Well structured WBBSE 9 Geography MCQ Questions Chapter 1 Earth as a Planet can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Earth as a Planet Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
The ‘Blue Planet’ is another name for- …………….
A. Earth
B. Saturn
C. Venus
D. Mars
Answer:
A. Earth

Question 2.
The planet nearest to the earth is- …………….
A. Mercury
B. Venus
C. Mars
D. Jupiter
Answer:
B. Venus

Question 3.
The earth’s equatorial diameter is- …………….
A. 12,712 km
B. 12,745 km
C. 12,757 km
D. 12,500 km
Answer:
C. 12,757 km

Question 4.
The earth’s polar diameter is- …………….
A. 12,400 km
B. 12,714 km
C. 12,700 km
D. 12,720 km
Answer:
B. 12,714 km

Question 5.
“The earth revolves around the sun.” – This was first stated by-…………….
A. Galileo
B. Copernicus
C. Aryabhatta
D. Varahamihir
Answer:
C. Aryabhatta

Question 6.
The planet closest to the sun is-…………….
A. Mercury
B. Venus
C. Pluto
D. Neptune
Answer:
A. Mercury

Question 7.
“The earth revolves around the sun and on its own axis.” The first person to say this was-…………….
A. Copernicus
B. Aryabhatta
C. Galileo
D. Newton
Answer:
A. Copernicus

Question 8.
The average distance of the earth from the sun is-…………….
A. 140 million km
B. 150 million km
C. 160 million km
D. 120 million km
Answer:
B. 150 million km

Question 9.
The highest point on the surface of the earth is-…………….
A. Mount Everest
B. Pamir Plateau
C. Tibetan Plateau
D. North Pole region
Answer:
A. Mount Everest

Question 10.
The deepest known point on the earth is-…………….
A. Mariana Trench
B. Sunda Trench
C. St. Louis Trench
D. South Pole region
Answer:
A. Mariana Trench

Question 11.
The difference between the earth’s polar diameter and the equatorial diameter is -…………….
A. 40 km
B. 42 km
C. 43km
D. 45 km
Answer:
C. 43km

Question 12.
An example of a dwarf planet is- …………….
A. Pluto
B. Mercury
C. Mars
D. Neptune
Answer:
A. Pluto

Question 13.
The Bedford Canal Experiment was carried out by-…………….
A. Wallace
B. Torricelli
C. Foucault
D. Galileo
Answer:
A. Wallace

Question 14.
The average radius of the earth is-…………….
A. 6,300 km
B. 6,371 km
C. 6,500 km
D. 6,600 km
Answer:
B. 6,371 km

Question 15.
In 1797, scientist Henry Cavendish determined the earth’s-…………….
A. density
B. weight
C. circumference
D. diameter
Answer:
B. weight

Question 16.
In terms of distance from the sun, the earth is-…………….
A. second
B. third
C. fourth
D. fifth
Answer:
B. third

Question 17.
The average circumference of the earth is -…………….
A. 40,400 km
B. 40,075 km
C. 40,500 km
D. 40,200 km
Answer:
B. 40,075 km

Question 18.
The sun is a-…………….
A. planet
B. satellite
C. star
D. galaxy
Answer:
C. star

Question 19.
The sun is heavier than the earth by-…………….
A. 0.35 million times
B. 0.33 million times
C. 0.325 million times
D. 0.32 million times
Answer:
B. 0.33 million times

Question 20.
The number of Jovian planets in the solar system is -…………….
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 6
Answer:
B. 8

Question 21.
The planet which has rings around it is-…………….
A. Saturn
B. Earth
C. Mercury
D. Venus
Answer:
A. Saturn

Question 22.
The name of one satellite of Saturn is -…………….
A. Moon
B. Titan
C. Phobos
D. Haumea
Answer:
B. Titan

Question 23.
The total number of components in a GPS is-…………….
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
C. 5
Answer:
A. 3

Question 24.
In ancient times, man believed that the earth was a-…………….
A. sphere
B. oblate spheroid
C. plane
D. square
Answer:
C. plane

Question 25.
The ancient Mesopotamians believed that the earth was -…………….
A. floating in space
B. floating on an ocean
C. a single entity standing on its own
D. is not floating anywhere
Answer:
B. floating on an ocean

Question 26.
“The earth is round.”- This statement was first made by-…………….
A. Plato
B. Pythagoras
C. Aristotle
D. Strabo
Answer:
B. Pythagoras

Question 27.
Pythagoras was a-…………….
A. Greek philosopher
B. Roman philosopher
C. British philosopher
D. Portuguese philosopher
Answer:
A. Greek philosopher

Question 28.
The first empirical proof that the earth is round was given by-…………….
A. Pythagoras
B. Magellan
C. Columbus
D. Aristotle
Answer:
B. Magellan

Question 29.
A proof that the earth is round is-…………….
A. the view from the mast of a ship
B. travelling around the world in a ship
C. photographs taken from space
D. the view from the top of Mt. Everest
Answer:
C. photographs taken from space

Question 30.
The person to calculate the earth’s circumference on the basis of the difference in the angle of incidence of sun rays was-…………….
4. Strabo
B. Aristotle
C. Eratosthenes
D. Plato
Answer:
C. Eratosthenes

Question 31.
The Old Bedford River is in-…………….
A. England
B. France
C. Germany
D. Italy
Answer:
A. England

Question 32.
The earth can be called an oblate spheroid because-…………….
A. the earth’s surface is elevated by 15m at the North Pole
B. there is more water at the equatorial region
C. the highest point on earth is Mt. Everest
D. the poles are flattened and the equatorial region is bulging out
Answer:
D. the poles are flattened and the equatorial region is bulging out

Question 33.
The earth’s gravitational force is the greatest-…………….
A. at the equatorial region
B. in the ocean beds
C. on mountain peaks
D. at the poles
Answer:
D. at the poles

Question 34.
The pendulum clock experiment was conducted by-…………….
A. Pythagoras
B. Eratosthenes
C. Jean Richer
D. Galileo
Answer:
C. Jean Richer

Question 35.
The word ‘geoid’ means-…………….
A. oblate spheroid
B. perfect sphere
C. flattened
D. like the earth
Answer:
D. like the earth

Question 36.
The shape of Mercury and Venus is-…………….
A. oblate spheroid
B. perfect sphere
C. geoid
D. flattened
Answer:
B. perfect sphere

Question 37.
To complete one revolution around the sun, Venus takes-…………….
A. 365 days
B. 24 hours
C. 243 days
C. 27 days
Answer:
C. 243 days

Question 38.
One of the believers in the earth-centric model of the universe was-…………….
A. Copernicus
B. Aristotle
C. Bruno
D. Brahe
Answer:
B. Aristotle

Question 39.
The telescope was invented by-…………….
A. Kepler
B. Galileo Galilei
C. Newton
D. Edmond Halley
Answer:
B.Galileo Galilei

Question 40.
If we move 111.3 kilometre from the equator towards the poles, the angle of incidence of sun’s rays will increase by-…………….
A. 1° 30‘
B. 2° 30‘
C. 1°
D. 1° 02‘
Answer:
C. 1°

Question 41.
To complete one revolution around the earth, the moon takes-…………….
4. 36 days
B. 20 days
C. 27 days
D. 27 \(\frac{1}{3}\) days
Answer:
D. 27 \(\frac{1}{3}\) days

Question 42.
The latitudinal coordinate of Paris is-…………….
A. 26° 32′ N
B. 47° N
C. 49° N
D. 75° 03′ N
Answer:
C. 49° N

Question 43.
The Cayenne islands are in-…………….
A. North America
B. South America
C. Asia
D. Austria
Answer:
B. South America

Question 44.
The length of the earth’s orbit is -…………….
A. 9.6 million km
B. 11 million km
D. 14.70 million km
D. 15.20 million km
Answer:
A. 9.6 million km

Question 45.
The deepest point in the Mariana Trench has a depth of-…………….
A. 10,053 m
B. 11,035 m
C. 11,350 m
D. 10,994 m
Answer:
B. 11,035 m

Question 46.
The earth’s centrifugal force is greatest at the-…………….
A. equatorial region
B. tropics
C. polar regions
D. frigid zone
Answer:
B. tropics

Question 47.
To determine the location of any place on earth using GPS, the number of satellites launched in space by the USA is-…………….
A. 23
B. 24
C. 25
D. 31
Answer:
A. 23

Question 48.
The largest planet in the solar system is-…………….
A. Mercury
B. Venus
C. Jupiter
D. Mars
Answer:
C. Jupiter

Question 49.
During a lunar eclipse, the shadow of the earth on the moon looks-…………….
A. straight
B. curved
C. circular
D. rectangular
Answer:
C. circular

Question 50.
As we go higher up from the surface of the earth, the line of horizon appears-…………….
A. shorter
B. longer
C. stays the same
D. none of the above
Answer:
B. longer

Question 51.
At present, the number of known planets in the solar system is-…………….
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 8
Answer:
D. 8

Question 52.
Eratosthenes was-…………….
A. a Roman philosopher
B. a Greek philosopher
C. an Egyptian philosopher
D. an Indian philosopher
Answer:
B. a Greek philosopher

Question 53.
At present, the number of dwarf planets in the solar system is-…………….
A. 5
C. 6
B. 4
D. 3
Answer:
A. 5

Fill in the blanks

1. The first person to calculate the circumference of the earth was …………….
Answer: Eratosthenes

2. In terms of size, the earth stands among …………… the planets of the solar system.
Answer: fifth

3. The sun is …………… times larger in size than the earth.
Answer: 1.3 million

4. The earth’s equatorial diameter is ……………..than its polar diameter.
Answer: greater

5. The only satellite of the earth is the……………..
Answer: moon

6. The earth is divided equally into ……………..lines of longitude.
Answer: 360

7. The moon is at a distance of about ……………..km from the earth.
Answer: 3,84,400 km

8. The sun and the heavenly objects that revolve around it are together known as the ……………..
Answer: solar system

9. The satellites used for GPS are generally at a distance of ……………..km from the earth’s surface.
Answer: 20,200

10. The person who first succeeded in estimating the volume of the earth was……………..
Answer: Aristotle

11. One stadia is equal to …………….. metre.
Answer: 185

12. From space, the earth appears …………….. in colour.
Answer: blue

13. The earth is an …………….. spheroid.
Answer: oblate

14. Magellan started his expedition from the city of …………….. in Spain.
Answer: Seville

15. …………….. was the first person to observe that the earth was round after observing the relative position of some stars.
Answer: Aristotle

16. …………….. estimated the circumference of the earth on the basis of the angle of incidence of the sun’s rays.
Answer: Eratosthenes

17. The Bedford Canal Experiment proves that the earth is……………..
Answer: spherical

18. The …………….. star is visible from any point in the Northern Hemisphere.
Answer: North/ Pole

19. The earth’s North and South Poles are……………..
Answer: slightly flattened

20. The earth’s equatorial diameter is ……………..km.
Answer: 12,757

21. The earth’s polar diameter is ……………..km.
Answer: 12,714

22. In the year…………….., Jean Richard conducted the pendulum experiment.
Answer: 1671

State True or False

1. The moon does not have any light of its own.
Answer: True

2. The shape of the earth is geoid.
Answer: True

3. Saturn is called the ‘King of the Planets’.
Answer: False

4. The average diameter of the earth is 12,800 kilometre.
Answer: False

5. The earth, along with other planets, moves around the sun.
Answer: True

6. The earth is the only planet in the solar system known to support life.
Answer: True

7. Stars do not have light of their own.
Answer: False

8. The earth’s orbit is elliptical in shape.
Answer: True

9. If the earth was a flat plane, sunrise and sunset would occur at the same time at every place on earth.
Answer: True

10. Artificial satellites are used to gather information for use by GPS.
Answer: True

11. The main control system of GPS is in the United States of America.
Answer: True

12. According to Eratosthenes, the circumference of the earth is 2,50,000 stadia.
Answer: True

13. Eris is a planet.
Answer: False

14. Planets are smaller than dwarf planets.
Answer: False

15. The weight of any object is always lesser at the poles.
Answer: False

16. The shape of the earth is an oblate spheroid because of centrifugal force.
Answer: True

17. The Southern Hemisphere has a greater percentage of landmass.
Answer: False

18. The shape of the earth is known as geoid.
Answer: True

19. Mercury’s shape is like that of the earth.
Answer: False

20. The earth’s circumference was calculated by Ptolemy.
Answer: False

21. The average circumference of the earth is about 40,000 km.
Answer: True

22. With the help of GPS, we have come to know the exact shape of the earth.
Answer: True

23. The gravitational force acting on the city of Paris is stronger than that at the Cayenne Islands.
Answer: True

24. The earth’s orbit is 960 million km and its shape is circular.
Answer: False

25. Saturn is the largest planet in the solar system.
Answer: False

26. The earth’s area is determined by using the formula 4πR.
Answer: False

27. The Pole Star can be seen even from the Southern Hemisphere.
Answer: False

28. Jupiter has two satellites.
Answer: False

29. The dwarf planet Eris has 10 satellites.
Answer: False

30. The Pole Star is located at an angle of 90° to the Equator.
Answer: False

31. The gravitational force acting on the earth is the same at all latitudes.
Answer: False

32. It is because of the presence of the atmosphere that only the white ray from the sun reaches the earth’s surface.
Answer: True

Match the columns

Column I	Column II
A. Dwarf planet	A. Earth
B. Ringed planet	B. Jupiter
C. King of planets	C. Pluto
D. Blue Planet	D. Saturn

Answer:
1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A

Column I	Column II
1. Earth’s equatorial diameter	A. 6,371 km
2. Earth’s polar diameter	B. 12,714 km
3. Earth’s average circumference	C. 12,757 km
4. Earth’s radius	D. 40,000 km

Answer:
1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A

Crossword

Question 1.

Clues:
Down:
1. The seventh planet of the solar system.
2. He said that the earth revolves around the sun.
Across:
3 . He first measured the diameter of the earth.
4. Largest planet of the solar system.
5. Bedford level experiment shows that the earth is
Answer:
Down:
1. URANUS
2. COPERNICUS
Across:
3. ERATOSTHENES
4. JUPITER
5. SPHERICAL

Question 2.

Clues:
Down:
1. The eighth planet of the solar system.
4. A satellite of Saturn.
Across:
2 . The ‘blue planet’ of the solar system.
3. A man-made object that orbits the sun, moon, planets and helps in communication.
Answer:
Down:
1. NEPTUNE
4. TITAN
Across:
2. EARTH
3. SATELLITE

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 3.1C Transpiration can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Transpiration Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
During transpiration, plants release-
(A) Water from the body
(B) Excess water as vapour
(C) Only CO₂
(D) Water and CO₂
Answer:
(B) Excess water as vapour

Question 2.
Transpiration occurs through-
(A) Stomata of leaves
(B) Lenticels of stem
(C) Cuticle of leaves
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 3.
Maximum transpiration occurs through-
(A) Stomata
(B) Cuticle
(C) Lenticels
(D) Cracks on the plant surface
Answer:
(A) Stomata

Question 4.
Rate of transpiration is-
(A) Inversely proportional to the intensity of light
(B) Directly proportional to the humidity of atmosphere
(C) Directly proportional to the intensity of light
(D) Inversely proportional to the rate of water absorption
Answer:
(C) Directly proportional to the intensity of light

Question 5.
The scientist who said that “transpiration is a necessary evil”-
(A) Curtis
(B) Barnes
(C) Woodland
(D) Calvin
Answer:
(A) Curtis

Question 6.
Stoma remains guarded by a pair of-
(A) Guard cells
(B) Companion cells
(C) Sclerenchymatous cells
(D) Sieve cells
Answer:
(A) Guard cells

Question 7.
Increase in CO₂ concentration in the atmosphere-
(A) Increases transpiration
(B) Decreases transpiration
(C) Has no role in transpiration
(D) Stops transpiration
Answer:
(B) Decreases transpiration

Question 8.
increase in atmospheric temperature-
(A) Increases transpiration
(B) Decreases transpiration
(C) Shows no significant change in transpiration
(D) Has no role in transpiration
Answer:
(A) Increases transpiration

Question 9.
Very high temperature (above 35° C)-
(A) Increases the rate of transpiration
(B) Decreases the rate of transpiration
(C) Shows no change in the rate of transpiration
(D) Stops transpiration
Answer:
(B) Decreases the rate of transpiration

Question 10.
Higher rate of transpiration needs-
(A) Sudden gusty wind
(B) Continuous hot air flow
(C) Steady moist wind flow
(D) All of these
Answer:
(B) Continuous hot air flow

Question 11.
During hot summer noon, herbaceous plants wilt because of–
(A) Short food production
(B) Evaporation
(C) Excess transpiration
(D) Lower ascent of sap
Answer:
(C) Excess transpiration

Question 12.
A plant shows higher rate of transpiration, which has-
(A) Wider leaves
(B) Fewer leaves
(C) Finer leaves
(D) Leaves with cuticle
Answer:
(A) Wider leaves

Question 13.
Transpiration occurs at night in plant.
(A) Mango
(B) Sugarcane
(C) Aloe vera
(D) Colocasia (Arum)
Answer:
(C) Aloe vera

Question 14.
Desert plants perform transpiration preferably-
(A) At morning
(B) At dusk
(C) At afternoon
(D) At night
Answer:
(D) At night

Question 15.
Normal transpiration makes a plant-
(A) Weak
(B) Cool
(C) Fresh
(D) Dry
Answer:
(B) Cool

Question 16.
Which of the following leaves performs transpiration most efficiently?
(A) Pine leaf
(B) Arum leaf
(C) Paddy leaf
(D) Grass leaf
Answer:
(B) Arum leaf

Question 17.
The cells which are present around the guard cells are called-
(A) Epithelial cells
(B) Sclerenchyma cells
(C) Prosenchyma cells
(D) Subsidiary cells
Answer:
(D) Subsidiary cells

Question 18.
Which of the following leaves shows least rate of transpiration?
(A) Banana leaf
(B) Rose leaf
(C) Cactus leaf
(D) Apple leaf
Answer:
(C) Cactus leaf

Question 19.
The rate of transpiration through cuticle is about $\%$ of the total transpiration by plants.
(A) 0.1
(B) 10
(C) 90
(D) 100
Answer:
(B) 10

Question 20.
In which type of leaves does maximum rate of transpiration occur?
(A) Tender leaf
(B) Fully grown leaf
(C) Aged leaf
(D) Dry leaf
Answer:
(B) Fully grown leaf

Question 21.
Guard cells are shaped.
(A) Oval
(B) Square
(C) Bean
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Bean

Question 22.
The opening and closing of stomatal pore is controiled by cells.
(A) Mesophyll
(B) Spongy
(C) Guard
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Guard

Question 23.
The essential element which controls the rate of transpiration is-
(A) Potassium
(B) Iron
(C) Boron
(D) Manganese
Answer:
(A) Potassium

Question 24 .
The hormone, which helps in the closing of stomatal pore, is-
(A) Auxin
(B) Abscisic Acid (ABA)
(C) Cytokinin
(D) Indole Acetic Acid (IAA)
Answer:
(B) Abscisic Acid (ABA)

Question 25.
Highest rate of transpiration occurs in-
(A) Hot and humid climate
(B) Cold and dry climate
(C) Cold and moist climate
(D) Hot and dry climate
Answer:
(D) Hot and dry climate

Fill in the blanks :

1. Minimum rate of transpiration occurs through ____.
2. ____ ions help in the opening of stomata.
3. Xerophytic plants possess _____ stomata.
4. In dorsiventral leaves, maximum number of stomata is seen on the ____ side.
5. ____ is an example of anti-transpirant.
6. In airy environment, rate of transpiration ____.
7. A thin and porous cuticle _____ transpiration rate.
8. _____ is a slow and controlled process in plants.
9. Drooping of plant, due to excess transpiration is called _____.

Answer:

1. Lenticels
2. Potassium
3. Sunken
4. Ventral ABA
5. Abscisic acid
6. Increases
7. Enhances
8. Transpiration
9. Wilting

State true or false :

1. Ganong’s potometer is used to measure the rate of respiration.
2. Sunken stomata are seen in evergreen plants.
3. Plants give out excess water as vapours by a process called evaporation.
4. Transpiration is a physiological process.
5. Excess transpiration causes wilting of plants.
6. Maximum rate of transpiration occurs through cuticle.
7. Relative humidity is one of the main controlling factors of evaporation.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. True
6. False

Match the columns :

Question 1.

Left column	Right column
1. Maximum transpiration	A. Lenticel
2. Lens-shaped pores on bark	B. Cuticle
3. Guttation	C. Stomata
4. Waxy coating on leaves	D. Spine
	E. Hydathode

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Maximum transpiration	C. Stomata
2. Lens-shaped pores on bark	A. Lenticel
3. Guttation	E. Hydathode
4. Waxy coating on leaves	B. Cuticle

Question 2.

Left column	Right column
1. Physical process	A. Guttation
2. Photochemical process	B. Wilting
3. Water disposal through hydathodes	C. Respiration
4. Drooping of plant	D. Evaporation
	E. Photosynthesis

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Physical process	D. Evaporation
2. Photochemical process	E. Photosynthesis
3. Water disposal through hydathodes	A. Guttation
4. Drooping of plant	B. Wilting

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 3.1D Movement of Water, Minerals, Food and Gases can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Movement of Water, Minerals, Food and Gases Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Rate of diffusion increases with the-
(A) Increase in temperature of the medium
(B) Increase in viscosity of the medium
(C) Decrease in relative difference in concentration of two media
(D) All of these
Answer:
(A) Increase in temperature of the medium

Question 2.
Which type of transport never needs any carrier?
(A) Simple diffusion
(B) Osmosis
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Ion absorption
Answer:
(C) Both (A) and (B)

Question 3.
In diffusion of molecules, the main driving force is the-
(A) Electrical gradient
(B) Concentration gradient
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Both (A) and (B)

Question 4.
O₂ is absorbed in the living cells by-
(A) Diffusion
(B) Osmosis
(C) Active absorption
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Diffusion

Question 5.
The main cause of diffusion pressure is-
(A) Size of diffusible molecules
(B) Velocity of the diffusible molecules
(C) Weight of the diffusible molecules
(D) Viscosity of the medium
Answer:
(B) Velocity of the diffusible molecules

Question 6.
The phloem element which helps in the transport of food material, is-
(A) Sieve tube
(B) Companion cells
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Both (A) and (B)

Question 7.
Increase in size of diffusible molecules results into-
(A) Slower rate of diffusion
(B) Faster rate of diffusion
(C) No change in diffusion rate
(D) Stoppage of diffusion
Answer:
(A) Slower rate of diffusion

Question 8.
Increase in viscosity of medium-
(A) Has no role in diffusion
(B) Has negative role in diffusion rate
(C) Has positive role in diffusion rate
(D) Stops diffusion completely
Answer:
(B) Has negative role in diffusion rate

Question 9.
If a living cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, the protoplasm-
(A) Shrinks
(B) Swells
(C) Remains as it is
(D) Gets dissolved in the solution
Answer:
(A) Shrinks

Question 10.
In active transport, sodium and potassium ions-
(A) Jointly enter into a cell through cell membrane
(B) Move against each other through cell membrane
(C) Never enter in a cell through cell membrane
(D) Sodium ion enters but potassium ion does not enter in a cell
Answer:
(B) Move against each other through cell membrane

Question 11.
During deplasmolysis-
(A) A cell with shrunken protoplasm swells
(B) Protoplasm shrinks
(C) Cell membrane swells
(D) Cell membrane shrinks
Answer:
(A) A cell with shrunken protoplasm swells

Question 12.
Select the correct statement.
(A) Diffusion is possible only in liquid medium.
(B) Osmosis occurs through a permeable membrane.
(C) Semi-permeable membrane allows solvent molecules to pass through it.
(D) All cell membranes are semi-permeable in nature.
Answer:
(C) Semi-permeable membrane allows solvent molecules to pass through it.

Question 13.
In active transport, ATP-
(A) Carries the ions with it
(B) Pushes the ions through the membrane
(C) Binds to the carrier protein
(D) Provides physical energy
Answer:
(C) Binds to the carrier protein

Question 14.
The transport of molecules with the help of a carrier protein but without any role of ATP through a cell membrane, is called-
(A) Facilitated diffusion
(B) Diffusion
(C) Passive transport
(D) Active transport
Answer:
(A) Facilitated diffusion

Question 15.
It a flower is cut and immersed in dilute Nacl solution, then-
(A) Exosmosis occurs
(B) Endosmosis occurs
(C) Absorption of solutes inside the cells of flower occurs
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Endosmosis occurs

Fill in the blanks :

1. _____ does not need any metabolic energy for transportation.
2. In osmosis, the molecules of _____ move from a region of low concentration to a region of high concentration.
3. Diffusion occurs due to difference in ____ of the two media.
4. The physiological process for which a semi-permeable membrane is required, is called ____.
5. The process which helps herbs to stand erect on the ground, is ____.
6. The pressure flow hypothesis was given by scientist ______.
7. The cell membrane of a living cell is usually a kind of _____ permeable membrane.
8. The passage of water from one cell to the next is called _____ osmosis.

Answer:

1. Water
2. Solvent
3. Density
4. Osmosis
5. Osmosis
6. Munch
7. Selectively
8. Intercellular

State true or false :

1. ‘Root Pressure Theory’ was proposed by Curtis.
2. Transpiration pull helps in the ascent of sap.
3. A cell shrinks when placed in hypotonic solution.
4. Air bladder of fish is an example of a semipermeable membrane.
5. Symport and antiport are types of coupled transport.
6. Only downward transport of food materials takes place in phloem.
7. Tif Swelling of the protoplasm of a flaccid cell by endosmosis is called deplasmolysis.
8. Call wall is a selectively premeable membrare.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. True
6. False
7. True
8. False

Match the columns :

Question 1.

Left column	Right column
1. Active transport	A. Diffusion
2. Ascent of sap	B. Shrinking of protoplasm
3. Passive transport	C. Upward transport through xylem
4. Plasmolysis	D. ATP consumption
	E. Photolysis

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Active transport	D. ATP consumption
2. Ascent of sap	C. Upward transport through xylem
3. Passive transport	A. Diffusion
4. Plasmolysis	B. Shrinking of protoplasm

Question 2.

Left column	Right column
1. Endosmosis	A. Hypertonic solution
2. Symport	B. Hypotonic solution
3. Exosmosis	C. Transport towards same direction
4. Transpiration pull	D. Transport towards opposite directions
	E. Root pressure

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Endosmosis	B. Hypotonic solution
2. Symport	C. Transport towards same direction
3. Exosmosis	A. Hypertonic solution
4. Transpiration pull	E. Root pressure

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 3.2A Respiration: Organ-Level Respiration can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Respiration: Organ-Level Respiration Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which feature is essential for a respiratory organ?
(A) It must have wide surface area
(B) It must be wet
(C) It must be well vascularised
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 2.
Respiratory organ of starfish is
(A) Tube feet
(B) Lungs
(C) Book lung
(D) Gills
Answer:
(A) Tube feet

Question 3.
The respiratory organ of herbs are-
(A) Stomata
(B) Stomata and lenticels
(C) Stomata and cuticle
(D) Cuticle
Answer:
(C) Stomata and cuticle

Question 4.
Halophytes respire with-
(A) Stomata
(B) Stomata and cuticle
(C) Stomata and pneumatophores
(D) Pneumatophores and cuticle
Answer:
(C) Stomata and pneumatophores

Question 5.
Pneumatophores collect air from the-
(A) Atmosphere
(B) Mud
(C) Saline water
(D) Moist soil
Answer:
(A) Atmosphere

Question 6.
The most efficient organ for aerial respiration in animals is-
(A) Skin
(B) Lungs
(C) Book lungs
(D) Trachea
Answer:
(B) Lungs

Question 7.
Blood plays no role in carrying respiratory gases in-
(A) Fishes
(B) Earthworms
(C) Cockroaches
(D) Molluscs
Answer:
(C) Cockroaches

Question 8.
Gills collect oxygen from water by-
(A) Diffusion
(B) Endosmosis
(C) Active transport
(D) Facilitated diffusion
Answer:
(A) Diffusion

Question 9.
Trachea of insects supply oxygen to-
(A) Haemolymph
(B) Body fluid
(C) Intercellular fluid
(D) Cells
Answer:
(C) Intercellular fluid

Question 10.
Other than fishes, gills are seen in-
(A) Aquatic insects
(B) Spiders
(C) Tadpoles
(D) All of these
Answer:
(C) Tadpoles

Question 11.
Air enters in the tracheal network of insects by-
(A) Stomata
(B) Tracheoles
(C) Plurites
(D) Spiracles
Answer:
(D) Spiracles

Question 12.
Elongated respiratory tube acts as an accessory respiratory organ in-
(A) Koi fish
(B) Magur fish
(C) Singhi fish
(D) Shol fish
Answer:
(C) Singhi fish

Question 13.
Pleural fluid is present in between the-
(A) Lung and visceral pleura
(B) Lung and parietal pleura
(C) Visceral and parietal pleura
(D) Alveoli
Answer:
(C) Visceral and parietal pleura

Question 14.
Total alveoli in two lungs of a healthy and normal human being ranges from-
(A) 10-20 crores
(B) 20-25 crores
(C) 30-50 crores
(D) 70-80 crores
Answer:
(C) 30-50 crores

Question 15.
Which statement is correct?
(A) In a normal human being, both lungs are of same volume.
(B) In human, right lung is smaller.
(C) In human, left lung is smaller with three lobes.
(D) In human, right lung is larger with three lobes.
Answer:
(D) In human, right lung is larger with three lobes.

Question 16.
In lungs, _____ takes part in the gaseous exchange.
(A) Bronchus
(B) Bronchiole
(C) Alveolus
(D) Trachea
Answer:
(C) Alveolus

Question 17.
The carcinogenic compound, that enters into the lungs during cigarette smoking, is-
(A) CO₂
(B) CO
(C) HCN
(D) Benzopyrine
Answer:
(D) Benzopyrine

Question 18.
Spiracles of cockroach are present on-
(A) Tergite
(B) Sternite
(C) Pleurite
(D) Pronotum
Answer:
(C) Pleurite

Question 19.
In which fish, accessory respiratory organs are found?
(A) Rohu
(B) Prawn
(C) Shark
(D) Magur
Answer:
(D) Magur

Question 20.
Haemocyanin pigment is found in _____.
(A) Prawn and cockroach
(B) Prawn and snail
(C) Snail and earthworm
(D) Cockroach and snail
Answer:
(B) Prawn and snail

Question 21.
Pigeons have ____ air sacs.
(A) 8
(B) 8 pairs
(C) 9
(D) 10 pairs
Answer:
(C) 9

Question 22.
An adult human being can normally breath ______ times in one minute.
(A) 100
(B) 10
(C) 14-18
(D) 20-25
Answer:
(C) 14-18

Question 23.
The copper-containing pigment which carries oxygen during respiration, is _____.
(A) Haemoerythrin
(B) Haemocyanin
(C) Haemoglobin
(D) Chlorocruonin
Answer:
(B) Haemocyanin

Question 24.
Which of the following is a respiratory muscle?
(A) Biceps
(B) Triceps
(C) External intercostal muscle
(D) Myocardium
Answer:
(C) External intercostal muscle

Question 25.
Ribcage of human is made up of _____ pairs of bones.
(A) 14
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) 16
Answer:
(B) 12

Question 26.
The most efficient organs for respiration in plants are-
(A) Stomata
(B) Lenticels
(C) Pneumatophores
(D) Cuticular pores
Answer:
(A) Stomata

Fill in the blanks :

1. Whales respire through _____.
2. Respiration is a/an _____ process.
3. Limulus respire through _____.
4. The ____ is known as Adam’s apple.
5. During hibernation, animals respire through ____.
6. Spiders respire through ____.
7. In blood, oxygen is transported as ______.
8. _____ is the cartilaginous covering present at the entrance of the larynx.
9. Todpoles breath through external _____.

Answer:

1. Lungs
2. Anabolic
3. Bookgills
4. Larynx
5. Skin
6. Booklung
7. Oxyhaemoglobin
8. Epiglottis
9. Gills

State true or false :

1. A typical respiratory organ should not be moist.
2. Pneumatophores are called ‘breathing roots’, which grow against gravity.
3. Frogs show cutaneous respiration.
4. Gills are covered with bony plates, called cranium.
5. Each bronchus of lung ramifies reveral times, from finer to finest air tubules, called bronchioles.
6. Breathing involves two phases-inspiration and expiration.
7. During expiration diaphragm expands.
8. Smokers develop a chronic lung disease, called emphysema.
9. During inspiration, intercostal muscles relax to push the ribs downwards.
10. Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. True
8. True
9. False
10. True

Match the columns :

Question 1.

Left column	Right column
1. Stomata	A. Halophytes
2. Lenticel	B. Barks of trees
3. Pneumatophore	C. Photosynthesis
4. Chloroplast	D. Leaf surface
	E. Food storage

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Stomata	D. Leaf surface
2. Lenticel	B. Barks of trees
3. Pneumatophore	A. Halophytes
4. Chloroplast	C. Photosynthesis

Question 2.

Left column	Right column
1. Skin	A. Amoeba
2. Gills	B. Cockroach
3. Body surface	C. Toad
4. Trachea	D. Fish
	E. Human

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Skin	C. Toad
2. Gills	D. Fish
3. Body surface	A. Amoeba
4. Trachea	B. Cockroach

Question 3.

Left column	Right column
1. Labyrinth organ	A. Clarias (Magur)
2. Respiratory tube	B. Anabas (Koi)
3. Respiratory tree	C. Frog
4. Spiracles	D. Heteropneustes (Singhi)
	E. Cockroach

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Labyrinth organ	B. Anabas (Koi)
2. Respiratory tube	D. Heteropneustes (Singhi)
3. Respiratory tree	A. Clarias (Magur)
4. Spiracles	E. Cockroach

Question 4.

Left column	Right column
1. Double layered membrane	A. Alveoli
2. Tubular wind pipe	B. Bronchioles
3. Fine air tubules	C. Thylakoids
4. Balloon shaped sacs	D. Trachea
	E. Pleura

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Double layered membrane	E. Pleura
2. Tubular wind pipe	D. Trachea
3. Fine air tubules	B. Bronchioles
4. Balloon shaped sacs	A. Alveoli

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 3.1A Plant Physiology: Photosynthesis can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Plant Physiology: Photosynthesis Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following is/are plant physiological process/processes?
A. Respiration
B. Transpiration
C. Photosynthesis
D. All of these
Answer:
D. All of these

Question 2.
Which of the following components is/are necessary for photosynthesis?
A. Light and chlorophyll
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Water
D. All of these
Answer:
D. All of these

Question 3.
The gas released during photosynthesis is- …………..
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Both A. and B.
D. None of these
Answer:
A. Oxygen

Question 4.
The type of tissue, which serves as the site of photosynthesis, is-…………..
A. Meristematic tissue
B. Mesophyll tissue
C. Epidermal tissue
D. Vascular tissue
Answer:
B. Mesophyll tissue

Question 5.
The main end product of photosynthesis is-…………..
A. Glucose
B. Starch
C. Fructose
D. Glycogen
Answer:
A. Glucose

Question 6.
During photosynthesis, terrestrial plants absorb this gas from atmosphere. Which gas is it?
A. H₂O
B. CO₂
C. O₂
D. None of these
Answer:
B. CO₂

Question 7.
Aquatic plants absorb CO₂ through-…………..
A. Stomata
B. Root hair
C. Body surface
D. Leaves
Answer:
C. Body surface

Question 8.
in plants, stomata help in-…………..
A. Absorption of CO₂ and O₂
B. Exchange of CO₂ and O₂ and release of extra water as vapour
C. Intake of CO₂ and release of extra water as vapour
D. None of these
Answer:
B. Exchange of CO₂ and O₂ and release of extra water as vapour

Question 9.
The cell organelle in plants, acting as the site of photosynthetic reactions, is-…………..
A. Chloroplast
B. Chromoplast
C. Leucoplast
D. Mitochondrion
Answer:
A. Chloroplast

Question 10.
in flowering green plants, photosynthesis occurs in-…………..
A. Leaves only
B. Leaves, sepals, green fruit skin and tender stems
C. Leaves, stems and roots
D. Leaves and tender stems
Answer:
B. Leaves, sepals, green fruit skin and tender stems

Question 11.
Select the correct statement-…………..
A. Light reactions of photosynthesis occur in the presence of sunlight.
B. Photosynthesis can take place only under sunlight.
C. Dark reaction is hindered in the presence of sunlight.
D. Glucose is produced as a by-product in light reaction.
Answer:
A. Light reactions of photosynthesis occur in the presence of sunlight.

Question 12.
The only metallic element present in chlorophyll is-…………..
A. Carbon
B. Copper
C. Iron
D. Magnesium
Answer:
D. Magnesium

Question 13.
Source of oxygen, released during photosynthesis, is-…………..
A. CO₂
B. H₂O
C. Both A. and B.
D. None of these
Answer:
B. H₂O

Question 14.
The colour of light preferable for maximum rate of photosynthesis, is-…………..
A. Green light
B. Blue light
C. Yellow light
D. Red light
Answer:
D. Red light

Question 15.
Photosynthesis occurs at its best under-…………..
A. High oxygen concentration
B. Low carbon dioxide concentration
C. High carbon dioxide concentration under red light
D. Low oxygen concentration under green light
Answer:
C. High carbon dioxide concentration under red light

Question 16.
During photosynthesis, phosphorylation occurs in -…………..
A. Light-dependent phase
B. Light-independent phase
C. Both A. and 3.
D. None of these
Answer:
A. Light-dependent phase

Question 17.
One of the end products of light-dependent phase is -…………..
A. NADP
B. FAD
C. ADP
D. ATP
Answer:
D. ATP

Question 18.
Which of the following is called the Hill reagent?
A. NADP
B. ATP
C. NAD
D. FAD
Answer:
A. NADP

Question 19.
Reactions of light-dependent phase occur in-…………..
A. Stroma of chloroplast
B. Grana of chloroplast
C. Inner membrane of chloroplast
D. Mitochondrial matrix
Answer:
B. Grana of chloroplast

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with the correct option.
________ +Pi → ATP
A. AMP
B. ADP
C. NADP
D. NAD
Answer:
B. ADP

Question 21.
Fill in the blank with the correct option.
H₂O → __________+oH^–
A. H₂
B. H
C. 2H
D. H⁺
Answer:
D. H⁺

Question 22.
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Ionisation of water in photosynthesis needs no light.
B. Photophosphorylation is the only light-dependent reaction, taking place in photosynthesis.
C. Both hydrolysis and photophosphorylation involve chlorophyll.
D. Photophosphorylation needs chlorophyll but hydrolysis does not.
Answer:
C. Both hydrolysis and photophosphorylation involve chlorophyll.

Question 23.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. ATP formation occurs during photosynthesis by photophosphorylation.
B. Hill reaction occurs in light-dependent phase of photosynthesis.
C. Carbon assimilation does not occur at all in presence of light.
D. Glucose formation is the last phase of photosynthesis.
Answer:
C. Carbon assimilation does not occur at all in presence of light.

Question 24.
The scientist who discovered the reaction pathway for the photolysis of water is-…………..
A. Robin Hill
B. M. Calvin
C. Blackman
D. C. Linnaeus
Answer:
A. Robin Hill

Question 25.
The first stable carbon compound produced during photosynthesis is -…………..
A. PGA
B. PGAld
C. Glucose
D. Starch
Answer:
A. PGA

Question 26.
What is the name of the following reaction?

A. Photophosphorylation
B. Photolysis of water
C. Carbon assimilation
D. Glucogenesis
Answer:
C. Carbon assimilation

Question 27.
Resynthesis of RuBP from PGA occurs during-…………..
A. Hill reaction
B. Glycolysis
C. Blackman reaction
D. Calvin cycle
Answer:
D. Calvin cycle

Question 28.
In photosynthesis, photolysis of water is popularly known as-…………..
A. Blackman reaction
B. Hill reaction
C. Z-scheme
D. None of these
Answer:
B. Hill reaction

Question 29.
Food synthesised during photosynthesis, is generally stored in plant tissue as-…………..
A. Glucose
B. Glycogen
C. Starch
D. Cellulose
Answer:
C. Starch

Question 30.
Which of the following is not a photosynthetic pigment?
A. Carotene
B. Phycobilin
C. Chlorophyll
D. Haemocyanin
Answer:
D. Haemocyanin

Question 31.
Photosynthesis is a-…………..
A. Chemical process
B. Mechanical process
C. Photochemical process
D. None of these
Answer:
C. Photochemical process

Question 32.
Out of the 7 colours of the visible spectrum, which two lights are the most effective for photosynthesis?
A. Red and blue
B. Green and red
C. Blue and green
D. Yellow and green
Answer:
A. Red and blue

Question 33.
The wavelength of red light of the visible spectrum ranges from-…………..
A. 430-470 nm
B. 650-760 nm
C. 580-650 nm
D. 480-570 nm
Answer:
B. 650-760 nm

Fill in the blanks

1. ………………. is the photosynthetic tissue of green plants.
2. Reactions of light-independent phase occur in ………………. of chloroplast.
3. Scientist ………………. proved that photosynthetic reactions occur in two phases.
4. …………….. is considered as the energy currency of the cells.
5. In plant cell, starch is stored in ……………..
6. Green plants absorb ……….. to synthesise glucose during photosynthesis.
7. …………….. is a cellular compound which reacts with atmospheric CO₂ to produce phosphoglyceric acid.
8. …………….. is the enzyme which is necessary for the synthesis of PGA in the light independent phase.
Answer:
1. Chlorenchyma
2. Stroma
3. Blackman
4. ATP
5. Leucoplast
6. Carbon dioxide
7. RuBP
8. RuBisCO

State True or False

1. Aquatic plants absorb CO₂ from water through root hair. — False
2. ATP stands for Adenosine Tri Phenol. — False
3. Blue-green algae like Nostoc, Anabaena etc. can synthesise their own food. — True
4. Ionisation of water is known as Blackman’s reaction. — False
5. NADP is an artificial Hill reagent. — False
6. Out of 12 PGAld molecules, only 2 take part in glucose synthesis. — True
7. RuBisCO is used in the light-dependent phase of photosynthesis. — False
8. Photosynthesis stops due to excessive heat from the sun. — True
9. Light-independent phase of photosynthesis is also known as Blackman’s reaction. — True

Match the columns

Left column	Right column
1. Light-dependent phase	A. ATP produced
2. Light- independent phase	B. Fructose produced
3. Photophospho­rylation	C. PGA produced
4. Carbon assimilation	D. O2, ATP, NADPH2 produced
	E. Glucose produced

Answer:
1-D; 2-E: 3-A; 4-C

Left column	Right column
1. Chlorophyll absent	A. Eugiena
2. Highest rate of photosynthesis	B. Orchid
3. Photosynthetic animal	C. Fungus
4. Velamen present	D. Moss
	E. Chlorella

Answer:
1-C; 2-E; 3-A; 4-B

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 2.4 Major Organs of Human Body and Their Function can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Major Organs of Human Body and Their Function Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
Which is the largest organ of our body?
A. Liver
B. Intestine
C. Skin
D. Brain
Answer:
C. Skin

Question 2.
Select the correct statement-…………..
A. An organ is an assemblage of many tissues.
B. An organ is an assemblage of different tissues, performing a specific function of the body.
C. Any part of the body is called organ.
D. An organ is a body part present inside the body.
Answer:
B. An organ is an assemblage of different tissues, performing a specific function of the body.

Question 3.
The protective layer of human body that prevents the attack of different germs is- …………..
A. Composed of epithelium
B. Composed of connective tissue
C. Skin
D. Dermis
Answer:
C. Skin

Question 4.
The largest lymph gland in animal body, is the-…………..
A. Spleen
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Stomach
Answer:
A. Spleen

Question 5.
The organ of human body responsible for partial digestion is-…………..
A. Liver
B. Stomach
C. Small intestine
D. Pancreas
Answer:
B. Stomach

Question 6.
The organ of human body secreting HCl is-…………..
A. Liver
B. Pancreas
C. Stomach
D. Kidney
Answer:
C. Stomach

Question 7.
The food matters inside the stomach become-…………..
A. Acidic
B. Basic
C. Neutral
D. Slightly alkaline
Answer:
A. Acidic

Question 6.
Pepsinogen is converted into pepsin within the-…………..
A. Liver
B. Duodenum
C. Stomach
D. Large intestine
Answer:
C. Stomach

Question 9.
The organ that produces a number of enzymes and hormones is -…………..
A. Heart
B. Liver
C. Brain
D. Pancreas
Answer:
D. Pancreas

Question 10.
The organs involved in secretion of pepsin and trypsin are-…………..
A. Liver and pancreas
B. Gastric glands and pancreas
C. Liver and stomach
D. Salivary gland and gall bladder
Answer:
B. Gastric glands and pancreas

Question 11.
The organ of human body, where digestion of protein starts is-…………..
A. Stomach
B. Duodenum
C. Jejunum
D. Buccal cavity
Answer:
A. Stomach

Question 12.
Bile, secreted from the liver is-
A. Alkaline
B. Acidic
C. Slightly acidic
D. Neutral
Answer:
A. Alkaline

Question 13.
The organ of human body involved in detoxification is -…………..
A. Stomach
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Spleen
Answer:
B. Liver

Question 14.
Formation of urea is the function of………..
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Stomach
D. Small intestine
Answer:
A. Liver

Question 15.
The diaphragm is located below the………..
A. Kidneys
B. Stomach
C. Lungs
D. Spleen
Answer:
C. Lungs

Question 16.
The organ, helping in neutralisation of the acidic contents of the stomach is………..
A. Duodenum
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Jejunum
Answer:
B. Liver

Question 17.
The organ responsible for absorption of fat is ………..
A. Stomach
B. Kidney
C. Pancreas
D. Liver
Answer:
D. Liver

Question 18.
……………. of human body acts as the ‘crematorium of RBS’
A. Lung
B. Kidney
C. Spleen
D. Rectum
Answer:
C. Spleen

Question 19.
Different plasma proteins are synthesised in………..
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Heart
Answer:
B. Liver

Question 20.
Immunity of our body is controlled by………..
A. Stomach
B. Heart
C. Spleen
D. Brain
Answer:
C. Spleen

Question 21.
The organ which is related to insulin and trypsin………..
A. Liver
B. Stomach
C. Spleen
D. Pancreas
Answer:
D. Pancreas

Question 22.
Digestion of fat is related to ………..
A. Liver and stomach
B. Stomach, liver, pancreas and small intestine
C. Pancreas, stomach and small intestine
D. Liver, stomach and small intestine
Answer:
B. Stomach, liver, pancreas and small intestine

Question 23.
Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between blood and air occurs in………..
A. Liver
B. Skin
C. Kidney
D. Lungs
Answer:
D. Lungs

Question 24.
Blood pressure is maintained by………..
A. Heart
B. Heart and lungs
C. Heart and spleen
D. Heart, lungs and kidney
Answer:
D. Heart, lungs and kidney

Question 25.
Coordination of different organs depends upon………..
A. Liver
B. Heart
C. Kidney
D. Brain
Answer:
D. Brain

Question 26.
Production and elimination of urea involve………..
A. Small intestine and skin
B. Liver and kidney
C. Liver and spleen
D. Spleen and kidney
Answer:
B. Liver and kidney

Question 27.
Reflex action of our body involves………..
A. Spinal cord
B. Skin
C. Skin and brain
D. None of these
Answer:
A. Spinal cord

Question 28.
Memory and intelligence is controlled by………..
A. Spinal cord
B. Nerves
C. Heart
D. Brain
Answer:
D. Brain

Question 29.
The sense of love and affection is controlled by………..
A. Spinal cord
B. Brain
C. Heart
D. Heart and brain
Answer:
B. Brain

Question 30.
This organ is located in a cavity called mediastinum. This is the………..
A. Lungs
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Heart
Answer:
D. Heart

Question 31.
Hormone testosterone is secreted from………..
A. Pancreas
B. Ovary
C. Testis
D. None of these
Answer:
C. Testis

Question 32.
Besides production of egg cells, ovary acts as a………..
A. Hormone gland
B. Balancing organ
C. Sensory organ
D. Food storing organ
Answer:
A. Hormone gland

Question 33.
The component, present in sweat, which attacks bacteria, is………..
A. Ribosome
B. Lysozyme
C. Mesosome
D. Lysosome
Answer:
B. Lysozyme

Question 34.
The process of formation of sperms is known as………..
A. Glycogenesis
B. Eugenesis
C. Gluconeogenesis
D. Spermatogenesis
Answer:
D. Spermatogenesis

Question 35.
Pericardium protects from friction.
A. Heart
B. Spleen
C. Intestine
D. Testis
Answer:
A. Heart

Question 36.
Brain is protected by a tri-layered membrane, which is known as………..
A. Perineurium
B. Pericardium
C. Epineurium
D. Meninges
Answer:
D. Meninges

Fill in the blanks

1. …………… is the membrane, lining the cavity of abdomen and covering the abdominal organs.
2. Outer covering of lung is known as ……………
3. Stomach helps in partial digestion of protein, by secreting ……………
4. Contraction of heart is known as ……………
5. There are …………… chambers in human heart.
6. Toxic wastes of human body are filtered out by ……………
7. The main organ of circulatory system is ……………
8. …………… is the protective covering of human brain.
9. The process of production of spermatozoa is known as ……………
Answer:
1. Peritonium
2. Pleura
3. Pepsin
4. Systole
5. Four
6. Kidney
7. Heart
8. Cranium
9. Spermatogenesis

State True or False

1. Sweat helps to kill bacteria. — True
2. The pigment which gives colour to the skin is melatonin. — False
3. Liver secretes bile juice. — True
4 Spleen is an organ, where formation and destruction of RBC occur. — True
5. All emotions are the sensory infomations towards the brain. — False
6. Human heart drives oxygenated blood from left ventricle to the body, through pulmonary circulation.– False
7. Kidney is held at the back wall of abdominal cavity. — True

Match the columns

Left column	Right column
1. Abdominal cavity	A. Pericardium
2. Heart	B. Periosteum
3. Kidney	C. Peritonium
4. Lung	D. Capsule
	E. Pleura

Answer:
1-C; 2-A; 3-D; 4-E

Left column	Right column
1. Insulin production	A. Adipose tissue
2. Storage of fat	B. Pancreas
3. Synthesis of blood cells	C. Heart
4. Systole and diastole	D. Liver
	E. Spleen

Answer:
1-B: 2-A: 3-E; 4-C

Left column	Right column
1. Stomach	A. ATP systhesis
2. Thymine	B. Lens shaped
3. Mitochondria	C. Blood transport
4. Companion cell	D. HCl secretion
	E. Pyrimidine

Answer:
1-D; 2-E; 3-A; 4-B

Left column	Right column
1. Testosterone	A. Ovary
2. Progesterone	B. Testis
3. Reflex action	C. Liver
4. Bile juice	D. Spinal cord
	E. Pancreas

Answer:
1-B: 2-A; 3-D; 4-C

 

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 3.2B Cellular Level Respiration can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Cellular Level Respiration Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
An example of anaerobic fungus, is-
(A) Chlorella
(B) Yeast
(C) Agaricus
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Yeast

Question 2.
Which phase of respiration directly involves atmospheric O₂ ?
(A) Glycolysis
(B) Krebs cycle
(C) Terminal respiration
(D) Krebs cycle and terminal respiration
Answer:
(C) Terminal respiration

Question 3.
Production of CO₂ occurs during-
(A) Glycolysis and Krebs cycle
(B) Terminal respiration
(C) Krebs cycle
(D) All of these
Answer:
(C) Krebs cycle

Question 4.
Which of the following is involved in anaerobic respiration?
(A) HNO₃
(B) N₂O
(C) NH₂
(D) NO₃
Answer:
(D) NO₃

Question 5.
One molecule of glucose breaks into molecules of pyruvic acid in glycolysis.
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) More than 3
Answer:
(B) 2

Question 6.
EMP pathway is biochemically known as-
(A) Glycolysis
(B) Krebs cycle
(C) Terminal respiration
(D) Electromotive pressure
Answer:
(A) Glycolysis

Question 7.
The other name of terminal respiration is-
(A) EMP pathway
(B) ETS
(C) TCA cycle
(D) ATP
Answer:
(B) ETS

Question 8.
In anaerobic respiration, the terminal respiration path is
(A) Present
(B) Absent
(C) Long
(D) Short
Answer:
(D) Short

Question 9.
Terminal respiration occurs in the
(A) Inner membrane of mitochondria
(B) Cytoplasm
(C) Outer membrane of mitochondria
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer:
(A) Inner membrane of mitochondria

Question 10.
Which statement is incorrect?
(A) Krebs cycle is TCA cycle
(B) Glycolysis is known as ETS
(C) EMP path is Glycolysis path
(D) ETS is terminal respiration
Answer:
(B) Glycolysis is known as ETS

Question 11.
Which of the following is incorrect regarding respiration?
(A) Enzyme is not required during respiration
(B) Respiration occurs in living cells only
(C) Respiration occurs in the presence or absence of free oxygen
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Enzyme is not required during respiration

Question 12.
gram mole of glucose is equal to of glucose.
(A) 80 gm
(B) 280 gm
(C) 360 gm
(D) 180 gm
Answer:
(D) 180 gm

Question 13.
Which of the following is not a respiratory substrate?
(A) Protein
(B) Vitamin
(C) Carbohydrate
(D) Fat
Answer:
(B) Vitamin

Question 14.
The cell organelle in bacteria, where respiration occurs is
(A) Mitochondrion
(B) Chromatophore
(C) Mesosome
(D) Genophore
Answer:
(C) Mesosome

Fill in the blanks :

1. In respiration, about ___ of the free energy is entrapped in ATP as kinetic energy.
2. In aerobic respiration, 1 gram mole glucose is oxidised to liberate _____ of energy.
3. ______ respiration results in muscle fatigue.
4. The source of heat energy, which is released during combustion of coal, is ____ energy.
5. _____ is also called controlled combustion.
6. _____ is the first compound of Krebs cycle.
7. The enzyme ATP-ase is present in the _______ of mitochondria.
8. Respiration is a/an ______ reaction.
9. ______ is a fast and uncontrolled process.
10. Pyruvate is the end product of glycolysis which gets converted into _____.

Answer:

1. 40%
2. 686 kcal
3. Anaerobic
4. Solar
5. Respiration
6. Citrate
7. Oxysome
8. Exothermic
9. Combustion
10. Acetyl Co-A

State true or false :

1. ADP is popularly known as the energy currency’.
2. Respiration is a physico-chemical reaction.
3. Aerobic respiration occurs is presence of free molecular oxygen.
4. By complete oxidation, one mole of glucose generates 586 kcal heat.
5. Methanobacterium sp. is an anaerobic bacterium.
6. Fermentation occurs in yeast.
7. Bacteria named Lactobacillus lactis produce ethanol by the process of fermentation.
8. ATP are gained directly from glycolysis.
9. Krebs cycle occurs both in cytoplasm and mitochondria.
10. The reaction path of terminal transpiration is known as ETS.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. False
8. True
9. False
10. True

Match the columns :

Question 1.

Left column	Right column
1. Energy currency	A. Combustion
2. Bio-chemical reaction	B. Fermentation
3. Physico-chemical process	C. Breathing
4. Oxygen-free process	D. Respiration
	E. ATP

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Energy currency	E. ATP
2. Bio-chemical reaction	D. Respiration
3. Physico-chemical process	A. Combustion
4. Oxygen-free process	B. Fermentation

Question 2.

Left column	Right column
1. Lactic acid fermentation	A. 50 kcal / mole
2. Aerobic respiration	B. 36 kcal / mole
3. Acetic acid fermentation	C. 686 kcal / mole
4. Anaerobic respiration	D. 116 kcal / mole
	E. 300 kcal / mole

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Lactic acid fermentation	B. 36 kcal / mole
2. Aerobic respiration	C. 686 kcal / mole
3. Acetic acid fermentation	D. 116 kcal / mole
4. Anaerobic respiration	A. 50 kcal / mole

Question 3.

Left column	Right column
1. Site of glycolysis	A. TCA cycle
2. Other name of Krebs cycle	B. Mitochondria
3. Other name of glycolysis	C. Cytoplasm
4. Site of Krebs cycle	D. Plastid
	E. EMP Pathway

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Site of glycolysis	C. Cytoplasm
2. Other name of Krebs cycle	A. TCA cycle
3. Other name of glycolysis	E. EMP Pathway
4. Site of Krebs cycle	B. Mitochondria

Question 4.

Left column	Right column
1. End product of glycolysis	A. Ethanol, Lactic acid
2. By-product of Krebs cycle	B. Glucose
3. End product of fermentation	C. NADH2, FADH2
4. End product of anaerobic respiration	D. Pyruvate
	E. Inorganic compounds

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. End product of glycolysis	D. Pyruvate
2. By-product of Krebs cycle	C. NADH2, FADH2
3. End product of fermentation	A. Ethanol, Lactic acid
4. End product of anaerobic respiration	E. Inorganic compounds

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 2.3B Tissue: Animal Tissue and its Distribution can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Tissue: Animal Tissue and its Distribution Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
Protection is the main function of ……….
A. Epithelial tissue
B. Muscular tissue
C. Nervous tissue
D. None of these
Answer:
A. Epithelial tissue

Question 2.
Inner lining of blood vessels are made up of……….
A. Muscular tissue
B. Epithelial tissue
C. Connective tissue
D. None of these
Answer:
D. None of these

Question 3.
Bone is a ……….
A. Specialised connective tissue
B. Weight carrying tissue
C. Very high density tissue
D. All of these
Answer:
D. All of these

Question 4.
Histology is the study of……….
A. Cells
B. Bones and muscles
C. Blood
D. Tissues
Answer:
D. Tissues

Question 5.
Similarity between areolar and adipose tissue is……….
A. Both provide protection
B. Both are connective tissues
C. Both help in coordination
D. All of these
Answer:
B. Both are connective tissues

Question 6.
Animal body is structurally much more complex compared to that of plants, because……….
A. Animals can move
B. Animals can feed on others
C. Animals have well differentiated organs and organ systems
D. Animals can survive in air, earth and water
Answer:
C. Animals have well differentiated organs and organ systems

Question 7.
Haversian canal is present in……….
A. Bones
B. Blood vessels
C. Muscles
D. All of these
Answer:
A. Bones

Question 8.
Blood is a type of……….
A. Epithelial tissue.
B. Connective tissue
C. Muscular tissue
D. Nervous tissue
Answer:
B. Connective tissue

Question 9.
Bone is a……….
A. Dead tissue
B. Modified muscular tissue
C. Solid adipose tissue
D. Solid connective tissue
Answer:
D. Solid connective tissue

Question 10.
Which tissue is called the coordinating tissue?
A. Epithelial tissue
B. Muscle tissue
C. Nervous tissue
D. Blood
Answer:
C. Nervous tissue

Question 11.
Which of the following is a conducting tissue?
A. Muscle tissue
B. Bone tissue
C. Adipose tissue
D. Blood
Answer:
D. Blood

Question 12.
Which of the following tissues has no role in the protection of animal body?
A. Blood
B. Epithelial tissue
C. Nerve tissue
D. All of these
Answer:
C. Nerve tissue

Question 13.
The walls of thick blood vessels are made up of……….
A. Epithelial tissue and muscular tissue
B. Nervous tissue and epithelial tissue
C. Only muscular tissue
D. All of these
Answer:
A. Epithelial tissue and muscular tissue

Question 14.
Which tissue acts as the shock absorber in our body?
A. Epithelial tissues
B. Bones
C. Muscles
D. Adipose tissues
Answer:
D. Adipose tissues

Question 15.
Epithelium of which region is involved in gaseous exchange?
A. Trachea
B. Bronchus
C. Bronchiole
D. Alveolus
Answer:
D. Alveolus

Question 16.
Which tissue takes part in the production of digestive enzymes?
A. Muscle tissue
B. Nervous tissue
C. Squamous epithelium
D. Glandular epithelium
Answer:
D. Glandular epithelium

Question 17.
Which of the following tissues may have ciliated lining?
A. Muscular tissue
B. Epithelial tissue
C. Connective tissue
D. Nervous tissue
Answer:
B. Epithelial tissue

Question 18.
Movement of different body parts involves……….
A. Muscular tissue
B. Nerves
C. Both A. and B.
D. None of these
Answer:
D. None of these

Question 19.
Involuntary muscles are seen in……….
A. Stomach
B. Urinary bladder
C. Walls of blood vessels
D. All of these
Answer:
D. All of these

Question 20.
Neurons are held or surrounded by……….
A. Acellular matrix
B. Basement membrane
C. Plasma
D. Neuroglia
Answer:
D. Neuroglia

Question 21.
Cytoplasm inside axon is called……….
A. Sarcoplasm
B. Axoplasm
C. Tonoplasm
D. None of these
Answer:
B. Axoplasm

Question 22.
Voluntary movement of our limbs involves……….
A. Only muscles
B. Muscles and bones only
C. Bones and nerves only
D. Muscles, bones and nerves
Answer:
D. Muscles, bones and nerves

Question 23.
Nucleated cells found in neurolemma are……….
A. Nissl granules
B. Plasma cells
C. Cell body
D. Schwann cells
Answer:
D. Schwann cells

Question 24.
Sarcolemma is the……….
A. Cell membrane of nerve cells
B. Cytoplasm of muscle cells
C. Cell membrane of muscle cells
D. Cytoplasm of nerve cells
Answer:
C. Cell membrane of muscle cells

Question 25.
A tissue with higher volume of inter-celiular matrix than cells, is……….
A. Epithelial tissue
B. Connective tissue
C. Muscle tissue
D. Nervous tissue
Answer:
B. Connective tissue

Question 26.
Celis with many projections is the common feature of……….
A. Neurons
B. Muscle cells
C. Epithelial cells
D. Blood cells
Answer:
A. Neurons

Question 27.
Our body movement is controlled by……….
A. Cardiac muscles
B. Involuntary muscles
C. Voluntary muscles
D. All of these
Answer:
C. Voluntary muscles

Question 28.
Which of the following tissues show contraction and expansion from the start to the end of our life?
A. Involuntary muscles
B. Voluntary muscles
C. Cardiac muscles
D. Neurons
Answer:
C. Cardiac muscles

Question 29.
Receiving external stimuli is the function of………………..
A. Nerves
B. Muscles
C. Epithelium
D. None of these
Answer:
A. Nerves

Question 30.
Intercalated discs are found in ……….
A. Skeletal muscle
B. Smooth muscle
C. Both A. and B.
D. Cardiac muscle
Answer:
D. Cardiac muscle

Question 31.
The animal tissue which stores fat, is……….
A. Blood
B. Areolar tissue
C. Muscle tissue
D. Adipose tissue
Answer:
D. Adipose tissue

Question 32.
Contractile proteins are seen in……….
A. Only in muscle tissues
B. Only in connective tissues
C All connective tissues and muscle tissues
D. Only in epithelial tissues
Answer:
A. Only in muscle tissues

Question 33.
Cytoplasm of muscle cells is called……….
A. Sarcomere
B. Sarcoplasm
C. Neuroplasm
D. Neuroglia
Answer:
B. Sarcoplasm

Question 34.
Which of the following is a part of a nerve cell?
A. Sarcolemma
B. Node of Ranvier
C. Myofibrils
D. Myofilaments
Answer:
B. Node of Ranvier

Question 35.
Actin and myosin are components of……….
A. Nerve
B. Blood
C. Muscle
D. Bone
Answer:
C. Muscle

Question 36.
Axon and dendron are involved in……….
A. Muscle contraction
B. Neural transport
C. Nutrient transport
D. Both A and B
Answer:
D. Both A and B

Question 37.
Syncytial cells are typically seen in……….
A. Voluntary muscle fibres
B. Involuntary muscle fibres
C. Cardiac muscle fibres
D. Neurons
Answer:
A. Voluntary muscle fibres

Question 38.
Schwann cell is related to……….
A. Axon
B. Dendron
C. Cell body
D. Muscle
Answer:
A. Axon

Question 39.
Cartilage is present in……….
A. Teeth
B. Cranium
C. Nail
D. Knee
Answer:
D. Knee

Question 40.
The tissue, which does not have direct blood supply is……….
A. Epithelial tissue
B. Nervous tissue
C. Muscular tissue
D. All of these
Answer:
A. Epithelial tissue

Question 41.
The percentage of plasma in blood is about……….
A. 45 %
B. 49 %
C. 65 %
D. 55 %
Answer:
D. 55 %

Question 42.
The inner lining of our mouth is made up of ……….
A. Blood and muscle
B. Epithelial tissue
C. Blood cells
D. All of these
Answer:
B. Epithelial tissue

Question 43.
The tissue that supplies food to all other tissues of our body is……….
A. Muscles
B. Blood
C. Nerves
D. All of these
Answer:
B. Blood

Question 44.
End brush is related to……….
A. Axon
B. Dendron
C. Cell body
D. None of these
Answer:
A. Axon

Question 45.
Involuntary striated muscles are found in the walls of……….
A. Lungs
B. Heart
C. Kidney
D. Blood vessels
Answer:
B. Heart

Fill in the blanks

1. ………… epithelium takes part in gaseous exchange.
2. Blood and ………… act as transporting fluids.
3. Voluntary muscles are attached to…………
4. ………… muscles are responsible for rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the heart.
5…………. tissue stores fat for future use.
6. ………… is anchored to bones by tendons.
7. Epithelial layers receive nourishment from the underlying connective tissue through ………… membrane.
8. A ………… is the basic unit of striated muscle tissue.
9. A ………… is the basic unit of nervous system.
10. Bones and ……….. form the skeleton.
Answer:
1. Squamous
2. Lymph
3. Bones
4. Cardiac
5. Adipose
6. Muscle
7. Basement
8. Sarcomere
9. Neuron
10. Cartilages

State True or False

1. A skeletal muscle fibre is surrounded by a plasma membrane called sarcolemma. — True
2. Epithelial cells have a special role in secretion. — True
3. Muscle fibres are always uninucleated. — False
4. Epithelial tissue is also known as the contracting tissue. — False
5. Fibrous tissues are a kind of epithelial tissue. — False
6. Connective tissue orginates from mesoderm layer of embryo. — True
7. Smooth muscles control movement of visceral organs like intestine, ovary, urinary bladder etc. — True
8. Several neuroglias, surrounded by a connective tissue, form a nerve. — False

Match the columns

Left column	Right column
1. Epithelial tissue	A. Connecting tissue
2. Nervous tissue	B. Covering tissue
3. Muscular tissue	C. Coordinating tissue
4. Connective tissue	D. Contracting tissue
	E. Controlling tissue

Answer:
1-B; 2-C; 3-D; 4-A

Left column	Right column
1. Plasma membrane	A. Vacuole
2. Nucle protein	B. Myelin sheath
3. Tonoplast	C. Nissl granules
4. Lipid coating	D. Sarcolemma
	E. Sarcomere

Answer:
1-D; 2-C; 3-A; 4-B

Left column	Right column
1 Chlorenchyma	A. Complex permanent tissue
2 Neuroglia	B, Connective tissue
3. Tracheids	C. Muscular tissue
4, Adipocytes	D, Nervous tissue
	E. Simple permanent tissue

Answer:
1-E; 2-D; 3-A; 4-B

Left column	Right column
1. Transportation and storage of foods	A. Muscular tissue
2. Movements of viscera! organs	B. Phloem
3. Coordination among all organs within body	C. Sclerenchyma
4. Provides mechanical strength	D. Collenchyma
	E. Nervous tissue

Answer:
1-B; 2-A; 3-E; 4 -C

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 3.3 Nutrition can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Nutrition Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
By nutrition-
(A) Potential energy is converted into kinetic energy
(B) Kinetic energy is stored in the cells
(C) Heat is generated in the body
(D) Dry weight of the body increases
Answer:
(D) Dry weight of the body increases

Question 2.
Function of food is-
(A) Generation of energy
(B) Maintaining body growth
(C) Prevention of diseases
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 3.
Select the correct statement.
(A) Nutrition always depends upon digestion
(B) Digestion is a type of nutrition
(C) Nutrition is none other than digestion
(D) Digestion is a step of nutrition
Answer:
(D) Digestion is a step of nutrition

Question 4.
Select the correct statement.
(A) All foods need digestion before assimilation
(B) Assimilation of food is unnecessary for green plants as they synthesise ready food
(C) Assimilation is the most essential part of any nutrition
(D) All are correct
Answer:
(C) Assimilation is the most essential part of any nutrition

Question 5.
Assimilation is a step of nutrition, by which-
(A) Complex food is converted into simple absorbable form
(B) Essential nutrients get integrated into the protoplasm
(C) Nutrients are taken in by body fluid from the digestive tract
(D) Blood supply nutrients to the tissue
Answer:
(B) Essential nutrients get integrated into the protoplasm

Question 6.
Green plants perform nutrition by-
(A) Photosynthesis and absorption
(B) Photosynthesis and digestion
(C) Photosynthesis and assimilation
(D) Photosynthesis and egestion
Answer:
(C) Photosynthesis and assimilation

Question 7.
Parasitic nutrition is seen amongst-
(A) Some fungi
(B) Cuscuta
(C) Louse
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 8.
Similarity between Rafflesia and Puccinia is that, both are-
(A) Parasitic plants
(B) Saprophytic plants
(C) Autotrophic plants
(D) Partial parasites
Answer:
(A) Parasitic plants

Question 9.
Lichen is a-
(A) Saprophytic fungus
(B) Symbiotic association of algae and fungi
(C) Parasitic fungus
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Symbiotic association of algae and fungi

Question 10.
Insectivorous plants depend on insects for-
(A) Phosphorus
(B) Iron
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Calcium
Answer:
(C) Nitrogen

Question 11.
Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between plant root and-
(A) Bacteria
(B) Algae
(C) Fungus
(D) None of there
Answer:
(C) Fungus

Question 12.
Parasitic organisms always show-
(A) Close association
(B) Nutritional interdependence
(C) Benefit of themselves
(D) Benefit of both members
Answer:
(C) Benefit of themselves

Question 13.
Escherichia coli helps in the synthesis of vitamin B₁₂ in our intestine. This is a case of-
(A) Autotrophism
(B) Heterotrophism
(C) Symbiosis
(D) Competition
Answer:
(C) Symbiosis

Question 14.
Coprophagy is a typical nutritional technique, seen among-
(A) Few cattle
(B) Few rodents
(C) Most herbivores
(D) Few carnivores
Answer:
(B) Few rodents

Question 15.
Sanguinivores include-
(A) Mosquitoes
(B) Mosquitoes and vampire bats
(C) Leeches and bedbugs
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 16.
Mammals are heterodont because they-
(A) Possess similar type of teeth
(B) Have different types of teeth
(C) Show teething twice in life
(D) Have socketted teeth
Answer:
(B) Have different types of teeth

Question 17.
Dental formula of adult man is-
(A) I \(\frac{2}{2}\), C \(\frac{1}{1}\), PM \(\frac{2}{2}\), M \(\frac{3}{3}\)
(B) I \(\frac{2}{2}\), C \(\frac{1}{1}\), PM \({\frac{3}{3}]/latex[, M [latex]\frac{2}{2}\)
(C) I \(\frac{1}{1}\), C \(\frac{2}{2}\), PM \(\frac{2}{2}\), M \(\frac{3}{3}\)
(D) I \(\frac{2}{2}\), C \(\frac{1}{1}\), PM \(\frac{2}{2}\), M\(\frac{2}{2}\)
Answer:
(A) I \(\frac{2}{2}\), C \(\frac{1}{1}\), PM \(\frac{2}{2}\), M \(\frac{3}{3}\)

Question 18.
A five year old child has-
(A) 24 teeth
(B) 28 teeth
(C) 16 teeth
(D) 20 teeth
Answer:
(D) 20 teeth

Question 19.
Ptyalin and trypsin act respectively on-
(A) Starch and peptone
(B) Peptone and starch
(C) Sucrose and protein
(D) Peptide and peptone
Answer:
(A) Starch and peptone

Question 20.
The processes by which absorption occur in the small intestine are-
(A) Diffusion
(B) Osmosis
(C) Active transport
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 21.
Oesophagus enters into stomach through-
(A) Cardiac end
(B) Fundus
(C) Pyloric end
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Cardiac end

Question 22.
The ‘J’ shaped portion of the small intestine is called-
(A) Jejunum
(B) Duodenum
(C) Ilium
(D) Ileum
Answer:
(B) Duodenum

Question 23.
Chyme is the semi-fluid acidic mass of partially digested food found in the-
(A) Buccal cavity
(B) Stomach
(C) Duodenum
(D) Jejunum
Answer:
(B) Stomach

Question 24.
The longest portion of the human intestine is-
(A) Duodenum
(B) Jejunum
(C) Ileum
(D) Colon
Answer:
(C) Ileum

Question 25.
The main site of water absorption in the human GI tract is-
(A) Stomach
(B) Ileum
(C) Jejunum
(D) Colon
Answer:
(D) Colon

Question 26.
Bile helps in the digestion of-
(A) Protein
(B) Fat
(C) Carbohydrates
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 27.
Chyle is a partly digested liquid present in the-
(A) Stomach
(B) Jejunum
(C) Large intestine
(D) Rectum
Answer:
(B) Jejunum

Question 28.
Villi increase-
(A) Inner surface area of oesophagus
(B) Inner surface area of small intestine
(C) Inner surface area of stomach
(D) Inner surface area of colon
Answer:
(B) Inner surface area of small intestine

Question 29.
HCl in the stomach helps in-
(A) Killing germs
(B) Activation of proenzymes
(C) Decrease of pH
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 30.
Liver has role in-
(A) Excretion
(B) Gastric juice secretion
(C) HCl secretion
(D) Bile secretion
Answer:
(D) Bile secretion

Question 31.
Succus entericus is secreted from-
(A) Salivary gland
(B) Stomach
(C) Pancreas
(D) Small intestine
Answer:
(D) Small intestine

Question 32.
Similarity between saliva and gastric juice is-
(A) Both kill bacteria
(B) Both help in fat digestion
(C) Both help in carbohydrate digestion
(D) Both help in protein digestion
Answer:
(A) Both kill bacteria

Question 33.
Carrion feeding is shown by-
(A) Cattle
(B) Crow
(C) Pigeon
(D) Cat
Answer:
(B) Crow

Question 34.
Saprophytic nutrition is also found in-
(A) Euglena
(B) Amoeba
(C) Paramoecium
(D) Plasmodium
Answer:
(A) Euglena

Question 35.
Hydrolytic enzymes help in-
(A) Digestion
(B) Absorption
(C) Assimilation
(D) Diffusion of food
Answer:
(A) Digestion

Question 36.
Generally, enzymes and hormones are formed from-
(A) Carbohydrate
(B) Protein
(C) Fats
(D) Vitamins
Answer:
(B) Protein

Question 37.
Which of the following is not an essential fatty acid?
(A) Linoleic acid
(B) Ascorbic acid
(C) Linolenic acid
(D) Arachidonic acid
Answer:
(B) Ascorbic acid

Question 38.
The enzyme present in the salivary glands which helps to kill bacteria, is-
(A) Amylase
(B) Ptyalin
(C) Maltase
(D) Lysozyme
Answer:
(D) Lysozyme

Question 39.
The proteinaceous part of tooth is the-
(A) Enamel
(B) Pulp
(C) Dentine
(D) Gum
Answer:
(C) Dentine

Question 40.
The bacteria, present in the large intestine, which helps to synthesise vitamin K and folic acid, is-
(A) Escherichia coli
(B) Clostridium sp.
(C) Rhizobium sp.
(D) Nostoc sp.
Answer:
(A) Escherichia coli

Question 41.
The protein-digesting enzyme which is not present in the human body, is-
(A) Pepsin
(B) Rennin
(C) Erepsin
(D) Trypsin
Answer:
(B) Rennin

Question 42.
The aerial roots found in the orchids, which help in the absorption of water vapour, is called-
(A) Haustoria
(B) Velamen
(C) Villus
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Velamen

Fill in the blanks :

1. Growth and _____ are two anabolic processes.
2. We can taste sweet with the taste buds placed at _____ of our tongue.
3. Agaricus performs _____ type of nutrition.
4. There are _____ salivary glands in human mouth.
5. Trypsin is a/an _____ enzyme.
6. Haustoria is a _____ .
7. _____ engulfs food with the help of pseudopodia.
8. _____ reacts with starch to form a deep blue colour.
9. The part of the alimentary canal to which appendix is attached, is the _____ .
10. Heterotrophic nutrition involves _____ steps.
11. Hydra engulfs food with the help of _____ .
12. _____ is an animal starch.
13. _____ is a balanced diet for children.
14. Gall bladder is located beneath the _____ lobe of liver.
15. In the stomach, HCl hydrolyses _____ into glucose and fructose.

Answer:

1. Nutrition
2. Tip
3. Saprophytic
4. Six
5. Proteolytic
6. Sucking root
7. Amoeba
8. Iodine
9. Caecum
10. Five
11. Tentacles
12. Glycogen
13. Milk
14. Right
15. Sucrose

State true or false :

1. About 9.3 kcal energy is generated by complete oxidation of one gram of protein.
2. There are three pairs of salivary glands, namely parotid, sub-maxillary and sublingual glands.
3. One of the functions of liver is to kill germs by phagocytosis.
4. Hyperthyroidism is a metabolic disorder.
5. During photosynthesis anabolism occurs.
6. Bile acts in the acidic pH of stomach.
7. In atherosclerosis, hypertension occurs due to reduction in diameter of arterial lumen.
8. Ptyalin acts on boiled proteins.
9. For perfect distribution of calorie in a diet, the ratio of carbohydrate, protein and fat should be 2: 1: 1.
10. Prolonged fasting leads to excessive protein breakdown and discharge of ketone through urine.
11. A symbiotic bacterium Rhizobium sp. synthesises vitamin B₁₂ in human intestine.
12. Lichen is an example of symbiotic association between algae and fungi.
13. Blue-green algae are capable of synthesising their own food by photosynthesis.
14. Bile juice contains different enzymes that help in the emulsification of fats.
15. Vitamin C is not found in eggs.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True
6. False
7. True
8. False
9. False
10. True
11. False
12. True
13. True
14. False
15. True

Match the columns :

Question 1.

Left column	Right column
1. Parasitic nutrition	A. Mucor
2. Saprophytic nutrition	B. Green plant
3. Symbiotic nutrition	C. Cuscuta
4. Insectivory	D. Lichen
	E. Sundew

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Parasitic nutrition	C. Cuscuta
2. Saprophytic nutrition	A. Mucor
3. Symbiotic nutrition	D. Lichen
4. Insectivory	E. Sundew

Question 2.

Left column	Right column
1. Herbivory	A. Mosquito
2. Carnivory	B. Agaricus
3. Omnivory	C. Hyena
4. Sanguinivory	D. Cow
	E. Human

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Herbivory	D. Cow
2. Carnivory	C. Hyena
3. Omnivory	E. Human
4. Sanguinivory	A. Mosquito

Question 3.

Left column	Right column
1. Lipase	A. Maltose
2. Pepsin	B. Fatty acid and glycerol
3. Lactose	C. Peptone
4. Ptyalin	D. Glucose and galactose
	E. Glucose and fructose

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Lipase	B. Fatty acid and glycerol
2. Pepsin	C. Peptone
3. Lactose	D. Glucose and galactose
4. Ptyalin	A. Maltose

Question 4.

Left column	Right column
1. Ptyalin	A. Liver
2. Pepsin	B. Salivary glands
3. Bile	C. Stomach
4. Trypsin	D. Small intestine
	E. Pancreas

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Ptyalin	B. Salivary glands
2. Pepsin	C. Stomach
3. Bile	A. Liver
4. Trypsin	E. Pancreas

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 2.3A Tissue: Plant Tissue and its Distribution can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Tissue: Plant Tissue and its Distribution Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following does not have a tissue system?
A. Amoeba
B. Volvox
C. Sponges
D. All of these
Answer:
D. All of these

Question 2.
An organism possesses different types of tissues and organs due to………….
A. Organogenesis
B. Differentiation
C. Cell division
D. None of these
Answer:
B. Differentiation

Question 3.
Cells of a tissue always have………….
A. Similarity in size and shape
B. Same life span
C. Same function
D. Different origin
Answer:
C. Same function

Question 4.
Cells of meristematic tissue are………….
A. Of same size and shape
B. Capable of division
C. Undifferentiated
D. All of these
Answer:
D. All of these

Question 5.
Meristematic tissues are seen in………….
A. Green leaves
B. Matured fruit
C. Root tip
D. Shoot
Answer:
C. Root tip

Question 6.
Meristem present at the tip of root and stem is called………….
A. Primary meristem
B. Secondary meristem
C. Cambium
D. Apical meristem
Answer:
D. Apical meristem

Question 7.
Stems of trees become thick by the activity of………….
A. Lateral meristem
B. Intercalary meristem
C. Primary meristem
D. Apical meristem
Answer:
A. Lateral meristem

Question 8.
Intercalary meristem is found in………….
A. Root apex
B. Stem apex
C. Nodes
D. Internodes
Answer:
D. Internodes

Question 9.
A tissue has cells with no intercellular space and vacuole in cytoplasm. This tissue is a………….
A. Xylem tissue
B. Parenchyma tissue
C. Meristematic tissue
D. Collenchyma tissue
Answer:
C. Meristematic tissue

Question 10.
The crispy nature of pears and apples is due to………….
A. Parenchyma
B. Xylem
C. Sclereids
D. Collenchyma
Answer:
C. Sclereids

Question 11.
Permanent tissues are composed of………….
A. Undifferentiated cells
B. Identical cells
C. Growing cells
D. Matured cells
Answer:
D. Matured cells

Question 12.
Cambium is a meristematic tissue, which may be seen in………….
A. Vascular bundle
B. Shoot tip
C. Root tip
D. Flower bud
Answer:
A. Vascular bundle

Question 13.
Cork cambium is present………….
A. Inside vascular bundle
B. Outside vascular bundle
C. Inside fruits
D. In the leaves
Answer:
B. Outside vascular bundle

Question 14.
Cells of permanent tissue are………….
A. Thin………….walled and full of cytoplasm
B. Without vacuoles
C. Unable to divide
D. Capable of cell division
Answer:
C. Unable to divide

Question 15.
Cells of parenchymal tissues are………….
A. Loosely packed with wide intercellular spaces
B. Unevenly thickened at the corners
C. Evenly thick and highly lignified
D. Undifferentiated
Answer:
A. Loosely packed with wide intercellular spaces

Question 16.
Cells with thick and highly lignified cell wall are seen in………….
A. Parenchyma
B. Collenchyma
C. Sclerenchyma
D. Aerenchyma
Answer:
C. Sclerenchyma

Question 17.
The gymnosperm where trachea is found, is ………….
A. Pinus sp.
B. Gnetum sp.
C. Cycas sp.
D. Ginkgo sp.
Answer:
B. Gnetum sp.

Question 18.
The tissue taking part in photosynthesis belongs to………….
A. Parenchyma
B. Collenchyma
C. Sclerenchyma
D. Meristematic tissue
Answer:
A. Parenchyma

Question 19.
Which tissue takes part in storing food in plant body?
A. Parenchyma
B. Sclerenchyma
C. Phloem
D. Xylem
Answer:
A. Parenchyma

Question 20.
Which are the main components of vascular bundle?
A. Parenchyma
B. Sclerenchyma
C. Xylem
D. Xylem and Phloem
Answer:
D. Xylem and Phloem

Question 21.
Which simple permanent tissue is composed of non………….living cells?
A. Xylem
B. Phloem
C. Sclerenchyma
D. Collenchyma
Answer:
C. Sclerenchyma

Question 22.
Cells of a tissue having a large and prominent nucleus and are capable of undergoing division can be identified as a………….
A. Meristem
B. Parenchyma
C. Collenchyma
D. Sclerenchyma
Answer:
A. Meristem

Question 23.
Cells of this tissue are thin………….walled, densely packed, capable of undergoing division and are located at the tip of roots. This is………….
A. Parenchyma
B. Collenchyma
C. Intercalary meristem
D. Apical meristem
Answer:
D. Apical meristem

Question 24.
Intercalary meristem remains………….
A. At the apex of shoots and roots
B. In vascular bundle
C. In between two permanent tissue layers
D. On the surface of plant body
Answer:
C. In between two permanent tissue layers

Question 25.
Formation of bark involves………….
A. Apical meristem
B. Intercalary meristem
C. Vascular cambium
D. Cork cambium
Answer:
D. Cork cambium

Question 26.
Parenchyma cells containing ergastic materials are called………….
A. Aerenchyma
B. Parenchyma
C. Idioblasts
D. Collenchyma
Answer:
C. Idioblasts

Question 27.
Epidermis and ground tissue of plant body are typically made up of………….
A. Parenchyma
B. Collenchyma
C. Sclerenchyma
D. Aerenchyma
Answer:
A. Parenchyma

Question 28.
Buoyancy of aquatic plants is maintained by………….
A. Parenchyma
B. Collenchyma
C. Sclerenchyma
D. Aerenchyma
Answer:
D. Aerenchyma

Question 29.
Cells of this tissue have typical angular thickening; this simple permanent tissue is called………….
A. Parenchyma
B. Collenchyma
C. Sclerenchyma
D. Xylem
Answer:
B. Collenchyma

Question 30.
Sieve tube of an angiospermic plant………….
A. Is involved in transportation of water in plants
B. Is associated with companion cells
C. Is associated with guard cells
D. Provides additional mechanical strength
Answer:
B. Is associated with companion cells

Question 31.
Which are complex permanent tissues?
A. Parenchyma and collenchyma
B. Collenchyma and sclerenchyma
C. Sclerenchyma and xylem
D. Xylem and phloem
Answer:
D. Xylem and phloem

Question 32.
Ray cells are a kind of………….
A. Parenchyma
B. Companion cell
C. Sieve tube
D. Trachea
Answer:
A. Parenchyma

Question 33.
Tracheae of xylem are………….
A. Elongated cells with pointed ends and pits on the cell wall
B. Elongated hollow tubular cells
C. Thin elongated fibre………….like cells
D. Elongated living cells
Answer:
B. Elongated hollow tubular cells

Question 34.
Tissue responsible for transportation of food in different parts of a plant body is………….
A. Xylem
B. Trachea
C. Tracheid
D. Sieve tube
Answer:
D. Sieve tube

Question 35.
The cells involved in water transportation in plants are………….
A. Tracheids
B. Trachea
C. Xylem fibres
D. Both A. and B.
Answer:
D. Both A. and B.

Question 36.
Mechanical strength of a plant is provided by………….
A. Sieve tubes
B. Companion cells
C. Parenchyma
D. Phloem fibres
Answer:
D. Phloem fibres

Question 37.
Stone cell is a modification of………….
A. Parenchyma
B. Collenchyma
C. Sclerenchyma
D. Aerenchyma
Answer:
C. Sclerenchyma

Question 38.
Harder wood are rich in………….
A. Xylem parenchyma
B. Trachea
C. Xylem fibre
D. Tracheid
Answer:
C. Xylem fibre

Question 39.
Cells of sclerenchyma tissue have………….
A. Evenly thick cell wall with hollow lumen
B. Cell wall with angular thickening and no intercellular space
C. Thin cell walled living cells
D. Large intercellular spaces
Answer:
A. Evenly thick cell wall with hollow lumen

Question 40.
Fibre of jute is………….
A. Xylem fibre
B. Tracheid
C. Trachea
D. Phloem fibre
Answer:
D. Phloem fibre

Fill in the blanks

1. The term tissue was given by …………
2. Thickening in collenchyma is consisted of ………… and pectin.
3. ………… cells of phloem do not have perforated cell wall.
4. The phenomenon by which a mass of cells take up definite structure and function is called …………
5. Tracheae are also known as …………
6. Organisation of tissue is absent in ………… organisms.
7. Jute is one economically important ………… fibre.
8. ………… is the living plant tissue that is devoid of intercellular spaces.
9. Study of tissue is called …………
10. The only living component of xylem is …………
Answer:
1. Bichat
2. Cellulose
3. Companion
4. Differentiation
5. Vessels
6. Unicellular
7. Phloem
8. Merisem
9. Histology
10. Xylem parenchyma

State True or False

1. Sieve tubes are unicellular. — False
2. Intercellular spaces can be found in meristematic tissue. — False
3. Permanent tissue differentiates into meristematic tissue. — False
4. All types of sclereids are called as stone cells. — False
5. Gnetum is the only gymnosperm where companion cells are present in phloem. — True
6. Phloem parenchyma is absent in monocotyledonous plants. — True
7. Apical meristem is responsible for growth of plant along the length. — True
8. Connective tissue is actually one type of parenchyma without intercellular space found in xylem and phloem. — True
9. The only dead component of phloem is sieve tube. — False
10. Same or different types of cells aggregate to form a tissue to perform a specific function. — True
11. Cells of phloem parenchyma store ergastic metabolites in them. — True

Match the columns

Left column	Right column
1. Nutritive tissue	A. Cork cambium
2. Stone cells	B. Xylem parenchyma
3. Phellogen	C. Chlorenchyma
4. Wood fibre	D. Tracheae
	E. Sclereids

Answer:
1-C; 2-E; 3-A; 4-B

Left column	Right column
1. Flexibility	A. Parenchyma
2. Growth	B. Sclerenchyma
3. Photosynthesis	C. Meristem
4. Mechanical strength	D. Collenchyma
	E. Aerenchyma

Answer:
1-D; 2-C; 3-A; 4-B

Left column	Right column
1. Chromoplastid	A. Vascular cambium
2. Night blindness	B. Lysosome
3. Autolysis	C. Cisternae
4. Lateral meristem	D. Carotene, xanthophyll
	E. Vitamin A

Answer:
1-D; 2-E; 3-B; 4-A

Left column	Right column
1. Idioblast	A. Parenchyma
2. Eleioplast	B. Chromosome
3. Nucleoside	C. Cell membrane
4. Phagocytosis	D. Plastid
	E. Cell wall

Answer:
1-A; 2-D; 3-B; 4-C