Iron
C. People
D. Communism
Answer:
A. Truth

Question 21.
Leningrad was seized during the reign of-……………..
A. Nicholas
B. Alexander II
C. Peter the Great
D. Catherine
Answer:
C. Peter the Great

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 22.
The meaning of Iskra, the newspaper published by Lenin-……………..
A. New life
B. Truth
C. Spark
D. Iron
Answer:
C. Spark

Question 23.
Nihilist movement broke out during the reign of-……………..
A. Peter the Great
B. Nicholas I
C. Alexander II
D. Nicholas II
Answer:
C. Alexander II

Question 24.
Father of socialism in Russia-……………..
A. Karl Marx
B. Engels
C. Lenin
D. Stalin
Answer:
C. Lenin

Question 25.
The Third Commintern was established in-……………..
A. Moscow
B. Taskhent
C. Bombay
D. Geneva
Answer:
A. Moscow

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 26.
The leadership of the Red Army to Petrograd on 7 November 1917 was given by-……………..
A. Lvov
B. Kerensky
C. Trotsky
D. Lenin
Answer:
C. Trotsky

Question 27.
The first socialist country in the world is- ……………..
A. United Kingdom
B. Poland
C. America
D. Soviet Russia
Answer:
D. Soviet Russia

Question 28.
‘New Economic Policy’ was introduced by-……………..
A. Stalin
B. Gapon
C. Lenin
D. Turgenev
Answer:
C. Lenin

Question 29.
The Paris Peace Conference took place in-……………..
A. 1919
B. 1920
C. 1921
D. 1922
Answer:
A. 1919

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 30.
‘Fourteen Points’ were put before Germany by-……………..
A. Lloyd George
B. Orlando
C. Woodrow Wilson
D. Clemenceau
Answer:
C. Woodrow Wilson

Question 31.
The country which did not join the League of Nations-……………..
A. America
B. Germany
C. Spain
D. England
Answer:
A. America

Question 32.
Lusitania was-……………..
A. A country in Europe
B. The name of a ship
C. The name of a captain
D. The name of an island
Answer:
B. The name of a ship

Question 33.
The American President during World War I was-……………..
A. Woodrow Wilson
B. Abraham Lincoln
C. George Washington
D. George Barlow
Answer:
A. Woodrow Wilson

Question 34.
President Wilson belonged to-……………..
A. Britain
B. China
C. America
D. Japan
Answer:
C. America

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 35.
The First World War broke out in-……………..
A. 1912
B. 1915
C. 1913
D. 1914
Answer:
D. 1914

Question 36.
The First World War came to an end in-……………..
A. 1919
B. 1918
C. 1916
D. 1920
Answer:
B. 1918

Question 37.
The Paris Peace Conference took place in-……………..
A. 1918
B. 1919
C. 1920
D. 1921
Answer:
B. 1919

Question 38.
Who of the following was most active in the establishment of League of Nations?
A. Lloyd George
B. Orlando
C. Clemenceau
D. Woodrow Wilson
Answer:
D. Woodrow Wilson

Question 39.
The League of Nations was formed after-……………..
A. First Balkan War
B. World War I
C. 2nd Balkan War
D. World War II
Answer:
B. World War I

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 40.
Archduke Francis Ferdinand was assassinated in-……………..
A. Bosnia
B. Sarajevo
C. Herzegovina
D. Poland
Answer:
B. Sarajevo

Question 41.
The Great Depression of 1929 first started in-……………..
A. Germany
B. America
C. France
D. Spain
Answer:
B. America

Question 42.
Which period is known as the ‘Era of Armed Peace’?
A. 1920-1939
B. 1871-1913
C. 1939-1945
D. 1914-1918
Answer:
B. 1871-1913

Question 43.
Sarajevo was the capital of-……………..
A. Serbia
B. Hungary
C. Bosnia
D. Austria
Answer:
C. Bosnia

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 44.
In 1920 the Treaty of Sevires was signed. with-
A. Russia
B. Austria
C. Hungary
D. Turkey
Answer:
D. Turkey

Question 45.
Where was the World Economic Conference held?
A. Ukraine
B. London
C. Holland
D. Cuba
Answer:
B. London

Question 46.
Nazism cropped up after First World War in-…………
A. Italy
B. Spain
C. Russia
D. Germany
Answer:
D. Germany

Question 47.
Hitler became the Prime Minister of Germany in-…………
A. 1931
B. 1932
C. 1933
D. 1934
Answer:
C. 1933

Question 48.
Swastika was the symbol of the-…………
A. Nazi Party
B. Fascist Party
C. Communist Party
D. Socialist Party
Answer:
A. Nazi Party

Question 49.
Mussolini’s party came to be known as-…………
A. Fascist Party
B. Socialist Party
C. Nazi Party
D. Communist Party
Answer:
A. Fascist Party

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 50.
The members of the Fascist party were known as-…………
A. Red Shirts
B. Brown Shirts
C. Black Shirts
D. Blue Shirts
Answer:
C. Black Shirts

Question 51.
The leader of the Spanish Civil War was-…………
A. Goebels
B. Hitler
C. General Franco
D. Himmler
Answer:
C. General Franco

Question 52.
Mussolini assumed the title-…………
A. Czar
B. Kaiser
C. Fuhrer
D. II Duce
Answer:
D. II Duce

Question 53.
Fascism rose in-…………
A. Italy
B. Spain
C. Germany
D. Russia
Answer:
A. Italy

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 54.
In Germany Nazi dictatorship was established by-…………
A. Bismarck
B. Hitler
C. Franco
D. None of the above
Answer:
B. Hitler

Question 55.
General Franco was the dictator of-…………
A. Germany
B. Italy
C. Spain
D. France
Answer:
C. Spain

Question 56.
Japan withdrew from the League of Nations in-…………
A. 1930
B. 1931
C. 1932
D. 1933
Answer:
D. 1933

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 57.
Weimer Republic was established in-…………
A. Spain
B. Germany
C. France
D. Italy
Answer:
B. Germany

Question 58.
The first President of Weimer Republic was-
A. Hitler
B. August Bebel
C. Friedrich Ebert
D. General Franco
Answer:
C. Friedrich Ebert

Question 59.
The last President of Weimer Republic was-…………
A. Friedrich Ebert
B. Hitler
C. Drexler
D. Hindenburg
Answer:
D. Hindenburg

Question 60.
The word ‘Fuhrer’ means-…………
A. Prime Minister
B. Leader
C. Dictator
D. Administrator
Answer:
B. Leader

Question 61.
Victor Emmanuel was the king of-…………..
A. Italy
B. Germany
C. Spain
D. Bulgaria
Answer:
A. Italy

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 62.
The first President of the Spanish Republic was-………….
A. Franco
B. Chamberlain
C. Niceto Zamora
D. Victor Emmanuel
Answer:
C. Niceto Zamora

Question 63.
‘Lebensraum’ means-………….
A. Living space
B. Leader
C. Party
D. German Parliaments
Answer:
A. Living space

Question 64.
Goebbels was the Minister of Propaganda of-………….
A. Germany
B. Italy
C. Spain
D. Cuba
Answer:
A. Germany

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 65.
The worst sufferers in Nazi Germany were the-………….
A. Jews
B. Christians
C. Muslims
D. Russians
Answer:
A. Jews

Question 66.
Hitler chose the war as the way out of the approaching-………….
A. Political crisis
B. Border crisis
C. Economic crisis
D. Religious crisis
Answer:
C. Economic crisis

Fill in the blanks

1. By the October Revolution of 1917 the …………… (Mensheviks/Bolsheviks/Nobility) captured power in Russia.
Answer: Bolsheviks

2. The Treaty of Brest-Litovsk was signed between Germany and …………… (Britain/Italy/ Russia).
Answer: Russia

3. The Red Army was organised by …………… (Stalin/Trotsky/Lenin).
Answer: Trotsky

4. The New Economic Policy of Lenin was a compromise between socialism and …………… (capitalism/communism/Nazism).
Answer: Capitalism

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

5. The Revolution of 1905 in Russia broke out during the reign of …………… (Czar Alexander II/ Nicholas I/Peter the Great).
Answer: Czar Alexander II

6. ‘Pravda’ was the mouthpiece of the …………… (Menshevik/Bolshevik/Communist) party.
Answer: Bolshevik

7. The two factions of Social Democratic Party are Boisheviks and …………… (Communists/ Mensheviks/Socialists).
Answer: Mensheviks

8. Czar …………… (Alexander I/Alexander II/ Nicholas I) showed his liberalism by releasing the Dekabrists.
Answer: Alexander II

9. Kaiser William II abdicated the throne in …………… (1916/1917/1918).
Answer: 1918

10. ‘War Communism’ was introduced by …………… (Trotsky/Lenin/Franco).
Answer: Lenin

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

11. The ruler of Russia was called …………… (Storm Trooper/Czar/Duma).
Answer: Czar

12. The legislature of Russia is known as …………… (Mir/Pravda/Duma).
Answer: Duma

13. The word ‘Communism’ was first used by …………… (Nicholas I/Lenin/Karl Marx).
Answer: Karl Marx

14. The author of the novel ‘Mother’ is …………… (Lenin/Engles/Maxim Gorky).
Answer: Maxim Gorky

15. The writer of the novel ‘Father and Sons’ was …………… (Maxim Gorky/Lenin/Ivan Turgenev).
Answer: Ivan Turgenev

16. The meaning of the word ‘Narod’ is …………… (Czar/people/monarch).
Answer: people

17. The newspaper ‘Pravda’ was published in the year …………… (1911/1910/1912).
Answer: 1912

18. The leader of the Russian Revolution of 1917 was …………… (Vladimir Lenin/Kerensky/ Karl Marx).
Answer: Vladimir Lenin

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

19. The leader of the Mensheviks was …………… (Vladimir Lenin/Trotsky/Julius Martov).
Answer: Julius Martov

20. The New Economic Policy was introduced by …………… (Karl Marx/Vladimir Lenin/ Kerensky).
Answer: Vladimir Lenin

21. Triple Alliance was formed in the year ………. (1880/1884/1882).
Answer: 1882

22. The Treaty of Versailles was opposed by ………. (Italy/Spain/Germany).
Answer: Germany

23. The Great Economic Depression of 1929 first started in ………. (Great Britain/America/ Germany).
Answer: America

24. ………. (Hoover/Woodrow Wilson/ Clemenceau) is known as the ‘Father of the League of Nations’.
Answer: Woodrow Wilson

25. During the First World War the Emperor of Germany was ………. (Charles X/Kaiser William II/Kaiser William III/Frederick William III).
Answer: Kaiser William II

26. After the First World War, the humiliating treaty which was imposed on Germany was the Treaty of ………. (Brest-Litovsk/ Versailles/ Lussane/Sevres).
Answer: Versailles

27. People of the Weimer Republic lost confidence in the democratic ………. (alliance/parliamentary system/values/ attitude).
Answer: Parliamentary system

28. After the First World War, the new Republican government of Germany was established in ………. (Berlin/Weimer/ Brussels).
Answer: Weimer

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

29. The Great Depression was a period of ………. (political crisis/economic crisis/religious crisis).
Answer: Economic crisis

30. The Saar Valley was put under an international commission for ………. (13/14/ 15) years.
Answer: 15

31. The Treaty of St. Germain was signed between the victorious allies and defeated Austria in ………. (1916/1918/1919)
Answer: 1919

32. The Treaty of ………. (Trianon/Neuilly/ Versailles) contained the seeds of the Second World War.
Answer: Versailles

33. Morocco is in ………. (Africa/Netherlands/ China).
Answer: Africa

34. The Rome-Berlin-Tokyo Axis was signed in ………. (1932/1933/1934).
Answer: 1932

35. USA entered the First World War in ………. (1917/1918/1919).
Answer: 1917

36. Herbert Hoover was the President of ………. (Britain/America/France).
Answer: America

37. Archduke Francis Ferdinand was the heir to the throne of ………. (Spain/Austria/ Herzegovina).
Answer: Austria

38. ………. (Llyod George/Woodrow Wilson/ Gorky) was called the ‘Father of the League of Nations’.
Answer: Woodrow Wilson

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

39. In ………. (1928/1929/1930) the American share market crashed.
Answer: 1929

40. ………. (24 October 1929/26 October 1929/ 22 October 1939) is known as the Black Day in the history of USA.
Answer: 24 October 1929

41. …………. (General France/ Mussolini/Hitler) formed the para-military force known as ‘Storm Trooper’.
Answer: Hitler

42. Hitler occupied Rhineland in ………….(1930) 1936/1939).
Answer: 1936

43. The Russo-German Non-Aggression Pact was signed in ………….(1929/1939/1949).
Answer: 1939

44. Hitler considered the Germans to be the master race or ………….(Herrenvolk/ Lebensraum/Gestapo).
Answer: Herrenvolk

45. In 1922 ………….(Franco/Mussolini/Hitler) captured power in Italy.
Answer: Mussolini

46. Mussolini occupied Ethiopia in ………….(1930/ 1934/1936).
Answer: 1936

47. The program of March to Rome was chalked out by ………….(Nazis/Fascists/ Communists).
Answer: Fascists

48. General Franco was the dictator of ………….(Netherlands/Sardinia/Spain).
Answer: Spain

49. Spanish Civil War took place in ………….(1938/ 1937/1939).
Answer: 1939

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

50. ………….(Hitler/Mussolini/General Franco) came out victorious in the Spanish Civil War.
Answer: General Franco

State True or False

1. By the October Revolution under Lenin, the Bolsheviks seized the government in the capital St. Petersburg.
Answer: True

2. In 1878, the Narodniks started a violent movement in Russia.
Answer: True

3. The New Economic Policy was declared by Lenin in 1921.
Answer: True

4. The Russian philosopher who prepared Russia mentally for the Russian revolution was Rousseau.
Answer: False

5. The ‘April Thesis’ was announced by Stalin.
Answer: False

6. The Union of Soviet Socialist Republic was a federation of 15 Soviet Socialist Republics.
Answer: True

7. On 7 November 1918, the Bolsheviks captured the Winter Palace.
Answer: False

8. A special secret police called Duma was formed by Bolsheviks.
Answer: False

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

9. The mental climate for the outbreak of the Russian Revolution was prepared by philosophers like Montesquieu and Rousseau.
Answer: False

10. The Bolshevik Revolution broke out under the leadership of Stalin.
Answer: False

11. Alexandra, the queen of Czar Nicholas II was enamoured by a fake priest named Rasputin.
Answer: True

12. The Third Section was the secret police introduced by Czar Nicholas I.
Answer: True

13. One important movement which broke out in Russia in 1870’s was the Narodnik movement.
Answer: True

14. In 1905, on a January Sunday about 6000 industrial workers under the leadership of Thiers assembled in front of the Winter Palace.
Answer: False

15. The Nihilist movement broke out during the reign of Czar Alexander I.
Answer: False

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

16. Father Gapon led the procession of workers to the Winter Palace.
Answer: True

17. Before the outbreak of Russian Revolution the Russian Society was divided into two classes.
Answer: True

18. The Bible Society was established by Alexander II in 1812.
Answer: False

19. Narodnik Volya was a secret society of Russia.
Answer: True

20. According to the provisions of the Treaty of Versailles Germany lost Alsace-Lorraine to France.
Answer: True

21. The Treaty of Sevres was concluded in 1919.
Answer: False

22. The Polish corridor was given to Austria for reaching the Baltic Sea.
Answer: False

23. The port of Danzig was snatched away from the possession of Germany.
Answer: True

24. The Treaty of Versailles adhered to the principle of self determination.
Answer: False

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

25. The League of Nations was established with the aim to establish permanent peace.
Answer: True

26. The republican government in Germany after the fall of monarchy was set up by Himmler.
Answer: False

27. The three mottos of Fascism were Stateworship, leader worship and war-worship.
Answer: True

28. When Hilter invaded Poland on 1 September 1939, the Second World War started.
Answer: True

29. Hilter formed a para-military force with unemployed youths known as Gestapo.
Answer: False

30. A secret police force named Gestapo was organised by Hitler.
Answer: True

31. Both Nazism and Fascism were in favour of democracy.
Answer: False

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

32. The Rome-Berlin-Tokyo Axis was formed in 1932.
Answer: True

Match the columns

Question 1.

Column I Column II
1. General Franco A. Germany
2. Lenin B. Italy
3. Mussolini C. Spain
4. Hitler D. Russia

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. General Franco C. Spain
2. Lenin D. Russia
3. Mussolini B. Italy
4. Hitler A. Germany

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 2.

Column I Column II
1. April Thesis A. Hitler
2. Woodrow Wilson B. MN Roy
3. Mein Kampf C. 14 Points
4. Indian Communist Party D. Lenin

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. April Thesis D. Lenin
2. Woodrow Wilson C. 14 Points
3. Mein Kampf A. Hitler
4. Indian Communist Party B. MN Roy

Question 3.

Column I Column II
1. Treaty of Versailles A. Allied powers with Hungary
2. Treaty of Trianon B. Germany and Russia
3. Treaty of Brest Litovsk C. Allied powers with Germany
4. Treaty of St. Germain D. Allied powers with Austria

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Treaty of Versailles C. Allied powers with Germany
2. Treaty of Trianon A. Allied powers with Hungary
3. Treaty of Brest Litovsk B. Germany and Russia
4. Treaty of St. Germain D. Allied powers with Austria

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 4.

Column I Column II
1. Lusitania A. German Parliament
2. Ludendroff B. Lenin
3. Duma C. British Linear
4. April Thesis D. German General

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Lusitania C. British Linear
2. Ludendroff D. German General
3. Duma A. German Parliament
4. April Thesis C. British Linear

Question 5.

Column I Column II
1. Treaty of Versailles A. 1929
2. League of Nations founded B. 1919
3. Great Economic Depression C. 1918
4. Weimer Republic established D. 1920

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Treaty of Versailles B. 1919
2. League of Nations founded D. 1920
3. Great Economic Depression A. 1929
4. Weimer Republic established C. 1918

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 6.

Column I Column II
1. Battle of Ypres A. Dardanelles
2. Anglo French naval expedition B. Republic proclaimed in Germany
3. Sinking of U boats C. Germany defeated
4. Kaiser fled D. USA declared war against Germany

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Battle of Ypres C. Germany defeated
2. Anglo-French naval expedition A. Dardanelles
3. Sinking of U boats D. USA declared war against Germany
4. Kaiser fled B. Republic proclaimed in Germany

Question 7.

Column I Column II
1. Turgenev A. Autocrats
2. Russians were defeated B. In Russia
3. Feeling of class struggle C. Russian philosopher
4. Czar of Russia D. Crimean War

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Turgenev C. Russian philosopher
2. Russians were defeated D. Crimean War
3. Feeling of class struggle B. In Russia
4. Czar of Russia A. Autocrats

Question 8.

Column I Column II
1. Germany lost A. U-boats
2. Treaty of Trianon B. Seeds of World War II
3. Treaty of Versailles C. 1920
4. German submarines D. Alsace-Lorraine

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Germany lost D. Alsace-Lorraine
2. Treaty of Trianon C. 1920
3. Treaty of Versailles B. Seeds of World War II
4. German submarines A. U-boats

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 9.

Column I Column II
1. Leader of Bolsheviks A. Revolutionary Court
2. 25th October 1917 B. Lenin
3. Cheka C. land to the peasants
4. Lenin promised D. October Revolution

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Leader of Bolsheviks B. Lenin
2. 25th October 1917 D. October Revolution
3. Cheka A. Revolutionary Court
4. Lenin promised C. land to the peasants

Question 10.

Column I Column II
1. Czar Nicholas II A. Russia
2. Czar Alexander II B. Secret police
3. Nihilist Movement C. October Manifesto
4. Third section D. Dekabrists released

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Czar Nicholas II C. October Manifesto
2. Czar Alexander II D. Dekabrists released
3. Nihilist Movement A. Russia
4. Third section B. Secret police

Question 11.

Column I Column II
1. Fuhrer A. Mussolini
2. II Duce B. Himmler
3. Gestapo C. Hitler
4. Spanish Civil War D. Franco

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Fuhrer C. Hitler
2. II Duce A. Mussolini
3. Gestapo B. Himmler
4. Spanish Civil War D. Franco

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 12.

Column I Column II
1. Fascist government A. Spain
2. Nazi government B. Russia
3. Bolshevik Revolution C. Italy
4. Franco government D. Germany

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Fascist government C. Italy
2. Nazi government D. Germany
3. Bolshevik Revolution B. Russia
4. Franco government A. Spain

Question 13.

Column I Column II
1. England A. Permanent member of league
2. The Secretariat B. President of America
3. Roosevelt C. 1929
4. Economic depression D. Organ of League of Nations

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. England A. Permanent member of league
2. The Secretariat  D. Organ of League of Nations
3. Roosevelt B. President of America
4. Economic depression C. 1929

Question 14.

Column I Column II
1. Battle of Marne A. Treaty of Bucharest
2. Battle of Verdun B. Germans defeated
3. Battle of Jutland C. French win
4. Second Balkan war D. England and Germany

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Battle of Marne B. Germans defeated
2. Battle of Verdun C. French win
3. Battle of Jutland D. England and Germany
4. Second Balkan war A. Treaty of Bucharest

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 15.

Column I Column II
1. Herbert Hoover A. Russian philosopher
2. Dostoevsky B Socialist leader
3. Alexander Kerensky C. President of America
4. Frederich Ebert D. Prime Minister of Russia

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Herbert Hoover C. President of America
2. Dostoevsky A. Russian philosopher
3. Alexander Kerensky  D. Prime Minister of Russia
4. Frederich Ebert B Socialist leader

Question 16.

Column I Column II
1. Mannuel Azana A. Living space
2. Lebensraum B The leader
3. Victor Emmannuel C. Prime Minister of Spain
4. II Duce D. Italian king

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Mannuel Azana C. Prime Minister of Spain
2. Lebensraum A. Living space
3. Victor Emmannuel D. Italian king
4. II Duce B The leader

Question 17.

Column I Column II
1. Battle of Marne A. Unelected absolute ruler
2. 1917 B. France and Germany
3. Proletariat C. Entry of USA in World War I
4. Dictator D. Working class

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Battle of Marne  B. France and Germany
2. 1917 C. Entry of USA in World War I
3. Proletariat D. Working class
4. Dictator B. France and Germany

 

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Well structured WBBSE 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Invention first appeared in the-
(A) cotton industry
(B) jute industry
(C) tea industry
(D) silk industry
Answer:
(A) cotton industry

Question 2.
Humphry Davy invented the-
(A) Spinning Jenny
(B) Safety Lamp
(C) Water Frame
(D) Flying Shuttle
Answer:
(B) Safety Lamp

Question 3.
Socialism is a political, economic and philosophical doctrine opposed to-
(A) Capitalism
(B) Communism
(C) Nationalism
(D) Communalism
Answer:
(A) Capitalism

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 4.
Industrial Revolution led to the growth of-
(A) Communalism
(B) Communism
(C) Imperialism
(D) Terrorism
Answer:
(C) Imperialism

Question 5.
Flying Shuttle was discovered by-
(A) John Kay
(B) Crompton
(C) James Watt
(D) Hargreaves
Answer:
(A) John Kay

Question 6.
In which country did the ‘Luddite Riot’ break out?
(A) Russia
(B) England
(C) Greece
(D) France
Answer:
(B) England

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 7.
‘March of the Blanketeers’ started from-
(A) Manchester
(B) Paris
(C) Peking
(D) Berlin
Answer:
(A) Manchester

Question 8.
The International Working Men’s Association was established by-
(A) Louis Blanc
(B) Fourier
(C) Proudhon
(D) Karl Marx
Answer:
(D) Karl Marx

Question 9.
The word ‘Socialism’ was first introduced by-
(A) Charles Fourier
(B) Saint Simon
(C) Robert Owen
(D) Arnold Toynbee
Answer:
(C) Robert Owen

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 10.
The book ‘New View of Society’ was written by-
(A) Thomas Hobson
(B) Charles Fourier
(C) Robert Owen
(D) Louis Blanc
Answer:
(C) Robert Owen

Question 11.
The book ‘Das Capital’ was published in-
(A) 1857
(B) 1867
(C) 1877
(D) 1897
Answer:
(B) 1867

Question 12.
The book ‘Organisation of Labour’ was composed by-
(A) Arnold Toynbee
(B) Louis Blanc
(C) Hobson
(D) Karl Marx
Answer:
(B) Louis Blanc

Question 13.
Industrial Revolution first started in-
(A) England
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) Russia
Answer:
(A) England

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 14.
Spinning mule was invented by-
(A) Stephenson
(B) John Kay
(C) Crompton
(D) Cartwright
Answer:
(C) Crompton

Question 15.
According to Arnold Toynbee Industrial Revolution started in-
(A) 1758
(B) 1760
(C) 1660
(D) 1768
Answer:
(B) 1760

Question 16.
Industrial Revolution first started in-
(A) Coal industry
(B) Jute industry
(C) Iron industry
(D) Textile industry
Answer:
(D) Textile industry

Question 17.
Spinning Jenny was invented by-
(A) John Kay
(B) Richard Arkwright
(C) Stephenson
(D) James Hergreaves
Answer:
(D) James Hergreaves

Question 18.
The Industrial Revolution led to the emergence of a new class –
(A) aristoratic class
(B) middle class
(C) lower class
(D) warrior class
Answer:
(B) middle class

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 19.
Industrial Revolution led to the emergence of two new classes –
(A) Teacher and student
(B) ruler and subject
(C) lord and slave
(D) owner and worker
Answer:
(D) owner and worker

Question 20.
Chartist movement was a-
(A) Students’ movement
(B) Peasants’ movement
(C) Workers’ movement
(D) Women’s movement
Answer:
(C) Workers’ movement

Question 21.
Chartist movement took place in-
(A) England
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) Russia
Answer:
(A) England

Question 22.
The author of the book ‘A New View of Society’ was-
(A) Joseph Proudhon
(B) Mikhail Bakunin
(C) Vladimir Lenin
(D) Robert Owen
Answer:
(D) Robert Owen

Question 23.
The Utopian socialist whose ideas became popular in America-
(A) Mikhail Bakunin
(B) Charles Fourier
(C) Saint Simon
(D) Vladimir Lenin
Answer:
(B) Charles Fourier

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 24.
The author of the book ‘Utopia’ was-
(A) Robert Owen
(B) Charles Fourier
(C) Karl Marx
(D) Thomas More
Answer:
(D) Thomas More

Question 25.
Louis Auguste Blanqui was-
(A) Utopian Socialist
(B) Scientific Socialist
(C) Capitalist
(D) Imperialist
Answer:
(A) Utopian Socialist

Question 26.
The father of scientific socialism was-
(A) Saint Simon
(B) Montesquieu
(C) Karl Marx
(D) Robert Owen
Answer:
(C) Karl Marx

Question 27.
Who said-“The state is a machinery for exploitation”?
(A) Montesquieu
(B) Rousseau
(C) Karl Marx
(D) Frederick Engels
Answer:
(B) Rousseau

Question 28.
Who said-“Imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism”?
(A) Karl Marx
(B) Lenin
(C) Proudhon
(D) Robert Owen
Answer:
(B) Lenin

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 29.
The famous book of Karl Marx is-
(A) Das Capital
(B) Divine Comedy
(C) The Prince
(D) Macbeth
Answer:
(A) Das Capital

Question 30.
The Father of modern socialism –
(A) Frederich Engels
(B) Karl Marx
(C) Rousseau
(D) Robert Owen
Answer:
(B) Karl Marx

Question 31.
The ‘Father of anarchism’ is-
(A) Louis Blanc
(B) Lenin
(C) Proudhon
(D) Karl Marx
Answer:
(C) Proudhon

Question 32.
The members of the Triple Alliance were-
(A) England, France, Britain
(B) England, France, Russia
(C) Germany, Austria, Italy
(D) Germany, Austria, France
Answer:
(C) Germany, Austria, Italy

Question 33.
The members of the Triple Entente were-
(A) England, France, Germany
(B) England, France, Spain
(C) England, France, Russia
(D) England, France, Italy
Answer:
(C) England, France, Russia

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 34.
Archduke Francis Ferdinand was the heir to the-
(A) Serbian throne
(B) Austrian throne
(C) Spanish throne
(D) German throne
Answer:
(B) Austrian throne

Question 35.
Gavrilo Princip was a member of the-
(A) Triple Alliance
(B) ‘Black Hand’ terrorist organisation
(C) International Workingmen’s Association
(D) Communist Party
Answer:
(B) ‘Black Hand’ terrorist organisation

Question 36.
David Livingstone, the famous European explorer had been to-
(A) Africa
(B) Asia
(C) America
(D) Antartica
Answer:
(A) Africa

Question 37.
Ethiopia is a country in-
(A) Asia
(B) America
(C) Europe
(D) Africa
Answer:
(D) Africa

Question 38.
The Fourth Anglo-Mysore war was fought in-
(A) 1899
(B) 1799
(C) 1699
(D) 1599
Answer:
(B) 1799

Question 39.
Which country started the digging of the Suez Canal through Egypt?
(A) Turkey
(B) England
(C) Russia
(D) France
Answer:
(D) France

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 40.
The Open Door Policy was issued by-
(A) Sir John Hay
(B) Clement Attlee
(C) Kingsford
(D) Mac Arthur
Answer:
(A) Sir John Hay

Question 41.
Who was the author of ‘Imperialism, the highest stage of Capitalism’?
(A) Louis Blanc
(B) VI Lenin
(C) Karl Marx
(D) Engels
Answer:
(B) VI Lenin

Question 42.
The ‘Three Emperors League’ was a compromise made in-
(A) 1873
(B) 1815
(C) 1833
(D) 1820
Answer:
(A) 1873

Question 43.
The First Opium War was fought between England and-
(A) China
(B) France
(C) Russia
(D) Italy
Answer:
(A) China

Question 44.
In which year was the ‘Open Door Policy’ issued?
(A) 1869
(B) 1867
(C) 1899
(D) 1889
Answer:
(C) 1899

Question 45.
Bismarck was the Chancellor of-
(A) France
(B) Germany
(C) Britain
(D) Italy
Answer:
(D) Italy

Question 46.
The country which established dominance over the Shangtung region was-
(A) Germany
(B) Russia
(C) France
(D) England
Answer:
(A) Germany

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 47.
The Suez Canal was nationalised in-
(A) 1856
(B) 1956
(C) 1866
(D) 1966
Answer:
(A) 1856

Question 48.
The Suez Canal was constructed by-
(A) England
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) Italy
Answer:
(B) France

Question 49.
The plan for the construction of Aswan Dam was adopted by-
(A) Prime Minister of England
(B) President of France
(C) President of Egypt
(D) President of America
Answer:
(C) President of Egypt

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 50.
The Suez Canal was nationalised in 1956 on-
(A) 25 July
(B) 26 July
(C) 24 July
(D) 28 July
Answer:
(B) 26 July

Question 51.
The Suez Canal was nationalised by-
(A) President of America
(B) President of France
(C) President of Egypt
(D) Prime Minister of England
Answer:
(C) President of Egypt

Question 52.
The region in South Africa where the English first established their colony-
(A) Mauritania
(B) Brazil
(C) Cape of Good Hope
(D) Capetown
Answer:
(C) Cape of Good Hope

Question 53.
The Suez Canal flows through-
(A) Turkey
(B) France
(C) Egypt
(D) Arab
Answer:
(C) Egypt

Question 54.
The trade monopoly of the East India Company ended in-
(A) 1793
(B) 1813
(C) 1833
(D) 1853
Answer:
(B) 1813

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 55.
Colony was first established in Malay by the-
(A) British
(B) Dutch
(C) French
(D) Portuguese
Answer:
(D) Portuguese

Question 56.
When was the Union of South Africa formed?
(A) 1908
(B) 1910
(C) 1912
(D) 1915
Answer:
(B) 1910

Question 57.
The First Opium War was fought by China against-
(A) Russia
(B) France
(C) England
(D) Germany
Answer:
(C) England

Question 58.
The Second Opium War was fought by China agianst-
(A) Russia and Japan
(B) France and Russia
(C) France and Germany
(D) England and France
Answer:
(D) England and France

Question 59.
The Treaty of Nanking was signed between China and England in-
(A) 1840
(B) 1841
(C) 1843
(D) 1842
Answer:
(D) 1842

Question 60.
Algeria in north Africa was a colony of-
(A) English
(B) Portuguese
(C) French
(D) Dutch
Answer:
(C) French

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 61.
The Triple Entente was formed in-
(A) 1907
(B) 1890
(C) 1905
(D) 1914
Answer:
(A) 1907

Question 62.
Triple Alliance was formed in-
(A) 1882
(B) 1890
(C) 1830
(D) 1859
Answer:
(A) 1882

Question 63.
The direct cause of the First World War was-
(A) Sarajevo murder
(B) militant nationalism
(C) Morocco crisis
(D) Balkan crisis
Answer:
(A) Sarajevo murder

Question 64.
The First World War started in –
(A) 1915
(B) 1916
(C) 1914
(D) 1917
Answer:
(C) 1914

Question 65.
Sarajevo was the capital of-
(A) Serbia
(B) Hungary
(C) Bosnia
(D) Austria
Answer:
(A) Serbia

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 66.
Karl Marx’s book ‘Poverty of Philosophy’ was published in-
(A) 1845
(B) 1847
(C) 1848
(D) 1871
Answer:
(B) 1847

Question 67.
The Treaty of Tientsin was signed in-
(A) 1857
(B) 1858
(C) 1859
(D) 1860
Answer:
(B) 1858

Question 68.
The countries which signed the Treaty of Shimonoseki-
(A) China, England, France
(B) China, Japan
(C) China, France
(D) China, England
Answer:
(B) China, Japan

Question 69.
The Reinsurance Treaty was signed between Germany-
(A) Austria
(B) Italy
(C) England
(D) Russia
Answer:
(D) Russia

Question 70.
The Three Emperors league was formed between-
(A) England, France and Russia
(B) Russia, Germany and Austria
(C) Germany, Austria and Italy
(D) Germany, Japan and Italy
Answer:
(B) Russia, Germany and Austria

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 71.
The alliance of three emperors of Germany, Austria and Russia is known as-
(A) Weltpolitik
(B) Dreikaiserbund
(C) Lebensraum
(D) Schadenfreude
Answer:
(B) Dreikaiserbund

Fill in the blanks :

1. The Bank of France established by _____ (Louis Napoleon/Napoleon Bonaparte/Karl Marx) helped the process of industrialisation in France.
Answer:
Napoleon Bonaparte

2. _____ (France/England/Germany) was known as the ‘workshop of the world.’
Answer:
England

3. _____ (Lancashire/Norfolk/Birmingham) was the chief centre of the cotton industry.
Answer:
Lancashire

4. The real beginning of the Industrial Revolution in Germany was only after her unification in _____ (1868/1869/1870).
Answer:
1870

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

5. Kaiser William II was the emperor of _____ (Austria/Italy/Germany).
Answer:
Germany

6. _____ (Samuel Morse/Graham Bell/ Marconi) invented the telephone system.
Answer:
Graham Bell

7. _____ (James Watt/ Samuel Crompton/ Richard Arkwright) devised the system of using steam power to work machines.
Answer:
James Watt

8. The founder of International Working men’s Association was _____ (Stalin/Lenin/Karl Marx).
Answer:
Karl Marx

9. The famous Communist Manifesto was first published in _____ (1830/1848/1849).
Answer:
1848

10. The _____ (DasKapital/Communist Manifesto/Mein Kampf) is regarded as the ‘Bible of Socialism’.
Answer:
Das Kapital

11. _____ (Communism/Communalism/ Imperialism) was an important cause of the First World War.
Answer:
Imperialism

12. The ‘Grand Consolidated National Union’ was formed under the leadership of _____ (Robert Owen/Wilfred Owen/Karl Marx).
Answer:
Robert Owen

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

13. The year of ‘Peterloo Massacre’ was _____ (1800/1812/1819).
Answer:
1819

14. Auguste Blanqui used the term Industrial Revolution in _____ (1847/1837/1857).
Answer:
1837

15. England and Scotland was united in _____ (1607/1707/1807).
Answer:
1707

16. _____ (Karl Marx / Robert Owen/ Lenin) said ‘Workers of the world unite.’
Answer:
Lenin

17. _____ (Robert Owen/Saint Simon/Engels) is known as the ‘Father of British Socialism’.
Answer:
Robert Owen

18. After the opening of the Suez Canal in _____ (1865/1868/1869) distance between China and Europe reduced considerably.
Answer:
1869

19. The dismemberment of _____ (Africa/China/ Indo-China) by the foreign powers is commonly known as ‘the cutting of the Chinese melon’.
Answer:
China

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

20. The First World War ended in _____ (1918/ 1919/1920).
Answer:
1918

21. The Treaty of Nanking was signed between Britain and _____ (Japan/Russia/France).
Answer:
China

22. The Treaty of Tientsin was signed in _____ (1860/1861/1863).
Answer:
1861

23. Ethopia was formally annexed to Italy in _____ (1919/1936/1946).
Answer:
1936

24. The Nawab of Bengal during the Battle of Plassey was _____ (Mir Jafar/Mir Kasim/ Siraj-ud-daula).
Answer:
Siraj-Ud-Daula

25. The Entente Cordiale was signed in _____ (1904/1906/1908).
Answer:
1904

26. The First Balkan War came to an end with the signing of the treaty of _____ (London/ Peking/Nanking).
Answer:
London

27. _____ (America/Africa/Australia) is called the ‘Dark Continent’.
Answer:
Africa

28. The English General in the Battle of Plassey was _____ (Arthur Wellesley/Vansittart/ Robert Clive).
Answer:
Robert Clive

29. The direct cause of the First World War was _____ (Sarajevo murder/Morocco crisis/ Agadir Crisis).
Answer:
Sarajevo murder

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

30. The _____ (Portuguese/British/French) established their colony in Angola.
Answer:
Portuguese

31. Russia imposed the Treaty of San Stephano on _____ (France/Turkey/China).
Answer:
Turkey

32. The English East India Company got the Dewani right in the year _____ (1757/1764) 1765).
Answer:
1765

33. By the Treaty of Nanking China was forced to open _____ (Four/Five/Seven) ports to the foreigners.
Answer:
Five

34. Before the Treaty of Nanking _____ (1842) the foreigners could carry on trade only in the port of (Sanghai/Canton/Shantou).
Answer:
Canton

35. Algeria was the colony of _____ (Britain/ Italy/France).
Answer:
France

36. The jewel in the crown of the British empire was _____ (Africa/India/Togoland).
Answer:
India

Mark True or False :

1. The word Revolution means a change.
Answer: True

2. The Industrial Revolution began in Britain in the second half of the 17 th century.
Answer: False

3. The Industrial Revolution changed the way people lived.
Answer: True

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

4. The Industrial Revolution made the Western nations rich and powerful.
Answer: True

5. The Industrial Revolution gave birth to the factory system.
Answer: True

6. The real beginning of Industrial Revolution in Russia dates from 1871 after the Emancipation Statute of 1871 was passed.
Answer: False

7. The Industrial Revolution came late in Britain.
Answer: False

8. The most significant impact of the Industrial Revolution was on cotton textiles.
Answer: True

9. The Industrial Revolution in England brought about revolutionary changes in the method of production.
Answer: True

10. Due to Industrial Revolution, cottage industries gained importance.
Answer: False

11. Until the first half of the 20th century, things were made by people in their homes.
Answer: False

12. After deindustrialisation India was transformed from an exporter to an importer.
Answer: True

13. In 1835 in Liverpool (Germany) railway first started.
Answer: False

14. General Ned Ludd gave leadership in the ‘Luddite riot’.
Answer: True

15. Coal and iron are two important natural resources necessary for industrialisation.
Answer: True

16. In England Agricultural Revolution and Enclosure Movement preceded Industrial Revolution.
Answer: True

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

17. The most important economic event of the reign of Louis Philippe was the arrival in Paris of the railroad.
Answer: True

18. Cartwright invented the Flying Shuttle in 1733.
Answer: False

19. ‘Luddite riot’ was a protest movement of the aristocrats led by General Ned Ludd in Englad.
Answer: False

20. Turnpike trusts were bodies set up for maintaining the principal roads in Britain.
Answer: True

21. Ghetto was an overcrowded urban slum where the factory workers lived in unhygienic condition.
Answer: True

22. Lenin founded the doctorine of scientific socialism.
Answer: False

23. The Whigs Party supported the workers’ movement in England.
Answer: False

24. The German Social Democratic Party was established in 1875
Answer: True

25. Due to Industrial Revolution, economic equality was established between the factory owners and workers.
Answer: False

26. Socialism does not admit of any private right or ownership in either capital or property.
Answer: True

27. The Working Men’s Association of Germany presented a large petition to the Parliament known as People’s Charter.
Answer: False

28. Karl Marx was the leader of International Working Men’s Association.
Answer: True

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

29. The Industrial Revolution started rather late in France due to the French Revolution.
Answer: True

30. Industrialisation of Germany was hindered by Napoleonic warfare.
Answer: False

31. By the 15 th century, the British had several colonies all over the world.
Answer: False

32. Africa is famous for its mines which are rich in gold, diamonds and rubies.
Answer: True

33. In 1895 Ethiopia and Liberia were the only two independent countries in Africa.
Answer: True

34. Bank of France was recognised by the French emperor Napoleon III.
Answer: True

35. By the Treaty of Shimonoseki Hong Kong was ceded to the British.
Answer: False

36. The weakness of China encouraged the western powers to make territorial gain in China.
Answer: True

37. Italy was one of the contending parties in the partition of China.
Answer: False

38. In 1945 Mussolini attacked Ethiopia.
Answer: False

39. Radar was used a means of land defence, as well as in ships and planes during World War II.
Answer: True

Choose the best explanation :

1. Statement: The Industrial Revolution started late in France.
Explanation (A): Due to July Revolution of 1830.
Explanation (B): Due to February Revolution of 1848 .
Explanation (C): Due to Aristocratic Revolt in France.
Answer:
Explanation (A): Due to July Revolution of 1830.

2. Statement: Industrial Revolution first started in England.
Explanation (A): It was happened because of political and economic stability and national solidarity.
Explanation (B): The people of England were educated.
Explanation (C): There was demand of textile goods in England.
Answer:
Explanation (A): Due to July Revolution of 1830.

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

3. Statement: Industrial Revolution started rather late in Germany.
Explanation (A): Germany was divided into numerous small states.
Explanation (B): There was a lack of technical knowldege in Germany
Explanation (C): Germany could not establish colonies in India.
Answer:
Explanation (A): Germany was divided into numerous small states.

4 Statement: During the Industrial Revolution people of the villages began to move to cities.
Explanation (A): To take part in politics.
Explanation (B): For education.
Explanation (C): For employment.
Answer:
Explanation (C): For employment.

5. Statement: Different countries of Europe adopted a policy of aggressive imperialism.
Explanation (A): To establish colonies in different countries of Europe.
Explanation (B): To conquer those countries.
Explanation (C): To establish industries, mills and factories in those countries.
Answer:
Explanation (C): To establish industries, mills and factories in those countries.

6. Statement: France dug Suez Canal.
Explanation (A): The purpose of digging the Suez canal was to establish dominance over Egypt.
Explanation (B): Egypt asks France to dig the Suez Canal.
Explanation (C): Communication with the East was facilitated through the Suez Canal.
Answer:
Explanation (C): Communication with the East was facilitated through the Suez Canal.

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

7. Statement: US secretary Sir John Hay issued the Open Door Policy.
Explanation (A): As different European power established dominance over different part of China, America feared that it may not get a chance in China.
Explanation (B): America felt that China needed to be kept open for everyone.
Explanation (C): America wanted to bring China closer to Europe.
Answer:
Explanation (A): As different European power established dominance over different part of China, America feared that it may not get a chance in China.

8. Statement: Austria blamed Serbia for Sarajevo Assassination.
Explanation (A): Serbia was directly involved in this assassination.
Explanation (B): Serbia had good relation with Bosnian Serbs and Serbia supported the antiAustrian movement.
Explanation (C): The assassin was a Serb.
Answer:
Explanation (B): Serbia had good relation with Bosnian Serbs and Serbia supported the antiAustrian movement.

9. Statement: Serb terrorist Gavrilo Princip killed Austrian prince Ferdinand.
Explanation (A): Austria captured Bosnia and Herzegovina.
Explanation (B): Austria attacked Serbia.
Explanation (C): Austria led the Slav movement.
Answer:
Explanation (A): Austria captured Bosnia and Herzegovina.

Match the columns :

Question 1.

Column I Column II
1. Saint Simon A. Author of Das Capital
2. Auguste Blanqui B. Invented telegraph
3. Karl Marx C. Utopian socialist
4. Samuel Morse D. French economist

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Saint Simon C. Utopian socialist
2. Auguste Blanqui D. French economist
3. Karl Marx A. Author of Das Capital
4. Samuel Morse B. Invented telegraph

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 2.

Column I Column II
1. 1914 A. Telephone system invented
2. 1876 B. Formation of Triple Alliance
3. 1882 C. Formation of Triple Entente
4. 1907 D. First World War started

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. 1914 D. First World War started
2. 1876 A. Telephone system invented
3. 1882 B. Formation of Triple Alliance
4. 1907 C. Formation of Triple Entente

Question 3.

Column I Column II
1. Sarajevo A. A terrorist organisation
2. German submarine B. Heir to Austrian Throne
3. Archduke Francis Ferdinand C. Bosnia
4. Black Hand D. U-boat

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Sarajevo C. Bosnia
2. German submarine D. U-boat
3. Archduke Francis Ferdinand B. Heir to Austrian Throne
4. Black Hand A. A terrorist organisation

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 4.

Column I Column II
1. Robert Owen A. Spinning Jenny
2. Samuel Crompton B. Waterframe
3. Richard Arkwright C. Invented the steamship
4. Robert Fulton D. Cooperative movement

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Robert Owen D. Cooperative movement
2. Samuel Crompton A. Spinning Jenny
3. Richard Arkwright B. Waterframe
4. Robert Fulton C. Invented the steamship

Question 5.

Column I Column II
1. Britain A. Producer of rubber
2. Michigan B. Rich coal field
3. Brazil C. Mistress of the seas
4. Belgium D. Iron ore deposits

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Britain C. Mistress of the seas
2. Michigan D. Iron ore deposits
3. Brazil A. Producer of rubber
4. Belgium B. Rich coal field

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 6.

Column I Column II
1. Industrial Revolution first started A. Germany
2. British colony B. England
3. Zollverein C. India
4. Serfdom D. Russia

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Industrial Revolution first started B. England
2. British colony C. India
3. Zollverein A. Germany
4. Serfdom D. Russia

Question 7.

Column I Column II
1. Algeria A. British Colony
2. Indonesia B. Spain Colony
3. Malay C. Portuguese Colony
4. Philippines D. French Colony

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Algeria D. French Colony
2. Indonesia C. Portuguese Colony
3. Malay A. British Colony
4. Philippines B. Spain Colony

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 8.

Column I Column II
1. 1873 A. Triple Entente
2. 1882 B. Triple Alliance
3. 1904 C. Dreikaiserbund
4. 1907 D. Entente Cordiale

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. 1873 C. Dreikaiserbund
2. 1882 B. Triple Alliance
3. 1904 D. Entente Cordiale
4. 1907 A. Triple Entente

Question 9.

Column I Column II
1. Drain of wealth A. 1894-95
2. Manchu Government B. 1936
3. Sino-Japanese C. Private Trade
4. Ethiopia annexed D. China

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Drain of wealth C. Private Trade
2. Manchu Government D. China
3. Sino-Japanese A. 1894-95
4. Ethiopia annexed B. 1936

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 10.

Column I Column II
1. Canton A. Germany
2. Zollverein B. Emperor of Ethiopia
3. League of Nations C. China
4. Haile Selassie D. Peace Organisation

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Canton C. China
2. Zollverein A. Germany
3. League of Nations D. Peace Organisation
4. Haile Selassie B. Emperor of Ethiopia

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 11.

Column I Column II
1. Imperialism, the Highest Stage of Capitalism A. John Hay
2. White Man’s Burden B. Lenin
3. King of Belgium C. Kipling
4. Open Door Policy D. Leopold II

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Imperialism, the Highest Stage of Capitalism B. Lenin
2. White Man’s Burden C. Kipling
3. King of Belgium D. Leopold II
4. Open Door Policy A. John Hay

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Well structured WBBSE 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
The Congress of Vienna was held in the year-
(A) 1814
(B) 1815
(C) 1816
(D) 1817
Answer:
(B) 1815

Question 2.
The most important person of the Vienna settlement was-
(A) Lafayette
(B) Louis Philippe
(C) Metternich
(D) St. Simon
Answer:
(C) Metternich

Question 3.
The decision of the leaders of the Vienna Congress was to divide Poland into-
(A) one division
(B) three divisions
(C) two divisions
(D) four divisions
Answer:
(B) three divisions

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 4.
Nationalism means-
(A) strong love for one’s own country without appreciation for other nations
(B) strong devotion for one’s own country and hatred for others
(C) strong love for all the countries of the world
(D) strong devotion for one’s own country and its history and culture.
Answer:
(A) strong love for one’s own country without appreciation for other nations

Question 5.
Liberal nationalism stands for-
(A) freedom of all and equality before law
(B) freedom of only male members of the society
(C) freedom only for senior citizens
(D) freedom of the monarch to rule the people
Answer:
(A) freedom of all and equality before law

Question 6.
In Europe and in different parts of the world the concept of nationalism developed in full form in-
(A) 16 th century
(B) 20th century
(C) 18 th century
(D) 19 th century
Answer:
(D) 19 th century

Question 7.
Which of the following countries did not attend the Congress of Vienna?
(A) Prussia
(B) Britain
(C) Switzerland
(D) Russia
Answer:
(C) Switzerland

Question 8.
The Carlsbad Decree was declared in the year-
(A) 1848
(B) 1819
(C) 1856
(D) 1861
Answer:
(B) 1819

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 9.
The Carlsbad Decree was declared in-
(A) Germany
(B) France
(C) Russia
(D) Italy
Answer:
(A) Germany

Question 10.
The Carlsbad Decree was declared by-
(A) Talleyrand
(B) Metternich
(C) Louis VII
(D) Charles X
Answer:
(B) Metternich

Question 11.
In 1815 the Prime Minister of Austria was-
(A) Alexander I
(B) Metternich
(C) Louis XVI
(D) Castlereagh
Answer:
(B) Metternich

Question 12.
Metternich was the Chancellor of-
(A) Austria
(B) Russia
(C) Italy
(D) Britain
Answer:
(A) Austria

Question 13.
The father of European conservatism was-
(A) Alexander 1
(B) Louis XV
(C) Cavour
(D) Metternich
Answer:
(D) Metternich

Question 14.
The period of the Age of Metternich was-
(A) 1816-1849
(B) 1815-1848
(C) 1850-1858
(D) 1810-1828
Answer:
(B) 1815-1848

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 15.
The ‘Coachman of Europe’ was-
(A) Talleyrand
(B) Castlereagh
(C) Metternich
(D) Louis XVIII
Answer:
(C) Metternich

Question 16.
The representative of defeated France in the Vienna Conference was-
(A) Castlereagh
(B) Metternich
(C) Cavour
(D) Talleyrand
Answer:
(D) Talleyrand

Question 17.
The representatives of the Vienna Congress wanted to reestablish the dynasties which reigned in various states prior to Napoleonic wars according to the Principle of-
(A) Compensation
(B) Balance of Power
(C) Legitimacy
(D) Combination
Answer:
(C) Legitimacy

Question 18.
According to the Carlsbad Decree of 1819 restrictions were imposed on-
(A) social institutions of Germany
(B) business organisations of Germany
(C) German universities and other educational institutions
(D) political institutions of Germany
Answer:
(C) German universities and other educational institutions

Question 19.
Metternich to curb all forms of liberalistic ideas in the German universities imposed the-
(A) Carlsbad Decree
(B) Pedlar Decree
(C) Milan Decree
(D) Lyon Decree
Answer:
(A) Carlsbad Decree

Question 20.
Who said Italy is ‘only a geographical expression’?
(A) Cavour
(B) Metternich
(C) Talleyrand
(D) Louis XVIII
Answer:
(B) Metternich

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 21.
The July Revolution broke out in-
(A) 1820
(B) 1830
(C) 1840
(D) 1850
Answer:
(B) 1830

Question 22.
The king of France during the July Revolution was-
(A) Napoleon
(B) Charles X
(C) Louis XVI
(D) Louis Philippe
Answer:
(B) Charles X

Question 23.
Polignac was appointed minister by-
(A) Charles X
(B) Louis Philippe
(C) Napoleon
(D) Francis II
Answer:
(A) Charles X

Question 24.
The leadership in July Revolution was provided by-
(A) Thiers
(B) Polignac
(C) Simon Bolivar
(D) Metternich
Answer:
(A) Thiers

Question 25.
The task of the French Revolution of 1789 which remained incomplete was completed by the-
(A) French Revolution
(B) February Revolution
(C) July Revolution
(D) Industrial Revolution
Answer:
(C) July Revolution

Question 26.
July Revolution broke out in-
(A) Italy
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) Britain
Answer:
(B) France

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 27.
The July Revolution of 1830 sparked off on-
(A) 29 July
(B) 21 July
(C) 27 July
(D) 30 July
Answer:
(C) 27 July

Question 28.
July monarchy was established in France in-
(A) 1815
(B) 1828
(C) 1848
(D) 1830
Answer:
(D) 1830

Question 29.
July monarchy was established in France by-
(A) Louis Philippe
(B) Louis XVIII
(C) Francis Ferdinand
(D) Charles X
Answer:
(A) Louis Philippe

Question 30.
After the July Revolution the ruler who sat on the throne of France was-
(A) Louis XVIII
(B) Leopold
(C) Cavour
(D) Louis Philippe
Answer:
(D) Louis Philippe

Question 31.
The ruler of France who was dethroned after the July Revolution was-
(A) Louis Philippe
(B) Louis XVIII
(C) Charles X
(D) Metternich
Answer:
(C) Charles X

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 32.
The February Revolution broke out in France against the autocracy of-
(A) Napoleon III
(B) Metternich
(C) Louis Philippe
(D) Napoleon
Answer:
(C) Louis Philippe

Question 33.
The king of France during the February Revolution was-
(A) Charles X
(B) Louis XVI
(C) Louis Napoleon
(D) Louis Philippe
Answer:
(D) Louis Philippe

Question 34.
Third French Republic was established in-
(A) 1792
(B) 1830
(C) 1848
(D) 1870
Answer:
(D) 1870

Question 35.
The most influential Prime Minister of Louis Philippe was-
(A) Guizot
(B) Von Bulow
(C) Turgo
(D) Count Caprivi
Answer:
(A) Guizot

Question 36.
“When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold”-who said this?
(A) Napoleon III
(B) Bismarck
(C) Metternich
(D) Cavour
Answer:
(C) Metternich

Question 37.
The socialists in France were eager to end the French Monarchy under the leadership of-
(A) Karl Marx
(B) Louis Blanc
(C) Robert Owen
(D) Charles Fourier
Answer:
(B) Louis Blanc

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 38.
A movement demanding the enlargement of franchise started in France under the leadership of-
(A) Louis Blanc
(B) Guizot
(C) Cavour
(D) Thiers
Answer:
(D) Thiers

Question 39.
After having declared his grandson heir to the throne, Louis Philippe sought asylum in-
(A) Austria
(B) Russia
(C) Prussia
(D) England
Answer:
(D) England

Question 40.
Louis Napoleon in 1852 declared himself as the ‘Emperor’ with the title of-
(A) Charles X
(B) Napoleon
(C) Napoleon I
(D) Napoleon III
Answer:
(D) Napoleon III

Question 41.
Garibaldi’s men were called-
(A) Red Shirts
(B) Black Shirts
(C) Brown Shirts
(D) Blue Shirts
Answer:
(A) Red Shirts

Question 42.
Napoleon III was the ruler of-
(A) Piedmont-Sardinia
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) Austria
Answer:
(B) France

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 43.
Carbonari was a secret society of-
(A) Italy
(B) Russia
(C) France
(D) Austria
Answer:
(A) Italy

Question 44.
Garibaldi, a great patriot of Italy occupied-
(A) Sicily and Naples
(B) Venetia
(C) Rome
(D) Austria
Answer:
(A) Sicily and Naples

Question 45.
Before unification Central Italy was ruled by-
(A) Austria
(B) Poland
(C) Pope
(D) France
Answer:
(C) Pope

Question 46.
In 1860, the Red Shirts under the leadership of Garibaldi went to-
(A) Sicily
(B) Lombardy
(C) Tuscany
(D) Modena
Answer:
(A) Sicily

Question 47.
The ‘Young Italy’ organisation was established by-
(A) Mazzini
(B) Cavour
(C) Garibaldi
(D) Napoleon III
Answer:
(A) Mazzini

Question 48.
The Journal ‘Risorgimento’ was edited by-
(A) Mazzini
(B) Cavour
(C) Garibaldi
(D) Leopold
Answer:
(B) Cavour

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 49.
The greatest impediment to Italian unification was-
(A) Russia
(B) Germany
(C) Spain
(D) Austria
Answer:
(D) Austria

Question 50.
The first king of united Italy was-
(A) Cavour
(B) Garibaldi
(C) Napoleon III
(D) Victor Emmanuel II
Answer:
(D) Victor Emmanuel II

Question 51.
The brain of unification of Italy was-
(A) Garibaldi
(B) Cavour
(C) Mazzini
(D) Bismarck
Answer:
(B) Cavour

Question 52.
The leadership in the Italian unification movement was given by-
(A) Venice
(B) Lombardy
(C) Piedmont-Sardinia
(D) Rome
Answer:
(C) Piedmont-Sardinia

Question 53.
The leadership in Naples and Sicily was given by-
(A) Mazzini
(B) Cavour
(C) Garibaldi
(D) Louis XVI
Answer:
(C) Garibaldi

Question 54.
The main centre of Carbonari was-
(A) Naples
(B) Piedmont
(C) Lombardy
(D) Genoa
Answer:
(A) Naples

Question 55.
Count Cavour was appointed as the Prime Minister of-
(A) Perma Modena
(B) Rome
(C) Tuscany
(D) Piedmont-Sardinia
Answer:
(D) Piedmont-Sardinia

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 56.
How many wars did Bismarck fight to unify Germany?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six
Answer:
(A) Three

Question 57.
Bismarck successfully waged war against Denmark in-
(A) 1862
(B) 1861
(C) 1864
(D) 1868
Answer:
(C) 1864

Question 58.
The main function of Frankfurt Parliament was to frame a constitution for-
(A) Italy
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) Russia
Answer:
(B) Germany

Question 59.
According to the decisions of Frankfurt Parliament, the crown of a united Germany was offered to-
(A) Alexander I
(B) Francis II
(C) Frederick William
(D) Louis Philippe
Answer:
(C) Frederick William

Question 60.
The leader of German unification movement was-
(A) Hitler
(B) Mussolini
(C) Mazzini
(D) Bismarck
Answer:
(D) Bismarck

Question 61.
Germany defeated France in the battle of-
(A) Sadowa
(B) Sedan
(C) Jena
(D) Trafalgar
Answer:
(B) Sedan

Question 62.
The Battle of Sadowa was fought between-
(A) Denmark and Russia
(B) France and Russia
(C) Austria and Prussia
(D) Prussia and Russia
Answer:
(C) Austria and Prussia

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 63.
Which treaty ended the Battle of Sadowa?
(A) Treaty of Plombieres
(B) Treaty of London
(C) Treaty of Prague
(D) Treaty of Villafranca
Answer:
(C) Treaty of Prague

Question 64.
The Frankfurt Parliament was convened in-
(A) Russia
(B) Italy
(C) Germany
(D) England
Answer:
(C) Germany

Question 65.
The Frankfurt Parliament was convened in the year-
(A) 1830
(B) 1848
(C) 1861
(D) 1862
Answer:
(B) 1848

Question 66.
A master of political and diplomatic juggling-
(A) Bismarck
(B) Cavour
(C) Napoleon III
(D) William I
Answer:
(A) Bismarck

Question 67.
The Zollverein was formed under the leadership of-
(A) Austria
(B) Italy
(C) Savoy
(D) Prussia
Answer:
(D) Prussia

Question 68.
Who was the first emperor of unified Germany?
(A) Napoleon III
(B) William I
(C) Bismarck
(D) Cavour
Answer:
(B) William I

Question 69.
The first stage in the unification of Germany was the creation of-
(A) Zollverein
(B) Confederation of the Rhine
(C) Frankfurt Parliament
(D) Bundestag
Answer:
(A) Zollverein

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 70.
Who took the first step to unify Germany?
(A) Bismarck
(B) Napoleon Bonaparte
(C) Count Cavour
(D) Hitler
Answer:
(B) Napoleon Bonaparte

Question 71.
Ems Telegram was published on-
(A) 10 th July, 1870
(B) 13 th July, 1870
(C) 17 th July, 1870
(D) 19 th July, 1870
Answer:
(B) 13 th July, 1870

Question 72.
According to Bismarck the greatest obstacle to Germany unity was-
(A) Austria
(B) Russia
(C) Poland
(D) France
Answer:
(A) Austria

Question 73.
Philke Hetaira was a secret society of –
(A) Germany
(B) Turkey
(C) Italy
(D) Greece
Answer:
(D) Greece

Question 74.
Nicholas I was the ruler of-
(A) Austria
(B) Russia
(C) Italy
(D) Prussia
Answer:
(B) Russia

Question 75.
Moldavia and Wallachia was invaded by-
(A) Britain
(B) Italy
(C) Russia
(D) Germany
Answer:
(C) Russia

Question 76.
Greece was under the subjugation of-
(A) Turkey
(B) Russia
(C) Germany
(D) Italy
Answer:
(A) Turkey

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 77.
The ‘Sick Man of Europe’ was-
(A) France
(B) Greece
(C) Italy
(D) Turkey
Answer:
(D) Turkey

Question 78.
In the famous Vienna Note Russia was asked to withdraw her claims in-
(A) Egypt
(B) Turkey
(C) Italy
(D) France
Answer:
(B) Turkey

Question 79.
The secret society associated with the Greek War of Independence was-
(A) Hetaira Philka
(B) Carbonari
(C) Young Italy
(D) Zollverein
Answer:
(A) Hetaira Philka

Question 80.
The Crimean War ended with-
(A) Treaty of Pressburg
(B) Treaty of Paris
(C) Treaty of Prague
(D) Treaty of Gastein
Answer:
(B) Treaty of Paris

Question 81.
“The Crimean War was the only perfectly useless war that has been waged” was said by-
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Vincent Smith
(C) E H Carr
(D) Sir Robert Morier
Answer:
(D) Sir Robert Morier

Question 82.
The Kulaks were-
(A) Serfs
(B) Factory owners
(C) Mahajans
(D) Well-to-do peasants
Answer:
(D) Well-to-do peasants

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 83.
Who adopted the Czar title first?
(A) Alexander II
(B) Nicholas I
(C) Ivan IV
(D) Bakunin
Answer:
(C) Ivan IV

Question 84.
The organ of rural self-government in Russia-
(A) Duma
(B) Zemstvo
(C) Parliament
(D) Reichstag
Answer:
(B) Zemstvo

Question 85.
The Czar remembered for abolition of serfdom-
(A) Alexander I
(B) Alexander II
(C) Alexander III
(D) Alexander IV
Answer:
(B) Alexander II

Question 86.
The Czar known as ‘Czar the Liberator’-
(A) Alexander II
(B) Alexander I
(C) Peter the Great
(D) Nicholas I
Answer:
(A) Alexander II

Question 87.
Czar Alexander II died on-
(A) 2 January, 1890
(B) 14 February, 1885
(C) 14 March, 1883
(D) 13 March, 1881
Answer:
(D) 13 March, 1881

Question 88.
Czar Alexander II was assassinated by-
(A) Black Hand
(B) General Will
(C) People’s Will
(D) Carbonari
Answer:
(C) People’s Will

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 89.
The First Balkan War was fought in the year-
(A) 1911
(B) 1912
(C) 1913
(D) 1914
Answer:
(B) 1912

Question 90.
Who ascended the throne after Alexander III?
(A) Nicholas I
(B) Ivan IV
(C) Alexander IV
(D) Nicholas II
Answer:
(D) Nicholas II

Fill in the blanks :

1. After the fall of Napoleon, European statesmen assembled at a conference at the Austrian capital ____ (Berlin/Vienna/ Naples).
Answer:
Vienna

2. At the Congress of Vienna, Prussia was represented by ____ (Castlereagh/ Frederick William/Hardenberg).
Answer:
Hardenberg

3. In accordance with the principle of legitimacy, the ____ (Hohenzollern/ Bourbon/ Stuart) dynasty was reestablished in France.
Answer:
Bourbon

4. According to the Principle of Legitimacy the dominance of ____ (France/Austria/Italy) over Germany was revived.
Answer:
Austria

5. In accordance with the Principle of Legitimacy the House of Orange was restored in ____ (France/Germany/ Holland).
Answer:
Holland

6. The conference at Carlsbad in 1819 was convened and dominated by ____ (Castlereagh/Metternich/Louis XVIII).
Answer:
Metternich

7. The period from 1815 to ____ (1830/1848/1850) is known as the age of Metternich.
Answer:
1848

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

8. The Carlsbad Decrees were a set of reactionary restrictions in the states of the ____ (French/Italian/German) confederation.
Answer:
German

9. The President of German Confederation was ____ (Russia/Italy/Austria).
Answer:
Austria

10. The Protocol of Troppeau was drafted in the year ____ (1810 / 1820 / 1830) in the Concert of Europe.
Answer:
1820

11. The July Revolution of ____ (1820/1830/ 1848) gave a death blow to Metternich system.
Answer:
1830

12. In accordance with the Principle of Balance of Power ____ (Italy/France/Germany) was encircled with powerful states all around.
Answer:
France

13. With the exception of ____ (Frederich William III/Alexander I/Francis I) all the diplomats of the congress of Vienna were devoted to ‘ancien regime’.
Answer:
Alexander I

14. The leader of the July Revolution was ____ (Guizot/Polignac/Thiers).
Answer:
Thiers

15. ____ (Thiers/Polignac/Guizot) was appointed by Charles X as his minister.
Answer:
Polignac

16. Louis Philippe came to the throne of France in ____ (1830/1836/1840).
Answer:
1830

17. ____ (Guizot/Polignac/Thiers) gave a call to the people of France to resist the illegal activities of the French government.
Answer:
Thiers

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

18. The Second French Empire was founded by ____ (Louis Napoleon/Napoleon Bonaparte /Louis XVI).
Answer:
Louis Napoleon

19. The Second French empire was founded in ____ (1851/1852/1853).
Answer:
1852

20. The foundation of the Second French Republic was laid in ____ (1830/1848) 1858).
Answer:
1848

21. The year ____ (1848 / 1856 / 1864) is known as the ‘Year of Revolution’.
Answer:
1848

22. Louis Philippe, the ruler of France, abdicated to ____ (France/England/ Russia).
Answer:
England

23. Before unification of Italy, Naples and Sicily in South Italy was ruled by the ____ (Savoy/ Hapsburg/Bourbon) dynasty.
Answer:
Bourbon

24. ____ (Cavour/Garibaldi/Emmanuel) was the editor of the Italian periodical ‘Risorgimento’.
Answer:
Cavour

25. In 1860 some states of Central Italy like Perma, Modena and Tuscany expressed their desire to join ____ (France/PiedmontSardinia/Westphalia).
Answer:
Piedmont-Sardinia

26. ____ (Italy/France/Germany) after the Vienna Congress was reduced to a mere geographical expression.
Answer:
Italy

27. A united and independent Italy was born in ____ (1860/1865/1870).
Answer:
1870

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

28. The pact of Plombieres was signed in ____ (1848/1858/1862).
Answer:
1858

29. The Young Italians were disarmed by the ____ (French/British/Austrian) army.
Answer:
Austrian

30. In 1852 King Victor Emmanuel of ____ (Piedmont-Sardinia/Lombardy/Milan) appointed Cavour as his Prime Minister.
Answer:
PiedmontSardinia

31. Mazzini believed that war with ____ (France/ Germany/Austria) was the only means to liberate Italy.
Answer:
Austria

32. Mazzini favoured a ____ (democratic/ republican/monarchical) form government in a free Italy.
Answer:
republican

33. The Pact of Plombieres was signed between Napoleon III and ____ (Garibaldi/Count Cavour/Mazzini).
Answer:
Count Cavour

34. The first stage in the unification of Germany was the creation of ____ (Zollverein/Philiki Hetaira/Carbonari).
Answer:
Zollverein

35. In ____ (1848/1849/1850) the German nationalists convened a parliament called Frankfurt Parliament.
Answer:
1848

36. Under the rule of ____ (Metternich/ Napoleon/Bismarck) the Germans became acquainted with democratic and nationalist ideas.
Answer:
Napoleon

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

37. The Confederation of the Rhine was inaugurated by ____ (Louis Philippe/ Napoleon/Mazzini).
Answer:
Napoleon

38. During the French Revolution Germany was divided into ____ (300 / 400 / 500) large and small states.
Answer:
300

39. The leadership in the unification of Germany was given by ____ (Russia/ Prussia/Lombardy).
Answer:
Prussia

40. The ____ (Danish/Spanish/ Prussian) war was the first step towards German unification.
Answer:
Danish

41. After a crushing defeat at ____ (Sadowa/ Sedan/Waterloo) France was compelled to sign the treaty of Frankfurt.
Answer:
Sedan

42. The German states formed a tariff organisation on the basis of commercial cooperation known as ____ (Carbonari) Kulak/Zollverein).
Answer:
Zollverein

43. The Emancipation Statute was passed by ____ (Alexander I/Alexander II/Nicholas I) of Russia.
Answer:
Alexander II

44. England and France participated directly in the Crimean War in support of ____ (Egypt/ Greece/Turkey).
Answer:
Turkey

45. The Crimean War came to an end with the signing of the Treaty of ____ (Adrianople/ Versailles/Paris).
Answer:
Paris

46. The Balkan means the hilly area between the Aegean sea and the ____ (Danube/ Adriatic/Mediterranean Sea).
Answer:
Danube

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

47. ____ (Greece/Turkey/Austria) included vast areas of Africa and Europe and was known as the Ottoman empire.
Answer:
Turkey

48. In 1821, the people of Greece revolted against ____ (Russia/Turkey/France).
Answer:
Turkey

49. The Treaty of Adrianople was signed in ____ (1829/1830/1840).
Answer:
1829

50. The Treaty of Prague was signed in ____ (1865/1866/1867).
Answer:
1866

51. The Greek people, under the ____ (British/ Spanish/Turkish) rule, began their national liberation movement.
Answer:
Turkish

Mark True or False :

1. The Vienna Congress dismantled the Napoleonic empire.
Answer: True

2. The Vienna Congress marks the beginning of an era.
Answer: True

3. According to the Principle of Reward and Punishment, Poland was punished.
Answer: True

4. Metternich prided himself as the ‘vanquisher of Napoleon’.
Answer: True

5. Metternich was the Chancellor of Austria.
Answer: True

6. The period between the Vienna Settlement and the Revolution of 1848 is often dubbed as the Metternich Era in European politics.
Answer: True

7. The period between 1815 and 1848 is known as the ‘period of peace’.
Answer: False

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

8. After 1815 there was a conflict between monarchical and nationalist ideals.
Answer: True

9. Czar Alexander I was the leader of the Vienna Congress.
Answer: False

10. The Four Big Powers in the Vienna Congress were Russia, Austria, England and France.
Answer: False

11. After the fall of Napoleon Bonaparte, Louis XVIII of the Bourbon dynasty ascended the throne of France.
Answer: True

12. In accordance with the Principle of Balance of power, France was encircled with powerful states all around.
Answer: True

13. Metternich was the leader of the concert of Europe.
Answer: True

14. The July Revolution of 1848 paved the way for the destruction of Metternich system.
Answer: False

15. The July Revolution of 1830 in France brought an end to the Divine Right of Kingship in France.
Answer: True

16. The king of France at the time of the July Revolution was Louis XIV.
Answer: False

17. Inspired by the July Revolution the Polish people began their fight for freedom against the Germans.
Answer: False

18. The July Ordinance was issued by the French emperor Charles X in 1830.
Answer: True

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

19. Lafayette was a leader of the July Revolution.
Answer: True

20. The foundation of Second French Republic was laid in 1840.
Answer: False

21. Louis Napoleon in 1852 ended the Second French Republic in France and established the Second Empire.
Answer: True

22. The book ‘Organisation of Labour’ was written by Louis Blanc.
Answer: True

23. The socialists under the leadership of Louis Philippe were eager to end the French Monarchy.
Answer: False

24. Guizot was the prime minister of king Louis Philippe.
Answer: True

25. The Battle of Sadowa was fought in 1860.
Answer: False

26. The Battle of Sadowa was fought between Austria and Russia.
Answer: False

27. The Battle of Sedan was fought between France and Austria.
Answer: False

28. Carbonari was a secret society which was established during the German unification movement.
Answer: False

29. By the Peace of Villafranca (1859) Austria ceded Lombardy to Piedmont.
Answer: True

30. Cavour was the Prime Minister of Austria.
Answer: False

31. In the Battles of Magenta and Salferino the Austrians were defeated.
Answer: True

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

32. Mazzini believed that in the war against Austria, foreign help was necessary.
Answer: False

33. The Carbonari were so called because they used to burn charcoal.
Answer: True

34. Austria was merely a ‘geographical expression’.
Answer: False

35. Before the rule of Napoleon, Germany was divided into several small kingdoms.
Answer: True

36. The foundation of the Frankfurt Parliament was an important step towards German unification.
Answer: True

37. Bismarck planned for the unification of Germany under the leadership of Prussia.
Answer: True

38. Metternich followed the policy of ‘Blood and Iron’.
Answer: False

39. Count Benedetti was sent by Napoleon III to the Prussian king to get assurance that none of the Prussian dynasty would ever lay any claim on the Spanish throne.
Answer: True

40. The treaty of Berlin (1878) under the leadership of Bismarck tried to solve the Balkan question.
Answer: True

41. The Treaty of Zurich was signed in 1869 between Austria and Piedmont-Sardinia.
Answer: False

42. After the battle of Sadowa Germany was united.
Answer: False

43. The absolute rule of the French monarchs was known as Czardom.
Answer: False

44. The Russian serfs were emancipated in 1721.
Answer: False

45. The Balkan means the hilly areas between the Aegean Sea and the Danube.
Answer: True

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

46. In the Crimean War, England and France fought against Austria.
Answer: False

47. The treaty which brought an end to the Crimean War was the Treaty of Paris (1856).
Answer: True

48. The Treaty of San Stephano was concluded after the Crimean War.
Answer: False

49. In Russia the serfs were subjected to the village mirs.
Answer: True

50. According to the ‘Emancipation Statute’ of 1871 the Russian serfs were declared free.
Answer: False

51. Greece was conquered by Russia and lost her independence.
Answer: False

52. In the famous Vienna Note Russian Guardianship over the orthodox Greek Church in Turkey was admitted.
Answer: True

53. According to the Emancipation Statute the serfs were to pay back the advance money to the government in 49 instalments.
Answer: True

54. Louis Kossuth was known as ‘Mazzini of Hungary’.
Answer: True

Choose the best explanation :

1. Statements The period between 1815 to 1848 known as the ‘Era of Metternich’.
Explanation (A): He became the Prime Minister of Austria.
Explanation (B): He was the central figure at Vienna Congress.
Explanation (C): He became the central figure in the politics of the whole Europe.
Answer:
Explanation (C): He became the central figure in the politics of the whole Europe.

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

2. Statements At Vienna Congress, as a punishment, Norway was snatched away from Denmark and was given to Sweden.
Explanation (A): Metternich had enmity with the king of Denmark.
Explanation (B): King of Denmark helped Napoleon against the Allies.
Explanation (C): Denmark was an ally of Britain.
Answer:
Explanation (B): King of Denmark helped Napoleon against the Allies.

3. Statement: The leaders who took the most important part in defeating Napoleon met at Vienna.
Explanation (A): They wanted to reconstruct the political map of Europe.
Explanation (B): They wanted to establish a democratic government in France.
Explanation (C): They wanted to liberate Italy from the hands of Austria.
Answer:
Explanation (B): They wanted to establish a democratic government in France.

4. Statement: The July Revolution is one of the most important events in the history of France.
Explanation (A): It reformed the existing economic situation of France.
Explanation (B): It helped to remove monarchy from France.
Explanation (C): It succeeded in securing the revolutionary spirits ( liberty, equality and fraternity).
Answer:
Explanation (C): It succeeded in securing the revolutionary spirits ( liberty, equality and fraternity).

5. Statement: After the Fall of Napoleon Louis XVIII sat on the throne of France.
Explanation (A): According to the principle of Legitimacy Louis XVIII was reinstated on the throne of France.
Explanation (B): The people of France elected Louis XVIII as the ruler of France.
Explanation (C): The leaders of the Vienna Congress supported the accession of a weak monarch to the throne of France.
Answer:
Explanation (A): According to the principle of Legitimacy Louis XVIII was reinstated on the throne of France.

6. Statement: The Revolution of 1848 brought about a change in the system of administration prevailing at that time.
Explanation (A): Constitutional system of administration was recognised.
Explanation (B): Absolute monarchy was established in different countries of Europe.
Explanation (C): In some countries of Europe autocratic rulers became popular.
Answer:
Explanation (A): Constitutional system of administration was recognised.

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

7. Statement: Guizot, the Prime Minister of France, was dismissed from office by Louis Philippe.
Explanation (A): Guizot rose in revolt against Louis Philippe.
Explanation (B): Popular agitation took serious turn in France and Guizot was dismissed by Louis Philippe.
Explanation (C): Guizot took part in an armed clash with the people and was dismissed.
Answer:
Explanation (B): Popular agitation took serious turn in France and Guizot was dismissed by Louis Philippe.

8. Statement: In Italy, a secret society “The Carbonari’ was established.
Explanation (A): The purpose is to spread nationalist movement elsewhere in Europe.
Explanation (B): The purpose is to unite Italy into a single state.
Explanation (C): The purpose is to express discontent against the existing system.
Answer:
Explanation (B): The purpose is to unite Italy into a single state.

9. Statement: The Battle of Sadowa brought forth an important change.
Explanation (A): The political centre of central Europe shifted from Vienna to Berlin.
Explanation (B): The relation between Prussia and France became bitter.
Explanation (C): Prussia and Spain came under the rule of the same dynasty.
Answer:
Explanation (A): The political centre of central Europe shifted from Vienna to Berlin.

10. Statement: France signed the Treaty of Frankfurt with Prussia in 1871.
Explanation (A): France was defeated at the battle of Sedan.
Explanation (B): France did not fight but surrendered to Prussia.
Explanation (C): Both France and Prussia agreed to support each other by the Treaty of Frankfurt.
Answer:
Explanation (A): France was defeated at the battle of Sedan.

11. Statement: Bismarck signed the Treaty of Gastein with Austria.
Explanation (A): Bismarck’s aim was to take the help of Austria for German unification.
Explanation (B): Bismarck’s aim was to settle the confrontation with Austria.
Explanation (C): The treaty was a temporary solution and Bismarck resolved to teach Austria a proper lesson in time.
Answer:
Explanation (C): The treaty was a temporary solution and Bismarck resolved to teach Austria a proper lesson in time.

12. Statement: Czar Alexander II is called the ‘Czar Liberator’.
Explanation (A): He improved the condition of the workers.
Explanation (B): He changed the system of production in industries.
Explanation (C): He abolished serfdom is Russia.
Answer:
Explanation (C): He abolished serfdom is Russia.

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

13. Statement: There were some defects in the Emancipation Statute of 1861.
Explanation (A): The amount of compensation payable to the landlord by the peasant fixed by the Act was much higher than the customary prices of land in the market.
Explanation (B): The landlords were required to part with 50% of their land to be given to the liberated serfs.
Explanation (C): The serfs were to be full fledged citizens of Russia.
Answer:
Explanation (A): The amount of compensation payable to the landlord by the peasant fixed by the Act was much higher than the customary prices of land in the market.

14. Statement: Czar Peter the Great is known as the ‘Father of modern Russia’.
Explanation (A): Under his leadership modernisation of Russia was started.
Explanation (B): He abolished serfdom.
Explanation (C): He improved the economic system of Russia.
Answer:
Explanation (B): He abolished serfdom.

Match the columns :

Question 1.

Column I Column II
1. Crimean War A. Secret society of Italy
2. Carbonari B. Austria
3. 1870 C. 1854-56
4. Congress of Vienna held D. Italy united

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Crimean War C. 1854-56
2. Carbonari A. Secret society of Italy
3. 1870 D. Italy united
4. Congress of Vienna held B. Austria

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 2.

Column I Column II
1. Leading person at Congress of Vienna A. France
2. Mazzini B. Bismarck
3. Talleyrand C. Metternich
4. Blood and Iron policy D. Leader of Italy

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Leading person at Congress of Vienna C. Metternich
2. Mazzini D. Leader of Italy
3. Talleyrand A. France
4. Blood and Iron policy B. Bismarck

Question 3.

Column I Column II
1. February Revolution A. 1830
2. July Revolution B. 1848
3. Defeat of Austia by Prussia C. 1870
4. Unification of Germany completed D. 1866

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. February Revolution B. 1848
2. July Revolution A. 1830
3. Defeat of Austia by Prussia D. 1866
4. Unification of Germany completed C. 1870

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 4.

Column I Column II
1. Philke Hetaira A. Italy
2. Carbonari B. Odessa
3. Ems Telegram C. Ambassador
4. Count Benedetti D. Bismarck

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Philke Hetaira B. Odessa
2. Carbonari A. Italy
3. Ems Telegram D. Bismarck
4. Count Benedetti C. Ambassador

Question 5.

Column I Column II
1. Foundation of Second French Republic A. 1830
2. Louis Philippe becomes the king of France B. 1848
3. William II became the first German empeor C. 1870
4. United Italy born D. 1871

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Foundation of Second French Republic B. 1848
2. Louis Philippe becomes the king of France A. 1830
3. William II became the first German empeor D. 1871
4. United Italy born C. 1870

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 6.

Column I Column II
1. Pact of Plombieres A. 1856
2. Treaty of Villafranca B. 1878
3. Treaty of Paris C. 1858
4. Treaty of San Stephano D. 1859

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Pact of Plombieres C. 1858
2. Treaty of Villafranca D. 1859
3. Treaty of Paris A. 1856
4. Treaty of San Stephano B. 1878

Question 7.

Column I Column II
1. Nicholas I A. Central figure in European politics
2. Cavour B. Czar of Russia
3. Charles X C. Prime Minister of Piedmont
4. Metternich D. Ruler of France

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Nicholas I B. Czar of Russia
2. Cavour C. Prime Minister of Piedmont
3. Charles X D. Ruler of France
4. Metternich A. Central figure in European politics

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 8.

Column I Column II
1. Bourbon A. Holland
2. Orange B. Piedmont
3. Savoy C. France
4. Hapsburg D. Austria

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Bourbon C. France
2. Orange A. Holland
3. Savoy B. Piedmont
4. Hapsburg D. Austria

Question 9.

Column I Column II
1. 1848 A. Battle of Sadowa
2. 1854 B. Battle of Sedan
3. 1866 C. Crimean War
4. 1870 D. Year of Revolution

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. 1848 D. Year of Revolution
2. 1854 C. Crimean War
3. 1866 A. Battle of Sadowa
4. 1870 B. Battle of Sedan

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 10.

Column I Column II
1. Emancipation Statute, 1861 A. Germany
2. Zollverein B. Austria
3. Philke Hetaira C. Russia
4. Vienna Congress D. Greece

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Emancipation Statute, 1861 C. Russia
2. Zollverein A. Germany
3. Philke Hetaira D. Greece
4. Vienna Congress B. Austria

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath

Well structured WBBSE 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

The Second World War and Its Aftermath Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
The main cause of World War II was the………………..
A. Balkan War
B. Russo-German War
C. World War I
D. Anglo-French War
Answer:
C. World War I

Question 2.
Chamberlain took an assurance from Hitler that Germany would be satisfied by………………..
A. Occupation of Rhineland
B. Occupation of Poland
C. Cession to her of Sudetenland
D. Cession to her of Baltic states
Answer:
B. Occupation of Poland

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath

Question 3.
A secret additional pact to divide Poland was made between………………..
A. Russia and Germany
B. Germany and Italy
C. Italy and France
D. England and France
Answer:
A. Russia and Germany

Question 4.
To plan global military strategy, top Allied leaders held a series of conferences such as the ones at………………..
A. Versailles
B. Paris
C. Tehran
D. Berlin
Answer:
C. Tehran

Question 5.
At the Munich Conference in 1938, a region of this nation was given to Adolf Hitler by the British and the French………………..
A. Czechoslovakia
B. Poland
C. Holland
D. Austria
Answer:
A. Czechoslovakia

Question 6.
Which Allied army fought its way to Berlin and reached the city first?
A. England
B. France
C. Soviet Russia
D. USA
Answer:
C. Soviet Russia

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath

Question 7.
When did Hitler become Chancellor of Germany?
A. 1793
B. 1795
C. 1796
D. 1801
Answer:
B. 1795

Question 8.
What was the last major attempt at a peaceful resolution with Germany prior to the outbreak of World War II?
A. Potsdam Conference
B. The Washington Conference
C. The Munich Conference
D. Yalta Conference
Answer:
C. The Munich Conference

Question 9.
The main Axis Powers of World War II consisted of………………..
A. Germany, Finland, Japan
B. Germany, Italy, Japan
C. Germany, Russia, Italy
D. Germany, Italy, Belgium
Answer:
B. Germany, Italy, Japan

Question 10.
The term ‘D-Day’ refers to………………..
A. Allied invasion of the coast of Normandy
B. Allied invasion of Italy
C. Allied invasion of Germany
D. Allied invasion of Poland
Answer:
A. Allied invasion of the coast of Normandy

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath

Question 11.
World War II broke out on………………..
A. 1 September, 1938
B. 3 September, 1939
C. 9 August, 1937
D. 5 December, 1933
Answer:
B. 3 September, 1939

Question 12.
What agreement did Hitler defy when the invasion of the USSR began?
A. Hitler-Stalin agreement
B. Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact
C. Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty
D. Treaty of Versailles
Answer:
B. Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact

Question 13.
What day was the invasion of Normandy or D………………..Day?
A. 6 June, 1943
B. 6 June, 1944
C. 12 May, 1940
D. 3 September, 1946
Answer:
B. 6 June, 1944

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath

Question 14.
What caused the United States to enter the war on the side of the Allies?
A. Germany’s invasion of France
B. Germany’s invasion of Poland
C. Japan’s attack on Pearl Harbour
D. Russia’s entry into the war
Answer:
C. Japan’s attack on Pearl Harbour

Question 15
A great supporter of aggressive nationalism………………..
A. Churchill
B. Hitler
C. Stalin
D. Roosevelt
Answer:
B. Hitler

Question 16.
The top allied leaders held a conference in………………..
A. Tehran
B. Normandy
C. Moscow
D. Venice
Answer:
A. Tehran

Question 17.
European Recovery Programme was announced by………………..
A. Hitler
B. Goering
C. Mussolini
D. George Marshall
Answer:
D. George Marshall

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath

Question 18.
The United Nations Organisation was established………………..
A. to divide Germany into four zones
B. to establish international peace
C. to supervise the working of Germany
D. to preserve neutrality among the allies
Answer:
B. to establish international peace

Fill in the blanks

1. The Treaty of Versailles was imposed on ___ (Italy/France/Germany).
Answer: Germany

2. Japan attacked Manchuria in ___(1930/ 1931/1932).
Answer: 1931

3. In 1935 Mussolini attacked ___ (Abyssinia/Danzig/Rhineland).
Answer: Abyssinia

4. Haile Selassie was the emperor of ___ (Ethiopia/Poland/Syria).
Answer: Ethiopia

5. After the Second World War ___ (England/France/Czechoslovakia) was converted into Communist dictatorship.
Answer: Czechoslovakia

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath

6. General Eisenhower was appointed the Supreme Commander of the Allied invasion in ___ (Asia/Europe/Africa).
Answer: Europe

7. The Nazi-Soviet Non-Aggression pact was signed in ___ (1938/1939/1990).
Answer: 1939

8. The dictator of Italy who installed a fascist regime was ___ (Adolf Hitler/Benito Mussolini/Joseph Stalin).
Answer: Benito Mussolini

9. The title Adolf Hitler took in 1934 that meant leader was ___ (Fuhrer/Dictator/ Minister),
Answer: Fuhrer

10. Hitler invaded Poland on ___ 1939. (1 September/4 September/15 October)
Answer: 1 September

11. Pearl Harbour was attacked by Japan in ___ (1941/1942/1943).
Answer: 1941

12. In 1941 Pearl Harbour was attacked by ___ (Belgium/USA/Japan).
Answer: Japan

13. ___ (Belgium/Austria/Germany) suffered setback at Stalingrad.
Answer: Germany

14. Atomic bombs were dropped on Hiroshima and Nagasaki in ___ (1939/1941/1945).
Answer: 1945

15. ___ (USA/Britain/Austria) dropped atomic bombs on Hiroshima and Nagasaki.
Answer: U.S.A

16. USA entered into Second World War in ___ (1939/1941/1943).
Answer: 1941

17. Admiral Hideki Tojo was the Prime Minister of ___ (Britain/USA/Japan).
Answer: Japan

18. The Japanese launched a surprise attack on the ___ (British/German/US) naval base at Pearl Harbour.
Answer: US

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath

19. Perhaps the largest leap in technology during World War II was the ___ (bouncing/atom/cluster) bomb.
Answer: atom

20. Japan was worried about ___ (US/French/ British) navy in Hawaii.
Answer: US

21. On the ‘D-Day’ Anglo-American force landed at ___ (Lyons/Normandy/Marseilles) coast.
Answer: Normandy

22. Francisco Franco was the Fascist dictator of ___ (Italy/Germany/Spain).
Answer: Spain

23. The provinces of Alsace and Lorraine were taken away from ___ (France/England/ Germany).
Answer: Germany

24. ___ (Britain/Japan/France) had built a strong underground line of fortresses and gave it the name Maginot Line.
Answer: France

25. Daladier was the Prime Minister of ___ (Britain/USA/France).
Answer: France

26. Hideki Tojo was the Prime Minister of ___ (USA/Ethiopia/Japan).
Answer: Japan

27. ‘The Crisis in Civilisation’ was written by ___ (Rabindranath/Marx/Lenin).
Answer: Rabindranath

28. The term ‘Cold War’ was popularised by ___ (George Kennan/Walter Lippmann/ Bernard Baruch).
Answer: Watter Lippmann

29. USA joined the Second World War in ___ (1930/1940/1950).
Answer: 1940

30. Germany surrendered unconditionally in (1940/1942/1945).
Answer: 1945

31. Truman Doctrine and Marshall Plan was declared by ___ (USA/Britain/Italy).
Answer: USA

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath

32. The ___ (SEATO/CENTO/Warsaw Pact) was a military alliance formed by Soviet Union as a counter balance to the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation.
Answer: Warsaw Pact

State True or False

1. The Treaty of Versailles (1919) was humiliating for France.
Answer: False

2. One of the main points in Hitler’s foreign policy was Pan Germanism.
Answer: True

3. Germany invaded Poland on September 1, 1939.
Answer: True

4. Germany attacked France in 1939.
Answer: False

5. The Red Army of the Soviet Union followed the ‘Scorched Earth Policy’.
Answer: True

6. With the Japanese attack on Pearl Harbour, there was the extension of the Second World War in Asia.
Answer: True

7. Russia was attacked by the German Nazis in 1942.
Answer: False

8. Leningrad was besieged by the German army.
Answer: True

9. Hitler committed suicide in 1945.
Answer: True

10. Germany abandoned her membership of the League of Nations in 1944.
Answer: False

11. After the Second World War two great powers United States of America and the Union of Soviet Socialist Republic emerged.
Answer: True

12. Two ‘superpowers’ which emerged after the Second World War were Great Britain and United States of America.
Answer: False

13. During 1946-47 the government of Poland, Romania, Albania were converted into communist dictatorships.
Answer: True

14. To counteract communism, the western responses were Truman Doctrine and Marshall Plan.
Answer: True

15. The Non-aligned nations emerged after the First World War.
Answer: False

16. The United Nations Organisation was established in 1940.
Answer: False

17. Due to German attack during the Second World War, vast areas of Russia including Leningrad and Stalingrad were completely destroyed.
Answer: True

18. USA entered into Warsaw Pact with East European countries in 1955.
Answer: False

19. President Truman of America declared that USA would help Greece and Turkey with the aim of freeing these countries from Soviet influence.
Answer: True

20. After the Potsdam Conference France was divided into four occupied zones.
Answer: False

21. The ‘Third World’ countries launched the Non-Alignment Movement.
Answer: True

22. Harry Truman of Britain and Clement Attlee of USA joined the Potsdam Conference.
Answer: False

23. The decision that Germany will be de-Nazified was taken at the Potsdam conference.
Answer: True

24. Scorched earth policy means the policy of destroying everything that might be of use to an invading enemy.
Answer: True

Match the columns

Question 1.

Column I Column I
1. Hitler A. Japanese emperor
2. General Eisenhower B. Hitler’s mistress
3. Hirohito C. Mein Kampf
4. Eva Braun D. Supreme Allied Commander

Answer:

Column I Column I
1. Hitler C. Mein Kampf
2. General Eisenhower D. Supreme Allied Commander
3. Hirohito A. Japanese emperor
4. Eva Braun B. Hitler’s mistress

Question 2.

Column I Column II
1. Neville Chamberlain A. Italy
2. Mussolini B. Spain
3. General Tojo C. Britain
4. General Franco D. Japan

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Neville Chamberlain C. Britain
2. Mussolini A. Italy
3. General Tojo D. Japan
4. General Franco B. Spain

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath

Question 3.

 Column I  Column II
1. Czechoslovakia occupied by Germany A. 1933
2. D-Day B. 1945
3. Disarmament Conference C. 6 June,1944
4. Atom bomb dropped in Japan D. 1939

Answer:

Column I  Column II
1. Czechoslovakia occupied by Germany D. 1939
2. D-Day C. 6 June,1944
3. Disarmament Conference A. 1933
4. Atom bomb dropped in Japan B. 1945

Question 4.

Column I Column II
1. Germany used A. 81mm Mortar
2. British used B. M-10 Wolverine
3. US Tank Destroyer C. Typhoon fighter bomber
4. French artillery possessed D. light armoury (Pz-II, Pz-III)

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Germany used D. light armoury (Pz-II, Pz-III)
2. British used C. Typhoon fighter bomber
3. US Tank Destroyer B. M-10 Wolverine
4. French artillery possessed A. 81mm Mortar

Question 5.

Column I Column II
1. General army A. 1933
2. Peace of Paris B. International peace organisation
3. Disarmament Conference C. Overran Yugoslavia
4. UNO D. 1919

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. General army C. Overran Yugoslavia
2. Peace of Paris D. 1919
3. Disarmament Conference A. 1933
4. UNO B. International peace organisation

Question 6.

Column I Column II
1. 1 September, 1939 A. Pearl Harbour bombed
2. 3 July, 1942 B. Battle of Britain began
3. 7 December, 1941 C. Poland attacked by Germany
4. 10 July, 1940 D. Germany took Sebastopol

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. 1 September, 1939 C. Poland attacked by Germany
2. 3 July, 1942 D. Germany took Sebastopol
3. 7 December, 1941 A. Pearl Harbour bombed
4. 10 July, 1940 B. Battle of Britain began

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath

Question 7.

Column I Column II
1. 13 September, 1942 A. Deliverance Day
2. 17 July, 1945 B. Yalta Conference begins
3. 4 February, 1945 C. Battle of Stalingrad
4. 6 June, 1944 D. Potsdam Conference

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. 13 September, 1942 C. Battle of Stalingrad
2. 17 July, 1945 D. Potsdam Conference
3. 4 February, 1945 B. Yalta Conference begins
4. 6 June, 1944 A. Deliverance Day

Question 8.

Column I Column II
1. Truman Doctrine A. King of Italy
2. Nicholas II B. Walter Lipmann
3. Cold War C. 1947
4. Victor Emmanuel D. Czar of Russia

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Truman Doctrine C. 1947
2. Nicholas II D. Czar of Russia
3. Cold War B. Walter Lipmann
4. Victor Emmanuel A. King of Italy

Question 9.

Column I Column II
1. 2 September, 1945 A. Rome occupied by Allied army
2. 4 June, 1944 B. Japan surrenders unconditionally
3. Pearl Harbour C. Soviet Union
4. T-34 Tank D. Island of O’ahu

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. 2 September, 1945  B. Japan surrenders unconditionally
2. 4 June, 1944 A. Rome occupied by Allied army
3. Pearl Harbour D. Island of O’ahu
4. T-34 Tank C. Soviet Union

Question 10.

Column I Column II
1. Germany A. President of America
2. Roosevelt B. 1943
3. Mehmed V C. Annexation of Sudetenland
4. Battle of Tunisia D. Sultan of Turkey

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Germany C. Annexation of Sudetenland
2. Roosevelt A. President of America
3. Mehmed V D. Sultan of Turkey
4. Battle of Tunisia B. 1943

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath

Question 11.

Column I Column II
1. Twenty years armistice A. Treaty at Champagne
2. French government signed B. Treaty at Champagne
3. Dictated Peace C. 1919-1939
4. Fall of Third French Republic D. Treaty of Versailles

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Twenty years armistice C. 1919-1939
2. French government signed B. Treaty at Champagne
3. Dictated Peace D. Treaty of Versailles
4. Fall of Third French Republic A. Treaty at Champagne

Question 12.

Column I Column II
1. Red Army A. 7 December, 1941
2. Pearl Harbour Incident B. 1942
3. Potsdam Conference C. 1945
4. Battle of Midway D. Russia

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Red Army D. Russia
2. Pearl Harbour Incident A. 7 December, 1941
3. Potsdam Conference C. 1945
4. Battle of Midway B. 1942

Question 13.

Column I Column II
1. Mass murder of Jewish people A. Cold War began
2. Largest battle of World War II B. Hitler
3. Nazi flag designed by C. Holocaust
4. Outcome of World War II D. Battle of the Atlantic

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Mass murder of Jewish people C. Holocaust
2. Largest battle of World War II D. Battle of the Atlantic
3. Nazi flag designed by B. Hitler
4. Outcome of World War II A. Cold War began

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath

Question 14.

Column I Column II
1. Kamikaze A. America
2. Battle of Britain B. Germany
3. Paris was occupied in 1940 C. Japanese aircraft
4. ‘Cash and Carry’ policy D. Germany defeated

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Kamikaze C. Japanese aircraft
2. Battle of Britain D. Germany defeated
3. Paris was occupied in 1940 B. Germany
4. ‘Cash and Carry’ policy A. America

Question 15.

Column I Column II
1. Goebbels A. Lieutenant of Hitler
2. Battle of Normandy B. 1941
3. Goering C. 1944
4. Battle of Crete D. Hitler’s propaganda minister

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Goebbels D. Hitler’s propaganda minister
2. Battle of Normandy C. 1944
3. Goering A. Lieutenant of Hitler
4. Battle of Crete B. 1941

 

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 2 Revolutionary Ideals: Napoleonic Empire and the Idea of Nationalism

Well structured WBBSE 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 2 Revolutionary Ideals: Napoleonic Empire and the Idea of Nationalism can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Revolutionary Ideals: Napoleonic Empire and the Idea of Nationalism Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
The ‘Child of the French Revolution’ was-
(A) Charles IV
(B) Napoleon
(C) Arthur Wellesley
(D) Louis XVI
Answer:
(B) Napoleon

Question 2.
Napoleon invaded Milan in-
(A) 1795
(B) 1796
(C) 1797
(D) 1798
Answer:
(B) 1796

Question 3.
The currency system in France was reformed by-
(A) Louis XVI
(B) Louis XVIII
(C) Napoleon
(D) Calonne
Answer:
(C) Napoleon

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 2 Revolutionary Ideals: Napoleonic Empire and the Idea of Nationalism

Question 4.
Conferring of the Legion of Honour on men of eminence was an important reform introduced by-
(A) Montesquieu
(B) Voltaire
(C) Napoleon
(D) Charies II
Answer:
(C) Napoleon

Question 5.
The number of departments into which Napoleon divided France-
(A) 80
(B) 82
(C) 83
(D) 93
Answer:
(C) 83

Question 6.
Napoleon by the Concordat of 1801 solved the question of conflict between-
(A) The First Estate and the Third Estate
(B) The French government and the army
(C) The French government and the clergy
(D) The French government and the Pope
Answer:
(D) The French government and the Pope

Question 7.
The greatest achievement of Napoleon’s financial system was the foundation of the-
(A) Heavy industries
(B) Rationing system
(C) Bank of France
(D) Employment exchange
Answer:
(C) Bank of France

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 2 Revolutionary Ideals: Napoleonic Empire and the Idea of Nationalism

Question 8.
Napoleon was born in-
(A) Elba island
(B) Britain
(C) Spain
(D) Corsica island
Answer:
(D) Corsica island

Question 9.
After the Reign of Terror in France, a new government known as the Directory came into power in-
(A) 1795
(B) 1792
(C) 1789
(D) 1804
Answer:
(A) 1795

Question 10.
Napoleon overthrew the Directory and assumed supreme power as the First consul in-
(A) 1795
(B) 1796
(C) 1799
(D) 1800
Answer:
(C) 1799

Question 11.
The University of France was established by-
(A) Metternich
(B) Napoleon
(C) Louis X
(D) Guizot
Answer:
(B) Napoleon

Question 12.
The French Art Gallery was established by-
(A) Leopold
(B) Louis XVI
(C) Talleyrand
(D) Napoleon
Answer:
(D) Napoleon

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 2 Revolutionary Ideals: Napoleonic Empire and the Idea of Nationalism

Question 13.
Napoleon was totally defeated in the Battle of Trafalgar by the naval chief of-
(A) Russia
(B) England
(C) Prussia
(D) Italy
Answer:
(B) England

Question 14.
In the Battle of Austerlitz Napoleon defeated the joint army of –
(A) Austria and Russia
(B) Austria and Prussia
(C) Austria and spain
(D) Spain and Russia
Answer:
(A) Austria and Russia

Question 15.
The Confederation of the Rhine was created in the year-
(A) 1807
(B) 1806
(C) 1802
(D) 1808
Answer:
(B) 1806

Question 16.
The kingdom of Westphalia was created in-
(A) 1802
(B) 1805
(C) 1807
(D) 1811
Answer:
(C) 1807

Question 17.
The treaty by which Russia promised to help France against England was the-
(A) Treaty of Pressburg
(B) Treaty of Portsmouth
(C) Treaty of Tilsit
(D) Treaty of Paris
Answer:
(C) Treaty of Tilsit

Question 18.
The kingdom of Westphalia was carved out of the territory of-
(A) Prussia
(B) Russia
(C) Austria
(D) Spain
Answer:
(B) Russia

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 2 Revolutionary Ideals: Napoleonic Empire and the Idea of Nationalism

Question 19.
The kingdom of Westphalia was entrusted to Napoleon’s brother-
(A) Jerome
(B) Francis Ferdinand
(C) Louis XIV
(D) Charles IV
Answer:
(A) Jerome

Question 20.
Napoleon was a supporter of-
(A) Liberty
(B) Democracy
(C) Colonialism.
(D) Slavery
Answer:
(A) Liberty

Question 21.
Who is called the ‘Destroyer of the Revolution’?
(A) Alexander II
(B) Nelson
(C) Nepoleon
(D) Charles II
Answer:
(C) Nepoleon

Question 22.
The French blockade was a paper blockade because France did not have adequate-
(A) arms
(B) cavalry
(C) navy
(D) soldiers
Answer:
(C) navy

Question 23.
The Pope was imprisoned for his refusal to accept the Continental System by –
(A) Michel Ney
(B) Napoleon
(C) Garbriel
(D) Nicholas
Answer:
(B) Napoleon

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 2 Revolutionary Ideals: Napoleonic Empire and the Idea of Nationalism

Question 24.
Napoleon made the most daring adventure in his life by launching the invasion of-
(A) Spain
(B) Germany
(C) China
(D) Russia
Answer:
(D) Russia

Question 25.
The ‘Scorched Earth Policy’ was followed by –
(A) England
(B) Spain
(C) Russia
(D) Portugal
Answer:
(C) Russia

Question 26.
After the Battle of Waterloo, Napoleon was sent to-
(A) Elba
(B) St. Helena
(C) Sporta
(D) Corsica
Answer:
(B) St. Helena

Question 27.
In the Battle of Waterloo, Napoleon was defeated by-
(A) Nelson
(B) Talleyrand
(C) Alexander II
(D) Duke of Wellington
Answer:
(D) Duke of Wellington

Question 28.
The fate of Napoleon was sealed forever in the fierce battle of-
(A) Trafalgar
(B) Austerlitz
(C) Leipzig
(D) Waterloo
Answer:
(D) Waterloo

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 2 Revolutionary Ideals: Napoleonic Empire and the Idea of Nationalism

Question 29.
Napoleon issued the Milan Decree in-
(A) 1807
(B) 1808
(C) 1809
(D) 1810
Answer:
(A) 1807

Fill in the blanks :

1. Napoleon was influenced by contemporary philosophers like _____ (Karl Marx/ Rousseau/Thomas Paine).
Answer:
Rousseau

2. Napoleon denied _____, (fundamental rights/liberty/fraternity) one of the major ideals of the French Revolution.
Answer:
liberty

3. _____ (Louis XVI/Louis XVIII/Napoleon/ Pope) introduced the doctrine of career open to talent.
Answer:
Napoleon

4. The Bank of France was established in _____ (1800/1899/1799).
Answer:
1800

5. Concordat means agreement especially between _____ (King/Church/Bishop) and state.
Answer:
Church

6. The Legion of Honour was introduced by _____ (Louis XIV/Napoleon/James I).
Answer:
Napoleon

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 2 Revolutionary Ideals: Napoleonic Empire and the Idea of Nationalism

7. Napoleon provided equality to his people but took away _____ (personality/ fraternity/liberty).
Answer:
liberty

8. The treaty of Campo Formio was signed in _____ (1792/1793/1797).
Answer:
1797

9. Napoleon’s greatest enemy was _____ (Austria/Germany/England).
Answer:
England

10. The Battle of Pyramid was fought in the year _____ (1793/1798/1799).
Answer:
1798

11. In _____ (1799/1796/1899) Napoleon seized the political power of France.
Answer:
1799

12. In 1799 Napoleon took away the powers of the _____ (National convention/Directory/ States General).
Answer:
Directory

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 2 Revolutionary Ideals: Napoleonic Empire and the Idea of Nationalism

13. By the treaty of Campo Formio Italy accepted the supremacy of _____ (Germany/Britain/France) over Lombardy.
Answer:
France

14. Napoleon was defeated by Nelson in the battle of _____ (Leipzing/Waterloo/Nile).
Answer:
Nile

15. The Egyptian army was defeated by _____ (Louis XVI/Leopold/Napoleon).
Answer:
Napoleon

16. Napoleon became the emperor of France in _____ (1803/1804/1805).
Answer:
1804

17. The Battle of Trafalgar was fought in the year _____ (1804/1805/1806).
Answer:
1805

18. The naval chief of England in the Battle of Trafalgar was _____ (Talleyrand/ Metternich/ Nelson).
Answer:
Nelson

19. The Treaty of Pressburg was signed after the Battle of _____ (UIm/Waterloo/ Austerlitz).
Answer:
Austerlitz

20. In the Battle of Austerlitz the joint army of Austria and _____ was defeated (Italy/ Germany/Russia).
Answer:
Russia

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 2 Revolutionary Ideals: Napoleonic Empire and the Idea of Nationalism

21. In the Battle of Jena _____ was defeated (Russia/Prussia/England).
Answer:
Prussia

22. The Treaty of Tilsit was signed in _____ (1806/1807/1804).
Answer:
1807

23. ____ (Germany/Russia/England) declared a counter blockade against the Berlin Decree known as Orders-in-Council.
Answer:
England

24. The ‘Spanish Ulcer’ ruined ____. (Arthur Wellesley/Napoleon/Duke of Wellington).
Answer:
Napoleon

25. The Moscow Expedition of the ____ (British/Italian/French) soldiers failed.
Answer:
French

26. Charles IV was the ruler of ____ (Italy/ Germany/Spain).
Answer:
Spain

27. Arthur Wellesley was the army general of (Russia/Britain/France)
Answer:
Britain

28. Spain and Portugal jointly declared war against Napoleon which is known as the ____ (Peninsular/Cold/Cudgel) war.
Answer:
Peninsular

29. ____ (Pope/Calonne/Napoleon) lost his Grand army in Russia.
Answer:
Napoleon

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 2 Revolutionary Ideals: Napoleonic Empire and the Idea of Nationalism

30. Napoleon was defeated in the battle of Waterloo by the ____ (Duke of Wellington/ Arthur Wellesley/Kutuzov).
Answer:
Duke of Wellington

31. Through the Milan Decree, Napoleon proclaimed that any ship of any country trying to reach ____ (Spain/Portugal/ England) would be confiscated.
Answer:
England

32. Napoleon drove out the Spanish king Ferdinand and appointed his brother ____ (Nelson/Kutuzov/Joseph) as the king of Spain.
Answer:
Joseph

33. The Fontainebleau Decree was issued by Napoleon in ____ (1807/1810/1812).
Answer:
1810

Mark True or False :

1. Religious tolerance was one of the chief features of the Napoleonic empire.
Answer: True

2. Napoleon’s legal code is still the basis of French laws.
Answer: True

3. Code Napoleon guaranteed civil liberties.
Answer: True

4. Napoleon was called the ‘Child of the Revolution’.
Answer: True

5. Napoleon laid great stress on liberty but destroyed equality.
Answer: False

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 2 Revolutionary Ideals: Napoleonic Empire and the Idea of Nationalism

6. Napoleon believed in absolute monarchy.
Answer: True

7. Napoleon was a supporter of the principles of French Revolution, viz, liberty, equality and socialism
Answer: False

8. Napoleon used to live in the Palace of Tuileries like the Bourbon kings.
Answer: True

9. Napoleon became the consul of France in 1798.
Answer: False

10. The Bank of France was established in 1799.
Answer: False

11. Napoleon introduced the Legion of Honour in 1804.
Answer: False

12. Napoleon removed the English from the port of Toulon in 1794.
Answer: False

13. The British admiral Nelson defeated Napoleon.
Answer: True

14. In the Battle of Pyramid France was defeated.
Answer: False

15. After the Treaty of Campo Formio Napoleon dropped his plan of invasion of England.
Answer: False

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 2 Revolutionary Ideals: Napoleonic Empire and the Idea of Nationalism

16. In 1804 a royalist insurrection broke out in France and Napoleon declared himself as the ‘Emperor of France’.
Answer: True

17. The supremacy of the English naval fleet was established after the Battle of Trafalgar.
Answer: True

18. After the Battle of Trafalgar Napoleon realised that England could not be defeated in direct war and abandoned the idea of defeating England on the sea.
Answer: True

19. Napoleon routed the English navy in the historic Battle of Trafalgar.
Answer: False

20. Nelson forced Austria to sign the Treaty of Pressburg.
Answer: False

21. According to the Treaty of Tilsit Napoleon recognised the Russian settlement in Germany, Italy and Poland.
Answer: False

22. According to the terms of the Treaty of Tilsit a new state named Westphalia was created.
Answer: True

23. After the Treaty of Tilsit Napoleon was virtually the lord of Europe.
Answer: True

24. The Third Coalition was formed by England, Austria and Britain against France.
Answer: False

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 2 Revolutionary Ideals: Napoleonic Empire and the Idea of Nationalism

25. Alexander I was the ruler of Russia.
Answer: True

26. Napoleon appointed his stepson Prince Engene as the governor of North Italy.
Answer: True

27. Napoleon appointed his brother Leopold III as the king of Naples.
Answer: False

28. The Berlin Decree was issued by Napoleon in 1806.
Answer: True

29. The Milan Decree was issued by Napoleon in 1808.
Answer: False

30. The Continental System was introduced by Napoleon in 1806.
Answer: True

31. The Continental System was declared by Napoleon against Prussia.
Answer: False

32. Napoleon introduced the Continental System in order to defeat Austria in an indirect war.
Answer: False

33. France did not have the naval power required to successfully enforce the Continental System.
Answer: True

34. The ‘Spanish Ulcer’ ruined Napoleon.
Answer: True

35. Napoleon was defeated in the ‘Battle of Nations’.
Answer: True

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 2 Revolutionary Ideals: Napoleonic Empire and the Idea of Nationalism

36. Napoleon won the Battle of Waterloo.
Answer: False

37. Louis XVI ascended the throne of France after Napoleon’s departure to Elba.
Answer: False

38. The Italian provinces rose in revolt against Napoleon.
Answer: True

39. Napoleon ruled in France for only 200 days after his return from Elba.
Answer: False

40. Russia was invaded by France in 1815.
Answer: False

41. The Russians smarting from their humiliation of Tilsit decided to withdraw from the Continental System.
Answer: True

42. The Kingdom of Westphalia was carved out of Russian territory and entrusted to Napoleon’s brother Jerome.
Answer: True

43. Napoleon won the Battle of Waterloo in 1815.
Answer: False

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 2 Revolutionary Ideals: Napoleonic Empire and the Idea of Nationalism

44. Napoleon died in 1840.
Answer: False

Choose the best explanation :

1. Statement: Napoleon is called the ‘Destroyer of the Revolution’.
Explanation (A): He was against individual freedom, rule of law, freedom of speech and press.
Explanation (B): He provided equality to his people by implementing the Code Napoleon.
Explanation (C): Every individual, however, low born could attain high posts on the basis of merit.
Answer:
Explanation (A): He was against individual freedom, rule of law, freedom of speech and press.

2. Statement: Napoleon introduced the Civil code in 1804.
Explanation (A): To punish the French.
Explanation (B): To prove his worth as an emperor.
Explanation (C): To estabilsh equality before law in France.
Answer:
Explanation (C): To estabilsh equality before law in France.

3. Statement: Austria signed the Treaty of Pressburg in 1805.
Explanation (A): Austria was defeated by the French in the Battle of Austerlitz.
Explanation (B): Austria was defeated in the Battle of Jena by France.
Explanation (C): Ausrtria was defeated in the Battle of Trafalgar.
Answer:
Explanation (A): Austria was defeated by the French in the Battle of Austerlitz.

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 2 Revolutionary Ideals: Napoleonic Empire and the Idea of Nationalism

4. Statement: The Battle of Trafalgar is noteworthy.
Explanation (A): It indirectly paved the way for the downfall of Napoleon.
Explanation (B): Napoleon devised a scheme to disrupt the commercial connections of the English.
Explanation (C): After the battle a royalist insurrection broke out in France.
Answer:
Explanation (A): It indirectly paved the way for the downfall of Napoleon.

5. Statement: The Continental System was imposed by Napoleon.
Explanation (A): to bring Russia under control.
Explanation (B): to bring Austria under control.
Explanation (C): to bring England under control.
Answer:
Explanation (C): to bring England under control.

6. Statement: Napoleon’s Moscow expedition failed.
Explanation (A): It was because of natural features and climatic condition.
Explanation (B): It was because of shortage of arms and weapons.
Explanation (C): It was because of revolt by Napoleon’s soldiers.
Answer:
Explanation (A): It was because of natural features and climatic condition.

Match the columns :

Question 1.

Column I Column II
1. Napoleon A. Czar of Russia
2. Alexander B. Concordat of 1801
3. Milan Decree C. Napoleon
4. One Hundred Days Rule D. 1806

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Napoleon B. Concordat of 1801
2. Alexander A. Czar of Russia
3. Milan Decree D. 1806

 

4. One Hundred Days Rule C. Napoleon

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 2 Revolutionary Ideals: Napoleonic Empire and the Idea of Nationalism

Question 2.

Column I Column II
1. Louvre Museum A. Naval Chief of England
2. Rule of Consulate B. Ruler of France
3. Nelson C. 1799-1804
4. Louis XVIII D. Napoleon

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Louvre Museum D. Napoleon
2. Rule of Consulate C. 1799-1804
3. Nelson A. Naval Chief of England
4. Louis XVIII B. Ruler of France

Question 3.

Column I Column II
1. Nation of Shopkeepers A. 1808
2. University of France B. Mother of Napoleon
3. Litizia Remolinio C. Toulon
4. Napoleon attacked D. Britain

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Nation of Shopkeepers D. Britain
2. University of France A. 1808
3. Litizia Remolinio B. Mother of Napoleon
4. Napoleon attacked C. Toulon

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 2 Revolutionary Ideals: Napoleonic Empire and the Idea of Nationalism

Question 4.

Column I Column II
1. Battle of Trafalgar A. 1807
2. Battle of Jena B. 1805
3. Battle of Nations C. 1815
4. Battle of Waterloo D. 1813

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Battle of Trafalgar B. 1805
2. Battle of Jena A. 1807
3. Battle of Nations D. 1813
4. Battle of Waterloo C. 1815

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 2 Revolutionary Ideals: Napoleonic Empire and the Idea of Nationalism

Question 5.

Column I Column II
1. 1807 A. Treaty of Pressburg
2. 1805 B. 1806
3. Milan Decree C. Treaty of Tilsit
4. Napoleon died D. 1821

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. 1807 C. Treaty of Tilsit
2. 1805 A. Treaty of Pressburg
3. Milan Decree B. 1806
4. Napoleon died C. Treaty of Tilsit

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 7 The League of Nations and The United Nations Organisation

Well structured WBBSE 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 7 The League of Nations and The United Nations Organisation can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

The League of Nations and The United Nations Organisation Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
The League of Nations was formed after – …………………
A. First World War
B. Second World War
C. First Balkan War
D. Second Balkan War
Answer:
A. First World War

Question 2.
President Wilson belonged to – …………………
A. France
B. USA
C. Italy
D. Spain
Answer:
B. USA

WBBSE Class 9 Geography MCQ Questions Chapter 6 Hazards and Disasters

Question 3.
Which of the following personalities was most active in the establishment of the League of Nations?
A. Woodrow Wilson
B. Lloyd George
C. Clemenceau
D. Orlando
Answer:
A. Woodrow Wilson

Question 4.
The country which did not join the League of Nations was – …………………
A. Germany
B. Britain
C. America
D. Spain
Answer:
C. America

Question 5.
The session of the League of Nations was held in a year – …………………
A. once
B. twice
C. thrice
D. weekly
Answer:
A. once

WBBSE Class 9 Geography MCQ Questions Chapter 6 Hazards and Disasters

Question 6.
The executive body of the League of Nations was called – …………………
A. Security Council
B. Secretariat
C. Executive Board
D. Board of Directors
Answer:
A. Security Council

Question 7.
The highest officer of the Secretariat of the League of Nations was called – …………………
A. Secretary General
B. General Secretary
C. Chairman
D. Collector
Answer:
A. Secretary General

Question 8.
Russia joined the Legue of Nations in – …………………
A. 1933
B. 1934
C. 1936
D. 1938
Answer:
B. 1934

Question 9.
Japan gave up the membership of League of Nations in – …………………
A. 1933
B. 1938
C. 1992
D. 1900
Answer:
A. 1933

WBBSE Class 9 Geography MCQ Questions Chapter 6 Hazards and Disasters

Question 10.
Which treaty set up the League of Nations?
A. Treaty of Sevres
B. Treaty of Versailles
C. Treaty of St. Germain
D. Treaty of Trianon
Answer:
B. Treaty of Versailles

Question 11.
The prestige of the League of Nations was generally satisfactory till – …………………
A. 1920
B. 1930
C. 1940
D. 1950
Answer:
B. 1930

Question 12.
In the beginning the country which was not allowed the membership was – …………………
A. France
B. Britain
C. Britain
D. Canada
Answer:
B. Britain

Question 13.
Which nation was a member of the League of Nations during its entire existence?
A. Japan
B. Germany
C. France
D. Russia
Answer:
C. France

WBBSE Class 9 Geography MCQ Questions Chapter 6 Hazards and Disasters

Question 14.
Which of the following is not associated with the organisation of the League?
A. a secretariat
B. a world bank
C. a court of international justice
D. an assembly
Answer:
B. a world bank

Question 15.
The UNO was founded on – …………………
A. 24 October 1945
B. 29 October 1946
C. 24 October 1947
D. 25 October 1946
Answer:
A. 24 October 1945

Question 16.
The number of judges in the International Court of Justice is – …………………
A. 15
B. 16
C. 17
D. 18
Answer:
A. 15

WBBSE Class 9 Geography MCQ Questions Chapter 6 Hazards and Disasters

Question 17.
The UN Charter was finalised and became effective – …………………
A. San Francisco, 24 October, 1945
B. Paris, 5 March, 1944
C. Yalta, 2 February, 1945
D. None of these
Answer:
A. San Francisco, 24 October, 1945

Question 18.
Trygve Lie, the first Secretary General of UNO, was from – …………………
A. USA
B. Korea
C. Norway
D. France
Answer:
C. Norway

Question 19.
The term of office of a judge of the International Court of Justice is – …………………
A. 6 years
B. 7 years
C. 8 years
D. 9 years
Answer:
D. 9 years

Question 20.
The number of principal organs of the United Nations is – …………………
A. 6
B. 5
C. 4
D. 3
Answer:
A. 6

Question 21.
The following is not associated with UN- …………………
A. ILO
B. WHO
C. ASEAN Association for South East Asian Nations.
D. IMF
Answer:
C. ASEAN Association for South East Asian Nations.

WBBSE Class 9 Geography MCQ Questions Chapter 6 Hazards and Disasters

Question 22.
Which of the following is not a chief organ of the UNO?
A. International Labour Organisation
B. Security Council
C. International Court of Justice
D. General Assembly
Answer:
A. International Labour Organisation

Question 23.
The full form of ILO is-…………………
A. Internal Labour Organisation
B. International Labour Organisation
C. International Lawyers’ Organisation
D. Internal Labour Office
Answer:
B. International Labour Organisation

Question 24.
UNO was established after- ………………..
A. Russo-Japanese war
B. First World War
C. Second World War
D. The Battle of Waterloo
Answer:
C. Second World War

Question 25.
Atlantic Charter was declared by – …………………
A. Roosevelt and Churchill
B. Churchill and Stalin
C. Jawaharlal Nehru and Stalin
D. None of the above
Answer:
A. Roosevelt and Churchill

Question 26.
The UN Charter was ratified in 1945 by – …………………
A. 25 nations
B. 51 nations
C. 33 nations
D. 37 nations
Answer:
B. 51 nations

Fill in the blanks

1. After the end of the First World War, a peace conference was convened in ………. (Poland/Russia/Paris).
Answer: Paris

2. The first session of the League of Nations was convened in ……… (1920/1921/1922).
Answer: 1920

WBBSE Class 9 Geography MCQ Questions Chapter 6 Hazards and Disasters

3. The Headquarters of the League of Nations was at ……… (Versailles/Geneva/Berlin).
Answer: Geneva

4. US President Woodrow Wilson made the Covenant of the League of Nations as an integral part of the Treaty of ……… (San Stephano/Sevres/Versailles).
Answer: Versailles

5. The Second World War began in ……… (1937/1938/1939).
Answer: 1939

6. The League of Nations was officially dissolved in ……… (1945/1946/1947).
Answer: 1946

7. The aim of the League of Nations was to maintain world ……… (war/peace/ authority).
Answer: Peace

8. Despite being the main architect of the League of Nations……… (France/Britain/ USA) did not join the League of Nations.
Answer: USA

9. The Treaty of ……… (Brussch/Versailles/ Amsterdam) included the planned formation of the League of Nations.
Answer: Versailles

10. The Permanent court of International Justice was set up in the City of ……… (Rome/New York/ Hague).
Answer: Hague

11. ……… (Woodrow Wilson/Hindenburg/ Kaprivi) for the first time enunciated the idea of the League of Nations in his Fourteen points.
Answer: Woodrow Wilson

12. The Second World War began in …………. (1937/1938/1939).
Answer: 1939

13. The UNO was founded in …………. (1945/1946) 1947).
Answer: 1945

14. The UNO was established in …………. (New York, USA/London, Britain/Paris, France
Answer: New York, USA

WBBSE Class 9 Geography MCQ Questions Chapter 6 Hazards and Disasters

15. The International Court of Justice was established in …………. (the Hague/London/ New York).
Answer: the Hague

16. The Headquarter of UNICEF is in ………….. (New York/London/Paris).
Answer: New York

17. UN Secretary General heads the …………. (General Assembly/Security Council/ Secretariat) of the United Nations Organisation.
Answer: Secretariat

18. The General Assembly of the United Nations meets in a regular session …………. (once/twice/once in two years) in a year.
Answer: once

19. …………. (USA/UK/Spain) is not a permanent member of the UN Security Council.
Answer: Spain

20. …………. (General Assembly/Security Council/ UNESCO) is not the main organ of the UNO.
Answer: UNESCO

21. World Disarmament Conference was convened in …………. (1929-30/1932-33/193334).
Answer: 1932-33

22. In the Yalta Conference Russia was represented by …………. (Lenin/Trotsky/ Stalin).
Answer: Stalin

23. The UN Charter was amended in …………. (1949/1950/1951) during the Korean War.
Answer: 1950

24. The …………. (Security Council/the General Assembly/the Economic and Social Council) is the heart and perhaps the brain of the UNO.
Answer: Security Council

State True or False

1. The Allied Powers in the First World War who signed the different peace treaties, were called the ‘original members’ of the League of Nations.
Answer: True

WBBSE Class 9 Geography MCQ Questions Chapter 6 Hazards and Disasters

2. The aim of the League of Nations was to maintain peace, order and security among the countries of the world.
Answer: True

3. The headquarters of the League of Nations was at Rome.
Answer: False

4. The main duty of the Council of the League of Nations was to resolve internal disputes of different countries.
Answer: False

5. France did not join the League of Nations.
Answer: False

6. The judges of the Permanent Court of International Justice were appointed by the Secretariat.
Answer: False

7. The League of Nations was established after the Spanish Civil War.
Answer: False

8. An important objective of the League of Nations was to promote international disarmament in order to reduce tension.
Answer: True

9. The League of Nations had several committees for cultural and economic relations between different nations.
Answer: True

10. The League of Nations secretariat was located at New York.
Answer: False

WBBSE Class 9 Geography MCQ Questions Chapter 6 Hazards and Disasters

11. The League of Nations still exists and settles international disputes.
Answer: False

12. The general body or Assembly of the League of Nations was composed of the representatives of the signatories to the Covenant of the League.
Answer: True

13. The League of Nations lacked an armed force of its own to enforce any action to achieve its aims.
Answer: True

16. The UNO was established after the Second World War.
Answer: True

17. The headquarters of UNO is located in London.
Answer: False

18. The name of the executive authority of the UNO is the Security Council.
Answer: True

19. 24 October is celebrated as the ‘United Nations Day’.
Answer: True

20. The Economic and Social Council of the UN specifically works on economic, social, cultural and humanitarian problems.
Answer: True

21. Veto power is given only to 4 countries.
Answer: False

22. General Assembly of the UNO meats twice in a year.
Answer: False

23. The normal term of office of the UN Secretary General is 5 years.
Answer: True

24. The Secretary General is required to submit an annual report on the work of the UN to the Security Council.
Answer: False

WBBSE Class 9 Geography MCQ Questions Chapter 6 Hazards and Disasters

25. The headquarter of the International Court of Justice is located in Netherlands.
Answer: True

26. The term for the judges of the International Court of Justice is 9 years.
Answer: True

27. The headquarters of the World Health Organisation is in Washington.
Answer: False

28. Ramaswami Mudaliar signed the UN Charter for India.
Answer: True

29. Seven languages are recognized by UN.
Answer: False

Match the columns

Question 1.

Column I Column II
1. Paris Peace Conference A. 1945
2. Atlantic Charter signed B. 1939
3. UNO established C. 1919
4. Second World War began D. 1941

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Paris Peace Conference C. 1919
2. Atlantic Charter signed D. 1941
3. UNO established A. 1945
4. Second World War began B. 1939

WBBSE Class 9 Geography MCQ Questions Chapter 6 Hazards and Disasters

Question 2.

Column I Column II
1. Woodrow Wilson A. Trygve Lie
2. First Secretary General of UNO B. President of USA
3. Roosevelt C. Prime Minister of Great Britain
4. Winston Churchill D. Author of ‘Fourteen Points’

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Woodrow Wilson D. Author of ‘Fourteen Points’
2. First Secretary General of UNO A. Trygve Lie
3. Roosevelt B. President of USA
4. Winston Churchill C. Prime Minister of Great Britain

Question 3.

Column I Column II
1. International Court of Justice A. Executive body of UNO
2. Security Council B. Autonomous body of League of Nations
3. International Labour Organisation C. Constitution of the League of Nations
4. Covenant D. Judicial organ of UNO

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. International Court of Justice D. Judicial organ of UNO
2. Security Council A. Executive body of UNO
3. International Labour Organisation B. Autonomous body of League of Nations
4. Covenant C. Constitution of the League of Nations

Question 4.

Column I Column II
1. Veto A. Administrative body
2. Council B. Agreement
3. Covenant C. Right to reject measure
4. Secretariat D. Administrative office

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Veto C. Right to reject measure
2. Council A. Administrative body
3. Covenant B. Agreement
4. Secretariat D. Administrative office

WBBSE Class 9 Geography MCQ Questions Chapter 6 Hazards and Disasters

Question 5.

Column I Column II
1. The Assembly A. Hague
2. Headquarter of WHO B. An organ of UNO
3. International Court of Justice established C. Organ of the League of Nations
4. Trusteeship Council D. Geneva

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. The Assembly D. Geneva
2. Headquarter of WHO A. Hague
3. International Court of Justice established B. An organ of UNO
4. Trusteeship Council C. Organ of the League of Nations

Question 6.

Column I Column II
1. Yalta Conference A. 1926
2. Germany joined the League of Nations B. 1943
3. Last session of the League of Nations C. 1945
4. Moscow conference D. 1939

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Yalta Conference C. 1945
2. Germany joined the League of Nations A. 1926
3. Last session of the League of Nations D. 1939
4. Moscow conference B. 1943

Question 7.

Column I Column II
1. Dumbarton Oaks Conference A. 15 members
2. USA B. Childe Harold’s Pilgrimage
3. Lord Byron C. 1944
4. Secretary Council of UNO D. Permanent member of Security Council

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Dumbarton Oaks Conference C. 1944
2. USA D. Permanent member of Security Council
3. Lord Byron B. Childe Harold’s Pilgrimage
4. Secretary Council of UNO A. 15 members

WBBSE Class 9 Geography MCQ Questions Chapter 6 Hazards and Disasters

Question 8.

Column I Column II
1. 51 states A. Four permanent members
2. ILO headquarter B. Secretary-General of League
3. League Council C. signed UN Charter
4. Eric Drummond D. Geneva

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. 51 states C. signed UN Charter
2. ILO headquarter D. Geneva
3. League Council A. Four permanent members
4. Eric Drummond B. Secretary-General of League

Question 9.

Column I Column II
1. General Assembly A. Make efforts to stop war
2. Cordell Hall B. debating body
3. Yalta Conference C. US Secretary of State
4. League Council D. Russia took part

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. General Assembly B. debating body
2. Cordell Hall C. US Secretary of State
3. Yalta Conference D. Russia took part
4. League Council A. Make efforts to stop war

WBBSE Class 9 Geography MCQ Questions Chapter 6 Hazards and Disasters

Question 10.

Column I Column II
1. Tehran Declaration A. 24th October 1945
2. Washington Conference B. 1943
3. UN Charter became effective C. 1942
4. 51 nations D. Charter members

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Tehran Declaration B. 1943
2. Washington Conference C. 1942
3. UN Charter became effective A. 24th October 1945
4. 51 nations D. Charter members

Question 11.

Column I Column II
1. Communist China A. Report on Manchurian invasion
2. League Covenant B. Official command
3. Mandate C. Permanent member of Security Council
4. Lytton Commission D. A document

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Communist China C. Permanent member of Security Council
2. League Covenant D. A document
3. Mandate C. Permanent member of Security Council
4. Lytton Commission A. Report on Manchurian invasion

WBBSE Class 9 Geography MCQ Questions Chapter 6 Hazards and Disasters

Question 12.

Column I Column II
1. League Covenant drafted in A. Specialised agency of UNO
2. Veto B. 15 judges
3. UNRRA C. Right to reject measure
4. International Court of Justice D. Paris Peace Conference

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. League Covenant drafted in D. Paris Peace Conference
2. Veto C. Right to reject measure
3. UNRRA A. Specialised agency of UNO
4. International Court of Justice B. 15 judges