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Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Life Science Book Solutions Chapter 1E Locomotion as a Type of Response in Animals offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1E Question Answer – Locomotion as a Type of Response in Animals

Short Answer Type Questions : 2 Marks

Question 1.
What are the roles of fins in locomotion of fishes?
Answer:
The main function of fins are to maintain stability and to change the direction during swimming of fishes. The dorsal and anal fins prevent the fishes from rolling and caudal fins helps to change the direction by action or rudder during swimming.

Question 2.
What are the motivations behind animal locomotion?
Answer:
The motivations behind animal locomotion are to find food, a mate, a suitable microhabitat and to escape form predators.

Question 3.
Name the different components of diarthroses?
Answer:
The different components of diarthroses are :
i. Hinge joint.
ii. Ball and Socket joint.

Question 4.
What are hinge joints?
Answer:
Hinge joints allow movement in one plane only. It helps to the parts in all sides.

Question 5.
What are abduction and adduction?
Answer:
Abduction : The process which move parts of the body away from the central axis of the body is called abduction.
Adduction : It refers to a motion that pulls a structure or part towards the midline of the body.

Question 6.
What are the different types of rotational movement?
Answer:
The different types of rotational movement : (i) Medial rotation (ii) Lateral rotation.

Question 7.
What is meant by flexion and extension?
Answer:
Flexion : The process by which joint flexure occurs is called flexion.
Extension : The process by which joints are extended is known as extension.

Long Answer Type Questions : 5 Marks

Question 1.
What are the different type of movements exhibited by the cells of human body?
Answer:
Cells of the human body exhibit three main types of movements, namely, amoeboid, ciliary and muscular.
Amoeboid movement : Some specialised cells in our body like macrophages and leucocytes in blood exhibit amoeboid movement. It is effected by pseudopodia formed by the streaming of protoplasm (as in Amoeba). Cytoskeletal elements like microfilaments are also involved in amoeboid movement.

Ciliary Movement : Ciliary movement occurs in most of our internal tubular organs which are lined by ciliated epithelium. The coordinated movements of cilia in the trachea help us in removing dust particles and some of the foreign substances inhaled along with the atmospheric air. Passage of ova through the female reproductive tract is also facilitated by the ciliary movement.

Muscular Movement : Movement of our limbs, jaws, tongue etc require muscular movement. The contractile property of muscles are effectively used for locomotion and other movements by human beings and majority of multicellular organisms. Locomotion requires a perfect coordinated activity of muscular, skeletal and neural systems.

Question 2.
How do you distinguish between a skeletal muscle and a cardiac muscle?
Answer:
Both cardiac and skeletal muscles are striated. Cardiac and skeletal muscles are ‘striated’ in that they contain sarcomeres and are packed into highly-regular arrangements of bundles. While skeletal muscles are arranged in regular, parallel bundles, cardiac muscle connects at branching irregular angles (called intercalated discs). Striated muscle contracts and relaxes in short, intense bursts, whereas smooth muscle sustains longer or even near-permanent contractions.

Multiple Choice Questions : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Skeletal muscle fibre is
(a) multinucleated
(b) uninucleated
(c) binucleated
(d) anucleated
Answer:
(a) multinucleated

Question 2.
Muscle of heart is known as
(a) striated
(b) cardiac
(c) voluntary
(d) non striated
Answer:
(b) cardiac

Question 3.
The number of bones in the appendicular skeleton is
(a) 206
(b) 80
(c) 120
(d) 126
Answer:
(d) 126

Question 4.
Total number of bones in man
(a) 206
(b) 205
(c) 204
(d) 201
Answer:
(a) 206

Question 5.
Number of verterae in man is
(a) 32
(b) 33
(c) 26
(d) 28
Answer:
(c) 26

Question 6.
Alternative source of energy for muscle contraction is
(a) ATP
(b) creatine phosphate
(c) glycolysis
(d) all of these
Answer:
(c) glycolysis

Question 7.
Muscles are connected to the bones by
(a) ligament
(b) tendons
(c) cartilage
(d) bone
Answer:
(b) tendons

Question 8.
Where do you find osteocytes
(a) cartilage
(b) blood
(c) bone
(d) liver
Answer:
(c) bone

Question 9.
Which of the following is a freely movable joint?
(a) ball and socket
(b) fibrous joint
(c) cartilaginous joint
(d) both a and b
Answer:
(a) ball and socket

Question 10.
Elbow joint is a
(a) saddle joint
(b) ball and socket joint
(c) pivot joint
(d) hinge joint
Answer:
(d) hinge joint

Very Short Answer Type Questions : 1 Mark

Question 1.
What are the main functions of the skeletal system?
Answer:
Functions of the skeletal system are as follows :

1. It gives shape and provides supports to the body.
2. It forms the framework of the body.
3. It protects some internal organs.

Question 2.
Name the various organs of the skeletal system.
Answer:
Various organs of the skeletal system are : skull, vertebral column, rib cage, bones in arms and legs, shoulder bone and hip bone.

Question 3.
Give an example of pivot joint in the human body.
Answer:
The joint between skull and the first vertebrae.

Question 4.
What is slithering movement?
Answer:
Movement of a snake is called slithering movement.

Question 5.
How many vertebrae are found in the human backbone?
Answer:
There are 33 vertebrae in the human backbone.

Question 6.
How many ribs are found in the rib cage of humans?
Answer:
There are 12 pairs of ribs in the rib cage of humans.

Question 7.
How does a snake move?
Answer:
A snake moves by making loops on its sides.

Question 8.
How does a fish swim in water?
Answer:
When a fish swims, its front part curves to one side and the tail part stays in the opposite direction. In the next move, the front part curves to the opposite side and the tail part also changes its position to another side. The tail fin helps in changing direction.

Question 9.
How does the snail move?
Answer:
A snail moves using its muscular foot.

Question 10.
How many bones are found in the human skeletal system?
Answer:
There are 206 bones in the human skeleton.

Question 11.
Name the type of joint between the following :
(a) atlas/axis
(b) carpal/metacarpal of thumb
(c) between phalanges.
(d) femur/acetabulum
(e) between cranial bones
(f) between pubic bones in the pelvic girdle
Answer:
(a) Pivot joint
(b) Saddle joint
(c) Gliding joint
(d) Ball and socket joint
(e) Fibrous joint
(f) Cartilaginous joint.

Question 12.
The surface area of wings is increased bird by the help of
Answer:
Remiges.

Question 13.
Which gland is situated in kidney?
Answer:
Adrenal gland.

Question 14.
The name of the locomotary organ of Amoeba is ________.
Answer:
Pseudopodia.

Question 15.
Bipedal locomotion is found in
Answer:
Man.

Question 16.
Triceps help in ______.
Answer:
Extension.

Question 17.
What is a ball and socket joint?
Answer:
In this joint the rounded end of one bone fits into the cavity (hollow space) of another bone. It permits movements in all directions.

Question 18.
Which of the skull bones are movable?
Answer:
Lower jaw bone or mandible is the only movable bone in the skull.

Question 19.
Why can our elbow not move backwards?
Answer:
Elbow joint is composed of hinge joint. These joints allow movement in one plane and up to 180° only. Hence, we cannot move our elbows backwards.

Question 20.
What is the nature of hip joint?
Answer:
In this joint rounded head of a bone lies within the cuplike groove of another bone.

Question 21.
What are the movement pattern in human legs?
Answer: Rotation.

Question 22.
What are the different locomotory organs of Protozoa?
Answer:
Flagellum, cilium, pseudopodium.

Question 23.
How locomotion differs from movement?
Answer:

Locomotion	Movement
i. It takes place at organism level	i. It takes place at any biological level from cellular to organisms.
ii. It is found mainly in animals	ii. It is found mainly in Plants.

Question 24.
What is ciliary movement?
Answer:
The animal body is covered by cilia. The effective and recovery movements of cilia help the animal to take ciliary movement. e.g. Paramecium sp.

Question 25.
What is the nature of myotomes?
Answer:
It helps in contraction and relaxation of antagonistic muscles of fish.

Question 26.
What is bipedalism?
Answer:
It involves in movement of two feet.

Question 27.
What is arthrology?
Answer:
It is the study of science that deals with the study of joints.

Question 28.
What are diarthrosis joint?
Answer:
The joints that have a space between the adjoining bones are called diarthrosis joints.

Question 29.
What is locomotion?
Answer: The process by means of which the living organism can change their position wholly from one place to another in response to stimuli is known as locomotion.

Question 30.
Name the locomotory organ of Euglena?
Answer:
Flagella

Question 31.
Give one example of ‘Ball and Socket’ joint?
Answer:
Hip joint.

Question 32.
What is abduction?
Answer:
The process which moves parts of the body away from the central axis of the body is called abduction.

Question 33.
What are the locomotory organ of Amoeba?
Answer:
Pseudopodia.

Question 34.
Name the locomotory organ of Paramecium?
Answer: Cilia.

Question 35.
State the name of locomotory muscles of fish?
Answer:
Myotomes.

Question 36.
What is the other name for tail fin?
Answer:
Caudal fin.

Question 37.
Name the wing feathers of bird.
Answer: Remiges.

Question 38.
What is the other name for studing joint?
Answer:
Arthrology.

Question 39.
What is the nature of knee joint?
Answer:
In this joint, ends of two bones remain arranged like hinge.

Question 40.
Pseudopodia is the locomotory structure of
Answer:
Ameoba.

Question 41.
Synovial joints are ______.
Answer:
Freely movable.

Question 42.
Moving away from the midline is ______.
Answer:
Abduction.

Question 43.
Cilia is the locomotary organ of ______.
Answer:
Paramecium.

Question 44.
Myotomes are the locomotory organ of ______.
Answer:
Fish.

Question 45.
Rectrices in bird are located in
Answer:
Tail feather.

Question 46.
The semicircular canals are located in
Answer:
Ear.

Question 44.
The synovial joints are also called
Answer:
Diarthroser.

Question 48.
The elbow joint is
Answer:
Elbow.

Question 49.
Adduction and Abduction is a common phenomenon found in ______.
Answer:
Leg.

Question 50.
What is articular cartilage?
Answer:
A layer of haylne cartilage is called articular cartilage.

Question 51.
What are synovial joints?
Answer:
Synovial joints are the only joints that have a space between the adjoining bones. These are freely movable joints mostly present between the limb bones.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Joints of the bone help in the ______ of the body.
Answer:
Movement

Question 2.
A combination of bones and cartilages forms the ______ of the body.
Answer:
Skeleton

Question 3.
The bones at the elbow are joined by a ______ joint.
Answer:
Hinge joint.

Question 4.
The contraction of the pulls the bones during movements.
Answer:
Muscles.

True or False :

Question 5.
The movement and locomotion of all animals is exactly the same.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
The cartilages are harder than bones.
Answer:
False

Question 7.
The finger bones do not have joints.
Answer:
False

Question 8.
The forearm has two bones.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
Cockroaches have an outer skeleton.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
Match the items in coloumn I with items of column II.

Column I	Column II
Upper jaw	Have fins on the body
Fishes	Has outer skeleton
Ribs	Is an immovable joint
Snail	Protect the heart
Cockroach	Shows very slow movement.

Answer:

Column I	Column II
Upper jaw	Is an immovable joint
Fishes	Have fins on the body
Ribs	Protect the heart
Snail	Shows very slow movement.
Cockroach	Has outer skeleton

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Life Science Book Solutions Chapter 1D Response and Physical Coordination in Animal Nervous System offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1D Question Answer – Response and Physical Coordination in Animal Nervous System

Short Answer Type Questions : 2 Marks

Question 1.
What do you mean by reflex action? Give examples of reflex actions?
Answer:
It is defined as fast, unconscious, immediate, automatic and involuntary response of the body (through effectors) to a stimulus. It is monitored through spinal cord.
Example of reflex actions :

1. Closing eyes when bright light falls on the eyes
2. Knee-jerk
3. Withdraw hands when pricked by a pin
4. Choking stimulates cough reflex

Question 2.
What are the different type of reflexes?
Answer:
There are two type of reflexes
1. Unconditioned reflexes
2. Conditioned reflexes
Unconditioned or Unconditional reflexes are those which are inherited. Our brain does not learn these reflexes. Eg. when we touch a hot plate, we immediately moves away our hand.
Conditioned reflexes are those which our brain has learned by repeating the action number of times. Eg. a typist is typing a letter without looking at the typewriter keys.

Question 3.
What is reflex are?
Answer:
The structural and functional unit that carries our reflex action is called a reflex arc. It consists of :

• A receptor
• Sensory nerve (afferent)
• Spinal cord and interneuron
• Motor nerve (efferent)
• Effector.

Question 4.
Which signals will get disrupted in case of a spinal cord injury?
Answer:
In case of a spinal cord injury, the signals coming from the nerves as well as the signals coming to the receptors will be disrupted. As both these signals meet in a bundle in spinal cord, so if there is any spinal cord injury then both these signals are disrupted.

Question 5.
What is myelinated nerve? What is Node of Ranvier?
Answer:
Node of Ranvier : At regular interval, the nerve fibre possesses constriction of neurilemma known as node of Ranvier.

Question 6.
What is a choroid? What is its function?
Answer:
Choroid is the middle layer of the eyeball, present just below the outer sclera and covers the 5/6th part of eyeball.
Function i. Prevents reflection as melanin is present.
ii. Supplies nutrients and oxygen as it contains blood vessels.

Question 7.
What is the difference between a reflex action and walking?
Answer:

Reflex Action	Walking
i. A reflex action is an automatic and rapid (spontaneous) response to a stimulus.	i. Walking is a voluntary action.
ii. It is spontaneous reaction. Spinal cord is involved in it.	ii. It is a conscious and deliberate action i.e. it is done after a thought is processed by the brain.
iii. It does not involve any kind of thinking or feeling to control the reaction.	iii. It is the voluntary action that we have acquired through learning.
iv. Spinal cord is directly involved in it.	iv. It is directly controlled by hindbrain (cerebellum.)
v. When a bright light is focused on your eyes, we immediately close it. A knee-jerk are examples of reflex action.	v. Examples : Walking in a straight line, riding a bicycle, picking up a pencil (Voluntary actions and precision control).

Question 8.
What happens at the synapse between two neurons?
Answer:
Synapse is a very small gap between the last portion of axon of one neuron and the dendron of the other neuron. It acts as a one way valve to transmit impulses. This is one directional flow of impulses because the chemicals are produced only on one side of the neuron i.e. the axon’s side. Via axon, the impulses travel across the synapse to the dendron of the other neuron.

Question 9.
How do we detect the smell of an agarbatti (incense stick)?
Answer:
The forebrain is the main thinking part of the brain. It has regions which receive sensory impulses from various receptors. Separate areas of the forebrain are specialised for hearing, smell, sight and so on. Olfactory receptors (present in nose) send the information about the smell of incense stick to forebrain. The forebrain interprets it along with information received from other receptors as well as with information that is already stored in the brain.

Question 10.
List the functions performed by Cerebrum.
Answer:
The cerebrum performs the following functions :

1. It governs our mental abilities like thinking reasoning, learning, memorising etc.
2. It controls our feelings, emotions and speech.
3. It controls all involuntary functions.

Question 11.
What are the functions of cerebellum?
Answer:

1. Maintains equilibrium or balance of the body.
2. Coordinates muscular movement.
3. Controls posture of the body.

Question 12.
How brain is protected inside a human body?
Answer:
Brain is protected by a bony box called cranium, within which are present 3 layers of fluid-filled (called cerebrospinal fluid) membranes (called menings) for absorbing shock and buoyancy.

Question 13.
What is the role of the brain in reflex action?
Answer:
Brain has no role to play in creation of reflex action response. Instead spinal cord is the control centre of a reflex action. In fact brain becomes aware after the reflex arc has been formed.

Question 14.
State the function of cerebellum?
Answer:
The function of cerebellum are :
i. It regulates tone, posture and equilibrium of the body.
ii. It controls muscular construction.

Question 15.
State the functions of hindbrain?
Answer:
The functions of hindbrain are :

1. Pons-It controls micturition
2. Cerebellum- It controls muscular construction.
3. Medulla Oblongata- It controls respiration, heart rate and secretion of saliva.

Question 16.
What is binocular vision?
Answer:
In case of human with the help of binocular vision single object is observed by both the eyes together.

Question 17
What are the different Parts of forebrain?
Answer:
The different parts of forebrain are
cerebrum, thalamus, hypothalamus and epithalamus.

Question 18.
What is synapse? What is its function?
Answer:
A synapse is junctional region in nervous system where one neuron ends and another neuron begins.
Function : It is to conduct nerve impulse from one neuron to another neuron.

Question 19.
Write any one function of each of cerebrum, cerebellum and medulla oblongata?
Answer:
Functions :

1. Cerebrum : It uses information from our senses to tell us what’s going on around us and tells our body how to respond.
2. Cerebellum : It controls muscular construction.
3. Medulla oblongate : It controls respiration, heart rate and secretion of saliva.

Question 20.
What is reflex arc?
Answer:
The complete neural path way involved in the phenomenon of reflex action is called reflex arc.

Question 21
What is blind spot?
Answer:
It is the spot where the optic nerve is joined on to the retina.

Question 22.
Write two difference between blind spot and yellow spot.
Answer:

Yellow spot	Blind spot
i. Yellow spot is a particular area on the retina located almost at the centre of the horizontal axis of eye ball.	i. Blind spot is a particular disc like area within eyeball located just below the yellow spot.
ii. In contains cone cells and is the area of eye with best vision.	ii. It does not contain any photoreceptors and so image falling on it cannot be received.

Question 23.
What is blind spot? Mention its function.
Answer:
Blind spot : A particular disc like area within the eyeball which is located just below the yellow spot and contains as photorecptors is called optic disc or blind spot.
Function : As there are no photoreceptors, image falling in this place cannot be received i.e. no vision takes place, hence the name blind spot.

Long Answer Type Questions : 5 Marks

Question 1.
Compare and contrast nervous and hormonal mechanisms for control and coordination in animals.
Answer:

Nervous System Mechanism	Hormonal Mechanism
i. It consists of nerve impulses between PNS, CNS and Brain	i. It consists of endocrine system which secretes hormones directly into blood.
ii. The axons and dendrites transmit the information through a coordinated effort.	ii. The information is transmitted or transported through blood.
iii. The flow of information is rapid and the response is quick.	iii. The information travels slowly and the response is slow.
iv. Nerve impulses are not specific in their action.	iv. Each hormone has specific actions.
v. Effects are short lived	v. It has prolonged effects.

Question 2.
What is the difference between the manner in which movement takes place in a sensitive plant and the movement in our legs?
Answer:

Movement in sensitive plants	Movement in our legs
i. The movement in a sensitive plant is a response to stimulus (touch) which is a involuntary action.	i. Movement in our legs is a voluntary action.
ii. No special tissue is there for the transfer of information.	ii. A complete system CNS and PNS is there for the information exchange.
iii. Plant cells do not have specialised protein for movements.	iii. Animal cells have specialised protein which help muscles to contract.

Question 3.
What is the need for a system of control and coordination in an organism?
Answer:
There are various organs in an organism. These organs must be carefully controlled and coordinated for the survival of an organism. In the body of an organism various fluids are secreted from the glands of the endocrine system. These hormones are responsible for the overall growth and development of an organism. All other daily decisions that include voluntary and involuntary action are controlled by central nervous system(CNS).

Question 4.
How are involuntary actions and reflex actions different from each other?
Answer:
Involuntary action is the set of muscle movement which do not require thinking. But it is controlled by brain, for example-beating of heartbeat, while on the other hand, the reflex action is rapid and spontaneous action in response to any stimulus. For example closing of eyes immediately when bright light is focused.

Question 5.
Name the three parts of hindbrain. Write function of each.
Answer:

Parts of hindbrain	One function of each
i. Cerebellum	It maintains muscle tone, equilibrium and body posture
ii. Pons	It maintains respiration, heart rate and blood pressure.
iii. Medulla Oblongata	It controls visceral reflexes.

Question 6.
Which part of the brain is known as relay station?
Answer:
Thalamus is known as relay station because :
i. Thalamus acts as chief relay centre for all sensory impulses inferring the cerebrum.
ii. It is also the relay centre for motor impulses coming out of the cerebrum in the central nervous system.

Question 7.
Illustrate the classification of human nervous system through a table
Answer:

Question 8.
Mention two structural and one functional difference between axon and dendron.
Answer:

Question 9.
What is meninges? Mention two refractory media present in the eyeball. What is unconditioned reflex action. Give example.
Answer:
The three layered fibrous covering of the Central Nervous System (Brain and spinal cord) to called meninges.
Two refractory media of eyeball-cornea, lens.
Unconditional reflex action: The reflexes which are not acquired but present at the time of birth is called unconditioned reflex action.
Example : Removal of fingertip from hot object.

Question 10.
Mention the functions of pupil, retina and ear ossicles.
Answer:

	Functions
Pupil	It allows light to enter the interior of the eye
Retina	Rod cells present in retina are responsible for dim light vision and cone cells are responsible for detail perception.
Ear ossicles	Conduct sound vibration from ear drum into the membrane of the oval window of the internal ear.

Question 11.
Write four differences between cerebrum and cerebellum.
Answer:

Cerebrum	Cerebellum
i. Largest part of forebrain.	i. Largest part of hindbrain
ii. Present at the top of brain stem	ii. Present at the posterior side of brain stem.
iii. Corpus collosum joins the two hemispheres.	iii. Vermis joins the two hemispheres
iv. Seat of intelligence, judgement, memory etc.	iv. Regulation posture and balance of the body.

Question 12.
Difference between afferent and efferent nerves.
Answer:

Afferent nerves	Efferent nerves
i. It conducts nerve impulse from recteptors to Central Nervous System.	i. It conducts nerve impulse from Central Nervous System to effector organs.
ii. It is generally made up of pseudo- unipolar nerves	ii. It is generally made up of multipolar nerves.
iii. Its dendrites are longer than axon.	iii. Its dendrites are smaller than axon.
iv. Axon exters CNS. e.g. Olfactory nerves	iv. Axon emerges out of CNS. e.g. Hypoglossal nerves.

Question 13.
What is the relationship between ‘neurotransmitter’ and ‘synapse’?
Answer:
Neurotransmitters are secreted from the synaptic vesicles of the presynaptic knob of a synapse. The impulse through the neurotransmitter passes within synaptic fluid and is received by the receptors present or the postsynaptic knob of that synapse. Three fore-neurotransmitters are transmitting the impulse through the synapse from one neuron to another.

Question 14.
What is reflex arc? Mention its different parts. What is ganglion?
Answer:

	Definition	Different Parts
Reflex arc	Reflex arc is spontaneous involuntary (automatic) motor response due to sensory stimulus	Receptor Afferent or sensory neuron Centre Efferent or motor neuron.

Ganglion : The group or collection of nerve cell bodies ensheathed by a connective tissue layer outside the Central Nervous System is called ganglion.

Question 15.
What is the difference between nerve fibre and ganglion? Write two functions of lacrimal gland.
Answer:
The difference between nerve fibre and ganglion is :

Nerve fibre	Ganglion
i. The single long unbranched process which arises from the cell body is called nerve fibre.	i. The group or collection of nerve cell bodies ensheathed by a connective tissue layer present outside the central nervous system is called ganglion.

Two functions of lacrymal gland:
i. It keeps the eye moist.
ii. It secretes lysozyme enzyme that destroys bacteria.

Question 16.
Mention two functions each of medulla oblongata and spinal cord. State the rule of yellow spot and iris in vision.
Answer:

Role of yellow spot and iris for vision :
Yellow spot : It helps movement of eyes from word to word as we read a line through a printed page. It occurs to focus particular word at the yellow spot for acute vision.
Iris : It acts as shutter and adjust the amount of light entering the eye.

Question 17.
What is reflex arc? State two differences between conditioned and unconditioned reflexes?
Answer:
An arc like neural path through which reflex action takes place is called reflex arc.

Conditioned reflex	Unconditioned reflex
i. It is acquired after birth	i. It is present from the birth.
ii. Its path can be changed through practices.	ii. Its path cannot be changed.

Question 18.
Mention types of reflex action of the following with reasons :
(a) Removal of fingertip from hot object, (b) closure of eyelid due to falling of dust particles, (c) Playing a musical instrument.
Answer:
(a) Removal of fingertip from hot object is unconditioned reflex because this reflex is inborn.
(b) Closure of eyelid due to falling of dust particles is unconditioned reflex because this reflex is inborn.
(c) Playing a musical instrument is a conditioned reflex because it is acquired after continuous training.

Question 19.
Compare corpus callosum and vermis.
Answer:
Comparison of corpus callosum and vermis according to similarities :
i. Corpus callosum and vermis both are broadband of fibres.
Comparison of corpus callosum and vermis according to dissimilarities :
Corpus Callosum :
ii. Joins two cerebral hemispheres
Vermis:
ii. Joins two hemispheres of cerebellum

Question 20.
Discuss the components a typical reflex are with diagram

Answer:
Receptor : It is a specialised sensory ending which is stimulated by the environmental changes.
Afferent or sensory neurons : It forms afferent limbs of the reflex path. It conducts impulse from receptor to the centre.
Centre : The grey matter of the Central Nervous System acts as centre. Hence, the afferent neuron makes the synaptic connection with efferent neurone directly or through internuncial neurons, thus forming synapse or synapses respectively. In the synapse the sensory impulse is converted into the motor impulse.
Efferent or motor neuron : It forms the efferent limbs of reflex path. It carries nerve impulse from centre to effector organs.
Effector organ or effector: The muscle or gland where the motor neurone ends is called effector (muscle or gland).

Long Answer Type Diagram : 5 Marks

Question 1.
Draw a diagram of buman eye.
Answer:

Question 2.
Explain in brief the structure of human eye.
Answer:
The orbit is the bony cavity that contains the eyeball, muscles, nerves, and blood vessels, as well as the structures that produce and drain tears. Each orbit is a pear-shaped structure that is formed by several bones.

The outer covering of the eyeball consists of a relatively tough, white layer called the sclera (or white of the eye). Near the front of the eye, in the area protected by the eyelids, the sclera is covered by a thin, transparent membrane (conjunctiva), which runs to the edge of the cornea. The conjunctiva also covers the moist back surface of the eyelids and eyeballs.

Light enters the eye through the cornea, the clear, curved layer in front of the iris and pupil. The cornea serves as a protective covering for the front of the eye and also helps focus light on the retina at the back of the eye. After passing through the cornea, light travels through the pupil (the black dot in the middle of the eye). The iris – the circular, colored area of the eye that surrounds the pupil – controls the amount of light that enters the eye.

The pupil dilates (enlarges) and constricts (shrinks) like the aperture of a camera lens as the amount of light in the immediate surroundings changes. The iris allows more light into the eye when the environment is dark and allows less light into the eye when the environment is bright. The size of the pupil is controlled by the action of the pupillary sphincter muscle and dilator muscle. Behind the iris sits the lens. By changing its shape, the lens focuses light into the retina. Through the action of small muscles (called the ciliary muscles), the lens becomes thicker to focus on nearby objects and thinner to focus on distant objects.

The retina contains the cells that sense light (photoreceptors) and the blood vessels that nourish them. The most sensitive part of the retina is a small area called the macula, which has millions of tightly packed photoreceptors (the type called cones). The high density of cones in the macula makes the visual image detailed, just as a high-resolution digital camera has more megapixels. Each photoreceptor is linked to a nerve fibre. The nerve fibres from the photoreceptors are bundled together to form the optic nerve. The optic disk, the first pair of the optic nerve, is at the back of the eye. The photoreceptors in the retina convert the image into electrical signals, which are carried to the brain by the optic nerve.

There are two main types of photoreceptors: cones and rods. Cones are responsible for sharp, detailed central vision and color vision and are clustered mainly in the macula. The rods are responsible for night and peripheral (side) vision. Rods are more numerous than cones and much more sensitive to light, but they do not register color or contribute to detailed central vision as the cones do. Rods are grouped mainly in the peripheral areas of the retina.

Question 3.
Draw the synaptic region.
Answer:

Question 4.
Write in a tabular form the different parts of human brain with function.
Answer:

Question 5.
Write about the functional differences between sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.
Answer:

Question 6.
Differentiate the structural differences between sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.
Answer:

Multiple Choice Questions : 1 Mark

Question 1.
The brain is responsible for .
(a) thinking
(b) regulating the heartbeat
(c) balancing the body
(d) all of the these
Answer:
(d) all of the these

Question 2.
The gap between two neurons is called a
(a) dendrite
(b) synapse
(c) axon
(d) impulse.
Answer:
(b) synapse

Question 3.
The seat of intelligence and voluntary action in the brain is
(a) Diencephalon
(b) Cerebrum
(c) Cerebellum
(d) Medulla Oblongata
Answer:
(b) Cerebrum

Question 4.
The activities of the internal organs are controlled by the
(a) Central Nervous System
(b) Peripheral Nervous System
(c) Autonomic Nervous System
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Autonomic Nervous System

Question 5.
Part of brain that controls respiration, heartbeat and peristalsis is
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Pons
(d) Medulla
Answer:
(d) Medulla

Question 6.
Which body organ is surrounded by meninges?
(a) Heart and Lungs
(b) Brain and Heart
(c) Brain and Spinal Cord
(d) Spinal Cord and Lungs
Answer:
(c) Brain and Spinal Cord

Question 7.
Part of brain that controls muscular coordination is –
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Pons
(d) Medulla
Answer:
(b) Cerebellum

Question 8.
Which part of the brain controls the posture and balance of the body?
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Pons
(d) Medulla
Answer:
(b) Cerebellum

Question 9.
Which of the following is not found in the central nervous system?
(a) Brain Stem
(b) Spinal Cord
(c) Sensory Neurons
(d) Cerebrum
Answer:
(c) Sensory Neurons

Question 10.
Look at the diagram below. What is the arrow pointing to?

Answer:
(c) Brain Stem

Question 11.
Two lobes of cerebral hemispheres are connected by
(a) vermis
(b) corpora quadrigemina
(c) corpus striatum
(d) corpus callosum
Answer:
(d) corpus callosum

Question 12.
Which of the following would be controlled by the cerebrum?
(a) Balance
(b) Breathing
(c) Remembering answers for a test
Answer:
(c) Remembering answers for a test

Question 13.
Why are brain stem injuries so serious?
(a) The brain stem stores your memories
(b) The brain stem controls your breathing.
(c) The brain stem gives you personality.
Answer:
(b) The brain stem controls your breathing.

Question 14.
How do the Peripheral Nervous System and the Central Nervous System differ?
(a) Only the PNS is made up of neurons
(b) The PNS stores our memories, the CNS does not
(c) The PNS receives sensory information from the outside world; the CNS interprets that information.
Answer:
(c) The PNS receives sensory information from the outside world; the CNS interprets that information.

Question 15.
Which system are the nerves in your fingers a part of?
(a) CNS
(b) PNS
(c) None
Answer:
(b) PNS

Question 16.
The peripheral nervous system allows you to
(a) Touch
(b) Smell
(c) Both of these
Answer:
(c) Both of these

Question 17.
Which of the following is one of the senses?
(a) Taste
(b) Sight
(c) Both of the these
Answer:
(c) Both of the these

Question 18.
What is it called when you pull your hand quickly away from a hot stove when you have accidentally touched it?
(a) Smart
(b) Reflex
(c) Cerebro impulse
Answer:
(b) Reflex

Question 19.
How does a reflex reaction differ from other types of reactions?
(a) Reflexes are not responded to by our brain, only our spinal cord
(b) Reflex reactions are carefully thought out in our cerebrum.
(c) The spinal cord is not involved.
Answer:
(a) Reflexes are not responded to by our brain, only our spinal cord

Question 20.
What does the iris of the eye do?
(a) It expands and contracts to allow different amounts of light in
(b) It sends the picture to the brain.
(c) It contains cones and rods to help create pictures of what we see.
Answer:
(a) It expands and contracts to allow different amounts of light in

Question 21.
Where does light enter first when it goes into the eye?
(a) optic nerve
(b) cornea
(c) retina
Answer:
(b) cornea

Question 22.
Which of the following best describes the autonomic nervous system?
(a) In general, these are the motor nerves that we control.
(b) These nerves are not under our control.
(c) They are the same as somatic nerves.
Answer:
(b) These nerves are not under our control.

Question 23.
Which of the following could be said about a neuron?
(a) A bundle of them together make up a nerve.
(b) Neurons transmit messages along their axons to the next neuron.
(c) Both of the above.
Answer:
(c) Both of the above.

Question 24.
Which of the following is the function a neuron?
(a) It is a sticky substance that protects the brain
(b) It surrounds the axons of many neurons to help transmit messages.
(c) It carries O₂
(d) It supplies nutrient to brain.
Answer:
(b) It surrounds the axons of many neurons to help transmit messages.

Question 25.
Which of the following diseases attacks the myelin sheath of cells?
(a) Huntington’s disease
(b) Multiple sclerosis
(c) Arthritis
Answer:
(b) Multiple sclerosis

Question 26.
What are some possible symptoms of MS?
(a) Numbness
(b) Inability to walk for certain periods of time
(c) Both of the above
Answer:
(c) Both of the above

Question 27.
Which of the following is not found in the central nervous system?
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Brain Stem
(c) Spinal Cord
(d) Sensory Neurons
Answer:
(d) Sensory Neurons

Question 28.
Look at the diagram below. What is the arrow pointing to?

Answer:
(b) Cerebellum

Question 29.
Which of the following would be controlled primarily by the cerebrum?
(a) Balance
(b) Breathing
(c) Remembering answers for a test
(d) Reflexes
Answer:
(c) Remembering answers for a test

Question 30.
Why are brain stem injuries so serious?
(a) The brain stem stores your memories
(b) The brain stem controls your breathing.
(c) The brain stem gives you personality
(d) Brain stem injuries are extremely painful.
Answer:
(b) The brain stem controls your breathing.

Question 31.
We read a story about Phineas Gage. He was the man who had the large metal rod jammed through his face and the front part of his skull. Why do doctors think his personality changed so dramatically?
(a) His cerebrum was injured
(b) His cerebellum was damaged.
(c) His brain stem was severed.
(d) He lost his sense of sight.
Answer:
(a) His cerebrum was injured

Question 32.
How do the Peripheral nervous system and the Central Nervous System differ?
(a) Only the PNS is made up of neurons
(b) The CNS receives sensory information from the outside world; the PNS does not
(c) The PNS stores our memories, the CNS does not
(d) The PNS receives sensory information from the outside world; the CNS interprets that information.
Answer:
(d) The PNS receives sensory information from the outside world; the CNS interprets that information.

Question 33.
Name the system whose nerves are part of our fingers
(a) CNS
(b) PNS
(c) Immune system
(d) None
Answer:
(b) PNS

Question 34.
The peripheral nervous system allows you to
(a) Taste
(b) Touch
(c) Smell
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 35.
Which of the following has nerves that are part of the PNS?
(a) Brain
(b) Spinal Cord
(c) Skin
(d) Cerebellum
Answer:
(c) Skin

Question 36.
What is it called when you pull your hand quickly away from a hot stove when you have accidentally touched it?
(a) Smart
(b) Reflex
(c) Cerebro impulse
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Reflex

Question 37.
How does a reflex reaction differ from other types of reactions?
(a) Reflexes are not responded to by our brain, only our spinal cord.
(b) Reflex reactions are carefully thought out in our cerebrum.
(c) The spinal cord is not involved.
(d) B and C only.
Answer:
(a) Reflexes are not responded to by our brain, only our spinal cord.

Question 38.
What does the iris of the eye do?
(a) It expands and contracts to allow different amounts of light in
(b) It sends the picture to the brain
(c) It protects the eye from injury.
(d) It contains cones and rods to help create pictures of what we see.
Answer:
(a) It expands and contracts to allow different amounts of light in

Question 39.
Label the following arrows in the diagram of cross section of human eye?

Answer:
(b) Ligament

Question 40.
Which of the following is the correct path of light travelling into the eye?
(a) lens, cornea, retina, pupil, optic nerve
(b) cornea, optic nerve, pupil, retina, lens
(c) cornea, pupil, lens, retina, optic nerve
(d) retina, pupil, cornea, optic nerve, lens
Answer:
(c) cornea, pupil, lens, retina, optic nerve

Question 41.
Which of the following best describes the autonomic nervous system?
(a) It is the same as a reflex:
(b) In general, these are the motor nerves that we control
(c) These nerves are not under our control
(d) They are the same as somatic nerves.
Answer:
(c) These nerves are not under our control

Question 42.
Which of the following could be said about a neuron?
(a) It is the smallest functioning unit of the nervous system
(b) A bundle of them together make up a nerve
(c) Neurons transmit messages along their axons to the next neuron
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) It is the smallest functioning unit of the nervous system

Question 43.
Which structure is labelled with the letter “X” in the following diagram?
(a) Dendrite
(b) Axon
(c) Synapse
(d) Neurotransmitter

Answer:
(d) Neurotransmitter

Question 44.
Myelin sheath is important because
(a) It is a sticky substance that protects the brain
(b) It surrounds the axons of many neurons to help transmit messages.
(c) It is the name of the man who had the first MRI.
(d) It is the same as a reflex reaction.
Answer:
(b) It surrounds the axons of many neurons to help transmit messages.

Question 45.
Which of the following diseases attacks the myelin sheath of cells?
(a) Huntington’s disease
(b) Multiple sclerosis
(c) Arthritis
(d) Sarin Gas
Answer:
(b) Multiple sclerosis

Question 46.
What are some possible symptoms of MS?
(a) Vertigo
(b) Numbness
(c) Inability to walk for certain periods of time.
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Very Short Answer Type Questions : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Which is the largest and most prominent part of the brain?
Answer:
Cerebrum.

Question 2.
Which part of the brain maintains posture and equilibrium of the body?
Answer:
Cerebellum

Question 3.
What is schwann cell?
Answer:
Membrane of a cell that surrounds the axolemma or myelin sheath of nerve fibre is called schwann sheath. The sheath contain cells at regular interval known as schwann cell.

Question 4.
What is the other name of long sightedness?
Answer:
Hyperopia

Question 5.
What is the other name of forebrain?
Answer:
Hypothalamus.

Question 6.
Name the part that joins brain and spinal cord?
Answer:
Medulla Oblongata

Question 7.
The following is a motor nerve.
Answer:
Oculomotor

Question 8.
The Part of brain that is joining it with spinal cord is –
Answer:
Medulla

Question 9.
Short Sightedness is also called
Answer:
Myopia

Question 10.
Where is node at ranvier located?
Answer:
Myelinated axon

Question 11.
Where is pupil situated?
Answer:
Iris

Question 12.
The balance organ of brain is
Answer:
Cerebellum

Question 13.
Cerebrum is the part of
Answer:
Forebrain

Question 14.
Where is image formed in eye?
Answer:
Retina

Question 15.
Which of the following is associated with schwann cell?
Answer:
Cell and body

Question 16.
Name the structure on which image is formed in the eye.
Answer:
Retina

Question 17.
Name the main part of CNS?
Answer:
Brain and spinal cord

Question 18.
Shape of lens of human eye –
Answer:
Convex

Question 19.
What is Corpus Callosum?
Answer:
Corpus callosum is a broad band of fibres which connects to cerebral hemispheres.

Question 20.
What is neurofibril?
Answer:
Neurofibrils are very fine filaments which are through the cell body from the dendrites to the axon (also present in axon and dendrites.)

Question 21.
The first pair of cranial nerve is –
Answer:
Olfactory nerve.

Question 22.
State one function of Iris.
Answer:
The Iris acts as shutter and adjusts the amount of light entering the eye.

Question 23.
In human, the number of spinal nerves is –
Answer:
31 pairs.

Question 24.
Where is vitreous humor located? What is its function?
Answer:
It is present in the compartment behind the lens.
Its function is refraction of light rays, maintenance of eyeball pressure.

Question 25.
The part of the body concerned with balance in human is –
Answer:
Cerebellum

Question 26.
Name the enzyme present in tear and state its function.
Answer:
Enzyme present in tear is Lysozyme.
It destroys bacteria.

Question 27.
The black pigmented tunic of human eye is –
Answer:
Choroid

Question 28.
What type of reflex will it be conditioned or unconditioned, where saliva is secreted due to chewing the food?
Answer:
Unconditioned reflex.

Question 29.
The region of human brain that regulates ‘body balance’ is
Answer:
cerebellum

Question 30.
Name the tenth cranial nerve.
Answer:
Tenth cranial nerve is Vagus.

Question 31.
Name the tissue that connects the lobes of the cerebellum.
Answer:
The tissue that connects the lobes of the cerebellum is vermis.

Question 32.
Name the fully like fluid present in the compartment of the eye.
Answer:
Vitreous humor.

Question 33.
Which chemical matter transmits nerve impulse from one neuron to another?
Answer:
Neurotronsmitter (eg. acetylcholine)

Question 34.
What is lacrimal gland?
Answer:
Lacrimal gland : At the upper and outer border of each eye, there is an almond shaped gland, known as lacrimal gland.

True and False :

1. The central nervous system is made up of the cerebrum, cerebellum, brain stem and spinal cord. [ ]
2. The cerebrum is part of the spinal cord. [ ]
3. The cerebellum is also called the “higher brain.” [ ]
4. The brain stem stores all of our memories. [ ]
5. A concussion is a bruise on the brain. [ ]
6. Injury to the brain may cause personality change. [ ]
7. Our senses are not a part of the Peripheral Nervous System. [ ]
8. Neurons look exactly like other body cells. [ ]
9. Nerve agents affect people in many different ways. [ ]
10. Damage to the nervous system is always the result of injury. [ ]
11. Multiple Sclerosis is a disease that affects the nervous system. [ ]
12. PNS stands for “Peripheral Nervous System” [ ]
13. The cerebellum helps to control our muscles and our balance. [ ]
14. Reflex actions happen slower than other types of reactions. [ ]
15. Nothing can be done to prevent concussion. [ ]
Answer:
1. True
2. False
3. False
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. False
8. False
9. True
10. False
11. True
12. True
13. True
14. False
15. False

Fill in the blanks :

1. ______ and ______ are two of the five senses.
2. The brain and spinal cord make up the ______ nervous system.
3. The space between two neurons is called the ________
4. Name three things that can cause damage in the nervous system _______, _______
5. _______ is the substance passed between two neurons.
6. Myelin sheath helps neurons to conduct messages ______
Answer:
1. sight, hearing
2 . central
3. synapse
4 . injury, chemicals, diseases
5. Neurotransmitter
6 . quickly

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Life Science Book Solutions Chapter 1C Response and Chemical Coordination in Animal Hormones offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1C Question Answer – Response and Chemical Coordination in Animal Hormones

Short Answer Type Questions : 2 Marks

Question 1.
How does chemical coordination takes place in animals?
Answer:
Hormones act as chemical coordinators in animals. Hormone is the chemical messenger that regulates the physiological processes in living organisms. It is secreted by ductless glands into blood stream and reaches their target site.

Question 2.
Why is the use of iodised salt advised?
Answer:
It is advised to use iodised salt to prevent goitre (enlargement of the thyroid gland). Iodine is required for the proper functioning of thyroid. Iodine stimulates the thyroid gland to produce Thyroxine hormone. This hormone regulates carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism in our body.

Question 3.
Name the hormone secreted by an endocrine gland during emergency. Vame the gland which secretes this hormone.
Answer:
Adrenaline hormone is secreted by the adrenal glands. It helps to regulate heart beat, blood pressure, metabolism in the time of stress or emergency to cope up with the situation.

Question 4.
Which hormone is injected to a diabetic patient and why?
Answer:
Hormone is released by pancreas gland which regulates the blood sugar level. In diabetic patients, pancreas has stopped releasing insulin hormone. If it is not secreted in proper amount, the sugar level in the blood rises causing many harmful effects. Due to the reason diabetic patients are treated by giving injection of insulin.

Question 5.
How does our body respond when adrenaline is secreted into the bood?
Answer:
During emergency situations, adrenaline hormone is released to blood stream in large quantitie. It increases the heartbeat and hence supplies more Oxygen to the muscles. The increase in breathing rate also increases due to contractions of diaphragm and rib muscles. It raises the blood pressure and thus enables the body to cope up with any stress or emergency.

Question 6.
Which endocrine gland is called master gland? Why?
Answer:
Pituitary gland (pea shape, present in mid-brain) is considered as master endocrine gland. It is said so because it controls almost all other endocrine glands.

Question 7.
Why is pancreas a dual gland?
Answer:
Pancreas is a dual gland because it acts as both endocrine and exocrine gland. As endocrine it secretes hormones like insulin, glucagon. As an exocrine glands, it releases enzymes like Trypsin, Lypase, Amylase etc.

Question 8.
How does our body maintain blood sugar level?
Answer:
The timing and amount of hormone released are regulated by feedback mechanisms. When the sugar levels in blood rise, they are detected by the cells of the pancreas which respond by producing more insulin. As the blood sugar level falls, insulin secretion is reduced.

Question 9.
Where Islet of langerhans is found? Name the secretion of different kind of cells of Islets?
Answer:
Islet of Langerhans is found in the endocrine cells of pancreas.
The secretion of different kinds of cells of Islets are :

• α cells – Glucagon
• β cells – Insulin
• δ cells – Somatostation

Question 10.
Define a neuron and a ganglion?
Answer:
The functional and structural unit of kindey is called neuron.
Ganglion : The cell body of large no. of nerve cells outside the CNS together form a gland like structure is known as ganglion.

Question 11.
Name one mixed endocrine gland. What are their secretion?
Answer:
Pancreas is a mixed endocrine gland. Their secretions from exocrine and endocrine are enzyms and hormones respectively.

Question 12.
What is an endocrine gland? What is the name of its secretion?
Answer:
Endocrine gland is gland from which hormones are secreted and passing through blood and lymph to the all body parts.
Hormones are secreted from endocrine gland.

Question 13.
What are the functions of tropic hormone?
Answer:
Tropic hormone : They are the hormones which are secreted from the glands and control the growth and secretion of another gland.
Functions : It controls the growth and secretion of another gland.

Question 14.
What is meant by flight-or-flight response?
Answer:
The epinephrine and norepinephrine hormones help to increase the flow of blood to the brain and muscles to inprove the ‘flight-or-flight’ response to stress.

Question 15.
State the name and one function of the hormone secreted from Islets of Langerhan’s?
The endocrine cells of pancreas is called Islets of Langerhans:
Answer:
Function (i) Glucogenolysis – Split liver glycogen and convert into glucose.

Question 16.
What is endocrine gland? Give an example.
Answer:
In higher animals including human hormones are secreted by ductless glands known as endocrine glands. Eg-Human.

Question 17.
What is diabetes mellitus?
Answer:
Diabetes mellitus is achronic, lifelong condition that affects body’s ability to use the energy found in food.

Question 18.
From where are thyroid stimulating hormone and Thyrovine secreted?
Answer:
Thyroxin is secreted from the hormone secreted by thyroid gland.

Question 19.
Write three major differences between hormone and enzyme.
Answer:
The differences between hormone and enzyme are :

Hormone	Enzyme
i. Hormone is produced by ductless endocrine glands.	i. Enzyme is produced by ducted endocrine glands.
ii. Transmitted through lymph and blood vessels.	ii. Transmitted through ducts.

Question 20.
What is the full form of IH? State one function of this hormone.
Answer:
The full form of LH is Luteinising Hormone.
One function of Luteinising Hormone is : (i) Luteinising Hormone stimulates the secrete of Progesterone from corpus luteum.

Question 21.
Why edible salt should be iodised. Sate one functional difference between Auxin and Thyroxine.
Answer:
Edible salt should be iodised because :

1. Ocean salt is with iodine but iodine is destroyed during the salt preparation.
2. Iodine is added to the salt.
3. The development of thyroid gland and secretion of T3, T4 increase if iodine is taken.

Question 22.
Which hormone prevents gluconeogenesis from protein and fat?
Answer:
Insulin prevents gluconeogenesis from protein and fat.

Question 23.
Write the name of two tropic hormones.
Answer:
Two tropic hormones are :
(i) Adreno Corticotropic Hormone
(ii) Somato Tropic Hormone.

Question 24.
Name an animal hormone which is lipid base.
Answer:
Thyroxine.

Question 25.
Give a flow chart for feedback mechanism of Thyroxine and TSH
Answer:

Long Answer Type Questions : 5 Marks

Question 1.
Why do humans need endocrinal system?
Answer:
Nervous system in human body works to communicate using nerve impulses which are formed of electrical impulses. Electrical impulses are an excellent means of communication in human body but they have following limitations.
(a) They reach only those cells that are connected by nervous tissue, not each and every cell in the animal body.
(b) Cells cannot continually create and transmit electrical impulses. Once an electrical impulse is generated in a cell and transmitted, the cell will take some time to reset its mechanisms before it can generate and transmit a new impulse.

Due to above said limitations most multicellular organisms use another means of communication between cells namely chemical communication i.e. hormone of endocrine system. It is slower than nerve cells, but potentially reach all cells of the body.

Question 2.
Point out two relevant differences between plant hormones and animal hormones.
Answer:

Plant hormones	Animal hormones
i. Plant hormones are secreted from immature meristematic tissue.	i. Animal hormones are secreted from endocrine glands.
ii. Plant hormones are acidic or alkaline in nature.	ii. Animal hormones are protein or steroid in nature.

Question 3.
Write two differences between exocrine and endocrine glands. Why is pituitary gland called “master gland”?
Answer:
The two differences between exocrine and endocrine glands are –

Exocrine Glands	Endocrine glands
i. The exocrine glands possess ducts.	i. The endocrine glands do not possess ducts.
ii. The exocrine glands secrete their secretion either on the surface or a particular region by means of ducts. e.g. salivary glands, mammary glands.	ii. The endocrine glands secrete their secretion through blood one lymph vessels. e.g : pituitary gland, thyroid gland.

Question 4.
Why is hormone called a chemical coordinator?
Answer:
Hormone is called a chemical coordinator because :

1. Hormone transmits chemical message from source organ to the target tissue and chemically coordinate cells, tissues.
2. Hormones secreted from endocrine glands contain chemicals controlled by gene.
3. Hormones coordinate different body organs by means of chemical messages.

Question 5.
Write the sources and functions of Oestrogen and Progesterone.
Answer:

Hormone	Source	Functions (one)
1. Oestrogen :	i. Graafian follicles ii. Chorionic villi of placenta iii. Adrenal cortical gland	i. In pregnancy it induces enlargement of uterus and breasts.
2. Progesterone :	i. Corpus luteum ii. Chorionic villi of placenta iii. Adrenal cortical gland.	i. In contrals growth and maintenance of endometrium of uterus.

Question 6.
Name the hormone secreted from Leydig cells and the hormone that activates the Leydig cells. Write any two functions of Oestrogen.
Answer:
The hormone which is secreted from Leydig cells is Testosterone, and the hormone that activates the Leydig cells is intestitial Cell Stimulating Hormone.
The two functions of Oestrogen :
(i) It controls the formation and maintenance of secondary sex characters.
(ii) In pregnancy, it induces enlargement of uterus and breasts.

Question 7.
The urine becomes hypotonic or hypertonic due to the influence of which hormone and how?
Answer:
The urine becomes hypertonic or hypotonic due to the influence of Adrenaline hormone.
By increasing or decreasing the renal circulation, the Adrenaline hormone causes the urine to be hypertonic or hypotonic.

Question 8.
Dite the influence of which hormones dwarfism. myxoedema, diabetes mellitus and acromegally occur? Vame two hormones that increase BMR.
Answer:
Dwarfism occurs due to the influence of somatotropic Hormone (deficiency)

• Mvoedema occurs due to the influence of Thyroxine Hormone (hyposecretion)
• Diabetes mellitus occurs due to the influence of Insulin hormone.
• Acromegally occurs due to the influence of somatotropic Hormone (Excessive secretion)

The two hormones that increase BMR are Thyroxine hormone and Adrenaline hormone.

Question 9.
Nention the places of secretion and one function of each of STH, GTH and Ndrenaline. Write any two differences between Cretinism and Dwarfism.
Answer:

Hormone	Source	Functions (one)
i. STH	Anterior Pituitary	i. STH helps in skeletal growth by stimulating multiplication of ephiphyseal cartilage present at the tip of long bones.
ii. GTH	Anterior Pituitary	ii. In females, it causes the growth of ovaries.
iii. Adrenaline	Adrenal Medulla	iii. Contraction and relaxation of heart, heart beats and cardiac outputs are increased by the action of adrenaline.

The two differences between Cretinism and Dwarfism :

Cretinism	Dwarfism
i. Cretinism is caused due to decreased secretion of thyroxine during childhood.	i. Dwarfism is caused due to the deficiency of somatotropic hormone during childhood.
ii. Congenital abnormality of thyroid gland.	ii. Abnormal secretion of pituitary gland.

Question 10.
Mention the source and one function of each of the following : Adrenaline. Thyroxine, Testosterone.
Answer:

Hormone	Source	Function
Adrenaline	Adrenal Medulla	i. Contraction and relaxation of heart, heart beats and cardiac output are increased by the action of Adrenaline.
Thyroxine	Thyroid gland	i. Thyroxine helps skeletal; muscular, sexual, mental growth.
Testosterone	Interstitial cells of leydig	i. At the time of puberty it causes the development of male secondary sex organs-seminal vesciles, penis, scrotum.

Question 11.
State three characteristics of hormones.
Answer:
The three characteristics of hormones are :

1. Hormones are complex organic compounds of low molecular weight and secreted from cells and glands.
2. Hormones are protein or steriod in nature and never stored in any other place for future use except the secreting glands or tissues.
3. Most hormones are highly soluble in nature and are conducted easily through cell sap or blood stream.

Question 12.
State the site of secretion and function of Insulin and Glucagon. In which endocrine disease BMR is low?
Answer:
Insulin :
Site of secretion : B cells of Islet of Langerhans of the pancreas.

Function :

1. Insulin increases the activity of hexokinase enzyme in the cells and thus increases the oxidation of glucose in the cell.
2. Insulin stimulates the formation and storage of glycogen in the liver and muscle taking glucose from blood.
3. The process of formation of glucose from protein, fats (gluconeogenesis)

Question 13.
What is emergency hormone? Mention its source. Why is it named so?
Answer:
Adrenaline is known as emergency hormone.
Source : The Adrenal Medulla secretes Ardrenaline.
Adrenaline is named emergency hormone because, the rate of secretion from Adrenal Medulla increases during emergent conditions such as-fear, anxiety, emotional conditions to cause widespread responses by which a subject is able to fight out the situation successfully.

Question 14.
State one function of each Oxytocin, Oestrogen, Testosterone, Secretin, Thyroxine.
Answer:
Function of Oxytocin : Oxytocin plays an important role in lactation and stimulates the contraction of pregnant uterus.
Function of Oestrogen : In pregnancy, it induces the enlargement of uterus and breasts.
Function of Testosterone : At the time of puberty, it causes the development of secondary sex organs-penis, seminal vesciles, scrotum.
Secretin : Stimulates the secretion of intestinal gland present in the inner wall of intestine.
Thyroxine : It increases the utilisation of O₂ and formation of CO₂ thus increases the rate and depth of respiration.

Question 15.
List the function of each of the following :
Answer:
(a) Growth hormone : Growth hormone helps in skeletal growth by stimulating multiplication of epiphyseal cartilage present at the tips of the long bones.
(b) Prolactin : It stimulates the development of mammary glands during pregnancy and following childbirth, the production of milk is originated by them.
(c) Follicle Stimulating Hormone : In females it helps in the maturation of immature follicles into mature follicles called Graaffian follicles.

Question 16.
Mention one functional similarity and two functional dissimilarities between nervous system and hormones in animal body.
Answer:

Nervous System	Hormones
i. Nerve acts as a coordinator in animal body.	i. Hormone acts as a coordinator in animal body.

Functional similarity between nervous system and hormones :

Nervous System	Hormones
i. Nerve acts as a physical coordinator in animal body.	i. Hormone acts as a chemical coordinator in all living bodies.
ii. Action of nervous system is very faster.	ii. Action of hormone is slow.

Question 17.
Explain the source and function of Progesterone and Testosterone in man.
Answer:

Question 18.
Why are gonads called mixed gland?
Answer:
The gonads are called mixed gland because :
(i) It has both exocrine and endocrine secretion.
(ii) It has metabolic and cytogenic activities.
Exocrine secretion : The gonads secrete sucrose, fructose and maltose.
Endocrinal secretion : The gonads secrete hormones like Testosterone by testis and Progestron, Oestrogen by Overy.

Question 19.
State the full name of ACTH, its site of secretion, function.
Answer:
The full name of ACTH is Adreno Cortico Tropic Hormone.
Site of Secretion of ACTH : Anterior Pituitary.
Functions of ACTH : (i) It stimulates the growth of adrenal cortex (ii) It stimulates the secretion of hormone from adrenal cortex.

Question 20.
State the name and two functions of the hormones secreted from Islets of Langerhans.
Answer:
Insulin is secreted from the β cells of Islets of langerhans.
Furretions of Insulin :
(i) Insulin increases the activity of the hexokinase enzyme in the cells and thus increases oxidation of glucose in the cell.
(ii) The process of formation of glucose from protein, fats, carbohydrate sources (gluoneogenesis) is inhibited by Insulin.

Question 21.
Name the antidiabetogenic hormone. Which hormone is called calorigenic hormone and why? What cause acromegally?
Answer:
The anidiabetogenic hormone is Insulin.
(i) Thyroxine hormone is called calorigenic hormone because it increases oxygen uptake and metabolism by the tissues and thus accelerates energy production i.e. B.M.R.
(ii) As Thyroxine increases the body temperature, it is known as calorigenic hormone.

Multiple Choice Questions : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Which of the following hormones is released by thyroid?
(a) Insulin
(b) Thyroxine
(c) Trypsin
(d) Pepsin
Answer:
(b) Thyroxine

Question 2.
Which of the following hormones contains iodine?
(a) Adrenaline
(b) Testosterone
(c) Thyroxine
(D) Insulin
Answer:
(c) Thyroxine

Question 3.
Which of the following is a mixed gland?
(a) Pancreas
(b) Silvery gland
(c) Liver
(d) Thyroid gland.
Answer:
(a) Pancreas

Question 4.
_______ is not secreted by an endocrine gland.
(a) Insulin
(b) Thyroxine
(c) Pepsin
(d) Adrenaline
Answer:
(c) Pepsin

Question 5.
From which endocrine gland is ACTH secreted?
(a) Adrenal
(b) Isletes of Langerhans
(c) Thyroid
(d) Insulin
Answer:
(d) Insulin

Question 6.
Which of the following hormone is a local hormone?
(a) Thyroxine
(b) Insulin
(c) Testosterone
(d) Adrenaline
Answer:
(c) Testosterone

Question 7.
Name the hormone that regulate the metamorphosis of tadpole larvae
(a) Thyroxine
(b) Insulin
(c) ADH
(d) Adrenaline
Answer:
(a) Thyroxine

Question 8.
Secretion of thyroid gland is controlled by
(a) TSH
(b) STH
(c) ACTH
(d) GTH
Answer:
(a) TSH

Question 9.
Dwarfism is due to the deficiency of
(a) ACTH
(b) Insulin
(c) GTH
(d) STH
Answer:
(d) STH

Question 10.
Which of the following endocrine gland secretes TSH
(a) Thyroid
(b) Testis
(c) Adrenal
(d) Pituitary
Answer:
(d) Pituitary

Question 11.
Which of the following endocrine gland secretes STH
(a) Thyroid
(b) Adrenal
(c) Testis
(d) Pituitary
Answer:
(d) Pituitary

Very Short Answer Type Questions : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Who coined the term hormone?
Answer:
Bayliss and Starling coined the term hormone. Both of them discovered the peptide hormone called secretin in human intestine.

Question 2.
Where are adrenal glands located?
Answer:
Adrenal glands are like caps just above the kidneys.

Question 3.
What is hyperglycemia?
Answer:
Hyperglycemia refers to high sugar level in blood. In general diabetic patients has hyperglycemia due to insufficient release of insulin hormone.

Question 4.
Where is thyroid gland located?
Answer:
Thyroid gland is situated in front of the neck below larynx.

Question 5.
From which gland is GHT secreted?
Answer:
The basophil cells of anterior pituitary.

Question 6.
Give the full name of STH?
Answer:
Somatotropic Hormone.

Question 7.
From which gland is pholactin secreted?
Answer:
Mammary gland.

Question 8.
Write the full form of ADH.
Answer:
Antidiuretic hormone.

Question 9.
Write one symptom of dwarfism.
Answer:
Below average growth, although body proportion will be normal.

Question 10.
TRH is produced from
Answer:
Thyroid gland.

Question 11.
Diabetes insipidus is caused by hyposecretion of
Answer:
ADH

Question 12.
Milk releasing hormone is
Answer:
Prolactin/Lactrotrophic hormone.

Question 13.
Which hormone is secreted from Adrenal gland?
Answer:
Adrenaline, Non-Adrenaline.

Question 14.
From where is testosterone secreted?
Answer:
Intorstitial cells of lydiag of Testes in male human.

Question 15.
Which is the synthetic hormone?
Answer:
Auxin.

Question 16.
АCTH is secreted from
Answer:
Pituitary.

Question 17.
Diabetes insipidus is caused by the deficiency of
Answer:
Insulin.

Question 18.
Glucagon is secreted from
Answer:
Islets of Langerhans.

Question 19.
Name the gland from where tropic hormones are produced
Answer:
Thyroid gland.

Question 20.
Which gland produced TSH hormone?
Answer:
Pituitary gland.

Question 21.
Enlargement of thyroid is the symptom of the disease
Answer:
Goiter.

Question 22.
Which one is mixed gland?
Answer:
Pancreas.

Question 23.
FSH is secreted from
Answer:
Graafian follicles.

Question 24.
Name the master gland of human body.
Answer:
The master gland of human body is pituitary gland.

Question 25.
Give an example of local hormone.
Answer:
An example of Local hormone is Secretin.

Question 26.
What is the source of insulin?
Answer:
The source of insulin is B cell of the Islets of langerhans of pancreas.

Question 27.
What is the source of Progesterone?
Answer:
Progesterone is secreted from corpus luteum of ovary.

Question 28.
List two symptons of myxoedema.
Answer:
Two symptoms of myxoedema are :
(i) Low Basal Metabolic Rate
(ii) Low Body temperature.

Question 29.
From where is Adrenaline secreted?
Answer:
Adrenaline is secreted from adrenal medulla.

Question 30.
Name one calorigenic hormone.
Answer:
One calorigenic hormone is Thyroxine.

Question 31.
Name the hormone secreted from Graafian Follicle of ovary in adult female.
Answer:
The hormone which is secreted from the Graafian Follicle of ovary in adult female is oestrogen.

Question 32.
Why is pancreas called a mixed gland?
Answer:
Pancreas is a mixed gland because it contains both exocrine and endocrine parts. Pancreas produces hormones besides having metabolic and cytogenic activities.

Question 33.
Which hormone helps in elongation of internodes of plant stem?
Answer:
Auxin helps in the elongation of internodes of plant stem.

Question 34.
Iodine is essential for which animal hormone?
Answer:
Iodine is essential for thyroid hormone (Thyroxine)

Question 35.
Which hormone helps in the formation of placenta in women?
Answer:
Oxytocin helps in the formation of placenta in women.

Question 36.
Name two hormones secreted from posterior pituitary. Give the full form of ICSH.
Answer:
The two hormones which are secreted from posterior pituitary are :
(i) Antidiuretic hormone or Vasopressin
(ii)-Oxytocin.
The Full from of ICSH – Interstitial Cell Stimulation Hormone.

Question 37.
Why does hypofunction of thyroid cause anaemia?
Answer:
Thyroid hormone helps in the development of R.B.C. That is why the hypofunction of thyroid causes aneamia.

Question 38.
Which hormone helps in the production of sperms?
Answer:
Follicle Stimulating Hormone helps in the production of sperms.

Question 39.
Write the position of pituitary gland in human.
Answer:
The pituitary gland is located under the brain, within the small bony cavity, sella turcica of the sphenoid bone. Inside bony cavity, sella turcica and hanged with infundibulum of anterior part of human brain.

Question 40.
State the effects of-
Answer:
(a) Hypofunction of STH in children : Causes Dwarfism.
(b) Hyperfunction of STH in children : Causes Gigantism.
(c) Hyposecretion of Insulin : Cauces Diabetes mellitus.

Question 41.
From which gland is the Testosterone hormone secreted?
Ins.
Testosterone is secreted from the Testis.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Life Science Book Solutions Chapter 1B Response and Chemical Coordination in Plant Hormones offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1B Question Answer – Response and Chemical Coordination in Plant Hormones

Short Answer Type Questions Marks : 2

Question 1.
What are plant hormones?
Answer:
Plant hormones of phytohormones are naturally-occurring organic substances used as chemical coordinators in plants. These are synthesized in one part of the plant body (in minute quantities) and are translocated to other parts when required. The five major types of phytohormones are :

• Auxins promote : cell division, bending of shoot towards the sources of light.
• Gibberellins : stimulate stem elongation.
• Cytokinins : promotes cell division.
• Abscisic Acid : inhibit growth, closing of stomate seed dormancy.
• Ethylene (gas hormone) : promotes full ripening and growth.

Question 2.
Name any two synthetic Auxins and mention one application for each.
Answer:
IAA : Induces root form and production of parthenocarpic fruit.
24D : Weedicide.

Question 3.
Mention any four physiological effects of Auxin.
Answer:
Induces cell division, induces apical dominance, induces root initiation, presents abscission.

Question 4.
Mention any four physiological effects of Gibberellins.
Answer:
Promotes internodal elongation, induces Parthenocarpic development of fruits, breaks dormancy in seeds.

Question 5.
Mention any four physiological effects of Cytokinins.
Answer:
Induces cell division, delay senescence, breaks dormancy, promotes growth of lateral root.

Question 6.
Classify the following phytohormones into growth promoters and growth inhibitors.
(a) Auxin
(b) Abscisic acid
(c) Cytokinin
(e) Ethylene.
Answer:
Growth promoters : Auxin, Cytokinin; Growth inhibitors: ABA, Ethylene.

Question 7.
What roles do synthetic Auxins play in tissue cultures?
Answer:
Induces cell division and organogenesis.

Question 8.
A plant becomes bushy, when its apical bud is removed. Why?
Answer:
When the apical bud is removed apical dominance is overcome and the lateral buds are induced to develop giving a bushy appearance to the plant.

Question 9.
How Gibberellins promote in seed germination?
Answer:
Gibberellins promote seed germination. Giberellins are weakly acidic growth hormones having ring structure, are synthesized in the apical shoot buds, root tips and developing seeds. During seed germination, especially of cereals Giberrellin stimulates the production of some messenger RNAs and then hydrolytic enzymes like amylases, lipases, proteases. The enzymes solubilize the reserve food of the seed.

Question 10.
Cut or excised leaves remain green for long if induced to root or dipped in Cytokinins. How?
Answer:
Cytokinins are plant growth hormones which are basic in nature. Cytokinins induce formation of new leaves, chloroplasts in leaves, which in turn keeps the leaves green for a longer duration of time. Cytokinins applied to marketed vegetables can keep them fresh for several days. Shelf life of cut shoot and flowers is prolonged by employing the hormones.

Question 11.
How Cytokinins hormone primarily helps in cell division?
Answer:
Cytokinin has a very specific effect on cell division (cytokinesis), hence the name Cytokinin. They contain kinetin and related compound generally called as kinins chemically, Cytokinins are degradation product of Adenine, ATP, NAD and NADP. Cytokinins are essential for cytokinesis though chromosome doubling can occur in their absence. Cytokinins bring about division even in permanent cells.

Question 12.
How Leaf fall can be prevented with the help of Cytokinins?
Answer:
Cytokinins delay senescence of leaves and other organs by mobilisation of nutrients. Its excessive presence stop protein and RNA synthesis in the leaves and hence stimulates their senescence.

Question 13.
How Gibberellins can replace vernalization?
Answer:
Gibberellin is a hormone that replaces vernalization. Vernalization is a period of cold treatment for plants, usually perennials or trees. Some plants won’t bloom without it. In vernilization plants are exposed to low temperature in order to stimulate flowering or to enhance seed production. The biennials form their vegetative body in the first year. Then they pass through a winter season and then produce flowers and fruits in the second year. By exogenous application of Gibberellins many biennials can be induced to behave as annuals and they no more require the natural chilling treatment for their flowering.

Question 14.
What do you means by nyctinastic leaf movements?
Answer:
It is a movement of leaves of many species from nearly horizontal leaves during the day and nearly vertical at night. These movements are controlled by biological clock, while the other conditions bending of shoot towards light, movement of root towards soil and movement of sunflower head tracking the sun are the conditions related to Auxins.

Question 15.
How abscisic acid controls leaf fall and dormancy?
Answer:
Before a leaf fall, a special zone of cells is formed at the base of the pedical or petiole. This zone is called as abscission zone. It is delimited by a protection layer on the stem side and a separation layer on the organ side. The leaf is ultimately separated and the phenomenon is abscission. ABA is also a growth inhibitor. It regulates the dormancy of seeds and buds perhaps by inhibiting the growth process. The ABA level decreases in the whole seed as their dormancy is broken.

Question 16.
What do you mean by Phytohormones?
Answer:
Growth hormones or phytohormones are defined as organic substances which are synthesized in minutes quantities in one part of the plant body and transported to another part where they influence specific physiological processes. Phytohormones are chemical substances which are synthesized by plants and are naturally occurring.

Question 17.
How Auxin concentration acts on the growing tips?
Answer:
Auxins are well known to promote elongation of stem and coleoptile. However when exogenous Auxin is given to intact plants this is not observed because the required amount of Auxin is already present in plants. When the apex of shoot is removed, then the exogenous application of Auxin promotes growth, this clearly indicates that growing apex, having meristematic cells, is the site where endogenous auxins are present in sufficient amount; once the apex is removed the source of Auxin is also removed.

Question 18.
Which chemical believed to be involved in flowering?
Answer:
Chailakhyan in 1937 gave the view that flower hormone namely Florigen is synthesized in the leaves under favourable photoperiodic conditions. This hormone is transmitted to the growing point where the flowering occurs.

Question 19.
Which hormone is responsible for apical dominance?
Answer:
Indole-3 Acetic Acid (IAA) is a natural Auxin which is responsible for apical dominance. In vascular plants especially the taller ones, if the apical bud is intact and growing, the lateral bud remains suppressed, removal of apical bud causes fast growth of lateral buds. This influence of apical bud in suppressing the growth of lateral buds is termed as apical dominance.

Question 20.
Write the function of Abscisic acid.
Answer:
Abscisic acid is hormone which is produced during adverse environmental condition. It also causes the closure of stomata under conditions of water stress as also under high concentration of CO, in the guard cells. Abscisic acid inhibits the K⁺ uptake by guard cells and promotes the leakage of malic acid. It results in reduction of osmotically active solutes so that the guard cells become flaccid and stomata get closed.

Question 21.
Bananas can be prevented from over-ripening by which process?
Answer:
In artificial ripening of banana, uncontrolled application of Ethylene gas may cause over ripening of banana. It can be prevented from over-ripening by dipping in Ascorbic acid solution.

Question 22.
Dwarfness can be controlled by treating the plant with Gibberellic acid. Explain.
Answer:
Giberellins help in the reversal of dwarfism in many genetically dwarf plants. External supply of Gibberellic acid causes rapid elongation of growth, e.g. Rosette plant of sugarbeet when treated with GA, undergoes marked longitudinal growth of axis.

Question 23.
The movement of Auxin is largely basipetal. Explain.
Answer:
Auxin is a growth promoting phytohormone. It moves mainly from the apical to the basal end (basipetally). This type of unidirectional transport is termed polar transport. Auxin is the only plant growth hormone known to be transported polarly. Recently it has been recognized that a significant amount of Auxin transport also occurs acropetally (from basal end to the apical end) in the root.

Question 24.
Gibberellic acid induces flower in long day plants under short day conditions. Explanation.
Answer:
Gibberellins are growth promoting phytohormones. Some of plants species flower only if the light period exceeds a critical length and others flower only if this period is shorter than some critical length. Gibberellins can substitute for the longday requirement in some species, showing an interaction with light.

Question 25.
Which plant hormone is used for inducing morphogenesis in plants tissue culture?
Answer:
Cytokinins are growth promoting phytohormones. Cytokinin plays an important part in organ formation (morphogenesis) with auxin. Different Auxin/Cytokinin ratio decides the development of root shoot ratio. The major physiological function of Cytokinins is to enhance cell division. If Cytokinin to Auxin ratio is low, then root formation takes place but if the ratio of Cytokinin to Auxin is high, then there is formation of meristematic cells in the callus.

Question 26.
How Gibberellins break the dormancy of potato tuber?
Answer:
Gibberellin is the hormone that breaks seed/but dormancy. The tubers of potato reproduce vegetatively to give house to new plants. So the dormancy of these tubers can be overcome by applying Gibberellin tubers.

Question 27.
How NAA prevents the fall of fruits?
Answer:
A-Naphthalene Acetic Acid (NAA) is a synthetic or exogenous Auxin. It prevents the formation of abscission layer, which is a layer of dead cells in the petiole and pedicel that causes fall of leaf or fruit. NAA prevents formation of this layer and so it prevents fall of leaf or fruit.

Question 28.
Coconut milk factor is Cytokinins. Explanation.
Answer:
Many experiments were done to sustain the proliferation of normal stem tissues in culture. The growth of culture was most dramatic when the liquid endosperm of coconut, also known as coconut milk, was added to the culture medium. This finding indicated that coconut milk contains a substance or substances that stimulate mature cells to enter and remain in the cell division cycle. Eventually coconut milk was shown to contain Cytokinin, Zeatin, but this finding was not obtained until several years after the discovery of the Cytokinins. The first Cytokinin to be discovered was the synthetic analogy kinetin.

Question 29.
How Gibberellins help in Cell elongation in internodal regions of the green plants?
Answer:
Gibberellins play a role in the elongation of internodes in ‘rosette’ plants. Before reproductive stage there is too much elongation of internodes but there is less leaf formation. An elongated internode without leaves is called a “bolt” like structure and the process is called “bolting”. Flowering takes place after bolting. Gibberellins induce cell division and cell elongation, when bolting takes place.

Question 30
How hormones can promote plan growth?
Answer:
Hormones can promote plant growth in two ways :
– Stimulating cell division in meristems to produce new cells.
Stimulating elongation in cells.

Question 31.
Why Cytokinin acts against Auxin?
Answer:
Cytokinin countracts apical dominance, prevents apical growth induced by Auxin. So, they acts against Auxin.

Question 32.
Give two examples of Auxin which are used in agriculture?
Answer:
(i) Early shedding of fruits and leaves are prevented.
(ii) Help in creating seedless fruit.

Question 33.
What is antiauxin?
Answer:
Cytokinin counteracts apical dominance, prevents apical growth induced by auxin, so they are also called antiauxin.

Question 34.
Name one Phytohormones. Mention one function of Auxin.
Answer:
Auxin is a Phytohormones.
Function : Root growth : Auxin promotes root growth only at extremely low concentrations.

Question 35.
Write two functions of Cytokinin?
Answer:
Two functions of Cytokinin :
(i) Promotes cell division : It is mainly concerned with the cytokinosis process of cell division.
(ii) Delay leaf senescence : Richmond and Long showed that kinetin delays senescence of leaves by retention of chlorophyl. It prevents drainage of nutrients from mature leaves.

Question 36.
What is parthenocarpy?
Answer:
Development of progenies from ovum without fertilization by sperm is known as parthenocarpy. eg. beas, wasp.

Question 37.
Mention two differences between plant and animal hormone.
Answer:

Plant hormone	Animal hormone
i. Source-apical meristems of stem and root, coleoptile, endosperm, cotyledons etc.	i. Source-Endocrine glands.
ii. They are transported through conducting system from their place of synthesis.	ii. Hormone is transported via blood and lymph.

Long Answer Type Questions : 5 Marks

Question 1.
How do Auxins promote the growth of a tendril around a support?
Answer:
When tendrils come in contact with any support, the part of the tendril in contact with the object does not grow as rapidly as the part of the tendril away from the object. This is caused by the action of Auxin hormone. Less Auxin occurs on the side of contact as compared to the free side, as a result Auxin promotes growth on the free side and the tendrils coil around the support.

Question 2.
How does chemical coordination occur in plants?
Answer:
Chemical coordination occurs in plants with the help of plant hormones. Different plant hormones help to coordinate growth, development, and responss to the environment. They are synthesized at places away from where they act and diffuse to the area for action, for example, Auxin promotes cell growth, Gibberellins promote stem growth, Cytokinins promote cell division and Abscisic Acid inhibits growth and its effects include wilting of leaves.

Question 3.
Mention the sources of ‘Auxin’ hormone and two of its functions having practical application.
Answer:
The sources of ‘Auxin’ hormone :

1. Growing apex of higher plants
2. Organs like seeds, stem tips.
3. In young expanding leaves.

The two functions of Auxin having practical application :

1. Need eradication
2. Parthenocarpic fruit development.
3. Delay of senescence period.

Question 4.
Write the source and any two functions of Cytokinin.
Answer:
Source of Cytokinine :

1. Fruits like apple, tomato, banana etc.
2. Endosperm tissues.
3. Found abundantly in coconut milk.
4. Corn seed contains Cytokinin (Zeatin)

Functions (two) of Cytokinin :

1. Cytokinin acts in presence of Auxin which induces cell division in plants.
2. Cytokinin delays the senescence of leaves.

Question 5.
Write the full form of IBA. Define apical dominance.
Answer:
The full from of IBA is Indole Butyric Acid.
Apical Dominance : As a general rule, growth of the terminal shoot of a plant inhibits the development of lateral buds on the stem beneath. The inhibition is called apical dominance.

Multiple Choice Questions : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Which of the following is a plant hormone?
(a) Insulin
(b) Thyroxin
(c) Oestrogen
(d) Cytokinin
Answer:
(d) Cytokinin

Question 2.
Artifical ripening of fruit is carried out by
(a) Auxin
(b) Ethylene
(c) Abscisic acid (ABA)
(d) Gibberellin
Answer:
(b) Ethylene

Question 3.
Growth of the stem is controlled by
(a) Gibberellin
(b) Auxin
(c) Abscisic acid
(d) Cytokinin
Answer:
(a) Gibberellin

Question 4.
Which of the following synthetic hormones is used commercially for ripening fruits?
(a) IBA
(b) NAA
(c) BAP
(d) Ethephon
Answer:
(d) Ethephon

Question 5.
Choose the combination of hormones which cause bolting and apical dominance respectively.
(a) Auxin and Gibberellin
(b) Gibberellin and Auxin
(c) Auxin and Cytokinin
(d) Gibberellin and Ethylene
Answer:
(b) Gibberellin and Auxin

Question 6.
Maximum seed germination can be achieved by treating seeds with
(a) Auxin
(b) Gibberellin
(c) Abscisic acid
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(b) Gibberellin

Question 7.
If a piece of sugarcane with nodes and internodes is placed in a beaker containing IBA, we can expect development of
(a) shoot
(b) roots
(c) leaf
(d) branch
Answer:
(b) roots

Question 8.
Match the hormones in column I with their physiological effects in column II and write the correct combinations.

Column I	Column II
(a) Auxin	(p) fruit ripening
(b) Gibberellin	(q) delay in senescence
(c) Cytokinin	(r) apical dominance
(d) Ethylene	(s) bolting

(a) a = r, b = s, c = q, d = p
(b) a = r, b = q, c = s, d = p
(c) a = s, b = r, c = q, d = p
(d) a = r, b = s, c = p, d = q
Answer:
(a) a = r, b = s, c = q, d = p

Question 9.
Which of the following pertains to movement of plants?
(a) sleep movements
(b) phototropism
(c) gravitropism
(d) all of the choices are correct
Answer:
(d) all of the choices are correct

Question 10.
Which of the following ions are affected by Gibberellin and is also involved in signal transduction?
(a) H⁺
(b) Ca²⁺
(c) Na⁺
(d) Mg²⁺
Answer:
(b) Ca²⁺

Question 11.
Pinching the top off a plant to create fuller growth involves which of the following hormones?
(a) Auxin
(b) Ethylene
(c) Gibberellin
(d) Cytokinin
Answer:
(a) Auxin

Question 12.
The general sequence by which a plant responds to stimuli is
(a) Chloroplast-vascular bundle-sap
(b) Reception-transduction-response
(c) Sensory nerve-interneuron-motor nerve
(d) Input-reflex-output
Answer:
(b) Reception-transduction-response

Question 13.
Which of these terms refers to a growth of the plant towards light?
(a) Negative gravitropism
(b) Positive gravitropism
(c) Negative phototropism
(d) Positive phototropism
Answer:
(d) Positive phototropism

Question 14.
The response of roots growing downward is referred to as
(a) Negative gravitropism
(b) Positive gravitropism
(c) Thigmotropism
(d) Negative phototropism
Answer:
(b) Positive gravitropism

Question 15.
Pea vines twinning around a wire support is an example of
(a) Negative gravitropism
(b) Positive gravitropism
(c) Thigmotropism
(d) Negative phototropism
Answer:
(c) Thigmotropism

Question 16.
Plant hormones are generally produced in tissues.
(a) Cortical (cortex)
(b) Epidermal
(c) Meristem
(d) Vascular
Answer:
(c) Meristem

Question 17.
The Latin root words meaning “about” and “day” are the basis for the term
(a) Auxin
(b) Tropism
(c) Naștic
(d) Circadian
Answer:
(d) Circadian

Question 18.
Which statement about plant hormones is not true?
(a) Plant hormones include at least one form that is gas.
(b) Each naturally occurring hormone has a specific chemical structure.
(c) Hormones are among the principal internal regulators of plant growth.
(d) All known growth regulators of plant activities are chemicals produced naturally in plants.
Answer:
(d) All known growth regulators of plant activities are chemicals produced naturally in plants.

Question 19.
Which of these plant hormones is a growth inhibitor?
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Gibberellin
Answer:
(a) Abscisic acid

Question 20.
Which of these plant hormones was studied in the 1880s by Charles and Francis Darwin in experiments on phototropism?
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(b) Auxin

Question 21.
Which plant hormone was discovered in infected rice seeding that grew extremely tall and slender?
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Gibberellin
Answer:
(d) Gibberellin

Question 22.
Which plant hormone, developing in an apical bud, inhibits the growth of lower axillary buds?
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(b) Auxin

Question 23.
Indoleacetic acid (IAA) is the most commonly occurring form of which plant hormone?
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(b) Auxin

Question 24.
Dormancy in seeds and buds can be broken by application of which plant hormone?
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Gibberellin
Answer:
(d) Gibberellin

Question 25.
A hormone that causes cell division and is found in coconut milk or in dividing root tissue is
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(c) Cytokinin

Question 26.
Which of the following is/are an effect(s) of auxin?
(a) Applied to a woody cutting, it causes roots to develop
(b) Auxin production by seeds promotes the growth of fruit
(c) Trees sprayed with Auxin will keep mature fruit from falling to the ground
(d) All of the choices are the effect of Auxin.
Answer:
(d) All of the choices are the effect of Auxin.

Question 27.
How does Auxin actually work?
(a) In the presence of blue light, it triggers additional photosynthesis and growth
(b) In the presence of light, it increases the turgor pressure of the cell and accelerates growth
(c) In the presence of light, it increases the formation of hydrolytic enzymes that release energy needed for growth
(d) In the presence of unidirectional light, it moves to the shady side and activites an ATP-driven proton pump that result in weakened cell walls and eventual elongation.
Answer:
(d) In the presence of unidirectional light, it moves to the shady side and activites an ATP-driven proton pump that result in weakened cell walls and eventual elongation.

Question 28.
How does Gibberllin actually work?
(a) In the presence of blue light, it triggers additional photosynthesis and growth.
(b) In the presence of light, it increases the turgor pressure of the cell and accelerates growth.
(c) In the presence of light, it increases the formation of additional DNA that codes for additional plant structures.
(d) It attaches to a plasma membrane receptor and results in gene activation to produce the enzyme amylase that releases sugars for additional cell growth, division, and elongation.
Answer:
(d) It attaches to a plasma membrane receptor and results in gene activation to produce the enzyme amylase that releases sugars for additional cell growth, division, and elongation.

Question 29.
A chemical messenger from the embryo that apparently simulates a seed to digest the endosperm is
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Gibberellin
Answer:
(d) Gibberellin

Question 30.
Application of which hormone prevents plant tissues from senescing, or again?
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(c) Cytokinin

Question 31
Which plant hormone is a gas?
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(d) Ethylene

Question 32.
Which plant hormone stimulates the ripening of fruit and inhibits plant growth?
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(d) Ethylene

Question 33.
Which plant hormone is called the stress hormone because it produces dormancy in seeds and buds?
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(a) Abscisic acid

Question 34.
Which plant hormone is associated with the closure of the stomates in a plant under water stress?
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(a) Abscisic acid

Question 35.
Which statement is not correct about a circadian rhythm?
(a) These rhythms tend to persist even in the absence of daily light cues.
(b) An example is the opening of stomata in the morning and their closing at night.
(c) If plants are maintained in total darkness or total light, their circadian rhythm acts on a faster time scale.
(d) The primary usefulness of circadian rhythms seems to be to measure daylength changes so plants respond appropriately to seasonal environmental changes.
Answer:
(c) If plants are maintained in total darkness or total light, their circadian rhythm acts on a faster time scale.

Question 36.
Which is not a physiological change related to photoperiodism?
(a) Seed germination
(b) Root branching
(c) Breaking bud dormancy
(d) Some flowering
Answer:
(b) Root branching

Question 37.
The prayer plant, Maramta leuconeura, folds up its leaves each night in accordance with a circadian rhythm. If we were to ship this plant halfway around the world to a location where it is day time there, when it is might here, the plant will
(a) Slowly adjust to synchronize with the new day-night cycle
(b) Immediately switch to a new cycle and begin to open leaves in day and close them at night
(c) Detect the change but remain on its original cycle and therefore still fold leaves in day and open them at night
(d) Not detect the change and therefore remain on its original cycle.
Answer:
(a) Slowly adjust to synchronize with the new day-night cycle

Question 38.
Which statement is not true about photoperiodism?
(a) A short-day plant flowers, when the day length is shorter than some critical length
(b) A day-neutral plant flowers according to some form of regulation other than photoperiodism
(c) A long-day plant will flower even when the day period is not long enough if there is a short period of light during the dark period.
(d) The phytochrome from Pft is converted to Pr in daylight, producing the active from the induces flowering the long-day plants.
Answer:
(d) The phytochrome from Pft is converted to Pr in daylight, producing the active from the induces flowering the long-day plants.

Question 39.
The Greek root words meaning “plant” and “color” are the basis for the term
(a) Auxin
(b) tropism
(c) nastic
(d) phytochrome
Answer:
(d) phytochrome

Question 40.
How do some plants sees “know” when it is day and night, and perhaps when to germinate?
(a) They chemically count the circadian cycles.
(b) All plant hormones are products of photosynthetic systems.
(c) Photosynthetic rates provide direct evidence of sun-produced food.
(d) Phytochromes cycle between red and far-red absorption and light levels can inhibit germination.
Answer:
(d) Phytochromes cycle between red and far-red absorption and light levels can inhibit germination.

Question 41.
Gravitropism in roots
(a) is positive when plant roots grow downward
(b) is due to statoliths in the root cap cells
(c) is due to Auxins
(d) All of the choices are true.
Answer:
(d) All of the choices are true.

Question 42.
Apical dominance in plants is due to which of the following plants hormones?
(a) Ethylene
(b) Gibberellin
(c) Auxin
(d) Cytokinin
Answer:
(c) Auxin

Question 43.
Which of the following is/are true regarding Gibberellin?
(a) there are about 70 chemically different gibberellins
(b) are growth promoters causing stem elongation
(c) these hormones can break seed and bud dormancy
(d) all of the choices are true.
Answer:
(d) all of the choices are true.

Question 44.
Cytokinins
(a) are plant hormones that promote cell division
(b) are used in combination with Auxin to produce plants from undifferentiated callose tissue
(c) also work with oligosaccharins to effect tissue differentiation
(d) All of these are true regarding cytokinin
Answer:
(d) All of these are true regarding cytokinin

Question 45.
Gibberellin promotes
(a) seed germination
(b) seed dormancy
(c) leaf fall
(d) root elongation
Answer:
(a) seed germination

Question 46.
Cut or excised leaves remain green for long if induced to root or dipped in
(a) Gibberellin
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Auxin
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(b) Cytokinin

Question 47.
Hormone primarily connected with cell division is
(a) IAA
(b) NAA
(c) Cytokinine
(d) Gibberellic acid
Answer:
(c) Cytokinine

Question 48.
Leaf fall can be prevented with the help of
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Florigen
(d) Cytokinin
Answer:
(d) Cytokinin

Question 49.
Which of the following hormones can replace vernalisation?
(a) Auxin
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Gibberellin
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(d) Ethylene

Question 50.
Which of the following movements is not related to Auxin level?
(a) bending of shoot towards light
(b) movement of root towards soil
(c) nyctinastic leaf movements
(d) movement of sunflower head tracking the sun
Answer:
(c) nyctinastic leaf movements

Question 51.
Phototropic and geotropic movements are linked to
(a) Gibberellin
(b) Enzymes
(c) Auxin
(d) Cytokinin
Answer:
(c) Auxin

Question 52.
Abscisic acid controls
(a) cell division
(b) leaf fall and dormancy
(c) shoot elongation
(d) cell elongation and wall formation
Answer:
(b) leaf fall and dormancy

Question 53.
Phytohormones are
(a) chemical regulation flowering
(b) chemical regulation secondary growth
(c) hormones regulating growth from seed to adulthood
(d) regulator synthesised by plants and influencing physiological processes.
Answer:
(d) regulator synthesised by plants and influencing physiological processes.

Question 54.
Highest Auxin concentration occurs
(a) in growing tips
(b) in leaves
(c) at base of plant organs
(d) in xylem and phloem
Answer:
(a) in growing tips

Question 55.
A chemical believed to be involved in flowering is
(a) Gibberellin
(b) kinetin
(c) Florigen
(d) IBA
Answer:
(c) Florigen

Question 56.
The hormone responsible for apical dominance is
(a) IAA
(b) GA
(c) ABA
(d) Florigen
Answer:
(a) IAA

Question 57.
Abscisic acid causes
(a) stomatal closure
(b) leaf expansion
(c) stem elongation
(d) root elongation
Answer:
(a) stomatal closure

Question 58.
Cytokinins
(a) promote abscission
(b) influence water movement
(c) photoperiod less than 12 hours, photoperiod below a critical length and uniterrupted long night
(d) short photoperiod and interrupted long night.
Answer:
(c) photoperiod less than 12 hours, photoperiod below a critical length and uniterrupted long night

Question 59.
Apical dominance is caused by
(a) Abscisic acid in lateral bud
(b) Cytokinin in leaf tip
(c) Gibberellin in lateral buds
(d) Auxin in shoot tip
Answer:
(d) Auxin in shoot tip

Question 60.
Bananas can be prevented from over-ripening by
(a) maintaining them at room temperature
(b) refrigeration
(c) dipping in ascorbic acid solution
(d) storing in a freezer
Answer:
(c) dipping in ascorbic acid solution

Question 61.
Dwarfness can be controlled by treating the plant with
(a) Cytokinin
(b) Gibberellin
(c) Auxin
(d) Antigibberellin
Answer:
(b) Gibberellin

Question 62.
The regulator which retards ageing/senescence of plant parts is
(a) Cytokinin
(b) Auxin
(c) Gibberellin
(d) Abscisic acid
Answer:
(a) Cytokinin

Question 63.
The movement of Auxin is largely
(a) centripetal
(b) basipetal
(c) acropetal
(d) both ‘a’ and ‘c’
Answer:
(b) basipetal

Question 64.
Gibberellic acid induces flower
(a) in short day plants under long day conditions
(b) in day-neutral plants under dark conditons
(c) in some gymnospermic plants only
(d) in long day plants under short day conditions
Answer:
(d) in long day plants under short day conditions

Question 65.
A plant hormone used for inducing morphogenesis in plant tissue culture is
(a) Cytokinin
(b) Ethylene
(c) Abscisic acid
(d) Gibberellin
Answer:
(a) Cytokinin

Question 66.
Which hormone breaks dormancy of potato tuber?
(a) Gibberellin
(b) IAA
(c) ABA
(d) Zeatin
Answer:
(a) Gibberellin

Question 67.
Which of the following prevents the fall or fruits?
(a) GA
(b) NAA
(c) Ethylene
(d) Zeatin
Answer:
(b) NAA

Question 68.
Coconut milk factor is
(a) an Auxin
(b) a Gibberellin
(c) Abscisic acid
(d) Cytokinin
Answer:
(d) Cytokinin

Question 69.
Cell elongation in internodal regions of the green plants takes place due to
(a) Indole Acetic Acid
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Gibberellin
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(c) Gibberellin

Question 70.
Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly matched?
(a) Gibberellic acid-Leaf fall
(b) Cytokinin-Cell division
(c) IAA-Cell wall elongation
(d) Abscisic acid-Stomatal closure.
Answer:
(a) Gibberellic acid-Leaf fall

Very Short Answer Type Questions : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Who coined the term phytohormones?
Answer:
Thimann in 1948.

Question 2.
Name the naturally occurring Auxin in plants.
Answer:
Indole Acetic Acid (IAA).

Question 3.
Name one synthetic Auxin used to in the production of seedless fruits.
Answer.
NAA (Naphthalene Acetic Acid).

Question 4.
Name one Auxin that can induce root formation in plant tissue cultures.
Answer:
IAA.

Question 5.
Name a synthetic Auxin that is used as a Weedicide.
Answer:
2, 4, D (2, 4, Dichlorophenoxy Acetic Acid).

Question 6.
Name of hormone that induces bolting in plants.
Answer:
Gibberellin.

Question 7.
Name the meristems responsible for primary growth in plants.
Answer:
Primary meristem/root tip and short tip.

Question 8.
Define growth.
Answer:
It is a permanent and irreversible increase in size or volume accompanied by increase in dry weight/biomass of an organism.

Question 9.
Why seeds are soaked in Gibberellic acid solution before sowing?
Answer:
Gibberellic acid breaks seed dormancy and promotes germination.

Question 10.
Which hormone is linked with phototropic and geotropic movement in plant?
Answer:
Auxin regulates the phototropic and geotropic movement.

Question 11.
Avena Coleoptile test is for
Answer:
Ethylene.

Question 12.
Seed germintion is brought about by
Answer:
Gibberellin.

Question 13.
The following hormone is artifical Auxin
Answer:
NAA.

Question 14.
The following hormone is antiauxin
Answer:
Cytokinin.

Question 15.
Premature leaf fall is brought about by
Answer:
GA,

Question 16.
Cell division is promoted by
Answer:
kinetin.

Question 17.
Which is the natural Auxin?
Answer:
IAA.

Question 18.
Seed germination is induced by which hormone?
Answer:
Auxin.

Question 19.
Which hormone delay leaf senescence?
Answer:
Cytokinin.

Question 20.
Which hormone helps to produce seedless fruits?
Answer:
Synthetic Auxin and synthetic Gibberellin.

Question 21.
Give the full form of IAA?
Answer:
Indole Acetic Acid.

Question 22.
What is synthetic hormone?
Answer:
Artificial hormones are synthesised in the industry and these are artificial Auxin, Gibberellin and Cytokinin. This is called synthetic hormone.

Question 23.
Which hormone helps in optical dormancy in Plant?
Answer:
Auxin.

Question 24.
What do you mean by natural auxin?
Answer:
The hormones that are synthesised naturally are called natural auxin.

Question 25.
Name the precursor of IAA synthesis?
Answer:
Tryptophan.

Question 26.
What is Gibberllin?
Answer:
Non-nitrogenous organic acids having terpenoid group functioning as growth promoting substance are Gibberellins.

Question 27.
What is Auxin?
Answer:
The nitrogenous acidic phytohormones which are synthesised at the tip of the root, coleoptile, shoot, apex etc are called Auxins.

Question 28.
What is Cytokinin?
Answer:
A group of nitrogen containing basic organic compound having a purine group and functioning as growth promoting substances are called Cytokinin.

Question 29.
Name a natural Auxin.
Answer:
Indole Acetic Acid.

Question 30.
Name the phytohormone that helps in seed germination.
Answer:
Gibberellin.

Question 31.
Which hormone is antiauxin?
Answer:
Cytokinin.

Question 32.
Name the hormone that can be used to overcome genetic dwarfism in plants.
Answer:
Gibberellin.

Question 33.
What are growth inhibitors?
Answer:
The hormones which hinder or suppress the growth of plants are called growth inhibitors.

Question 34.
Which phytohormone reduces the rate of transpiration?
Answer:
ABA (Abscisic Acid)

Question 35.
Name the hormone which induces ripening of fruits.
Answer:
Ethylene.

Question 36.
Name the commercially available Ethylene used in ripening of fruits.
Answer:
Ethephon or Ethereal.

Question 37.
What are growth promoters?
Answer:
The phytohormones which promote growth of plants are called growth promoters.

Question 38.
Name the gaseous plant hormone.
Answer:
Ethylene.

Question 39.
Name the hormone that break dormancy in seeds.
Answer:
Gibberellins or Cytokinins

Question 40.
Name the hormone that helps in elongation of internodes in plants.
Answer:
Gibberellins.

Question 41.
Expand the abbreviation-NAA
Answer:
Naphthalene Acetic Acid.

Question 42.
Auxin is
Answer:
Phytohormones.

Question 43.
Auxin is secreted from
Answer:
Meristematic tissue.

Question 44
Give an example of non-nitrogenous plant hormone.
Answer:
Gibberellin is an example of non-nitrogenous plant hormone.

Question 45.
Mention the chemical nature of Auxin and Thyroxine.
Answer:
The chemical nature of Auxin is nitrogenous. The chemical nature of Thyroxine is nitrogenous including iodine molecule.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Life Science Book Solutions Chapter 1A Sensitivity and Response in Plants offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Life Science Chapter 1A Question Answer – Sensitivity and Response in Plants

Short Answer Type Questions : 2 Marks

Question 1.
Why is a system of control and co-ordination essential in living organisms?
Answer:
Following are the reasons.

1. Increase the chances of survival by responding to stimuli.
2. Different body parts function as a single unit.
3. To maintain homeostasis.

Question 2.
How is the movement of leaves of the sensitive plant different from the movement of a shoot towards light?
Answer:
The movement of leaves of the sensitive plant (e.g. Mimosa pudica or touch me-not) occurs in response to touch or contact stimuli. It is a growth independent movement (nastic movement). The movement of shoot towards light is called phototropism. This type of movement is directional and is growth dependent.

Question 3.
Write differences between nastic and tropic movements.
Answer:

Characters	Nastic movement	Tropic movement
1. Growth	Growth Independent movements	Growth dependent movements
2. Time of Action	Immediate	Slow
3. Response to Stimules	non-directional	directional
4. Response for action	change in turgor	cell division
5. Alternate name	nastics	tropism
6. Examples	folding of leaves of touchme-not (Mimosa), opening and closing of stomata	phototropism, geotropism, hydrotropism, chemotropism

Question 4
What is chemotropism?
Answer:
Directional movement of a plant/or its part in response of chemicals is called chemotropism. e.g. growth of the pollen tube towards the ovule is a chemotropic movement due to which fertilization of flower takes place.

Question 5.
Give examples of geotropism.
Answer:
(i) Roots move in the direction of gravity (positive (+ve) geotropism)
(ii) Shoots move (up) against direction of gravity (negative (-ve) geotropism)

Question 6.
How does phototropism occur in plants?
Answer:
The growth movement in plants in response to light stimulus is known as phototropism. The shoots show positive phototropism and the roots show negative phototropism. This means that the shoots bend towards the source of light whereas the roots bend away from the light source.
For Example : The flower head of sunflower is positively phototropic and hence is moves from east to west along with the sun.

Question 7.
Write the responses of stem and root due to light and gravity.
Answer:

Part of plant	Response to light	Response to gravity
Stem	Positive phototropism (grows towards the light)	Negative geotropism (grows against the force of gravity)
Root	Negative phototropism (grows away from the light)	Positive geotropism (grows in the direction of the force of gravity)

Question 8.
Differentiate between Autonomic and Paratonic movements.
Answer:
The movements induced by some internal causes are called autonomic movement. The movement induced by external stimuli is called Paratonic movement.

Question 9.
What is phototropism? How is it caused?
Answer:
The tropic movement of the part of plant in response to stimulus of light is called phototropism. It is caused due to differential growth of part of plant like root, stem.

Question 10.
What is meant by diaphototropic?
Answer:
Leaves also show response to light. They twist their petioles and plane their faces (upper sides) at right angles to the light. They are diaphototropic or transversely phototropic.

Question 11.
What is Cholodny and Went theory of phototropism?
Answer:
Cholodny and Went theory suggested that the phototropic response occurs due to unequal distribution of auxin (IAA).

Question 12.
What is Cholodny and Went theory of geotropism?
Answer:
This theory suggests that differential growth in geotropism is caused due to unequal distribution of auxin (IAA) in the upper and lower halves of the shoot.

Question 13.
What are Seismonastic movements?
Answer:
The shock movements are called Seismonastic. It occurs in mimosa. When the leaves of mimosa, (touch me not) is touched, the leaflet folds together. This response takes within a few seconds.

Question 14.
What are Haptonastic movements?
Answer:
The nastic movements occur due to stimulus of touch are called Haptonastic movements. Haptonastic movements occur in the leaves of Drosera and Dionaea.

Question 15.
Are the development and growth of plants only influenced by plant hormones?
Answer:
Physical and chemical environmental factors, like intensity and position of light in relation to the plant, gravitational force, temperature, mechanical pressures and chemical composition of the soil and the atmosphere, can also influence the growth and development of plants.

Question 16.
What are plant tropisms?
Answer:
Tropisms are movements caused by external stimulus. In Botany the studied plant tropisms are : phototropism (tropism in response to light), geotropism (tropism in response to the earth gravity) and thigmotropism (tropism in response to mechanical stimulus).

Question 17.
To which direction does the growth of one side of a stem, branch or root induce the structure to curve?
Answer:
Whenever one side of a stem, branch or root grows more than the other side, the structure curves towards the side that grows less.

Question 18.
What is phototropism?
Answer:
Phototropism is the movement of plant structures in response to light. Phototropism may be positive or negative. Positive phototropism is that in which the plant movement (or growth) is towards the light source and negative phototropism is that in which the movement (or growth) is inverse, away from the light source.

Phototropism relates to auxins since the exposition of one side of the plant to light makes these hormones concentrate in the darker side. This fact makes the auxin action upon the stem to be positive, i.e., the growth of the darker side is more intense and the plant arcs towards the lighter side. In the root (when submitted to light, in general experimentally) the auxin action is negative (over the positive range), the growth of the darker side is inhibited and the root curves towards this side.

Question 19.
What are the types of plant geotropisms? Why do the stem and the root present opposite geotropisms?
Answer:
The type of geotropisms are the positive geotropism, that in which the plant grows in favour of the gravitational force, as for example in roots, and the negative geotropism, that against the gravitational force, for example, in the stem. Root geotropism and stem geotropism are opposed due to different sensitivities to auxin concentration in a horizontal position (parallel to the ground) and naturally auxins concentrate along their bottom part.

Under this condition it is observed that the stem grows upwards and the root grows downwards. This happens because in the stem the high auxin concentration in the bottom makes this side grow (longitudinally) more and the structures arc upwards. In the root the high auxin concentration in the bottom inhibits the growth of this side and the upper side grows more making the root to curve downwards.

Question 20.
What is thigmotropism?
Answer:
Thigmotropism is the movement or growth of the plant in response to mechanical stimuli (touch or physical contact), as when a plant grows around a supporting rod. It occurs for example in grape and passionfruit vines, coiling of tendrils and steams, haustoria in Cuscuta etc.

Question 21.
What will happen if apical bud is removed?
Answer:
Removal of apical bud shows lateral branching. This is because auxins control apical dominance and apex inhibits the growth of axillary buds.

Question 22.
What do mean by paratonic movement?
Answer:
Plants have the capacity of changing their position, in response to external or internal stimuli which are known as plant movements. The movements which occur due to internal stimuli are called autonomic movements and those that occur due to external stimuli are called paratonic movements.
Nepenthes (pitcher plant) is an insectivorous plant. In this, the leaf lamina is modified to form a pitcher and leaf apex froms a coloured lid.

Question 23.
If a tree flowers thrice in a year (Oct., Jan and July) in Northern India, then it is said to be photo and thermo-intensitive. Why?
Answer:
Flower formation is a transitional phase in the life cycle of plant. During flowering, vegetative shoot apex is converted into reproductive shoot apex. The physiological mechanism for flowering is controlled by 2 factors ; photoperiod or light period, i.e., photoperiodism and low temperature, i.e., vernalization.

Question 24.
Explain thigmonastic movement with the example of the ability of the Venus Flytrap to capture insects.
Answer:
Thigmonastic movements are exhibited by some insectivorous plants such as Dionaea, venus Flytrap, Drosera etc. These plants have tentacles, which are sensitive to the stimulus of touch. In the case of the venus flytrap turgor pressure changes, occur in which hydrogen ions are rapidly pumped into the walls to cells on the outside of each leaf in response to the action potentials from the trigger hairs. The protons apparently loosen the cell walls so rapidly that the tissue actually becomes flaccid so that cells quickly absorb water, causing the outside of each leaf to expand and the trap to snap shut.

Question 25.
What do you mean by movement of locomotion and movement of curvature?
Answer:
Movement may be of two types, movement of locomotion and movement of curvature. Movement of curvature is movement of individual parts in relation to other parts. Curvature movement may be growth movements and turgor movements. Growth movements are caused by differential growth in different parts of an organ. Opening of floral buds into flowers is such a type of growth movement. Mostly floral bud opening shows thermonastic movement i.e. opening and closing are controlled by temperature. Sometimes movements are controlled by presence or absence of light, e.g. Oxalis.

Question 26.
What is the cause of leaflet movement in Desmodium?
Answer:
The leaflet of the Desmodium plant automatically goes up and down with the loss and gain of turgidity of the lateral leaflets. As the leaflets go down, they lose turgidity, become light and go up.

Question 27.
What is Clinostat?
Answer:
The geotropic movement demonstrated in the laboratory by an instrument is called Clinostat.

Question 28.
What is seismonasty?
Answer:
The movement which is induced by stimuli like touch, shock, shaking etc is called seismonastic movement or Seismonasty.

Question 29.
What is nastic movement?
Answer:
The movement of a plant organ that has no relation to the direction of stimulus but has a relation with the intensity of stimulus is called nastic movement.

Question 30.
What is geotropic movement?
Answer:
The movement of curvature of plant organ that is induced by force of gravity is called geotropic movement.

Question 31.
What is hydrotropic movement? Give example.
Answer:
The movement of curvature of plant organ in response of water stimulus is called hydrotropic movement. E.g. Root is positively hydrotrophic and stem is negatively hydrotropic.

Question 32.
Write two difference between tropic and nastic movement.
Answer:

Tropic movement	Nastic movement
i. This movement is related to growth.	i. This movement is related to turgor.
ii. The movement bears relation to the direction of stimulus.	ii. The movement bears relation to the intensity of stimulus.

Question 33.
Design an experiment to demonstrate hydrotropism.
Answer:
Take two small beakers and label them as A and B. Fill beaker A with water. Now make a cylindrical-shaped roll from a filter paper and keep it as a bridge between beaker A and beaker B, as shown in the figure. Attach a few germinating seeds in the middle of the filter paper bridge. Now, cover the entire set-up with a transparent plastic container so that the moisture is retained.

Observation : The roots of the germinating seeds will grow towards beaker A. This experiment demonstrates the phenomenon of hydrotropism.

Question 34.
Describe the phototropic movement of plants.
Answer:
Movement of plant parts in response to light stimulus is called phototropic movement.

Question 35.
How could you proof that stems are phototropic?
Answer:
If the stem of a plant grows towards the direction of light, then it is called positively phototropic and if the root position grows away from the direction of light, this is negatively phototropic.

Question 36.
What are stimulus and irritability?
Answer:
Stimulus: The change in environmental conditions which produced appreciable effect in plant is called stimulus.
Irritability : The response to stimuli is called Irritability.

Question 37.
What is the function of receptors in our body? Think of situations where receptors do not work properly. What problems are likely to arise?
Answer:
Functions of receptors :
They sense the external stimuli such as heat or pain.
They also trigger an impulse in the sensory neuron which sends message to the spinal cord.

When the receptors are damaged, the external stimuli transferring signals to the brain are not felt. For example, in the case of damaged receptors, if we accidentally touch any hot object, then our hands might get burnt as damaged receptors cannot perceive the external stimuli of heat and pain.

Long Answer Type Questions : 5 Marks

Question 1.
List the different movements of plant in a tabular form.
Answer:

Question 2.
What do you mean by spontaneous and induced movement?
Answer:
Spontaneous movement : There are plant movements which take place spontaneously without any external stimuli. These movements are described spontaneous or autonomic movements.
Induced movement : Some plant movements are caused in response to certain stimuli and they are said to be induced or plant movement which take place spontaneously, without any irritability and sensitivity of protoplasm.

Question 3.
What do you mean by movement of locomotion?
Answer:
Movements of the whole plant body or of an organ or of material within the plant cell which occur in responses to inherent factors and are free and spontaneous are said to be movements of locomotion. Examples : cyclosis (streaming of protoplasm), oscillatory movements of Oscilatoria, Motility of zoospores.

Question 4.
What do you mean by growth and curvature movement?
Answer:
These movements are brought about by unequal growth on different sides of an organ.
These are of the following types :
A. Nutation : The side of the supporting organ that is in contact of the support grows at a slower rate than the opposite side. This brings about a curvature which helps the supporting organ is spiralling or twinning around the support.

B. Nastic : These movements occur due to differences in the rate of growth on the two opposite surface of a plant organ. When the movement occurs due to faster growth on the upper surface of the organ, it is said to be epinastic movement and when on the lower surface of the growing organ, it is known as hyponastic movement.

Examples : Opening of floral buds and circinately coiled leaves are good examples of nastic movements.

Question 5.
How lateral leaflets move in Indian telegraph plant?
Answer:
These movements occurs due to periodic variations in the turgidity of cells of an organ.
The example is Indian telegraph plant, Desmodium gyrans, where up and down movements of the two lateral leaflets occur in a rhythmic manner.

These leaflets periodically drop down and rise up. This happens due to the presence of large thin walled motor cells at the bases of the leaflets.
When these cells lose water into neighbouring cells, they collapse and the leaflets drop down, and when they regain water, they become turgid and leaflets acquire their upright position.

Question 6.
Describe phototropism with an experiment.
Answer:
These curvature movements occur when a plant is provided with artificial or natural light only from one direction. Stems which generally show a curvature towards the source of light are said to be positively phototropic. Roots which grow away from the source of light are called negatively phototropic.

Question 7.
Describe geotropism with an experiment.
Answer:
Growth movements induced by stimulus of gravity are said to be geotropism. Primary roots always grow downward in the direction of gravity and thus are positively geotropic, whereas the main shoots grow upward away from the gravity and are thus negatively geotropic.

The secondary lateral roots are shoots show a weaker response to gravity and thus take up a position at an angle to the gravitational stimulus and are called diageotropic.
Demostration of geotropism : Geotropism can be demonstrate in the laboratory with the instrument known as Clinostat. It can allow a potted plant fixed on it to rotate at a definite speed.
Two clinostats are taken and a potted plant on each is fixed on a horizontal position.

One clinostat is rotated and the other is kept stationary. Observations made after sometime will show that the shoot of the plant fixed on the stationary clinostat bends upwards showing negative geotropism and the root bends downwards showing positive geotropism. But their is no bending in the root and shoot of the plant fixed on the rotating clinostat. This is due to the fact that gravitational stimulus is not unilateral as it affects the sides of the rotating organs equally.

Negative geotropic response of shoots :

1. Shoots which are negatively geotropic grow vertically and it helps the plant to complete for light and Carbon dioxide.
2. The flowers are brought into an advantageous position for pollination through insects or wind.
3. Seed dispersal may be more effective on long and vertical stem.

Positive geotropic response of roots :

1. It causes roots to grow downwards into the earth where they can anchor the plant firmly in the soil.
2.  It causes them to obtain water and minarals salts.
3. Lateral roots, not positively geotropic grow at right angles or slightly downwards from the main root. This enables a large volume of soil to be exploited and helps to anchor the plants securely.

Question 8.
Explain hydrotropism with an experiment.
Answer:
Growth movements in response to unilateral stimulus of water are known as hydrotropism.
Roots are positively hydrotropic as they bend towards the source of water.

Question 9.
What do mean by phototactic movement?
Answer:
The tactic movements are in response to unidirectional light. Examples : Free swimming algae, zoospores, gametes when swim towards the diffused light are said to be positively phototactic and when they move away from the strong light, they are called negatively phototactic.

Question 10.
What do you mean by nastic movement? Describe different types of nastic movement.
Answer:
The movement can be due to the changes in turgor or changes in growth.
Depending upon the nature of stimuli, these movements are of following types :
(A) Nyctinasty
(B) Chemonasty
(C) Seismonasty
A. Nyctinasty
These movements of plant organs occur in response to day and night and thus are also known as sleep movements.
Photonastic : If this movement when induced by change in light intensity. Examples: Flower of Oxalis, Portulaca, Nicotiana, Oenothera etc.

Thermonastic : This movements is induced by change in temperature intensity. Example : Tulip and Saffron (Crocus)
A temperature rise of only 36 degrees is enough to begin to open a crocus.

B. Chemonasty : This movement occurs in response to some chemical stimulus. eg. Strong chemonasty is exhibited by long peripheral tentacles of sundew leaves(Drosera) which respond to the presence of organic nitrogenous compounds by bending towards the middle of leaf.

C. Seismonasty :
These movements are in response to shock by a touch stimulus. Example : Neptunia, Biophylum, Mimosa pudica, Begonia, Mytinia etc.

Question 11.
Give a brief account of turgor movement shown by Mimosa pudica.
Answer:

• These base of the petiole is swollen (Pulvinus) and similar but smaller pulvinus are present at the base of each leaflet.
• Lower half thin walled and upper half thick walled.
• If the terminal pinnule is struck a blow or touched, the stimulus is conducted to its base and then other pinnules.
• This stimulus causes fall in turgor of lower cells due to loss of water.
• Upper half retains turgidity.
• Turgid half presses flaccid lower half/leaf droops.
• When the touch stimulus is removed regains turgidity.

Question 12.
Difference between nastic and tropic movement?
Answer:
Nastic Movement : Nastic movements are non-directional responses to stimuli (e.g. temperature, Humidity, light, irradiance). The movement can be due to changes in turgor or changes in growth. Nastic movements differ from tropic movements in that the direction of tropic responses depends on the direction of the stimulus, whereas the direction of nastic movement is independent of the stimulus. The rate or frequency of these responses increases as intensity of the stimulus increases. An example of such a response is the opening and closing of flowers (photonastic response). Nastic responses are usually associated with plants.’

Tropism Movement : ‘A tropism (from Greek, tropos, to turn) is a biological phenomenon, indicating growth or turning movement of a biological organism, usually a plant, in response to an environmental stimulus’. In tropisms, this response is dependent on the direction of the stimulus’ (as opposed to nastic movements which are non-directional responses). Viruses and other pathogens also affect what is called ‘host tropism’ or ‘cell tropism’, in which case tropism refers to species, or specific cell types within those species. The word tropism comes from the Greek trope (‘to turn’ or ‘to change’). Tropisms are usually named for the stimulus involved (for example, a phototropism is a reaction to light) and may be either positive (towards the stimulus) or negative (away from the stimulus).

Multiple Choice Questions : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Tropic movements are
(a) In response to light
(b) In response of gravity
(c) Uni-directional
(d) Non-directional
Answer:
(c) Uni-directional

Question 2.
Stimulus is
(a) A physical force
(b) Energy
(c) Changed environment
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Changed environment

Question 3.
Irritability is
(a) Respond to stimulus
(b) Non respond to stimulus
(c) Changes within body
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Respond to stimulus

Question 4.
Respond to stimuli in plants is taken by
(a) Nervous system
(b) Growth movement
(c) Hormonal movement
(d) Turgor pressure.
Answer:
(b) Growth movement

Question 5.
Movement of whole plant in response to external stimuli is called
(a) Tropic movement
(b) Tactic movement
(c) Nastism
(d) Hyprotropism
Answer:
(b) Tactic movement

Question 6.
Root always
(a) Moves towards light
(b) Moves towards soil
(c) Moves towards surface of the soil
(d) Showing geotropism
Answer:
(d) Showing geotropism

Question 7.
Stems are always
(a) Geotropic
(b) Phototropic
(c) Hydrotropic
(d) Chemotropic
Answer:
(b) Phototropic

Question 8.
Roots response towards the force of gravity is the display of
(a) Positive geotropism
(b) Negative geotropism
(c) Both of them
(d) None of above
Answer:
(a) Positive geotropism

Question 9.
In hyponasty the bud will remain
(a) Close
(b) Open
(c) Semi-open
(d) Wilt
Answer:
(a) Close

Question 10.
The leaves and petals follow the growth pattern with respect to movement is
(a) Epinasty
(b) Hyponasty
(c) Nutation
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Epinasty

Question 11.
If the movement is towards the stimulus the response is
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) No response
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Positive

Question 12.
The leaves of mimosa require a specific time to regain its turgidity i.e.
(a) 5 minutes
(b) 10 minutes
(c) 8 minutes
(d) 12 minutes
Answer:
(b) 10 minutes

Question 13.
Movement of leaves of sensitive plant, Mimosa pudica are due to
(a) Thermonasty
(b) Seismonasty
(c) Hydrotropism
(d) Chemonasty
Answer:
(b) Seismonasty

Question 14.
Twinning of tendrils is due to
(a) Thigmotropism
(b) Seismonasty
(c) Heliotropism
(d) Diageotropism
Answer:
(a) Thigmotropism

Question 15.
Removal of apical bud results in
(a) formation of new apical bud
(b) elongation of main stem
(c) death of plant
(d) formation of lateral branching
Answer:
(d) formation of lateral branching

Question 16.
The closure of lid of pitcher in pitcher plant, is due to
(a) parotomic movement
(b) autonomous movement
(c) turgor movement
(d) tropic movement
Answer:
(a) parotomic movement

Question 17.
The twinning of tendrils around a support is a good example of
(a) phototropism
(b) chemotropism
(c) nastic movements
(d) thigmotropism
Answer:
(d) thigmotropism

Question 18.
If a tree flowers thrice in a year (Oct., Jan. and July) in Northern India, it is said to be
(a) photo and thermo-insensitive
(b) photo and thermo-sensitive
(c) photosensitive but thermo-insensitive
(d) thermosensitive but photo-insensitive
Answer:
(a) photo and thermo-insensitive

Question 19.
The closing and opening of the leaves of Mimosa pudica is due to
(a) seismonastic movement
(b) chemonastic movement
(c) thermonastic movement
(d) hydrotropic movement
Answer:
(a) seismonastic movement

Question 20.
The ability of the Venus Flytrap to capture insects is due to
(a) Specialized “muscle-like” cells
(b) Chemical stimulation by the prey
(c) a passive process requiring no special ability on the part of the plant
(d) rapid turgor pressure changes.
Answer:
(d) rapid turgor pressure changes.

Question 21.
Opening of floral buds into flowers is a type of
(a) autonomic movement of variation
(b) paratonic movement of growth
(c) autonomic movement of growth
(d) autonomic movement of locomotion.
Answer:
(c) autonomic movement of growth

Very Short Answer Type Questions : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Stimulus is __________.
Answer:
Energy.

Question 2.
Irritability is __________.
Answer:
Respond to stimulus

Question 3.
Respond to stimuli in plants is taken by __________.
Answer:
Growth movement

Question 4.
Movement of whole plant in response to external stimuli is called __________.
Answer:
Tactic Movement

Question 5.
Root always __________.
Answer:
Showing Geotropism

Question 6.
Stems are always __________.
Answer:
Geotropic

Question 7.
Give one eg. of seismonastic movement in Plant.
Answer:
Mimosa pudica

Question 8.
Name the secondary plant organs where transversely geotropic movement is found.
Answer:
Rhizomes

Question 9.
Write the types of tropic movement.
Answer:

• Phototropic movement
• Geotropic movement
• Hydrotropic movement

Question 10.
Flowers of Tulip shows what type of nastic movement?
Answer:
Thermonastic movement.

Question 11.
The Plant movement away from light is also called __________.
Answer:
Geotropism.

Question 12.
The ‘Touch me not’ plant exhibits __________.
Answer:
Seismonastic movement.

Question 13.
A free swimming alga.
Answer:
Chlamydomonas.

Question 14.
Clinostat demonstrates __________.
Answer:
Geotropism

Question 15.
Stem bends towards light, what type of movement it is ?
Answer:
Phototropic movement.

Question 16.
When a sensitive plant is touched, it drops its leaves. What type of movement it is?
Answer:
Seismonastic movement.

Question 17.
Who discovered the sensitivity of plant?
Answer:
J.C. Bose.

Question 18.
Which type of movement show in volvox?
Answer:
Phototropic.

Question 19.
Chemonastic movement is found in __________.
Answer:
Desmodium

Question 20.
Which type of movement found in Tulip?
Answer:
Thermonastic.

Question 21.
What is the name of Indian Telegraph plant?
Answer:
Desmodium.

Question 22.
Which movement is exhibited by Mimosa pudica?
Answer:
Seismonastic movement.

Question 23.
What is response to a stimuli?
Answer:
Responding to a stimulus is the faculty of sensitivity.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 6 Satellite Imagery and Topographical Map offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Question Answer – Satellite Imagery and Topographical Map

Answer in short : 2 Marks

Question 1.
Name the three phases in preparing satellite imageries.
Answer:
Space segment, sensor segment and ground segment.

Question 2.
What is the importance of topographical maps ?
Answer:
Topographical maps give a pictographic representation of the original region with the help of various signs and symbols. It helps to understand the correlation between physical and cultural features of the area.

Question 3.
What is the main difference in preparing a topographical map and satellite imagery?
Answer:
Satellite imageries are prepared from photos taken by satellite sensors. Topographical maps are prepared by field survey.

Question 4.
What do you mean by ‘grand samples’ or ‘reference data’?
Answer:
To extract useful informations from satellite imageries, some information needs to be collected from the ground itself. This is known as ‘ground samples’ or ‘reference data’.

Question 5.
Mention the steps in acquiring satellite imageries.
Answer:
The steps in acquiring satellite imageries are :

1. Collection of ground samples
2. Image acquisition
3. Processing of satellite imagery
4. Creation of map.

Question 6.
What is a topographical map ?
Answer:
The map that represents the physical as well as cultural features of a place at a time with the help of certain colours and conventional symbols, is called a topographical map.

Question 7.
Where is blue colour used in a toposheet ?
Answer:
Blue colour is used in a toposheet to represent perennial rivers, tanks, reservoirs, ponds etc.

Question 8.
Where is red colour used in a toposheet ?
Answer:
In a toposheet red colour is used to represent roads and settlements.

Question 9.
What are satellite imageries?
Answer:
The images prepared by information sent by the satellites imageries. These are prepared by reading and representing the signals sent by the satellites with the help of high technological know-how.

Question 10.
What is a sensor?
Answer:
A sensor is a specialised camera that is installed in a satellite in order to take photographs of the earth.

Question 11.
What is a platform ?
Answer:
The place where the artificial satellite is installed in space, is called a platform. Question 12. How many kind of sensors are there?
Answer: Sensors can be of two kinds – the active sensors and the inactive sensors.

Question 13.
What are active sensers?
Answer:
The sensors that work on their own to generate energy and capture photograps of any item or a region, are called active sensors. Eg-Radar, Radio meter, Ledon, etc.

Question 14.
What are inactive sensors?
Answer:
The sensors that depend on the reflection of sunlight for preparation of images are called inactive sensors. They do not possess any electro-magnetic force. EgPhotographic camera, electronic camera, multispectral camera, etc.

Question 15.
What is Remote sensing ?
Answer:
Remote sensing is the method of collecting information of a place or region without physically reaching there.

Question 16.
What is Landsat?
Answer:
Landsat is a very special kind of satellite launched by the NASA, USA. So far, 8 satellites of this series have been launched. (Landsat 1-8). Landsat 1 was launched in 1972 and Landsat 8 was launched in 2013.

Question 17.
What is IRS ?
Answer:
IRS stands for Indian Remote Sensing Satellite. So far, 20 satellites have been launched by India for preparing satellite imageries and other purposes, of which 11 are of IRS series. The latest of this series launched in 2013 is SARAL.

Question 18.
What do you mean by False Colour Composite or FCC ?
Answer:
The satellite imageries represent the various features of the earth’s surface (rivers, forest, roadways, railways, etc.) in different colours other than their original natural colours. This is known as False Colour Composite. Initially they may seem to confuse, but actually they help to bring out the details of a region more accurately.

Answer in brief : 3 Marks

Question 1.
What are the merits of satellite imageries ?
Answer:
The merits of satellite imageries are :

1. They can give synoptic view of the earth (23 cm × 23 cm maps) as well as represent huge areas (30,000 sq km)
2. Information of resources and physical processes working in rugged and difficult terrains can be acquired easily.
3. Clear images can be taken ever under cloud cover.
4. Information collected is digital and that can be easily analysed by computers.
5. Weather forecasts can be gathered.

Question 2.
What are the demerits of satellite imageries?
Answer:
The demerits of satellite imageries are :

1. Images cannot be taken in cloud cover without microwave sensors.
2. Critical survey of very minute areas is not possible.
3. Actual size or height of an object cannot be determined accurately.
4. Similar objects lying side by side are difficult to assess.
5. The whole process of acquiring images is very expensive:

Question 3.
What are the characteristics of topographical maps ?
Answer:
Topographical maps are a special type of maps, where physical and man made features are shown together. The characteristics are :

1. They are prepared in precise scales. Hence location and size of objects can be represented accurately.
2. Relief and drainage patterns are represented along with the cultural features like settlements, schools, temples, mosques, railway lines, PO etc. This helps to understand the correlation between physical and cultural features.
3. The economic conditions of a region can be understood.

Question 4.
What are the characteristics of satellite imageries?
Answer:
The characteristics of satellite imageries are:

1. They can supply complete weather information and imagery of a full hemisphere at a time.
2. Imageries can also be obtained in segments for detailed descriptions.
3. They help in resource surveys.

Question 5.
What are the uses of satellite imageries?
Answer:
The different uses of satellite imageries are:

1. They are used for weather forecasting.
2. They are used to monitor agricultural yield and their quality.
3. They help to gather information about other planets and special objects in order to conduct advanced researches on them.

Question 6.
Mention the various scales on which topographical maps may be constructed.
Answer:

Question 7.
List the importances of toposheets.
Answer:
The importances of toposheets are:

1. It helps to understand and study the physical characteristics of the region.
2. It helps to understand and analyse the different cultural features (roads, settlements, etc.) of the same area with respect to physical features.
3. It helps to plan for economic development.
4. It helps to analyse the relation between man and nature.

Question 8.
What are the characteristics of a topographical map representing a plain area?
Answer:
The characteristics of a topographical sheet representing a plain area are :

1. The contour value is around 100 m, and the contour lines are placed far away from each other.
2. Lesser number of contour lines seen on the map area.
3. The rivers are usually perennial and meandering. They contain sandbars and may cause flood.
4. Forest were hardly present. Much areas lie under agriculture.
5. All kinds of transport and communication are available.
6. Huge population and large settlements are seen in the junctions or nodal points.

Question 9.
What are the characteristics of topographical sheets representing plateau areas?
Answer:
The charateristics of topographical sheets representing plateau area are :

1. The contour value lies between 300-900 m and they are medium areas.
2. The rivers are straight in the hilly region and start meandering beyond that.
3. Numerous non-perennial rivers can be seen spreading like branches of trees.
4. Badlands, monadnocks, alluvial caves, mountain ridges, etc. can be seen.
5. Dense reserves and protected forests can be seen.
6. Small clusters of settlements in the plain regions and dispersed settlements in hilly regions are seen.

Question 10.
What are the characteristics of topographical sheets representing hilly regions.
Answer:
The characteristics of topographical sheets representing hilly regions are :

1. The contour values lies above 900 m. and are closely spaced. They look like concentric circles.
2. Conical hills, dormal hills, I and V shaped Valleys, cliffes, spurs, ridges, etc. can be seen.
3. In maps of glacial regions, presence of morain can be seen.

Question 11.
Name the features usually shown in a topographical map.
Answer:
The features represented in a topographical map are :

1. Relief – Relative height, slope, ruggedness, landform.
2. Rivers – Main and tributary rivers, drainage patterns, drainage density.
3. Vegetation – Natural forests, Protected and Reserved forests.
4. Settlements – Settlement patterns, density of settlements.
5. Transport and communications – Railways, roadways, telegraph and telephone lines, etc.

Question 12.
What is a Transect Chart ?
Answer:
Transect chart is an illustration drawn based in the topographical map, representing the relation between physical and cultural or man made features of the same region. They help in understanding the inter-relationship between the physical and cultural features. They also help in planning for development of the area.

Question 13.
What is Spectral Resolution?
Answer:
In Satellite imageries, the images created by the refracted light rays from the space coming perpendicular to the earth’s surface are called ‘Spectral Resolution’.

Question 14.
What is Spatial resolution?
Answer:
In satellite imageries, the images created by the refracted light rays falling horizontally on any place or item on the earth’s surface, are called spatial resolution.

Answer in details : 5 Marks

Question 1.
State the differences between satellite imageries and topographical maps.
Answer:

Satellite imageries	Topographical maps
i. Prepared from photos captured by satellite sensors.	i. Prepared by field survey.
ii. Represent landforms and other features as they look originally.	ii. Represent landforms and other features by conventional symbols.
iii. Images of difficult terrains can be taken easily.	iii. Very difficult to conduct survey on rugged terrain.
iv. Modern concept depending on sophisticated technology.	iv. Traditional way of mapping a surveyed area.
v. Special training is needed to read satellite imageries.	v. Knowledge of conventional signs is enough to understand topographical maps.
vi Takes much less time for preparation.	vi. Takes much time in survey and preparation of maps.
vii. Quite expensive.	vii. Comparatively less expensive.
viii. Weather conditions influence quality of images.	viii. Weather conditions to do influence the quality of maps.
ix. Digital images are acquired.	ix. Normal maps are prepared.
x. Images are used for study of regions as well as weather forecasting.	x. Only study of regions is possible. No weather forecasting is possible in this system.

Question 2.
Discuss the steps in acquiring satellite imageries.
Answer:
The different steps in acquiring satellite imageries are :
i. Collection of ground samples : To extract useful information from satellite imageries, some information needs to be collected from the ground itself. This is called ‘ground samples’ or ‘reference data’ of ‘field data’. This helps to verify what the satellite sensors are detecting.

ii. Image acquisition : Images are captured by the desired sensor chosen as per requirements.
iii. Processing of satellite imagery : Once the imagery is acquired, analysts typically go through a series of steps to prepare imagery for analysis.
iv. Creation of map : Once the mathematical relationship between the satellite data and the field data has been developed, it is applied to all pixels in the imagery to create a map. These maps are then put into the Geographical Information System (GIS).

Question 3.
Discuss the importances of Satellite imageries.
Answer:
The importances of satellite imageries are:

1. Satellite imageries give every detail of a region with maximum accuracy.
2. Information regarding landform, slope, ruggedness, presence of resources, etc. can easily available from satellite imageries.
3. The imageries can be acquired for multiple uses.
4. They are prepared very fast and are very useful.
5. In order to prepare the imageries, we don’t need to go physically to original places.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) 1 Mark

Question 1.
Satellite imageries are produced in India by
(A) ISRO
(B) NATMO
(C) ISI
(D) IIRS
Answer:
(A) ISRO

Question 2.
Information gathered by satellites are
(A) Digital
(B) Mechanical
(C) Thematic
(D) IIRS
Answer:
(A) Digital

Question 3.
Images cannot be taken in cloud cover without
(A) Solar cells
(B) Microwave sensors
(C)Flood lights
(D) Mathematical
Answer:
(B) Microwave sensors

Question 4.
The actual height of places above sea land are represented by
(A) Spot height
(B) Layer colouring
(C) Hectre
(D) Contours
Answer:
(A) Spot height

Question 5.
In a topographical map, relief is shown by
(A) Layering
(B) Hachuring
(C) Hill shading
(D) Contours
Answer:
(D) Contours

Question 6.
In a topographical map, settlements are represented by ___ colour.
(A) Red
(B) Black
(C) Brown
(D) Green
Answer:
(A) Red

Question 7.
Which one is used for storing data in computers?
(A) Magnetic tape
(B)VDU
(C) Floppy disc
(D) Joy Stick
Answer:
(D) Joy Stick

Question 8.
Satellite imageries are produced in USA by
(A) ISRO
(B) SPOT
(C) LANDSAT
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) LANDSAT

Question 9.
The term ‘Topography’ has originated from
(A) Greek
(B)Spanish
(C) French
(D) Latin
Answer:
(A) Greek

Question 10.
The physical and cultural characteristics of a place can be known from a
(A) Mouza map
(B) Topo map
(C) Weather map
(D) Political map
Answer:
(B) Topo map

Question 11.
The term ‘Topography’ means
(A) Description of river
(B) Discription of region
(C) Political conditon
(D) Description of weather
Answer:
(B) Discription of region

Question 12.
Topographical maps are read with the help of
(A) Graph
(B) Colours
(C) Conventional symbols
(D) Scale
Answer:
(C) Conventional symbols

Question 13.
The lines that represent height in a topographical map are called
(A) Contours
(B) Isobars
(C) Isohyets
(D) Isotopes
Answer:
(A) Contours

Question 14.
The contours in a topomap are drawn in
(A) Blue
(B) Black
(C) Red
(D) Brown
Answer:
(D) Brown

Question 15.
R.F. of a degree sheet of map is
(A) 1: 10,00,000
(B) 1: 2,50,000
(C) 1: 1,00,000
(D) 1: 50,000
Answer:
(B) 1: 2,50,000

Question 16.
Height of any place measured from the Mean Sea Level is called
(A) Point
(B) Spot height
(C) Bench Mark
(D) Survey station
Answer:
(D) Survey station

Question 17.
The total number of topographical maps constructed to represent the whole earth is
(A) 2232
(B) 2222
(C) 2322
(D) 3222
Answer:
(B) 2222

Question 18.
The contour interval in a topomap is
(A) 1 m or 5 m
(B) 10 m or 20 m
(C) 30 m or 50 m
(D) 50 m or 100 m
Answer:
(B) 10 m or 20 m

Question 19.
The 4° × 4° maps are called _____ in India.
(A) Inch sheet maps
(B) Degree sheet maps
(C) Foot sheet maps
(D) Million sheet maps
Answer:
(D) Million sheet maps

Question 20.
Satellite imageries are captured with the help of
(A) Camera
(B) Light
(C) Rays
(D) Sensors
Answer:
(D) Sensors

Question 21.
The location where the artificial satellites are set in the space is called
(A) Spot
(B) Sensor
(C) Platform
(D) Location
Answer:
(C) Platform

Question 22.
A satellite imagery is a
(A) Picture of the satellite
(B) Picture of the earth
(C) Picture of space
(D) Picture constructed with the help of information collected by the satellite.
Answer:
(D) Picture constructed with the help of information collected by the satellite.

Question 23.
What is the scale of a map representing 2 cm to 1 km ?
(A) 1: 10,000
(B) 1: 20,000
(C) 1: 50,000
(D) 1: 1,00,000
Answer:
(C) 1: 50,000

Question 24.
With the help of what does the sensor of a satellite take the photos of the surface?
(A) Rotation
(B) Oxygen
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Radiated heat
Answer:
(D) Radiated heat

Question 25.
An example of a sensor used in satellites is
(A) MISS
(B) LISS
(C) DISS
(D) TISS
Answer:
(B) LISS

Question 26.
The electro-magnetic waves that help satellites to capture photographs is received from the
(A) Moon
(B) Earth
(C) Sun
(D) Electric current
Answer:
(C) Sun

Question 27.
Remote Sensing was started in India in
(A) 1952
(B) 1962
(C) 1972
(D) 1982
Answer:
(B) 1962

Question 28.
The National Remote Sensing Agency (NRSA) is located in India in
(A) Kolkata
(B) Delhi
(C) Bhopal
(D) Hyderabad
Answer:
(D) Hyderabad

Question 29.
Blue colour in a topographical map depicts
(A) Settlement
(B) Water bodies
(C) Forest
(D) Hills
Answer:
(B) Water bodies

Question 30.
In a 1: 50,000 toposheet, the map number can be like
(A) 45 D/10
(B) 45 D
(C) 45 NW
(D) 45 SE
Answer:
(A) 45 D/10

Question 31.
The Map no. of the toposheet is written in the
(A) NE and SW of the map
(B) Middle of the map
(C) Top left side of the map
(D) Bottom left side of the map
Answer:
(A) NE and SW of the map

Question 32.
The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of a Million Sheet map is
(A) 4° latitude × 4° longitude
(B) 30′ latitude × 30′ longitude
(C) 1° latitude × 1° longitude
(D) 2° latitude × 2° longitude
Answer:
(A) 4° latitude × 4° longitude

Fill in the blanks : 1 Mark

1. Geostationary satellites are placed in an orbit at an altitude of _______ above the equator.
2. _______ satellites are mostly used for weather forecasting and communication purposes.
3. If the scale of the map is 1 cm = 1 km, the R F will be _______.
4. If the scale of the map is 2 inches to one mile, the R F will be _____.
5. Aerial photography came into practice in ________.
6. LISS-I, LISS-II and LISS-III are _______.
7. The inclination of the axis of the camera between _______ and angular position is known as tilt.
8. Photo images are drawn through aeroplanes on ________ projection.
Answer:
1. 36000 km
2. geostationary
3. 1: 1,00,000
4. 1: 31680
5. 1839
6. Sensors
7. Vertical
8. Central

State True or False : 1 Mark

1. The international series of topographical maps are also known as inch sheets. [ ]
2. The height of a place measured with respect to the sea level is known bench mark. [ ]
3. Larger the scale, smaller is the map. [ ]
4. NOAA is an artificial satellite. [ ]
5. OSM is the ‘Open Series Map’ [ ]
Answer:
1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True

Answer in few words : 1 Mark

Question 1.
What is the phase of sending the satellite to space and settling it in orbit called?
Answer:
Space segment.

Question 2.
What is the phase where the cameras in the satellite sense and take photographs of the target region?
Answer:
Sensor segment.

Question 3.
What is the phase where the satellite imagery is prepared finally?
Answer:
Ground segment.

Question 4.
What kind of features does a topographical map represent?
Answer:
Natural as well as artificial features.

Question 5.
Who produces topographical maps in India ?
Answer:
The Survey of India.

Question 6.
Where is the head office of the Survey of India located ?
Answer:
Dehradun, Uttaranchal.

Question 7.
What is a ‘Statement scale’ ?
Answer:
A scale where the ratio between ground distance and map distance is put in a statement.

Question 8.
What is a ‘Representative Fraction’?
Answer:
A scale where the relation between the ground distance and map distance is represented by a ratio. e.g. 1: 50,000

Question 9.
What is a linear scale?
Answer:
A graphical representation of the scale mentioned in statement or ratio.

Question 10.
What are the type of different satellite imageries ?
Answer:
Geo-stationary satellite and Sun-synchronus satellite.

Question 11.
What scale map is a topographical map?
Answer:
Large scale map.

Question 12.
Which maps are constructed with the help of conventional symbols that are common internationally?
Answer:
Topographical maps.

Question 13.
How are perennial rivers represented in a toposheet?
Answer:
With the help of blue colour.

Question 14.
How are non-perennial rivers represented in a toposheet?
Answer:
With the help of black colour.

Question 15.
Which colour represents roads and settlements in a toposheet?
Answer:
Red.

Question 16.
How is height represented in a toposheet?
Answer:
With contour lines drawn in brown.

Question 17.
What is represented by yellow colour in a toposheet?
Answer:
Agricultural land.

Question 18.
Which concern controls artificial satellites in India ?
Answer:
ISRO.

Question 19.
LISS, PAN, WiFS etc. are names of what ?
Answer:
Sensors used in satellites.

Question 20.
What are maps representing small areas on large paper called ?
Answer:
Large scale maps.

Question 21.
What are maps representing huge areas on small paper called ?
Answer:
Small scale maps.

Question 22.
What are the cameras used in satellites called ?
Answer:
Scanners.

Question 23.
When was INSAT 1A launched ?
Answer:
10th April, 1982.

Question 24.
What is a Radar?
Answer:
An active sensor of a satellite.

Question 25.
What is the smallest bit of a soft copy called ?
Answer:
Pixel.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 5.10 Transport and Communication System in India offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 5.10 Question Answer – Transport and Communication System in India

Answer in short: 2 Marks

Question 1.
List the different modes of transport.
Answer:
Roadways, railways, waterways, ropeways, pipelines, underground railways.

Question 2.
What is the Golden Quadrilateral ?
Answer:
The four important metropolitan cities of India, i.e. Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata have been inter-connected by four 6-lane National Highways. This is known as the Golden Quadrilateral. The total length of the Highways is 5,846 km.

Question 3.
What is the North-South Corridor?
Answer:
The National Highway that connects Srinagar in the north to Kanyakumari in the south, via Salem and Cochin, is known as the North-South Corridor. This is about 4000km long.

Question 4.
What is the East-West Corridor?
Answer:
The National Highway that connects Silchar (Assam) in the east to Porbandar (Gujarat) in the west is known as the East-West Corridor. This is about 3,300 km long.

Question 5.
What are inland waterways?
Answer:
Inland waterways lie within the country and connect various places through rivers, lakes, ponds or other waterbodies within the country.

Question 6.
What are international waterways ?
Answer:
International waterways connect two or more countries across the sea or ocean or along a river.

Question 7.
What is the importance of ropeways ?
Answer:
Ropeways help to connect two different places in a hilly region lying in two different hills. This reduces the physical distance between the places and also reduces the efforts of going upslope and downslope from one place to another.

Question 8.
What is the importance of pipelines?
Answer:
Pipelines help to transport liquid items, eg – mineral oil from mine areas to factories or from oil tanker ships to storage places can be done by pipelines. This reduces the risk of wastage and accidents.

Question 9.
What is the use of underground railways ?
Answer:
Underground railways, also known as tube railways or metro railways help to connect short distances through underground railway tracks. They are very fast and sophisticated.

Question 10.
What do you mean by communication?
Answer:
Communication refers to the process of getting in touch with people without actually moving from one place to another. This can be done with the help of telephone, radio, television, fax, internet, newspaper etc.

Question 11.
What are the different uses of cell phones?
Answer:
Cell phone is a modem mode of communication. It is portable to use and easy to handle. It can be used for calling, messaging, radio and television services, camera, GPS etc.

Question 12.
Name the different fields where internet can be used.
Answer:
Internet can be used in education, culture, medical treatment, trade, commerce, political issues etc. Internet helps to bring the world at the door steps.

Question 13.
What do you mean by transport ?
Answer:
The method of movement of goods and passenger from one place to another by physical displacement is called transport.

Question 14.
What are International roadways?
Answer:
Roadways that lie across the boundaries of adjacent or neighbouring countries are called International roadways.
e.g. :Kolkata-Dhaka roadway,
Raxaul-Kathmandu roadway,
Lahore-Amritsar – Delhi roadway, etc.

Question 15.
Classify the different type of roads found in India.
Answer:
(a) National highways
(b) State highways
(c) District road
(d) Village roads
(e) Border roads
(f) Expressways
(g) International roads.

Question 16.
What is the North-South Corridor?
Answer:
The North-South corridor is the National highway of India that connects Sri Nagar in the North to Kanyakumari in the south, touching Kochi and Salem. It runs for about 4000km.

Question 17.
What is the East-West corridor ?
Answer:
The East-West corridor is the National Highway that connects Porbandar in Gujarat in the west to Silchar in Assam in the east. It runs for about 3,300km.

Question 18.
How many trains ply in India per day?
Answer:
By 2013-14 Railway year book, in India, more than 21,000 trains ply daily, of which 13,000 are passenger trains.

Question 19.
How many passengers travel by trains everyday in India ?
Answer:
In India, according to 2013-14 Railway year book, about 2 crore 30 lakh passengers travel by trains everyday and reach more than 8,000 stations.

Question 20.
What is ‘Shipping Lane’ ?
Answer:
The particular routes taken by the cargo ships while transporting goods through the oceans are called ‘shipping lanes’.

Question 21.
What is ‘Shipping Line’ ?
Answer:
The companies whose ships and vessels ply in the oceans are called ‘Shipping lines’.

Question 22.
What kind of inland waterways are seen in India ?
Answer:
(a) Riverways
(b) Canals
(c) Lakes.

Answer in brief : 3 Marks

Question 1.
State the economic importances of transportation system.
Answer:
The economic importances of transport system are:

1. Utilisation of natural resources,
2. Movement of agricultural and industrial raw materials to factories and the finished products to markets,
3. Internal and international trade,
4. Increase of national income,
5. Regional specialisation of economic activities and employment etc.

Question 2.
What are the political importances of transport system ?
Answer:
The political importances of transport system are :

1. Security of the country,
2. National integration,
3. Rescue during disasters and accidents and distribution of food and relief,
4. Connecting remote comers of the country to developed areas to bring about overall development.

Question 3.
What are the social importances of transport system ?
Answer:
The social importances of transport system are :

1. Exchange of culture and education,
2. Urbanization and improvement of standard of living,
3. Removal of regional disparities.

Question 4.
List the importances of roadways.
Answer:
The importances of roadways are :

1. Different type of roads can be built to connect difficult and inaccessible regions.
2. They are beneficial for short distances.
3. Building and maintenance cost of roadways is lower than other modes.
4. Different types of vehicles can ply on roads.
5. They can be used anytime.

Question 5.
List the importances of railways.
Answer:
The importances of railways are :

1. Railways are faster than roadways and save time,
2. They help to connect distant places,
3. They can carry huge amount of goods and huge number of passengers at a time,
4. Once established, cost of maintenance is less,
5. They help to transport industrial and agricultural raw material as well as finished products,
6. They help to increase National income.

Question 6.
What are the advantages of waterways ?
Answer:
The advantages of waterways are:

1. They are cheap and have no cost of maintenance except dredging occasionally,
2. Huge volume of cargo can be transported at a time,
3. They enable national and international trade, exchange of culture and cordial relations with other countries,
4. The cause minimum pollution.

Question 7.
What are the importances of airways ?
Answer:
The importances of airways are:

1. They are the fastest mode of transport,
2. They can connect far off lands inspite of difficult terrain or presence of oceans in between.
3. They help in intemational trade, commerce, exchange of culture and maintaining cordial relations amongst countries.

Question 8.
What is internet?
Answer:
Internet is a mode of communication which connects the whole world like a net through computers. It is very useful in searching information of any kind through websites, sending letters or other information through e-mails, contacting several people throughout the world at a time through social network sites, etc. It is very helpful in education, culture, medical treatment, trade, commerce, political issues etc. Internet has helped to bring the world at the door steps.

Question 9.
List the problems of roadways in India.
Answer:
The various problems of roadways in India are :

1. Construction and maintenance of roadways incur a lot of cost.
2. India being a country of numerous rivers, cost of constructing roads increases manifolds for constructing bridges, lockgates and culverts over rivers.
3. Most of the roads are highly curved and not enough wide.
4. Road conditions become poor during the rainy season.
5. Traffic jams created on roads result in wastage of time, energy and money.
6. Roadways need constant maintenance and attention in order to give proper service.

Question 10.
What are the importances of ropeways?
Answer:
The importances of ropeways are :

1. This is very suitable for hilly regions and mine areas.
2. They attract many tourists in hill stations and act as a good source of national income.
3. Ropeways save both time and energy while transporting goods or passengers.
4. Trade and commerce through ropeways become very easy.
5. Relief materials can be sent very fast through ropeways during disasters and calamities.

Question 11.
List the importances of pipelines.
Answer:
The importances of pipelines are :

1. Pipelines are used to transport liquid materials like water, oil, natural gas, acids, etc. in different parts of India.
2. Pipelines can be constructed in landmass as well as in water bodies.
3. Pipelines save time and money for transportation.
4. Wastage of goods or resources is minimum.
5. Cost of maintenance is also low.

Question 12.
What are the problems of transportation through pipelines ?
Answer:
The problems of transportation through pipelines are :

1. Primary cost of construction is high.
2. Each type of product must be transported in a different pipeline.
3. Only liquid materials can be transported.
4. Lack of resources may keep the pipelines unused for long times.
5. Pumping machines and generators are needed.
6. Difficulties arise in repairing the pipelines constructed underground.

Answer in details : 5 Marks

Question 1.
Compare the roadways to railways.
Answer:

Roadways	Railways
i. They are the oldest mode of transport.	i. They have been developed after roadways.
ii. They are easy to build.	ii. They are difficult to build.
iii. Less cost of building and maintenance.	iii. High cost of building but less cost of maintenance once built.
iv. Many types of vehicles can ply.	iv. Only trains can ply.
v. Can be used at any time.	v. Trains ply at fixed times.
vi. Suitable for short distances.	vi. Suitable for long distances.
vii. Suitable for small bulk of goods and passengers.	vii. Suitable for huge bulk of goods and passengers.
viii. Used to connect different modes of transport as well.	viii. Does not connect different modes of transport.
ix. Comparatively slower.	ix. Comparatively faster.

Question 2.
Compare between transport by airways and waterways.
Answer:

Airways	Waterways
i. Fastest mode of transport.	i. Slowest mode of transport.
ii. High cost of aircrafts and fuel but no cost of maintenance of the airways.	ii. High cost of vessels and fuel but no cost of maintenance except dredging at times.
iii. Bulk of cargo and passengers can be transported.	iii. Bulk of Cargo and passengers is much more than airways.
iv. Very costly.	iv. Comparatively cheap.
v. Suitable for prishable products.	v. Not suitable for perishable products.
vi. Causes air pollution.	vi. Level of pollution is very less.
vii. Requires huge vaccant lands for constructing runways and terminals.	vii. Requires land only for construction of the ports, but usually vast warehouses and godowns are built nearby.

Question 3.
Discuss the role of transport system in the economic development of a country.
Answer:
Transport is a very impertant service sector that plays an immense role in the economic development of the country.

1. It helps to transport excess agricultural products to regions of scarcity.
2. Success of any type of agriculture depends much on transport system.
3. Transport plays an important role in modernisation of agriculture.
4. Decentralisation of different activities and organisations is dependent on transport.
5. It helps to increase national income.
6. It helps in collection of revenue from different sectors.
7. It helps in mobilising labour.
8. It helps in management and spread of an industry worldwide.
9. It helps in globalisation of different products.
10. It helps in coming up of new settlements and urbanization of rural areas.
11. It helps to remove regional disparities and inequalities.
12. Administrative works become easy with the help of population.
13. Transport system helps to maintain National Integration.

Question 4.
Describe the Golden Quadrilateral.
Answer:
The quadrilateral created by joining the four metropolitan cities of India i.e., Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai by roadways, is called the golden quadrilateral. The project was taken up by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAl) in 1999 on 2nd January. The main aim of the project was to construct 6-lane roads connecting these cities. Length of the roads constructed between the cities is as follows :

1. Delhi to Mumbai – 1419km.
2. Mumbai to Chennai -1240km.
3. Chennai to Kolkata – 1668km.
4. Kolkata to Delhi – 1453km. The project was completed in 2011.

Question 5.
Differentiate between the Transport system and the Communication system.
Answer:

Transport System	Communication System
i. Physical displacement of goods and passengers occur.	i. No physical displacement of goods and passengers.
ii. Deals with transport of goods and people only.	ii. Deals with exchange of news, informations, orders, decisions, etc.
iii. Several means of communication are – bus, lorry, train, tram, boat, ship, rocket, helicopter, etc.	iii. Several means of communication are – post, telephone, telegraph, telex, mobile phone, internet, e-mail, etc.
iv. A comparatively slow system.	iv. A comparatively fast system.
v. Chances of accident is very high.	v. Chances of accident is almost negligible.
vi. Cost of transportation is high.	vi. Cost of communication is quite low.

Question 6.
What are the problems of airways in India?
Answer:
The different problems of airways in India are :

1. Number of air routes in India is quite less.
2. Airways do not yet connect all the countries of the world to India.
3. Many big cities are not connected with airways.
4. The huge cost of air transport keep the common people away from it.
5. The airways are often not fed with other connecting transport systems adequately.
6. The fuel used in aircrafts is not available in India in huge amounts. It has to be imported.
7. The Indian airways companies face tremendous competition from the international airways companies.
8. Number of modern aircrafts and multi-speciality airports is quite less.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Transport is needed to carry
(A) Goods
(B) Passengers
(C) Goods and passengers
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Goods and passengers

Question 2.
The oldest mode of transport is
(A) Railways
(B) Roadways
(C) Airways
(D) Waterways
Answer:
(B) Roadways

Question 3.
National Highways run between
(A) States
(B) Districts
(C) Metropolitans
(D) Towns
Answer:
(A) States

Question 4.
The National Highways connect
(A) Districts
(B) Cities
(C) Countries
(D) States
Answer:
(D) States

Question 5.
The National Highway connecting Srinagar and Kanyakumari is called the
(A) Golden triangle
(B) East-West corridor
(C) North-South corridor
(D) Bermuda triangle
Answer:
(C) North-South corridor

Question 6.
International waterways are found in
(A) Oceans
(B) Lakes
(C) Rivers
(D) Ponds
Answer:
(A) Oceans

Question 7.
National waterways are actually
(A) International waterways
(B) Inland waterways
(C) Local waterways
(D) Seaways
Answer:
(B) Inland waterways

Question 8.
The most speedy mode of transport is
(A) Ropeway
(B) Airway
(C) Railway
(D) Roadway
Answer:
(B) Airway

Question 9.
There are – international airports in India
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 13
Answer:
(C) 12

Question 10.
The Indira Gandhi International Airport is in
(A) Mumbai
(B) Kolkata
(C) Chennai
(D) Delhi
Answer:
(D) Delhi

Question 11.
The Chhatrapati Shivaji International airport is in
(A) Mumbai
(B) Delhi
(C) Kolkata
(D) Chennai
Answer:
(A) Mumbai

Question 12.
The ropeways are best for
(A) Plains
(B) Plateaus
(C) Hilly regions
(D) Deserts
Answer:
(C) Hilly regions

Question 13.
Which is a mode of communication ?
(A) Radio
(B) Car
(C) Airport
(D) Railway station
Answer:
(A) Radio

Question 14.
Internet works through
(A) Newspapers
(B) Computers
(C) GPS
(D) E-mails
Answer:
(B) Computers

Question 15.
The most recent mode of communication is
(A) Internet
(B) Roadways
(C) Radio
(D) Fax
Answer:
(A) Internet

Question 16.
The best mode of transport to cover long distances over land is :
(A) Roadways
(B) Railways
(C) Airways
(D)Waterways
Answer:
(B) Railways

Question 17.
In length of railways in the world, India ranks :
(A) 1 st
(B) 2 nd
(C) 3 rd
(D) 4 th
Answer:
(D) 4 th

Question 18.
The longest railways in India is :
(A) Northern railway
(B) Southern railway
(C) Eastern railway
(D) Western railway
Answer:
(A) Northern railway

Question 19.
Railways were started in India in :
(A) 1850
(B) 1851
(C) 1852
(D) 1853
Answer:
(D) 1853

Question 20.
Total length of railways in India is :
(A) 64,000km
(B) 65,000km
(C) 66,000km
(D) 67,000km
Answer:
(B) 65,000km

Question 21.
Head Quarters of Indian railway is located in :
(A) Delhi
(B) Kolkata
(C) Mumbai
(D) Bangalore
Answer:
(A) Delhi

Question 22.
The head quarters of Eastern railway is located in :
(A) Kolkata
(B) Bhubaneswar
(C) Guwahati
(D) Asansol
Answer:
(A) Kolkata

Question 23.
The headquarters of Western railway is located in :
(A) Bhopal
(B) Delhi
(C) Goa
(D) Mumbai
Answer:
(D) Mumbai

Question 24.
The longest National Highway of India is :
(A) NH-1
(B) NH-7
(C) NH-5
(D) NH-2
Answer:
(B) NH-7

Question 25.
The state highways are maintained by :
(A) Central govt.
(B) State govt.
(C) Local govt.
(D) Municipality
Answer:
(B) State govt.

Question 26.
The North-South corridor joins Srinagar with :
(A) Kanyakumari
(B) Digboi
(C) Chennai
(D) Vizag
Answer:
(A) Kanyakumari

Question 27.
Number of state highways present in West Bengal is :
(A) 12
(B) 15
(C) 17
(D) 19
Answer:
(D) 19

Question 28.
The length of inland waterways in India is :
(A) 14,500km
(B) 15,000km
(C) 15,500km
(D) 16,000km.
Answer:
(A) 14,500km

Question 29.
The largest port of India is :
(A) Kolkata
(B) Chennai
(C) Kandla
(D) Mumbai
Answer:
(D) Mumbai

Question 30.
The tax-free port of India is :
(A) Murmagaon
(B) Kochi
(C) Kandla
(D) Vizag
Answer:
(C) Kandla

Question 31.
The main tea exporting port of India is
(A) Paradweep
(B) Kandla
(C) Vizag
(D) Kolkata
Answer:
(D) Kolkata

Question 32.
A totally hightech and computer controlled port of India is
(A) Navseva
(B) Kolkata
(C) Murmagaon
(D) Chennai
Answer:
(A) Navseva

Question 33.
Metro rail runs in how many cities in India ?
(A) 8
(B) 7
(C) 6
(D) 5
Answer:
(C) 6

Question 34.
The busiest road of India is :
(A) NH-7
(B) G. T. Road
(C) NH-34
(D) NH-35
Answer:
(B) G. T. Road

Question 35.
The highest road of the world is :
(A) NH-7
(B) NH-2
(C) Leh-Lasa road
(D) Jammu-Kashmir road
Answer:
(C) Leh-Lasa road

Question 36.
The longest navigable river of India is :
(A) Ganga
(B) Brahmaputra
(C) Indus
(D) Godavari
Answer:
(A) Ganga

Question 37.
Highest density of roadways is in :
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Gujarat
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
(A) Maharashtra

Question 38.
Movement of goods and passengers from one place to another is called:
(A) Communication
(B) Movement
(C) Travel
(D) Transport
Answer:
(D) Transport

Question 39.
The northern and southern corners of India are connected by the :
(A) National Highways
(B) North-South corridor
(C) East-West corridor
(D) Golden Quadrilateral
Answer:
(B) North-South corridor

Question 40.
The eastern and western corners of India are connected by the
(A) Golden Quadrilateral
(B) East-West Corridor
(C) National highways
(D) District roads
Answer:
(B) East-West Corridor

Question 41.
The first metro rail in India was started in
(A) Delhi
(B) Bangalore
(C) Mumbai
(D) Kolkata
Answer:
(D) Kolkata

Question 42.
The largest national waterway of India is
(A) Brahmaputra waterway
(B) Allahabad Haldia waterway
(C) Mahanadi waterway
(D) Ernakulam-Kollam waterway
Answer:
(B) Allahabad Haldia waterway

Question 43.
The longest pipeline of India is between
(A) Nunmati-Siliguri
(B) Hajira-Vijaypur – Jagdishpur
(C) Barauni-Haldia
(D) Kandla-Mathura
Answer:
(B) Hajira-Vijaypur – Jagdishpur

Question 44.
Lowest transport cost is incurred by :
(A) Railways
(B) Roadways
(C) Waterways
(D) Pipelines.
Answer:
(D) Pipelines.

Question 45.
The office of the Inland Waterways Authority of India is located in :
(A) Kolkata
(B) Allahabad
(C) Noida
(D) Delhi
Answer:
(C) Noida

Fill in the blanks : 1 Mark

1. The ________ air transport in India provides off-shore and on-shore services to ONGC.
2. ________ is the deepest land-locked and protected port in India.
3. The National Highway ________ is known as the Sher Shah Suri Marg.
4. The Indian Railways are the ________ largest railway system in the world running with electricity.
5. The Indian railways have been divided into ________ zones.
Answer:
1. Pawan Hans
2. Vishakhapatnam
3. NH-1
4. Fourth
5. 18

State True or False : 1 Mark

1. The most important commodity in India’s internal trade is coal. [ ]
2. The Kolkata port is famous for exporting iron ore. [ ]
3. The Jawaharlal Nehru port is a port functioning with modern technologies. [ ]
4. The Namma Metro plies in Hyderabad. [ ]
5. Computers are the means of modern communication system. [ ]
Answer:
1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True

Answer in few words : 1 Mark

Question 1.
What do you mean by ‘Transportation’?
Answer:
Movement of goods and people from one place to another.

Question 2.
Name the different modes of land surface transport.
Answer:
Roadways, railways.

Question 3.
Which is the oldest mode of transport?
Answer:
Roadways.

Question 4.
What are International waterways ?
Answer:
Waterways that connect two or more countries across the sea or ocean or along a river.

Question 5.
Name some major seaports of India.
Answer:
Vizag, Chennai, Paradweep, Mumbai, Kandla, Kochi etc.

Question 6.
Name the airport in Kolkata.
Answer:
Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose International Airport.

Question 7.
What are underground railways also called ?
Answer:
Tube railways or metro railway.

Question 8.
Name some modes of communication.
Answer:
Telephone, radio, television, fax, internet, newspaper etc.

Question 9.
How do mobiles or internet communicate from one place to another?
Answer:
Through satellites.

Question 10.
What are letters written through internet called?
Answer:
e-mail.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 5.9 Population of India offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 5.9 Question Answer – Population of India

Answer in short : 2 Marks

Question 1.
What do you mean by population growth ?
Answer:
Population growth refers to the increase in number of people residing in a particular place over a particular period of time.

Question 2.
What things are affected by population growth ?
Answer:
Population growth affects the socio-economic aspects of the country. It influences the levels of development, economic status, nature of utilisation of resources, etc.

Question 3.
What do you mean by sustainable development ?
Answer:
Sustainable development refers to the process of meeting human development goals while sustaining the ability of natural systems to provide resources and services upon which the economy and society depend. It is the organising principle for sustaining finite resources necessary to provide for the needs of future generations.

Question 4.
How do climate and relief affect the distribution of population in India?
Answer:
Relief : Plain land is more attractive for people rather than mountainous or plateau regions due to ease of economic activities like agriculture, industry, transport, etc.
Climate : Regions having moderate or maritime climate attract population much more rather than harsh and extreme climates. Eg – the coastal plains of Kerala are much more populated than the rugged himalayan ranges.

Question 5.
How does the presence of minerals influence population distribution in India?
Answer:
Presence of mineral resources boost the growth of industries. Availability of jobs attracts much population in these regions. Eg.- Chotanagpur Plateau.

Question 6.
What is the influence of transport and communication system and presence of ports on population distribution?
Answer:
Regions with good transport facilities and communication networks attract population for trade, commerce and other activities. Presence of ports boosts the transport system by waterways. Also, ports provide employment to a huge population at different levels.

Question 7.
What do you mean by urbanization ?
Answer:
Urbanization is the process of development of towns and cities from village due to high growth rate of population, availability of modern facilities of livelihood and easier and better means of life. It is the process of conversion of rural areas into urban areas.

Question 8.
How does scope of employment influence the process of urbanization?
Answer:
Rural areas cannot provide work to a large population due to various limitations. Scope of employment is comparatively higher and varied in urban areas. Hence, much population is attracted towards towns and cities, leading to more urbanization.

Question 9.
How does urbanization cause accommodation problems ?
Answer:
The rapidly growing population in the urban areas becomes difficult to house in the already existing set-up of the area. Hence, growth of slums and downtrodden areas are seen in the fringes of towns and cities.

Question 10.
How does proportion of unemployed population increase in urban areas?
Answer:
People from rural areas come to urban areas in search of employment. But the urban areas also have certain limitations in providing employment to the people. Hence, a huge portion of the expecting population remains unemployed and the proportion of the total unemployed population gradually increases.

Question 11.
What do you mean by Census?
Answer:
Census is the method of counting the total population of a particular region and calculating the birth rate, death rate, growth rate, along with the literacy rate, economic and social aspects etc.

Question 12.
What do you mean by the ‘growth rate of population’?
Answer:
The increase in population over a period of time due to the difference in birth and death rates is called ‘the growth rate of population’.

Question 13.
What is ‘overpopulation’?
Answer:
The condition where the total population of a country is more than the amount of available resources, is called overpopulation.

Question 14.
What is ‘underpopulation’?
Answer:
The condition where the total population of a country is less than the amount of available resources is called underpopulation.

Question 15.
What is optimum population ?
Answer:
The condition where the total population of a country is in parity with the total amount of resources available, is called optimum population.

Question 16.
What do you mean by density of population?
Answer:
The total population residing in a unit area of a country or a state or region, is known as the density of population.

Question 17.
What do you mean by negative growth rate of population ?
Answer:
In countries where the death rate is greater than the birth rate, population decreases rather than increases over time. This is known as the negative growth rate of population.

Question 18.
What do you mean by zero growth rate of population?
Answer:
The condition where the birth rates and death rates of population of a country are equal, the absolute population does not increase and rather remains constant over a period of time. This is known as the zero growth rate of population.

Question 19.
What is sex ratio?
Answer:
The ratio of the total number of females to every 1000 males of a country is known as the sex ratio.

Question 20.
What is ‘decadal growth rate of population’?
Answer:
The rate of growth of population over 10 years or between two consecutive census years is known as the ‘decadal growth rate of population’.

Question 21.
What is yearly growth rate of population?
Answer:
The rate of growth of population over a time period of one year is known as the yearly growth rate of population. It can be calculated by dividing the decadal growth rate by 10 .

Question 22.
What is Crude Birth Rate?
Answer:
The number of live children born in a country in a year with respect to every 1000 people, is known as the Crude Birth Rate or CBR.

Question 23.
What is Crude Death Rate ?
Answer:
The number of people dying every year in a country with respect to every 1000 people, is known as the Crude Death Rate or CDR.

Question 24.
What is Infant Mortality Rate ?
Answer:
The number of infants dying in a year in a country to every 1000 live children born in the same year is known as the Infant Mortality Rate or IMR.

Question 25.
What do you mean by the dependent population?
Answer:
The number of people lying within the age group of 0-14 years and over 60 years is known as the dependent population.

Question 26.
What is ‘dependency ratio’?
Answer:
in The ratio between the dependent population and the rest of the population of the country on which they depend, is called the dependency ratio.

Question 27.
What is normal increase of population?
Answer:
The increase of population of a country over a period of time due to difference between birth and death rates of population is known as the normal or natural increase of population.

Question 28.
What is ‘Birth rate’?
Answer:
The number of live children born in a country in a year to every 1000 people of the country, is known as the Birth rate.

Question 29.
What is ‘Death rate’?
Answer:
The number of people dying in a year in a country in every 1000 people of the country is known as Death rate.

Question 30.
What is Age-sex ratio ?
Answer:
The ratio between the males and females of different age groups of a country is known as the age-sex ratio.

Question 31.
What do you mean by ‘Life Expectancy’ ?
Answer:
The expected age till which a child may live, is known as the Life Expectancy. In 2013 , the life expectancy in India was 67.5 years.

Question 32.
What do you mean by literacy rate?
Answer:
The percentage of population of a country that can read and write in any language, calculated over a period of 10 years or census years, is known as the literacy rate. According to census of 2011, literacy rate of India is 73.0%

Question 33.
What is a ‘town’?
Answer:
According to the census definition, any area that lies under the municipal or notified Area, consists of a population of at least 5000 or density of population is at least 400 per sq km., and at least 75% people are engaged in nonagricultural works, is called a town. In some cases, all the criteria may not be fulfilled due to some exceptional qualilites.

Question 34.
What is a city ?
Answer:
An urban centre whose population lies within 1 lakh to 10 lakhs is known as a city.

Question 35.
What is a Metro city ?
Answer:
An urban centre whose population is more than 10 lakhs is known as a metro city. In India, according to the 2011census, there are 44 metrocities.

Question 36.
What is a Mega city ?
Answer:
An urban centre whose population is more than 50 lakhs is known as a mega city. Eg.- greater Kolkata, greater Mumbai etc.

Question 37.
What is a statutory town ?
Answer:
A town that is governed by a municipality, corporation, cantonment board or Notified Town Area Committee is known as a Statutory town.

Question 38.
What is a ‘Smart City’ ?
Answer:
A ‘Smart City’ is one where the old and new problems regarding service sectors are solved with the help of information and technological methods. They are also sometimes called Digital Cities as the service related problems are tried to be solved with the help of information technology digitally.

Answer in brief : 3 Marks

Question 1.
What is the need for sustainable development?
Answer:
The need for sustainable development are as follows :

1. Maintain a balance between population and available resources.
2. Development of economic, social, cultural, ecological and geographical aspects of the country.
3. Eradication of poverty.
4. Maintain a balance between environment and development.
5. Eradication of social evils and indisciplines.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Density of population ?
Answer:
Density of population refers to the number of people residing in one unit area, i.e. 1 sq. km. It is calculated by :

Density of population is only a quantitative information. It does not give any idea about the economic standard of the country or the level of resource utilisation.
India’s density of population is 382 persons per sq. km. according to the 2011 census.

Question 3.
How does urbanization cause problems of sewage and garbage disposal?
Answer:
Urbanization leads to rapid increase in population in the urban centres which leads to several problems. One such problem is regarding sewage and garbage disposal. The huge volume of disposable solid and liquid wastes generated by the huge population is difficult to handle with the present sewage systems of the urban areas. Thus, waste dumps and water logging of drains occur in urban areas. The problems are even severe in slum areas. This leads to spread of diseases due to unhygienic conditions.

Question 4.
What do you mean by population explosion ?
Answer:
The condition of high rate of increase of population of a country over a small period of time is called ‘Population explosion’. Usually, if the yearly growth rate of population exceeds 2 \%, it may result in population explosion. Causes of population explosion are :

1. Improvement in medical science and control of epidemic diseases.
2. Improvement in agriculture, industry, transport and communication services.
3. Scope of employment in different sectors.
4. Women education and consciousness etc.

Question 5.
What are the causes of high birth rates in India ?
Answer:
The causes of high birth rates in India are:

1. Lack of education and culture.
2. Male dominated society does not entertain the women’s wish regarding bearing children.
3. Religious beliefs.
4. Improvement in medical science and control of infant mortality rates, infanticides etc.

Question 6.
What are the causes of reduction of death rates in India ?
Answer:
The causes of reduction of death rates in India are :

1. Improvement in medical science, availability of ICU, Ventilation, Oxygen Cylinders, Surgical treatments, etc.
2. Forecast of natural disasters like earthquakes, tsunamies, floods, droughts, etc.
3. Development of transport and communication system.
4. Availability of healthy and hygienic food.
5. Increase in family income, level of education and standard of living.

Question 7.
Mention the criteria set by the Census of India to designate a place as a town.
Answer:
The criteria set by the Census of India to designate a place as a town are :

1. Population of at least 5000 .
2. Population density of at least 400 persons per sq. km.
3. At least 75% of males must be engaged in non-agricultural occupations.
4. The administration will be conducted by Municipal boards, Corporation, Cantonment Board, Notified Area etc.

Question 8.
What are the main functions carried out by urban centres in India ?
Answer:
The urban centres of India mainly carry out the economic activities of secondary, tertiary, quanternary and quinary sectors. The various functions of these urban centres are :

1. Industrial activities
2. Service activities
3. Administrative activities
4. Jobs in different offices
5. Business and commerce
6. Educational and research works
7. Security and developmental services
8. Transport and communication services.

Answer in details : 5 Marks

Question 1.
Discuss the factors that influence distribution of population in India.
Answer:
The population of India is not equally distributed all over the country. The main factors that influence the regional distribution of population are :
◊ Relief : Plain land is more attractive for population rather than mountains or plateaus due to ease of economic activities like agriculture, industry, transport, etc.

◊ Climate : Regions having moderate or marine climate attract population much more rather than harsh and extreme climates. Eg.- Coastal plains of Kerala, Gangetic plains, etc.

◊ Soil : Agriculture depends on the quality of soil. Hence fertile regions attract more population rather than the infertile regions.

◊ Mineral resources and industry : Presence of mineral resources boosts the growth of industries. Availability of jobs attracts much population in these regions. Eg.- Chotanagpur plateau.

◊ Transport and Communication : Regions with good transport facilities and communication networks attract population for trade and commerce and other economic activities. Hence, population concentrates near big railway junctions, ports, transport bottle necks etc.

◊ Rivers : The river basins have always been the cradle of ancient civilisations. Availability of water for drinking, household, navigation, agriculture etc., formation of fertile alluvial soil, attracts population.

◊ Natural vegetation : Moderately forested regions attract population for economic activities like wood collection, wax, honey etc. Dense forests like equatorial rainforests as well as treeless regions like the Thar desert in Rajasthan, both repel population.

◊ Economic and political conditions : People concentrate in regions where there is economic and political stability rather than regions of disturbances.

◊ Others : Centres of religious (Mathura, Puri), historical (Agra), educational (Santiniketan), tourism (Darjeeling), interests etc. also attract population.

Question 2.
Discuss the causes of urbanization in India.
Answer:
The different causes of urbanization in India are:

1. Limited size of agricultural land : The limited size of agricultural land in India cannot provide employment to the whole rural population. Hence, unemployment, poverty and other problems push the rural population to the urban centres.
2. Change in thought : The mentality of rural people is also changing. They wish to settle in urban areas for educational facilities, trade, commerce, industrial jobs etc.
3. Free lifestyle : Urban life is much liberal and free from superstitions. Rural people thus tend to settle in urban areas.
4. Employment : Scope of employment is much higher and varied in urban areas. Hence, rural population is attracted towards urban areas.
5. Entertainment : Urban areas have much more scope for entertainment and relaxation. This attracts much rural population.

Question 3.
Discuss the problems of urbanization in India.
Answer:
The major problems faced due to urbanization in India are :
◊ Unplanned growth of urban areas : Rapid concentration of population in urban areas lead to unplanned and non-systematic growth of towns and cities.

◊ Accommodation : The rapidly growing population is difficult to house in the already existing urban areas. Hence, growth of slums and downtrodden areas occur in the fringes of towns and cities.

◊ Availability of water : The amount of water available is not sufficient for the rapidly growing population. Hence, scarcity of water occurs.

◊ Unemployment : A huge section of rural population comes to urban areas in search of work. But all of them do not get employment. Hence, the total percentage of unemployed population in urban areas increases.

◊ Sewage and garbage disposal : The volume of disposable solid and liquid wastes generated by the excess population is difficult to handle with the present sewage systems of urban areas. Thus waste dumping and water logging of drains are common, especially in slum areas.

◊ Insufficient transport, education, medical and other facilities : The available transport, education, medical and other facilities are not enough for the rapidly growing population.

◊ Pollution and environmental degradation : Overpopulation causes high rates of pollution and misuses and over-uses of resources cause environmental degradation.

Question 4.
What are the positive and negative effects of population growth on the economy of the country?
Answer:
Population growth exerts both positive and negative effects on the economy of the country.
Positive effects :

1. Increase in population increases the number of labours. Thus, extraction of resources and production capacity increases.
2. Demand for more and more labour increases with increasing rate of production.
3. Increase in size of population helps to increase the size of the market. Demand for utility as well as luxury goods increases.
4. Increase in production increases the national income of the country.
5. Increase in population leads to increase in productive population.
6. Increase in population makes the economy more dynamic.

Negative effects :

1. Increase in population may lead to a shortage of food. This may lead to malnutrition, famine and spread of diseases.
2. Increase in population tends to lower the rate of economic development.
3. Infant mortality rates may rise due to food shortage, famines etc.
4. Increase in population tends to lower the rates of savings and thus investments.
5. Rates of unemployment, underemployment etc. increase.
6. Rates of foreign loans increase.

Question 5.
How does the increase in population hamper sustainable development in India ?
Answer:
Increase in population at very high rates cause many hindrances in the sustainable development of a country’s economy. In India, the problems caused by high rates of population increase are :
◊ Exhaustion of fossil fuels : Increase in population leads to excessive use of fossil fuels, which is reducing their amount from the nature as well as causing pollution.

◊ Fast rates of Urbanisation : Urban centres are developing at a faster rate to house the growing population. This in turn is increasing social insecurity, crime and degradation of value system. Also, this increases the use of green house gases and causes global warming and environmental degradation along with climatic changes.

◊ Destruction of forests : Increase in population demands more food for survival. Hence, the forests are being destroyed to create more agricultural fields. Forests are also cleaned for establishment of industries.

◊ Social problems : Rapid increase in population leads to growth of slum areas, hampers the sewage system, causes insufficient arrangement of service, transport, communication, medical, water supply, education and employment facilities.

Question 6.
What steps should be taken for sustainable development in India ?
Answer:
The steps that must be taken for sustainable development in India are :
◊ Population control : Growth rate of population must be controlled with the help of knowledge, education, science and technology in order to maintain a parity between population and available resources.

◊ Proper utilisation of resources : Proper and rational utilisation of resources, use of renewable resources more than non-renewable resources, etc. must be promoted.

◊ Save the fund resources: Renewable and flow resources must be used more instead of non-renewable and fund resources in order to save them for future generations.

◊ Environmental Consciousness : The environmental degradation must be taken care of. New forests must be created by planting more and more trees. Soil erosion must be prevented. Pollutions of all levels must be controlled.

◊ Eradication of poverty : Scope of employment must be increased so that people can earn a proper living.

◊ Decentralisation policies : Industries and administrative functions must be decentralised and distributed over a large area. So that the in-migrating population of the cities can be distributed outwards properly.

Question 7.
Discuss the causes of rapid growth of population in India.
Answer:
The causes of rapid growth of population in India are:

1. High birth rates : The high birth rate of children in India (about 21.34% in 2001) leads to the increase in the absolute population.
2. Low death rates : Improvement in medical and social sciences have lowered the death rates considerably. Thus, the absolute population increases.
3. Migration : In-migration from the neighbouring countries of Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, etc. increases the size of the population of India.
4. Marriage at a low age : Marriage at a low age increases the probability of more and more child birth.
5. Poverty : People believe that increase the number of family members will increase the number of earning members and hence help to eradicate poverty.
6. High infant mortality rates : High infant mortality rates especially in rural areas tend to lead to more child birth out of fear.
7. Joint family : Security and care of children in joint families lead to high rates of child birth.
8. Illiteracy : Illiteracy leads to superstitions and religious beliefs regarding child birth.
9. Wish for a male child : More and more chances are taken in child birth for the wish of a male child.
10. Govt. policies : In many cases, the govt. is reluctant regarding the high birth rates and have not framed proper policies necessary to control the growing population.

Question 8.
Classify India according to the distribution of population density over the country.
Answer:
India can be classified into five regions with respect to distribution of population density.
i. Very high density of population (over 1001 persons per sq. \mathbf{k m ) : The states under this category are – West Bengal, Bihar, Kerala, and Union Territories of Pondicherry, Chandigarh, Daman and Diu. Amongst them, West Bengal has the highest density of population. Presence of fertile lands for agriculture, scope of industrial development, transport and communication skills make the areas densely populated. The Union Territories are important administrative units.

ii. High density of population (601-1000 persons per sq. km) : The regions under this category are – Uttar Pradesh, Tamil nadu, Punjab, Haryana, Goa, Dadra, Nagar Haveli, etc. Amongst them, Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh have the highest density of population.

iii. Medium density of population (401-600 persons per sq. km) : The regions under this category are – Assam, Tripura, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Gujarat, Odisha, etc. Jharkhand and Odishsa are rich in minerals. Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka are good in agriculture. Assam is rich in tea cultivation and oil reserves.

iv. Low density of population (301-400 persons per sq. km) : Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Chattisgarh, Jammu and Kashmir, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Sikkim, Uttaranchal, etc belong to this category. Lack of plain lands, adverse climatic conditions, lack of fertile lands, lack of employment facilities make these regions less dense in population.

v. Very low density of population (less than 50 persons per sq. km ) : Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Andaman and Nicobar islands, etc. fall in this category. Rugged relief, infertile soil, lack of agriculture, adverse climate, dense forests, etc. make these regions so less populated.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)

Question 1.
Our population was 121.02 crore according to the census :
(A) 1971
(B) 1981
(C) 1991
(D) 2011
Answer:
(D) 2011

Question 2.
The state has the highest population… :
(A) Kerala
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) West Bengal
(D) Bihar
Answer:
(B) Uttar Pradesh

Question 3.
The life expectancy in India is :
(A) more in the case of males
(B) more in the case of females
(C) equal in the case of males and females
(D) not comparable in the case of males and females as it keeps changing
Answer:
(A) more in the case of males

Question 4.
What is the number of females per thousand males as per the census?
(A) 967
(B) 937
(C) 936
(D) 940
Answer:
(D) 940

Question 5.
Where is the sex ratio lowest ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Sikkim
Answer:
(B) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Question 6.
Which among the following States supports the maximum percentage of tribal population?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Sikkim
(D) Nagaland
Answer:
(D) Nagaland

Question 7.
The percentage of literates in India is :
(A) lower among males than females
(B) lower in urban areas than in rural
(C) higher among males
(D) is almost equal among males and females
Answer:
(C) higher among males

Question 8.
Which union territory has the highest literacy rate?
(A) Delhi
(B) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Pondicherry
Answer:
(C) Chandigarh

Question 9.
The lowest rate of literacy occurs in :
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer:
(D) Arunachal Pradesh

Question 10.
Put the following in correct descending order of density of population as per the 1981 census : (I) Bihar (II) West Bengal (III) Kerala (IV) Uttar Pradesh
(A) III, II, IV, I
(B) I, II, III, IV
(C) III, II, IV, I
(D) II, III, I, IV
Answer:
(B) I, II, III, IV

Question 11.
What is the reason for the higher percentage of female workers in rural areas compared to the towns and cities in India ?
(A) Rural females are uneducated
(B) There are more employment opportunities for females in rural areas than in towns
(C) Rural women are more educated and job- oriented
(D) Subsistence agriculture forces women to take to work
Answer:
(D) Subsistence agriculture forces women to take to work

Question 12.
Which city has the largest population?
(A) Greater Bombay
(B) Delhi
(C) Kolkata
(D) Madras
Answer:
(C) Kolkata

Question 13.
The percentage increase in population in the decade 2001-2011
(A) 25 %
(B) 24 %
(C) 23 %
(D) 17.64 %
Answer:
(D) 17.64 %

Question 14.
Which of the following States has more women than men ?
(A) Sikkim
(B) Kerala
(C) Maharashtra
(D) None
Answer:
(B) Kerala

Question 15.
One of the chief effects of urbanization in India is :
(A) overcrowding in cities
(B) more jobs available
(C) lower standard of living
(D) stagnant agriculture
Answer:
(A) overcrowding in cities

Question 16.
Among the following, the most urbanised community in India is :
(A) Muslim
(B) Hindu
(C) Parsi
(D) Gujarati
Answer:
(C) Parsi

Question 17.
In India, how is the trend of urbanization illustrated ?
(A) Urbanization of many villages
(B) Employment opportunities in cities increasing
(C) Cities increasing in size at the cost of small towns
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Cities increasing in size at the cost of small towns

Question 18.
Which is India’s most urbanized State ?
(A) Kerala
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Punjab
(D) Karnataka
Answer:
(B) Maharashtra

Question 19.
Which of the following would you consider a reason for India having a high “dependency” ratio?
(A) High rate of population growth
(B) Number of old people is high
(C) Large portion of population (nearly 42 %) in the age group 0-14 years
(D) Manpower is less
Answer:
(C) Large portion of population (nearly 42 %) in the age group 0-14 years

Question 20.
How many towns have been listed according to the 1981 census ?
(A) About 4000
(B) About 3700
(C) About 3500
(D) About 4500
Answer:
(A) About 4000

Question 21.
Which of the following combination of rivers and cities situated on their banks is wrong?
(A) Lucknow – Gomti
(B) Ayodhya – Saryu
(C) Badrinath-Aloknanda
(D) Vijayawada – Narmada
Answer:
(D) Vijayawada – Narmada

Question 22.
The percentage of working population of India engaged in agriculture is about
(A) 80
(B) 70
(C) 60
(D) 50
Answer:
(B) 70

Question 23.
Population of India has grown rapidly after 1921, mainly because
(A) Death rate has declined steeply
(B) Birth rate has increased rapidly
(C) Indians have returned from Burma, Sri Lanka and other countries.
(D) The number of persons migrating from India has declined.
Answer:
(A) Death rate has declined steeply

Question 24.
In 2011 the average age in India is
(A) 68.89 %
(B) 65.63 %
(C) 72.36 %
(D) 70-48 %
Answer:
(A) 68.89 %

Question 25.
Sex-ratio in India was always in favour of :
(A) Males
(B) Females
(C) Both sexes
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Males

Question 26.
The first census for the whole of India was taken in
(A) 1872
(B) 1881
(C) 1890
(D) 1901
Answer:
(C) 1890

Question 27.
The largest number of working population in India are engaged in
(A) Agriculture
(B) Pasture
(C) Mining
(D) Industry
Answer:
(B) Pasture

Question 28.
The highest density of population is in
(A) Sikkim
(B) West Bengal
(C) Bihar
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(C) Bihar

Question 29.
Density of population in Kerala per 8 q . km is
(A) 555
(B) 859
(C) 828
(D) 698
Answer:
(B) 859

Question 30.
Density of population in West Bengal per sq. km is
(A) 1029
(B) 1102
(C) 2013
(D) 2598
Answer:
(A) 1029

Question 31.
With respect to population, Lakshadweep comes under
(A) Very high density region
(B) High density region
(C) Medium density region
(D) Low density region
Answer:
(A) Very high density region

Question 32.
Which of the following states of India recorded the lowest density of population?
(A) Sikkim
(B) Nagaland
(C) Mizoram
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer:
(D) Arunachal Pradesh

Question 33.
_______ recorded the highest density of population.
(A) West Bengal
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Assam
Answer:
(B) Bihar

Question 34.
The lowest population was recorded in
(A) Sikkim
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Nagaland
Answer:
(A) Sikkim

Question 35.
The most urbanised state of India is _______
(A) Kerala
(B) Punjab
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Karnataka
Answer:
(C) Maharashtra

Question 36.
In which state do women out-number men ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Kerala
(C) Punjab
(D) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(B) Kerala

Fill in the blanks : 1 Mark

1. The word ‘Census’ is of ________ origin.
2. The Union Territory of _________ has very low density of population.
3. The Union Territory of ________ is the most densely populated.
4. High ______ leads to rapid increase in population in India.
5. _______ in known as the Pink city of India.
6. The word ‘urban’ comes from the French word _______.
7. Presently the number of megacities in India is ________.
8. Density of population is the ratio between total population and ________ of a region.
9. Zero population growth occurs where birth rate and death rate are
10. The largest megacity of India is _________.
Answer:
1. Latin
2. Andaman & Nicobar Islands
3. Delhi
4. birth rate
5. Jaipur
6. Orbis
7. 53
8. Total area
9. Same
10. Mumbai

State True or False : 1 Mark

1. The economies of urban centres are non-agricultural. [ ]
2. Optimum population is seen in the developing countries. [ ]
3. India is an over-populated country. [ ]
4. Chennai is known as the gateway of India. [ ]
5. Mumbai is the largest business city of India. [ ]
6. Rate of child death is highest in Kerala. [ ]
7. An Urban centre with population more than 1 lakh is called a class I city. [ ]
8. India is a developing country. [ ]
9. About 25 % of India’s total population line in Urban centres. [ ]
10. Shantiniketan is a cultural town in West Bengal. [ ]
Answer:
1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True
6. False
7. True
8. True
9. False
10. True

Answer in few words : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Which organisation records the population of India ?
Answer:
The Census of India.

Question 2.
What is the total population of India ?
Answer:
1,21,05,69,573 according to 2011 census.

Question 3.
What is the decadal growth rate of population?
Answer:
17.7 % according to 2011 census.

Question 4.
What is the density of population of India ?
Answer:
382 persons per sq. km.

Question 5.
What is the sex ratio of India ?
Answer:
943 (females per 1000 males)

Question 6.
What is the average literacy rate in India ?
Answer:
73 %

Question 7.
Mention the literacy rate of males and females in India.
Answer:
Male – 80.9%, Female – 64.6%

Question 8.
What is the level of life expectancy in India ?
Answer:
65.96 years.

Question 9.
Which relief regions are usually most populated ?
Answer:
Plain lands.

Question 10.
Which regions are usually scarcely populated ?
Answer:
Deserts and rugged mountainous regions.

Question 11.
Which soil regions attract more population?
Answer:
Fertile alluvial soil regions.

Question 12.
Where did the civilisations first grow in ancient times?
Answer:
River basins.

Question 13.
Why do people concentrate around forests ?
Answer:
For economic activities like collection of wood, wax, honey etc.

Question 14.
Name some places that attract huge population due to religious factors.
Answer:
Mathura, Puri, Varanasi etc.

Question 15.
Name some places that attract huge population due to historic factors:
Answer:
Agra, Murshidabad.

Question 16.
Name some educational centres.
Answer:
Santiniketan, Aligarh, Nalanda etc.

Question 17.
Name some tourist centres that attract large population.
Answer:
Kashmir, Shimla, Nainital, Digha etc.

Question 18.
What is the process of increase of population by huge numbers called?
Answer:
Population explosion.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 5.8 Industries in India offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 5.8 Question Answer – Industries in India

Answer in short : 2 Marks

Question 1.
What is the importance of transport to industries ?
Answer:
Transport helps to carry raw materials, labour and other essential things from the source to the industry and also the finished products to the market.

Question 2.
What do you mean by ‘pure raw material’?
Answer:
Pure raw materials are those whose weight does not reduce in the process of production of finished goods. Eg. – 100 kg of raw cotton mill yield 100 kg of cotton clothe.

Question 3.
What do you mean by ‘impure raw materials’ ?
Answer:
Impure raw materials are those whose weight reduces considerably in the process of production of finished goods. Eg.- 100 kg of iron ore will not yield 100 kg of pure iron. It depends on the percentage of iron content of the ore.

Question 4.
Classify the different kinds of industries.
Answer:

• Agro-based
• Animal-based
• Forest-based
• Mineral-based
• Industrial raw material based.

Question 5.
What is Food Processing Industry?
Answer:
The industry where agro-based raw materials are used to produce easily usable, attractive and long-lasting food items, is called Food Processing Industry. Eg.Dairy, fruit juice, jams, potato chips, etc.

Question 6.
Where are most of the cotton textile mills concentrated in India ?
Answer:
Most of the cotton textile mills in India are concentrated in Maharashtra, Gujarat, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Question 7.
Name the important centres of cotton textile industry in Maharashtra.
Answer:
The important cotton textile centres of Maharashtra are – Solapur, Pune, Kolhapur, Satara, Wardha, Nagpur, Aurangabad, Amravati and Salgaon. But Mumbai is the most important centre with 63 mills of the total 122 mills of Maharashtra being located here.

Question 8.
Why is Ahmedabad called the Manchester of India ?
Answer:
Ahmedabad is the the largest centre of cotton textile industry in India. It alone houses 73 mills out of the 118 mills present in Gujarat. Thus, it is compared with the largest cotton textile centre of the world, and is called the Manchester of India’.

Question 9.
Name some important cotton textile centres of the south.
Answer:
Coimbatore (Manchester of the South), Chennai, Madurai, Tirunelveli, Salem, Perambur, Tuticorin, etc.

Question 10.
Why is paper industry called a forest-based industry ?
Answer:
The raw materials for paper industry come from coniferous trees, bamboos, sabai grass etc. which are all forest products. Thus the paper industry is called a forest-based industry.

Question 11.
Why is coal an essential raw material for the iron and steel industry?
Answer:
Coal is converted to coking coal, which is very essential for melting iron ore and extracting pure iron or pig iron. This iron is then further used to produce several things. Extraction of pure iron would be impossible without coal. Hence, coal is very essential for the iron and steel industry.

Question 12.
Write a short note on the iron and steel plant of Bhadravati.
Answer:
The Visveswaraya Iron and Steel Ltd. located at Bhadravati is the first steel plant developed outside the coal belt of eastern India. The plant was first started by using charcoal as a source of fuel. Now it is using hydro-power obtained from the Jog hydel power station. All raw materials (iron ore from Kemangundi, limestone from Bhandigudda, manganese from Shimoga) are available within a radius of 50 km from Bhadravati.

Question 13.
Write a short note on Salem Steel Plant.
Answer:
Salem steel plant started commerical production from March 1982. It is located very near to the iron ore fields of salem. The power comes from Neyveli Thermal Project. This plant is designed to produce stainless steel sheets and coils.

Question 14.
Name some important automobile companies of India.
Answer:

1. Hindustan Motors Ltd. in Uttarpara, West Bengal.
2. Premier Automobiles Ltd. in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
3. Standard Motor Products Ltd and Ashok Leyland Ltd. in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
4. Maruti Udyog Ltd. in Gurgaon, Haryana.
5. Tata Engineering and Locomotive Company (TELCO) in Jamshedpur, Jhankhand.
6. Mahindra and Mahindra Ltd. in Mumbai, Maharashtra.

Question 15.
Where were steam locomotives manufactured in India in the preindependence period?
Answer:
In the pre-independence period, steam locomotives were assembled and partly manufactured in Ajmer and Kanchanpara.

Question 16.
Write a short note on Diesel Locomotive works at Varanasi.
Answer:
Diesel Locomotive Work (DLW) in Varanasi started assembling locomotives from imported components. The first locomotive coach was commissioned in January 1964. DLW now produces broad gauge and meter gauge diesel locos with the help of indigenous components.

Question 17.
Write a short note on TELCO.
Answer:
The Tata Engineering and Locomotive Works (TELCO) is a private sector unit and is located at Jamshedpur in Jharkhand. It was set up in 1951 for production of steam locomotives. But since 1970, the production of steam locomotives has been stopped and other locomotives are manufactured.

Question 18.
Name the regions where petro-chemical projects are being implemented in India.
Answer:
Some regions where petro-chemical projects are being implemented in India are :

1. Hazira, Jamnagar and Bharuch in Gujarat.
2. Chennai in Tamil Nadu.
3. Mangalore in Karnataka.
4. Visakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh,
5. Haldia in West Bengal.
6. Auraiya in Uttar Pradesh.

Question 19.
What do you mean by ‘Information Technology’?
Answer:
Information Technology is the application of computers and telecommunication equipments to store, retrieve, transmit and manipulate data in the context of a business or other enterprises.

Question 20.
In how many segments is the IT industry in India divided ?
Answer:
The IT industry in India is divided into 4 major segments :
(a) IT services
(b) Business process management
(c) Software products and engineering services
(d) Hardware.

Question 21.
What are ‘foot loose industries’?
Answer:
The industries which produce some volume of finished products as the raw materials used, can be located at the centres of raw materials, centres of production or at the market. These are called foot loose industries. Eg. – Cotton textile.

Question 22.
What are ‘Down stream industries’?
Answer:
The industries which use the finished products of big industries as their own raw materials are called ‘Down stream industries. Eg.- Synthetic fibre from petroleum.

Question 23.
What are ‘Acillary industries’ ?
Answer:
The industries which supply their finished products to support the growth of other related industries are called the ‘Ancillary Industries’. Eg. – Ancillary industries for the automobile industry are – tyre industry, battery industry, glass industry, etc.

Question 24.
What is an industrial region?
Answer:
A region where many types of industries grow beside each other due to facilities of raw materials, market, demand, labour supply, mutual interdependence, etc. is called an ‘industrial region’.

Question 25.
Name the largest and oldest iron and steel centres of India.
Answer:
(i) The largest iron and steel industry of India is in Bhilai, Chattisgarh.
(ii) The oldest iron and steel industry of India is in Burnpur-Kulti (IISCO) in West Bengal.

Question 26.
What is the impact of climate on cotton textile industry?
Answer:
Raw cotton can be easily spun into threads in moist climate. Dry climate makes the threads too dry and causes them to break. This produces clothes of inferior quality.

Question 27.
Which city of West Bengal is called the ‘Glassgow of India’?
Answer:
Howrah in West Bengal is called the ‘Glassgow of India’. Glassgow in Britain is the largest town and centre for numerous engineering centres in Scotland. Similarly, Howrah also houses the maximum number of engineering centres and other factories in West Bengal.

Question 28.
Name two centres in India manufacturing railway wagons.
Answer:
(i) Muzaffarpur of Bihar
(ii) Dumdum in West Bengal.

Question 29.
Why is the iron and steel industry called the backbone industry ?
Answer:
Iron and steel is such an important industry that all industries producing the smallest of items like safety pins to large items like railway engines require raw materials from them. Thus, it is called the backbone industry.

Question 30.
Why is Chennai known as the ‘Detroit of India’ ?
Answer:
Detroit in USA is the largest centre of manufacturing automobiles in the world. Similarly, Chennai produces about 35-40% of the automobiles produced in India. Thus, Chennai is called the ‘Detroit of India’.

Answer in brief : 3 Marks

Question 1.
Name the centres where cotton mills have developed in the Northern Zone.
Answer:
The major centres where cotton mills have developed in the Northern zone are :

1. Uttar Pradesh – Kanpur, Lucknow, Aligarh, Agra, Bareilly, Meerut.
2. Punjab – Amritsar, Ludhiana, Phagwara.
3. Haryana – Bhiwani, Hissar, Rohtak.
4. Rajasthan – Pali, Hilwara, Udaipur, Jaipur, Ajmer.
5. Delhi

Question 2.
Write a short note on the growth of paper industry in India.
Answer:
The first Paper mill was established in 1840 in Serampore, Hooghly, by Willam Carry, but unfortunately it was closed down. The modern paper mill was first established in Bally, Howrah. Presently there are 379 paper mills in India. Production capacity is 60.20 lakh tonnes (2004). Newsprint, which is mainly used for printing of newspaper is produced about 12.40 lakh tonnes.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Chittaranjan Locomotive works (CLW).
Answer:
The Chittaranjan Locomotive Works (CLW) was established in Chittaranjan in Burdwan district of West Bengal in 1948. The extensive level of land with hard soil of Chittaranjan area is a most suitable site for the erection of the plant. Steam locomotives were manufactured here initially. But since 1972, the production of steam locomotives has been discontinued and their place has been given to electric locomotives.

Question 4.
What are the factors that influence the location of chittaranjan Locomotive Work?
Answer:
The factors that influence location of Chittaranjan Locomotive Works are :

1. Availability of steel from nearby steel plants.
2. Availability of hydel power from Mython and thermal power from Durgapur.
3. Cheap local labour.
4. Location of Chittaranjan near rail junctions.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Petro-chemical industry?
Answer:
Petro-chemicals are essentially the chemicals and compounds derived from petroleum resources. The industry which deals with such chemicals and compounds is called Petro-chemical industry. These chemicals are used in a wide range of articles, such as, synthetic fibres, plastic, famous and non-famous metals, synthetic rubber, dye-stuffs, insecticides, drugs, synthetic detergents, pharmaceuticals, etc.

Question 6.
Write about IT industry in India.
Answer:
India is the world’s largest sourcing destination for the IT industry. The industry employs about 10 million Indians and contributes significantly to the social and economic transformation of the country. It energises the higher education sector, especially in engineering and computer science. The Indian IT industry is divided into 4 major segments – (a) IT services (b) Business process management (c) Software products and engineering services (d) Hardware. Indian IT’s core competencies and strengths have placed it on the international canvas, attracting investments from major countries. Eg. – the software and hardware industry attracted 13,788.56 million between April 2000 and December 2014.

Question 7.
Discuss the causes of growth of paper industry in India.
Answer:
The causes of growth of paper industry in India are :

1. Availability of raw materials from forest (Eg.- coniferous trees, bamboo, sabai grass)
2. Availability of other materials needed for the industry, Eg.- chemicals, dyes, bleaches, etc.
3. Availability of ample water.
4. Availability of hydal power as well as thermal power to run the plants.
5. Cheap and ample labour.
6. Demand for newsprint, books and copies by the huge population.

Question 8.
Classify raw materials according to their sources.
Answer:
Raw materials can be classified according to their sources as :

1. Agro-based : These are the raw materials that come from agriculture. Eg.- tea, jute, sugarcane, cotton etc.
2. Mineral-based : These are raw materials that come from minerals excavated from the earth. Eg. – coal, iron ore, bauxite etc.
3. Forest-based : These are raw materials that come from forests. Eg. – wood for paper industry, rubber latex, pulp for matchstick, cardboard industry etc.
4. Animal-based : These are raw materials that come from animals. Eg.- wool, fur, skin, meat for food processing industries, hooves and horns etc.

Question 9.
Name the major iron and steel centres of India.
Answer:

Centre	Region	State
i. TISCO	Jamshedpur	Jharkhand
ii. Rourkela Steel Plant	Rourkela	Odisha
iii. Daitari Steel Plant	Daitari	Odisha
iv. Hindustan Steel limited	Durgapur	West Bengal
v. IISCO	Kulti-Burnpur	West Bengal
vi. Bhilai	Durg district	Chattisgarh
vii. Visakhapatnam Steel Project	Visakhapatnam	Andhra Pradesh
viii. Vijaynagar Steel Plant	Hospet	Karnataka
ix. Salem Steel Plant	Salem	Tamil Nadu

Question 10.
What are the causes of growth of the Iron and Steel centre at Bhilai?
Answer:
The iron and steel centre at Bhilai was established in 1960 with Russian collaboration. The advantages which supported the growth of this centre are :

1. Iron ore comes from Dalli Rajhara only 100 km away.
2. Coal comes from Kobra mines 225 km away. Some high quality coal also comes from Jharia 750 km away.
3. Manganese comes from Balaghat and Bhandara 200 km away.
4. The nearby reservoir of Tendula supplies the requisite water.
5. Power comes from Korba region.
6. The Visag port is situated 450 km away.

Question 11.
Discuss the causes of development of the Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) at Jamshedpur.
Answer:
The Tata Iron and Steel Company was set up in Jamshedpur by Jamshedji Tata in 1911. The causes for its development are :

1. Iron ore comes from the mines of Gurumahisani, Badampahar, Sulaipat, Bonai and Keonjhar of Odisha and from Noamundi, Guwa, Pansiburu, Budaburu of Singhbhum district of Odisha only 75-100 km away.
2. Coal comes from Jharia and Korba mines 200 km away.
3. Manganese comes from West Singhbhum, Keonjhar and Bonai.
4. Limestone and dolomite comes from Gangpur and Birmitrapur.
5. Water is acquired from Subarnarekha and Kharkai rivers.
6. The Kolkata port is only 250 km away.

Question 12.
Why is Durgapur of West Bengal known as the ‘Ruhr of India’ ?
Answer:
The Ruhr region of Germany is famous for housing a huge number of iron and steel industries based on the iron ore and coal found nearby. Similarly, in Durgapur of West Bengal, numerous iron and steel centres have come up based on coal mines of Jharia, Raniganj, Asansol nearby. Thus, it is known as the ‘Ruhr of India’.

Question 13.
List the importances of petro-chemical industry.
Answer:
The importances of petro-chemical industry are :

1. This industry uses the petroleum to the fullest to manufacture several things. Thus, the cost of production becomes less.
2. Ancillary industries and downstream industries also grow along with petro-chemical industries. e.g. – synthetic fibre, plastic, polymer etc.
3. It is based on high skill and technological know-how. Hence, development of the industry is fast.
4. It is based on advanced researches and have scope for further researches.
5. It plays an important role in the economic development of a country.
6. It helps in creating more and more resources.

Answer in details : 5 Marks

Question 1.
Discuss the factors that influence the location of any industry.
Answer:
The factors that influence the location of any industry are :

1. Raw materials : All industries need raw materials to begin their production. Nature of raw materials influences the location of the industry. Eg.- Iron and Steel plants are set up in regions near iron and coal mines.
2. Transport : Raw materials need to be transported to factories and finished products to markets.
3. Market : Location of a market influences location of an industry, as all finished goods need to be reached to the market for business and commerce.
4. Labour : No industry can run without labour. A location for the industry is chosen where labour will be available at cheap rates.
5. Capital : Industries tend to grow where rich people concentrate, and investors are eager to invest.
6. Water : Water is essential for all industries. Eg.- Availability of water guides location of jute industries.
7. Power or electricity : No industry can run without power or electricity. Thus, a location is chosen where power can be easily reached.
8. Others : The other factors which influence the location of industries are – climate, environmental conditions, relief, govemment rules and regulations, etc.

Question 2.
Discuss the factors of localisation of cotton textile mills in Western India.
Answer:
The factors that influence the localisation of cotton textile mills in Wesern India are :

1. Raw material (i.e. cotton) available from the black soil region of Western and Central India.
2. Hot humid climate helps in growth of cotton and making of threads.
3. Presence of ports at Mumbai, Kandla, Surat, etc. helps in international trade.
4. Availability of hydel power from Ukai, Veera, etc., thermal power from Dhubran, atomic power from Kakrapara,Tarapore, etc.
5. Good network of railways and roadways connecting all important centres of the country.
6. Availability of capital from business communities residing in the western part of India.
7. Ample labour at cheap rates.
8. High demand of cotton products in local and foreign markets.

Question 3.
Why are iron and steel industries concentrated in eastern India ?
Answer:
Most of the iron and steel plants of India, such as Jamshedpur, Burnpur, Durgapur, Rourkela, Bhilai and Bokaro are located in Jharkhand, West Bengal, Odisha and Chattisgarh. The causes for the concentration of iron and steel plants in eastern India are :
i. Iron ore : About 80 % of India’s iron ore is available in this region. The major mines are – (a) Noamundi, Guwa, Budaburu, Pansiraburu of Singhbhum district, Jharkhand. (b) Gurumahisani, Badampahar, Sulaipat and Bonai of Mayurbhanj district and Bagiyaburu of Keonjhar district, Odisha.

ii. Coal : About 97% of India’s coal is mined in this region. The steel plants of Kulti, Burnpur, and Durgapur get their coal from the mines in Raniganj and Asansol. The steel plants of Jamshedpur, Bokaro and Rourkela get their coal from Jharia, Bokaro, Ramgarh and Giridih in Jharkhand.

iii. Other raw materials : Limestone, dolomite, manganese, etc. are collected from Kalahandi, Gangpur and Karaput of Odisha. Other raw materials like chromium, tungsten, nickel, etc. are easily collected from Chotanagpur plateau.

iv. Water : The rivers Damodar, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, etc. supply ample water required in the steel plants.

v. Transport : The network of roadways and railways in eastern India help in trade and commerce. The ports at Kolkata, Haldia and Paradweep help in international trade.

vi. Power Supply : Thermal power is acquired from Bokaro and Durgapur thermal power plants. Hydel power is acquired from power projects at Hirakud, Mythan, Panchet and Tilaiya.

vii. Labour : Cheap and skilled labour are easily available from West Bengal, Jharkhand, Odisha and Bihar.

viii. Market : Iron and steel from eastern India meets the demands of eastern, central and northern India, as well as foreign countries.

Question 4.
Discuss about the Petro-chemical industry of India.
Answer:
Petro-chemical industry derives its raw materials essentially from petroleum, along with other chemicals. It is required for the production of a wide variety of items like synthetic fibres, plastics, ferrous and non-ferrous metals, dye, paints, insecticides, drugs, pharmaceuticals, etc.

The first petro-chemical complex was established by Union Carbide India Ltd’ at Trombay in 1966. ‘National Organic Chemical Industries Ltd’ was set up in Thane in 1968. The Udex Plant at Kayali Refinery for the production of benzene and toluene was commissioned in 1969. The Indian Petro-Chemical Corporation Ltd, was the first public sector enterprise incorporated in March, 1969. The IPCL’s mega petrochemical complex at vadodara was commissioned in 1973. In Gujarat, Jamnagar is the largest private petro-chemical industry. Petrofils Corporation Ltd (PCL) is a joint sector company of the Government of India and Weaver’s Co-operative societies. It manufactures polyester filament yarn and nylon filament yarn. The Bongaigaon Petro-Chemicals Ltd. is set up at Bongaigaon adjacent to the oil refinery.

These are only a few of the petro-chemical plants established in India. The growing demand of petro-chemical products in daily life has led the government to sanction several mega petro-chemical complexes in public and private sectors. As a result, petro-chemical projects are being implemented in Hazira, Jamnagar and Bharuch in Gujarat, Chennai in Tamil Nadu, Mangalore in Karnataka, Visakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh, Haldia in West Bengal and Auraiya in Uttar Pradesh.

The petro-chemical industry contributes 14% of the production of the entire manufacturing sector. It also shares 14 % of the total export volume of India.

Question 5.
Discuss the problems, solutions and prospects of cotton textile industry in India.
Answer:
The problems of cotton textile industry in India are :

1. Lack of best quality long staple cotton.
2. Old and obsolete machineries.
3. High cost of production due to lack of modernisation.
4. Huge number of sick and closed mills.
5. Competition with artificial fibre.
6. Competition in the international market.
7. Labour disputes and problems with the management.
8. Irregular power supply etc.

The solutions taken up for solving these problems are:

i. The ‘National Cotton Textile Corporation’ and the ‘Cotton Textile Export Development Organisation’ has been built to look after the different issues in cotton textile industry.
ii. New machines and better infrastructure are being used to replace the old. The prospects of cotton textile industry in India are –

1. There is a huge internal market for cotton textile in India itself due to the huge population.
2. Demand for cotton textile is always high, as India is basically a warm country.
3. There is a good demand of Indian cotton textile in the world.
4. The international market can be increased yet more by improving on the quality of cotton textile even more.

Question 6.
Why has the petro-chemical industry developed on the western side of India?
Answer:
The causes of development of petro-chemical industry in western India are :

1. The western part of India has many oil reserves. The requisite crude oil comes from the mines in Bombay High Basin, Aliabet, Ankleshwar, Cambay, Kallol, etc.
2. The crude oil can be easily processed in the refineries of Koyali, Jamnagar etc.
3. Many ports are present on the western coast of India, which helps in import of more crude oil and export of finished petro-chemical products.
4. The rich communities residing in the nearby areas invest in the industries built there.
5. There is high demand of petro-chemical products in Western India.

Question 7.
What are the problems of petro-chemical industry in India ?
Answer:
The problems of petro-chemical industry in India are :

1. Petroleum mines in India are not sufficient to meet the demands in the country. About 60% of crude oil has to be imported from other countries.
2. The cost of petro-chemical products is increasing rapidly.
3. Lack of multiple use of petroleum products due to lack of technological know how.
4. Lack of enough capital restricts the development of the industry.
5. The geneal population of India does not possess buying capacities to use petrochemical products of high qualities.
6. Petro-chemical industry causes much air pollution.
7. The products are not biodegradable, hence cause, pollutions in all levels of the environment after discarding.
8. Lack of research work to find out other uses and cheap methods of manufacturing petro-chemical products.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) 1 Mark

Question 1.
The largest steel plant of the country is :
(A) Bhilai
(B) Bokaro
(C) Rourkela
(D) Durgapur
Answer:
(A) Bhilai

Question 2.
The Bhadravati Steel Plant is the only plant which is managed by a State Government. Which is that State Govt.?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Odisha
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Karnataka
Answer:
(D) Karnataka

Question 3.
The first shore-based integrated steel project in India is coming up at-
(A) Ernakulam
(B) Tuticorin
(C) Visakhapatnam
(D) Mangalore
Answer:
(C) Visakhapatnam

Question 4.
Which of the following is wrongly matched about steel plants and country of collaboration/assistance?
(A) Rourkela (Odisha) – West Germany
(B) Durgapur (West Bengal) – United Kingdom
(C) Bokaro (Bihar) – U.S.S.R.
(D) Bhilai (M.P.) – United Kingdom
Answer:
(D) Bhilai (M.P.) – United Kingdom

Question 5.
Which of the following iron and steel plants get coking coal from Jharia?
(A) Bokaro and Burnpur
(B) Durgapur and Jamshedpur
(C) Bhilai and Rourkela
(D) All of them
Answer:
(D) All of them

Question 6.
Where is the Ambassador car manufactured ?
(A) Mahindra and Mahindra (Pune)
(B) Premier Automobiles (Bombay)
(C) Standard Motors (Madras)
(D) Hind Motors (Calcutta)
Answer:
(D) Hind Motors (Calcutta)

Question 7.
India is the world’s largest sugarcane producer, but second to Cuba in sugar production because
(A) nearly half the sugarcane in India is used to produce ‘gur’ and uncrystallised brown sugar.
(B) Indian sugarcane has a lower sucrose content than that from Cuba.
(C) The sugar refining method is not good in India.
(D) There is less demand for white sugar in India.
Answer:
(A) nearly half the sugarcane in India is used to produce ‘gur’ and uncrystallised brown sugar.

Question 8.
Which industry provides jobs to the maximum number of people?
(A) Iron and steel
(B) Cotton textiles
(C) Sugar industry
(D) Tea processing
Answer:
(B) Cotton textiles

Question 9.
Heavy engineering industries are located in :
(A) Jamshedpur-Asansol
(B) Bombay-Pune
(C) Kanpur and Lucknow
(D) Bangalore and Madras
Answer:
(A) Jamshedpur-Asansol

Question 10.
Which of the following steel plants was started with Russian collaboration?
(A) Bhilai
(B) Durgapur
(C) Rourkela
(D) Bhadravati
Answer:
(A) Bhilai

Question 11.
Tata Iron and Steel Company is located at :
(A) Calcutta
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Bumpur
(D) Kulti
Answer:
(B) Jamshedpur

Question 12.
Bombay is famous for:
(A) Sugar Industry
(B) Plastic Industry
(C) Cotton Textile Industry
(D) Heavy Electrical industry
Answer:
(C) Cotton Textile Industry

Question 13.
Bhilai is associated with :
(A) Cotton Industry
(B) Silk Industry
(C) Iron and Steel Industry
(D) Sugar Industry
Answer:
(C) Iron and Steel Industry

Question 14.
Bokaro is located in :
(A) Maharashtra
(B) West Bengal
(C) Odisha
(D) Jharkhand
Answer:
(D) Jharkhand

Question 15.
Which of the following cities is called the Manchester of India :
(A) Ahmedabad
(B) Coimbatore
(C) Sholapur
(D) Kanpur
Answer:
(A) Ahmedabad

Question 16.
The first cotton mill in India was started at :
(A) Mysore
(B) Kolkata
(C) Madras
(D) Bombay
Answer:
(B) Kolkata

Question 17.
The first H.M.T. factory was started at :
(A) Pinjore
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Madras
(D) Bangalore
Answer:
(D) Bangalore

Question 18.
Iron and steel products is obtained mainly from public sector plants, because :
(A) Huge capital investment is needed
(B) Private sector plant is not making profit
(C) It is the policy of the Government to have basic industries in public sector
(D) Production involves foreign collaboration
Answer:
(C) It is the policy of the Government to have basic industries in public sector

Question 19.
The latest plant producing stainless steel is located at :
(A) Visakhapatnam
(B) Salem
(C) Hospet
(D) Bokaro
Answer:
(B) Salem

Question 20.
Capacity for building large ships is at :
(A) Visakhapatnam
(B) Cochin
(C) Kolkata
(D) Goa
Answer:
(C) Kolkata

Question 21.
Daitari is known for its :
(A) Silk industry
(B) Textile industry
(C) Steel plant
(D) Jute industry
Answer:
(C) Steel plant

Question 22.
Salem steel plant is located in :
(A) A. P.
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala
Answer:
(B) Tamil Nadu

Question 23.
The leading state in sugar production in India is:
(A) U.P.
(B) Bihar
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(A) U.P.

Question 24.
Motorcycles are produced at:
(A) Faridabad
(B) Ballabhgarh
(C) Bombay
(D) Bangalore
Answer:
(A) Faridabad

Question 25.
Automobiles are produced at :
(A) Kolkata
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Hyderabad
Answer:
(A) Kolkata

Question 26.
Bangalore is famous for :
(A) Iron and Steel Industry
(B) Aluminum industry
(C) Aircraft industry
(D) Copper industry
Answer:
(C) Aircraft industry

Question 27.
The Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd. is famous for :
(A) Engineering industry
(B) Chemical industry
(C) Automobile industry
(D) Chemical fertilizer industry
Answer:
(A) Engineering industry

Question 28.
The main exporters of superfine clothe are :
(A) Sholapur and Coimbatore
(B) Bombay and Ahmedabad
(C) Madras and Calcutta
(D) Bangalore and Mysore
Answer:
(C) Madras and Calcutta

Question 29.
The percentage of mill produced clothe to be exported from India is :
(A) 15 per cent
(B) 10 per cent
(C) 12 per cent
(D) 8 per cent
Answer:
(B) 10 per cent

Question 30.
Diesel locomotives are manufactured at :
(A) Varanasi
(B) Gorakhpur
(C) Jamshedpur
(D) Barauni
Answer:
(A) Varanasi

Question 31.
Railway coaches are produced at :
(A) Perambur
(B) Kottayam
(C) Vellore
(D) Trichur
ANswer:
(A) Perambur

Question 32.
Ships are built in :
(A) Visakhapatnam
(B) Madras
(C) Calicut
(D) Goa
Answer:
(A) Visakhapatnam

Question 33.
In which state in India are the maximum number of cotton yarn and textile mills located?
(A) A. P.
(B) Gujarat
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(D) Tamil Nadu

Question 34.
India’s first sponge iron plate is at :
(A) Kothagudam*
(B) Kurnool
(C) Cudappah
(D) Kavaratti
[Kothagudam is in Andhra Pradesh. The sponge iron will act as a substitute for steel scrap and be used as feedstock for electric arc steel making.]
Answer:
(A) Kothagudam*

Question 35.
The main problem faced by manufacturing industries in India is the shortage of :
(A) Raw materials
(B) Market
(C) Power
(D) Labour
Answer:
(C) Power

Question 36.
Telephone cables are manufactured at :
(A) Patiala
(B) Madras
(C) Calcutta
(D) Asansol
Answer:
(D) Asansol

Question 37.
The main centre of chemical industry is :
(A) Bombay
(B) Calcutta
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Madras
Answer:
(A) Bombay

Question 38.
Transport aircrafts are produced at :
(A) Bangalore
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Kanpur
(D) Nasik
Answer:
(C) Kanpur

Question 39.
Aero-engines are produced at :
(A) Nasik
(B) Pune
(C) Koraput
(D) Mangalore
Answer:
(C) Koraput

Question 40.
Nasik produces :
(A) Air frames
(B) Aircraft wheels
(C) Electronic equipments
(D) Chemical goods
Answer:
(C) Electronic equipments

Question 41.
The first plant for heavy electrical engineering was started at :
(A) Bhopal
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Haridwar
(D) Nasik
Answer:
(A) Bhopal

Question 42.
Other heavy electrical engineering plants are located at :
(A) Hyderabad and Ranipur
(B) Nasik and Pune
(C) Lucknow and Bhubaneswar
(D) Durgapur and Asansol
Answer:
(A) Hyderabad and Ranipur

Fill in the blanks : 1 Mark

1. The Maruti Udyog Limited is located at ________.
2. In India, the first synthetic rubber factory was started at ________.
3. The _________ river provides water to the Tata Iron and Steel Company, Jamshedpur.
4. The army trucks-Shaktimaan and Nissan are manufactured at________.
5. _______ is the first Iron and Steel industry in India.
6. Scooters are manufactured with Japanese collaboration at ________.
7. _______ state is a leading producer of woolen textile.
Answer:
1. Gurgaon
2. Bareilly
3. Subarnarekha
4. Jabalpur
5. Bengal iron works
6. Pithampur
7. Punjab

State True or False : 1 Mark

1. Durgapur is the largest producer of Alloy steel in India. [ ]
2. Cotton textile industry is known as the root of all industries. [ ]
3. Ahmedabad is known as the ‘Manchester of South India’. [ ]
4. The Gardenreach Ship Builders is the only ship-building yard in West Bengal. [ ]
5. Haora is known as the ‘Detroit of India’. [ ]
6. Chennai is known as the ‘Silicon valley of India’. [ ]
7. Durgapur is known as the ‘Ruhr of India’. [ ]
8. The chief raw material of the petrochemical industry is naptha. [ ]
9. Cotton is a pure raw material. [ ]
10. The largest petrochemical industry is located at Haldia. [ ]
Answer:
1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. True
6. False
7. True
8. True
9. True
10. False

Answer in few words : 1 Mark

Question 1.
What is the most important factor for setting up an industry ?
Answer:
Availability of raw materials.

Question 2.
What are agro-based industries?
Answer:
Industries that collect their raw materials from agricultural products directly or indirectly. Eg-Sugar industry.

Question 3.
What are animal-based industries?
Answer:
Industries that collect their raw materials from animals. Eg.- Dairy industry, Lather industry.

Question 4.
What are forest-based industries ?
Answer:
Industries that collect their raw materials from forests. Eg.- Furniture, paper industry.

Question 5.
What are mineral-based industries?
Answer:
Industries that collect their raw materials from minerals mined in different regions. Eg.- Iron \& Steel industry.

Question 6.
What are industries dealing with preparing food items called ?
Answer:
Food processing industry. Eg. – Potato chips, tinned chicken items, etc.

Question 7.
What kinds of an industry is rice mills ?
Answer:
Agro-based and food-processing industry.

Question 8.
What kind of industry does preparation of soft drinks belong to ?
Answer:
Food processing.

Question 9.
Where was the first modern cotton mill set up in India ?
Answer:
Ghushuri (Fort Gloster) in Howrah.

Question 10.
How are cotton mills classified?
Answer:
Handloom and power loom.

Question 11.
Which state is the largest producer of cotton in India ?
Answer:
Maharashtra.

Question 12.
Which city is called the ‘Manchester of India’?
Answer:
Ahmedabad in Gujarat.

Question 13.
Which city is called the ‘Manchester of the south’ ?
Answer:
Coimbatore in Tamil Nadu.

Question 14.
Name the states in the eastern zone where cotton textile mills are concentrated.
Answer:
West Bengal, Jharkhand, Odisha, Bihar.

Question 15.
Name some animal-based industries.
Answer:
Meat processing, milk and milk products, fast food, fish and other sea food etc.

Question 16.
Name a forest-based industry.
Answer:
Paper industry.

Question 17.
Where was the first paper mill established in India ?
Answer:
Serampore in Hooghly, West Bengal.

Question 18.
How many paper mills are there in present India ?
Answer:
379 paper mills.

Question 19.
Where was the first iron and steel plant set up in India ?
Answer:
Kulti in West Bengal (1864).

Question 20.
Where was the first integrated iron and steel plant set up in India ?
Answer:
Jamshedpur (1907).

Question 21.
Where is the Bhadravati iron and steel plant located?
Answer:
Karnataka.

Question 22.
Name some major iron ore mines of Jharkhand.
Answer:
Noamundi, Guwa, Budaburu, Pansiraburu.

Question 23.
Name some major coal mines in Jharkhand.
Answer:
Jharia, Bokaro, Ramgarh, Giridih.

Question 24.
Name some important limestone mines.
Answer:
Kalahandi, Gangpur, Koraput in Odisha.

Question 25.
Where does the Bhadravati steel plant acquire its hydel power from ?
Answer:
Jog hydel power station.

Question 26.
Where is the Hindustan Motors Ltd. located ?
Answer:
Uttarpara, West Bengal.

Question 27.
Where is the Maruti Udyog Ltd. located ?
Answer:
Gurgaon in Haryana.

Question 28.
What is chittaranjan (WB) famous for ?
Answer:
Locomotive factory.

Question 29.
Where is ‘Diesel Locomotive works (DLW) located?
Answer:
Varanasi.

Question 30.
What is TELCO ?
Answer:
Tata Engineering and Locomotive Works, located at Jamshedpur, Jharkhand.

Question 31.
Which industry uses Naptha as an essential raw material ?
Answer:
Petro-chemical.

Question 32.
Where is the longest private petro-chemical industry located ?
Answer:
Jamnagar in Gujarat.

Question 33.
Name some industries associated with Information Technology.
Answer:
Computer hardware, software, electronics, semi-conductors, internet, telecom equipments, etc.

Question 34.
Name some renowned IT companies.
Answer:
Cognizant, Dell, HCL, IBM, TCS, etc.

Question 35.
Which place is known as the Silicon Valley of India ?
Answer:
Bangalore.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 10 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 5.7 Agriculture in India offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 5.7 Question Answer – Agriculture in India

Answer in short : 2 Marks

Question 1.
What do you mean by subsistence agriculture?
Answer:
The practice of agriculture in which small land holdings are cultivated with primitive methods and tools, and the produce is almost entirely consumed by the family members of the farmers, with little surplus for sale, is called subsistence farming. This type of agriculture is mainly practised for survival.

Question 2.
Why is irrigation necessary in Indian agriculture?
Answer:
Indian agriculture mainly depends on the monsoon. Monsoon is very uncertain, irregular and unreliable. Hence, farmers have to depend on irrigation to avoid crop failures.

Question 3.
Why are food crops predominant in Indian agriculture?
Answer:
Since India is a highly populated country, the necessity to feed the large population gives food crops the first priority. More than 2/3 of total cropped area are devoted to cultivation of food crops.

Question 4.
Where do the major rice producing areas of India lie ?
Answer:
The most important rice producing areas of India are : the eastern Ganga plains, the Brahmaputra valley, the narrow coastal strips forming major parts of Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Cauvery deltas.

Question 5.
Name the states growing millets in India.
Answer:
Millets are grown in dry regions of Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Punjab and Haryana.

Question 6.
Mention the tea growing region of Assam.
Answer:
In Assam, most of the tea is grown in the valleys of rivers Brahmaputra and Surma. The main tea producing districts are : Derrang, Lakhimpur, Shibsagar, Nowgong, Goalpara, Kamrup and Cachar.

Question 7.
Mention the tea growing regions of West Bengal.
Answer:
In West Bengal, tea is grown in about 350 estates in the northern hilly region lying in Darjeeling, Jalpaiguri (Duars) and Kochbihar districts.

Question 8.
Where is tea grown in South India?
Answer:
In South India, tea is mostly grown in the hilly regions of Nilgiri, Cardamom, Palni and Anaimalai. They lie in the states of Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka.

Question 9.
In which districts of Karnataka does coffee grow the most?
Answer:
Coffee grows in almost 60 % of the cultivated area of Karnataka. The districts predominantly under coffee cultivation are : Kadun, Shimga, Hasan, Mysore and Chickmagalur (largest concentration of trees).

Question 10.
Classify cotton according to its fibre.
Answer:
Cotton can be classified into 3 categories according to the size of their fibres –

1. Long staple (length more than 3 cm ), also called Sea island cotton.
2. Medium staple (2.2-3 cm), also called American Upland cotton.
3. Short staple (less than 2.2 cm ), also called Indian cotton.

Question 11.
Where is cotton grown in Gujarat?
Answer:
Ahmedabad, Mahesana, Bharuch, Kaira, Vadodara, Sabarkanta, Surat, Panchmahals, Gohilwad, Amreli districts of Gujarat.

Question 12.
Name the cotton producing states of India.
Answer:
Gujarat (1st), Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Punjab.

Question 13.
Mention the sugarcane producing areas of India.
Answer:
In India, sugarcane is grown in Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, parts of Andhra Pradesh, Assam etc. The maximum sugarcane is grown in Uttar Pradesh (45 %) in the districts of Saharanpur, Muzaffarnagar, Meerut, Moradabad, Bijnore and Kheri.

Question 14.
What is Green Revolution ?
Answer:
Green Revolution is the name given to the project under which agricultural yield was tried to be increased remarkably by using high yielding variety of seeds, good fertilisers, irrigation, machine tools etc.

Question 15.
What are HYV seeds?
Answer:
Seeds that grow very fast and yield a huge produce are called High Yielding Variety or HYV seeds.

Question 16.
What is monocropping ?
Answer:
The agricultural fields that are not very fertile and have inadequate irrigation facilities, can produce only one crop in a year with the help of rainfall. This is known as monocropping. Eg.- Tea cultivation in Duars region of Jalpaiguri, Sugarcane cultivation in Uttar Pradesh, etc.

Question 17.
What is multiple cropping ?
Answer:
The process of growing two or more crops in a year with the help of irrigation, fertilisers, modern technology and HYV seeds is called multiple cropping.

Question 18.
What is inter-culture?
Answer:
Cultivation of two or three type of crops at a time in alternate series or rows is called inter-culture of crops.

Question 19.
Classify food crops according to seasons.
Answer:

Question 20.
What are cash crops ?
Answer:
The crops that are cultivated for trade and commerce and help to increase national income in high levels are called cash crops. Eg.- Tea, coffee, cotton, jute, etc.

Question 21.
What are Kharif crops?
Answer:
The crops that are planted in the beginning of the rainy season and harvested at the end of the winters are called kharif crops. Eg. – Aman rice, jute, sugarcane, cotton, etc.

Question 22.
What are Rabi crops?
Answer:
The crops that are planted in the beginning of the winter season and harvested at the end of spring are called Rabi crops. Eg.- Boro rice, wheat, potato, gram, mustard, etc.

Question 23.
What are fibre crops?
Answer:
The crops that yield fibre are called fibre crops. Eg.- cotton, jute, mesta, etc.

Question 24.
What is horticulture?
Answer:
The cultivation of fruits, vegetables, flowers, herbs, etc. in the fringe areas of large cities in farm houses, to be supplied to the markets of these large cities is called horticulture.

Question 25.
What are plantation crops ?
Answer:
Crops that are cultivated in well maintained fields in proper rows with the help of modern agricultural methods are called plantation crops. These crops once planted, yield returns for many years. Eg. – Tea, coffee, banana, etc.

Question 26.
What kind of relief is suitable for cultivation of rice?
Answer:
Plain lands are most suitable for cultivation of rice. Thus, rice grows best in river basins, deltas and low-lying coastal regions. In hilly regions, rice can be cultivated by cutting terraces on the hill slopes.

Question 27.
Name some high yielding variety of seeds of rice.
Answer:

1. IR – 8
2. Jaya
3. Ratna
4. Pankaj
5. Aditya
6. Padma
7. Kiran
8. Minikit

Question 28.
Mention two problems in the cultivation of rice in India.
Answer:
(i) Yield of rice per hectare is very less in India.
(ii) Crops often fail due to too much dependency on monsoon rainfall.

Question 29.
Name four highest rice producing states of India.
Answer:
According to Economic Survey, 2014-15, the highest rice producing states of India are –

State	Production (in metricton)	Percentage
i. West Bengal	153	14.4%
ii. Uttar Pradesh	146	13.7%
iii. Andhra Pradesh	130	12.2%
iv. Punjab	114	9.7%

Question 30.
Which region is known as the ‘Granary of India’?
Answer:
The north and north-western part of India including Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and Haryana is known as the ‘Granary of India’, as it produces the bulk of agricultural crops of India here. About 70-75 % wheat of India is produced here.

Question 31.
What are millets ?
Answer:
Millets are grass-like crops that produce coarse food grains. They are inferior crops that grow in hot and dry regions. Eg.- Jowar, Bajra, Ragi, etc.

Question 32.
What do you mean by ratooning’?
Answer:
In cultivation of sugarcane, the crops are harvested leaving about 1 foot of the stem in the ground. This cut-stem grows the new plant of sugarcane for the next season. This process of regrowth of plants from the same base is called ratooning. But ratooning does not give good yield after 2-3 years.

Question 33.
What kind of soil and temperature condition is necessary for sugarcane?
Answer:
Sugarcane grows best in loony soils rich in lime and salt. Black soil, red soil and alluvial soil is suitable for this. Temperature condition between 20°-40° C is required for sugarcane cultivation.

Question 34.
Name three sugarcane producing states of India.
Answer:
(a) Uttar Pradesh (1st)
(b) Maharashtra (2nd)
(c) Karnataka (3rd).

Question 35.
Name two beverage crops of India.
Answer:
Tea, Coffee.

Question 36.
Name three cotton producing states of India.
Answer:
(a) Gujarat (1st)
(b) Maharashtra (2nd)
(c) Telengana-Andhra Pradesh (3rd).

Question 37.
Name the tea producing states of India.
Answer:
(a) Assam (1st)
(b) West Bengal (2nd)
(c) Tamil Nadu (3rd)
(d) Kerala
(e) Himachal Pradesh.

Question 38.
When are the tea leaves picked from the trees?
Answer:
Tea leaves are picked after the commencement of the rainy season, when the tea trees start getting new leaves. In north India, the leaves are picked for 7-8 months. In south India, tea leaves are picked almost throughout the year.

Question 39.
When and why was the Tea Board set up in India ?
Answer:
The Tea Board of India was set up in 1953 for the following purposes –

• To provide long-term loans to the tea gardens.
• To distribute new machines on hire or purchase.
• To acquire fertilisers, new saplings, etc. at cheap rates.
• To establish new markets for tea.

Question 40.
Name two famous tea producing regions in Assam.
Answer:
(a) Brahmaputra valley
(b) Surma valley.

Question 41.
When are coffee seeds planted?
Answer:
Coffee seeds are planted in India from January to March. The plants grow and start producing coffee after 3-4 years.

Question 42.
Where is coffee grown best in India ?
Answer:
In India, coffee is best grown in the Chikmagalur and Kodagu districts of Karnataka. (about 80 % )

Question 43.
What are the problems of fragmented land holdings in agriculture in India ?
Answer:
The fragmented land holdings in India cause reduction of producing areas as much land is occupied to build boundaries and fences. Also, the small size of the land holdings create difficulties in use of modern equipments of agriculture.

Question 44.
Name two organisations that produce fertilisers in India.
Answer:
(i) Fertiliser Corporation of India Limited. (FCI).
(ii) Hindustan Fertiliser Corporation (HFC).

Question 45.
Name some modern equipments used in agriculture in India.
Answer:
Modem instruments used in Indian agriculture are – tractors, harvestors, power tillers, combines, etc.

Answer in brief : 3 Marks

Question 1.
How does the monsoon control the crop calendar of India ?
Answer:
Indian agriculture is highly dependent on monsoon rains. Choice of crops in different areas is directed by the availability of rainfall in those areas. Eg – Water loving crops like rice, jute etc. are cultivated in eastern in the dry western regions. Irregular and uncertain monsoons often result in crop failures. Hence, arrangements for irrigation is also very essential.

Question 2.
Name the major rice producing districts of Punjab and Haryana.
Answer:
Punjab : Ferozepur, Ludhiana, Patiala, Amritsar.
Haryana : Hisar, Ambala, Jind, Rohtak and Faridabad.

Question 3.
Discuss the favourable conditions for growing millets.
Answer:
Millets (jowar, bajra, ragi etc.) are inferior crops that can grow in arid regions. Temperature : The approximate temperature for growing millets is 25-32° C.
Rainfall : Millets can be grown in dry areas with rainfall 40-60 cm.
Soil type : Black soil and red loamy soil are best for growing millets.

Question 4.
What are the problems of coffee cultivation?
Answer:
The problems of coffee cultivation in India are –

1. Low production in the plantations.
2. Production fluctuates according to climatic conditions.
3. Great competition from Kenya, Columbia and Brazil.
4. Shortage of good quality coffee.

Question 5.
Name the countries to which India exports coffee.
Answer:
India exports coffee to USA, Canada, Japan, Kuwait, Australia, UK, Italy, Germany and Russia.

Question 6.
What are the problems of cotton cultivation in India ?
Answer:
The problems of cotton cultivation in India are:

1. Yield of cotton per hectare is very low.
2. Most of the cotton produced is of medium and short staple quality.
3. Insect and pest attacks are very common, which hamper production.

Question 7.
What are the favourable conditions for growing sugarcane?
Answer:
The favourable geographic conditions for growing sugarcane are:

• Temperature : Average annual temperature is 21-27° C.
• Rainfall : 75-100 cm.
• Soil : Sugarcane grows best in loamy soil, black soil and alluvial soil. It does not grow in alkaline soils.

The economic conditions needed for growing sugarcane are :

• Labour : Weeding, manuring, field preparation, planting and harvesting require much labour.
• Capital : Large capital is invariably needed to grow plantation crops.
• Fertilisers : Sugarcane is a soil exhausting crop. Hence good fertilisers are needed.

Question 8.
What were the effects of Green Revolution ?
Answer:
The profuse increase in agricultural produce with the help of modern agricultural methods and infrastructure is known as Green Revolution. The effect of Green Revolution are :

• Remarkable increase in production of food crops.
• Extension of agricultural land.
• Modernisation and mechanisation of agriculture.
• Employment and increase in Standard of living.
• Reduction in import of food grains.

Question 9.
List the problems of Indian agriculture.
Answer:
The major problems faced by Indian agriculture are :

• Small and fragmented land holding that reduce production.
• Inferior seeds, manures, fertilizers, biocides etc. fails to utilise the maximum producing capacity of fields.
• Lack of irrigation in many places leads to crop failures.
• Lack of mechanisation reduces rate of Production.
• Soil erosion reduces fertility by remaining the top soil.
• Inadequate storage facilities often damage the produced crop.
• Inadequate transport facilities hamper production and fail to reach the crops to markets in time.
• Scarcity of capital causes failure in achieving high levels of production.

Question 10.
What steps are taken to solve the problems of Indian agriculture?
Answer:
The various steps taken to solve the problems of Indian agriculture are :

1. New concepts like co-operative farming have been introduced to control fragmentation of land holdings.
2. Bank loans and insurances are made available at easy rates of interests so that farmers can buy high yielding seeds, better fertilisers, modern equipments etc.
3. More and more land are being brought under irrigation facilities to control crop failures.
4. Scientific researches are being conducted to find out better and surer methods of cultivation.
5. Crop management methods are practised according to available geographic conditions.
6. Storage facilities for seeds and finished crops are being provided.
7. New agricultural policies like Green Revolution are being introduced.

Question 11.
Mention the characteristics of Indian agriculture.
Answer:
The characteristics of Indian agriculture are :

1. Most of the agriculture practised in India is of subsistence agriculture type.
2. Agriculture is dependent on animal power.
3. The crop calendar is dependent on monsoon.
4. Food crops are grown much more than cash crops.

Question 12.
Discuss the importances of agriculture in Indian economy.
Answer:
The importances of agriculture in Indian economy are:

1. Agriculture provides employment to maximum population in India. (about 70 % )
2. It is a big source of National Income.
3. Agriculture provides food for the huge population of the country.
4. Agriculture provides raw materials to various agro-based industries. Eg. – cotton textile, sugar, flour mills, etc.
5. It directly as well as indirectly influences international trade. Eg.- India earns a lot of foreign exchange from the export of cotton textile, jute products, sugar, tea, coffee, spices, lax, raisin, wheat, tobacco, etc.
6. It also plays an important role in internal trade and commerce:

Question 13.
Compare between Subsistence agriculture and Commercial agriculture.
Answer:

Subsistence agriculture	Commercial agriculture
i. Practised for subsistence or meeting the demands of the family.	i. Practised for commercial purposes and for earning money.
ii. The land holdings are small and fragmented.	ii. The land holdings are of medium size.
iii. Main crops are rice, wheat, oil seeds etc.	iii. Main crops are tea, coffee, cotton etc.
iv. This is a primitive type of agriculture.	iv. This is comparatively a modern type of agriculture.
v. Generally food crops are cultivated.	v. Generally plantation crops like tea, jute, etc. are cultivated.
vi. Yield per hectare is low.	vi. Yield per hectare is high.

Question 14.
What are the main problems of wheat cultivation in India ?
Answer:
The main problems of wheat cultivation in India are :

1. Yield per hectare is very low. (only 2,424 kg per hectare compared to 6,246 kg per hectare in Japan.)
2. Cultivation is much dependent on monsoon rainfall.
3. Selling price of wheat is low, which often does not cover the total cost incurred in the cultivation process.
4. The land holdings are small and fragmented.
5. Lack of proper store houses and cold storages often result in spoiling of crops.

Question 15.
List the regions of rice cultivation in India.
Answer:

1. Wet regions of Western Himalaya : Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Uttarakhand.
2. Semi-arid regions of Ganga-Indus plains : Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar.
3. Dry semi-arid regions of Western India : Haryana, Rajasthan.
4. Wet plains of Ganga-Brahmaputra basin : West Bengal, Assam.
5. Wet regions of Eastern Himalaya : Meghalaya, Manipur, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Tripura.
6. Highlands of Central India : Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh.
7. Deccan plateau region : Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala.
8. Coastal plains : Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha.

Question 16.
Mention the steps taken to solve the problems of rice cultivation in India.
Answer:
The steps taken up to solve problems of rice cultivation in India are :

1. Irrigation facilities have been provided to most of the fields to reduce the dependence on monsoon rainfall.
2. The ICAR (Indian Council of Agricultural Research) has discovered and generated many types of HYV seeds, that help to increase yield and improve the quality of the crops.
3. Supply of power, transport, storage, etc. has also been taken care of.
4. Modernisation of agricultural processes, insurance facilities, abolision of middle men etc. have also been taken care of.

Question 17.
What are the problems of wheat cultivation in India ?
Answer:
The problems of wheat cultivation in India are :

1. Yield of wheat per hectare is quite low compared to world standards.
2. Use of HYV seeds is not popular among all the farmers.
3. Heavy pressure of population reduces per capita availability of land.
4. Fragmented and small land holdings reduce the area of production.
5. Lack of infrastructure and storage facilities after lead to spoiling of crops.

Question 18.
Why is cultivation of sugarcane less popular in south India rather than north India ?
Answer:
Sugarcane cultivation is less popular in South India compared to North India because :

1. In South India more land is devoted to food crops rather than cash crops like sugarcane.
2. Other cash crops like coffee, tobacco, groundnuts, etc. yield more returns than sugarcane.
3. Sugarcane plants start giving proper returns only after 2-3 years. Hence, farmers prefer growing crops that give quick returns.
4. Sugarcane is a soil exhaustive crop and expensive to maintain. Hence, farmers concentrate on growing cheap and easily growing crops.

Question 19.
What are the problems of sugarcane cultivation in India ?
Answer:
The problems of sugarcane cultivation in India are :

1. The sucrose content of the sugarcane plants grown in India is quite less.
2. Yield of sugarcane per hectare is quite low. (only 70 metric tonnes per hectare compared to 140 metric tonne per hectare in Java)
3. Land alloted for sugarcane cultivation in India is quite low.
4. Backdated and obsolete methods of sugarcane cultivation are still practised in India.

Question 20.
What are the problems of cotton cultivation in India ?
Answer:
The problems of cotton cultivation in India are :

1. Yield of cotton per hectare is only 266 kg in India, compared to 800 kg in the countries of Central Asia.
2. 66 % of cotton cultivated in India is of medium staple. Long staple cotton has to be imported from other countries.
3. The methods of cultivation are backdated and primitive.
4. Attack of insects on cotton balls is a big problem in India.
5. There is lack of proper trade policies, which fails to achieve desired business levels.

Question 21.
What are the problems of tea cultivation in India ?
Answer:
The problems of tea cultivation in India are:

1. The tea plantations have become much old and hence the yield of tea leaves have reduced.
2. The plantations are small in size and incur high cost of production.
3. Picking of young leaves and buds at a high rate decrease the rate of growth of the plants.
4. Soil erosion, loss of fertility and landslides in hilly regions often hamper tea cultivation.
5. Yield of tea per hectare is quite less compared to Uganda, Kenya, Zimbabwe, etc.

Question 22.
Why is Assam best suited for production of tea in India ?
Answer:
Assam is most suitable for production of tea in India because :

1. The suitable conditions needed for tea cultivation is present in Assam. Average rainfall of more than 200 cm and average temperature of 30° C is most suitable for tea growth.
2. Assam consists of loamy soil rich in iron podsol and humus in most of the places. This is the best soil for the growth of tea plants.
3. The gently sloping hilly regions and the foothills near the Brahmaputra valley give the best relief for the growth of tea.
4. The dense population of the region provide the labour force needed in the tea gardens and processing unit.

Answer in details : 5 Marks

Question 1.
Discuss the major characteristics of Indian agriculture.
Answer:
The major characteristics of Indian agriculture are :
i. Subsistence agriculture : Most parts of India have subsistence agriculture. The farmer owns a small plot of land and grows crops sufficient for his family only, with very less surplus for sale.

ii. Pressure of population : The teeming millions of population exert much pressure on agriculture for employment as well as food supply.

iii. Lack of mechanisation : Complete mechanisation has not been achieved yet. Animals’ force plays an important role in plouging, threshing and transporting of agricultural products.

iv. Use of irrigation : Indian agriculture mainly depends on monsoon, which is uncertain, irregular and unreliable. Hence, irrigation is a necessity. But only 1/3 of the cropped area is provided with perennial irrigation facilities.

v. Small size of land holdings : Laws of inheritance of property have caused fragmentation of large land holdings. This causes loss of cultivable land and reduces production significantly.

vi. Uncontrolled use of pesticides and chemict tertilizers : Use of pesticides, chemical fertilisers initially boosts agricultural produces, but damage the soil in the long run.

vii. Predominance of food crops : Since Indian agriculture has to feed a large population, 2/3 of the total cultivable land concentrate on production of food crops.

viii. Insignificant place of fodder crops : Although India has the largest population of livestock in the world, only 4% of land is under pastures. This is due to tremendous need for food crops. Hence, animals are not properly fed, and their productivity is low.

ix. Variety of food crops : India is a vast country with a variety of relief, climate, and soil conditions. Thus, a large variety of crops are grown all over the country depending upon suitable conditions.

x. Dependence on monsoon : Indian agriculture is highly dependent on monsoon rains. Choice of crops in areas is directed by the availability of rainfall in those areas. Eg-Rice and jute grows well in West Bengal, while Rajasthan grows millets.

Question 2.
Discuss the favourable geographic and economic conditions for growing rice.
Answer:
The favourable conditions for growing rice are:
(a) Geographical :

1. Temperature : During sowing period, average temperature must be of 16°- 20° C, and during maturity, between 18°-32° C.
2. Rainfall : Annual rainfall of 150-200 cm.
3. Soil : Fertile clayey and alluvial soil is quite ideal. A marshy soil is also suitable.

(b) Economic :

1. Labour : Rice is a labour intensive crop. It requires cheap and abundant labour.
2. Capital : A good capital is required for rice production.
3. Others : Other facilities required for rice cultivation are : Chemical fertilisers, irrigation facilities, high yielding seeds, pesticides etc.

Question 3.
Discuss the main rice producing areas of India.
Answer:
The main rice producing areas of India are :

1. West Bengal : West Bengal ranks 1st in rice production. The major districts producing rice are : Burdwan, Medinipur, North and South 24 parganas.
2. Andhra Pradesh : It ranks second in rice production. Guntur, Kurnool and Nellore districts are the leading producers.

3. Uttar Pradesh : It ranks 3rd in rice production. Major rice producing districts are Bahraich, Pilibhit and Kheri. Rice is also well grown in the Doon valley.
4. Tamil Nadu : It ranks 4th in rice production. The major districts are chennai, Madurai, Coimbatore and Thiruchirapalli. The Cauvery delta produces plenty of rice.
5. Bihar : Ranking 5th, Darbhanga and Purnea are the major producing districts.
6. Others : Other significant rice producing states are: Odisha, Punjab, Haryana, Assam, Madhya Pradesh, Kerala and Gujarat.

Question 4.
Describe the conditions favourable for growing wheat.
Answer:
The favourable conditions for growing wheat are :
(a) Geographical :

1. Temperature : Temperature should be around 155° C. Weather should be warm and moist during early stages and sunny and dry during stages of maturity and harvest.
2. There should be at least 100 frost-free days. Long gloomy or foggy weather is harmful for the crop.
3. Soils : Chernozem is the best suited soil. Also grows well in light clayey or heavy loamy soil.
4. Land : Well drained slightly rolling plains.

(b) Economic :

1. Irrigation : With facilities of irrigation, wheat can grow even in areas of less than 50 cm rainfall.
2. HYV seeds : High Yielding Variety of seeds like Larma-Rajo, Sonera-63, Sonera -64 , Sona-227, Sonalika-308 etc. increase yield.
3. Labour : Much labour is not needed due to quite mechanisation of production process.
4. Others : Other requirements for wheat cultivation are : modem farming equipments like tractors, harvestors, winnowers, threshers, elevators etc, transport facilities, good capital etc.

Question 5.
Name the major wheat producing districts of India.
Answer:
The districts of the states producing wheat are :
(i) Uttar Pradesh : Meerut, Saharanpur, Bulandshahar, Aligarh, Agra etc.

(b) Economic:

1. Labour : Much labour is needed for planting, seeding, transplanting, looking after, plucking of berries, loading and unloading and processing of coffee.
2. Fertilisers : Coffee is a soil exhausting perennial crop. Hence much fertilisers are required to maintain soil fertility.
3. Transport : Quick and smooth transport facilities are required.
4. Capital : All plantation crops require a good amount of capital.

Question 8.
What are the favourable conditions for growing cotton?
Answer:
The fovourable conditions for growing cotton are :
(a) Geographical :

1. Temperature : 23°-32° C with an average around 27° C.
2. Sunshine : Plenty of sunshine during the growing period and cooler conditions during harvest.
3. Rainfall : 50-80 cm of rainfall well distributed during the growing period. But rainfall is injurious after the budding period.
4. Frost : At least 200 frost-free days are required.
5. Soil : Black cotton soil or regur soil is the best for cotton.
6. Land : Flat or undulating land with good drainage and no water logging is good for cotton.

(b) Economic :

1. Labour : Much labour is required for planting, thinning of seedlings, hoeing, inspection of pests, picking of bolls etc.
2. Transport : Good transport system helps in carrying raw cotton to factories and finished products to markets.
3. Fertilisers and pesticides : Cotton is highly soil-exhaustive. Hence fertilisers are necessary to maintain soil fertility. Pesticides are used to control pest attacks.
4. HYV : High Yielding Variety of seeds like MCU-4, MCU-5, Hybrid-4, Sujata, Varalaxmi etc. help to raise yield of cotton per hectare.

Question 9.
Discuss the steps taken under Green Revolution.
Answer:
In 1964-65, the project taken up for the profuse increase in agricultural produce by the use of modern agricultural methods and infrastructure is known as the Green Revolution. The steps taken up for Green Revolution are :

1. Use of High Yielding Variety (HYV) of seeds
2. Use of irrigation
3. Chemical fertilisers
4. Insecticides and pesticides
5. Command Area development
6. Consolidation of fragmented land holdings
7. Land reclamation
8. Agricultural loans
9. Electrification of rural areas
10. Development of roads and markets
11. Use of agricultural equipments and machineries
12. Establishment of agricultural schools.

The main crops under Green Revolution are : wheat, rice, corn, jowar and potato. Wheat gave absolutely blasting results in Punjab and Haryana and brought about much prosperity of the states.

Question 10.
Why is the Ganga plains of Northern India famous for cultivation of rice?
Answer:
The northern plains of the Ganga basin is one of the best regions for growing rice because :

1. Soil : The region is a plainland, made up of silt, clayey and loamy soils. The nature of the soil is acidic and it has a good water holding capacity.
2. Climate : This region lies in the Hot Wet Tropical climatic region. Average rainfall of 100-250 cm is very suitable for rice growth.
3. Irrigation : The soft soil allows easy construction of wells and tubewells for irrigation. Also, several canals are drawn from the rivers to the adjacent fields.
4. Modern technology : After the Green Revolution in 1963-64, due of high yielding seeds, chemical fertilisers, insecticides, pesticides, new machines, etc. have been popularised. This has increased production levels.
5. Population : The high population of the region provides adequate and cheap labour.
6. Main food : Rice being the main food of a huge section of people, has high demand.
7. Infrastructure : Improved transport and communication systems, power supply, agro-based industries, etc. have boosted the cultivation of rice in this region.

Question 11.
What are the main problems of Indian agriculture?
Answer:
The main problems of Indian agriculture can be listed as follows :

1. Low yield of crops per hectare.
2. Great number of small and medium farmers as well as landless farmers.
3. Most of the farmers are not properly trained in agriculture.
4. Lack of use of modem technology in agriculture due to lack of knowledge of how to use it.
5. Lack of irrigation facilities.
6. Little use of HYV seeds.
7. Reduction of agricultural land due to high pressure of population.
8. Lack of godowns, cold storages, etc.
9. Very less amount of per capita land for agriculture.
10. Low price of agricultural product compared to cost of production.
11. Lack of loan and insurance facilities.
12. Damage of crops due to floods, droughts and other natural calamities.

Question 12.
Discuss the steps taken for improvement of agriculture in India.
Answer:
The steps taken for improvement of agriculture in India are :
(i) Increase in agricultural land : Agricultural land has been increased by bringing the barren, infertile and reclaimed lands under cultivation.
(ii) Per capita land : Per capita land of the farmers has been increased by stopping fragmentation of land and starting co-operative farming.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) 1 Mark

Question 1.
The most important rabi crop is
(A) Barley
(B) Jute
(C) Wheat
(D) Rice
Answer:
(D) Rice

Question 2.
Which region in India is known as the ‘Rice Bowl of India’?
(A) Indo-Gangetic Plain
(B) Krishna-Godavari Delta region
(C) North-east region
(D) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(B) Krishna-Godavari Delta region

Question 3.
What is the main advantage of transplantation method of sowing rice?
(A) This method ensures maximum utilisation of land
(B) It is helpful in achieving an economical use of water and a higher yield of grain
(C) It helps in early harvesting
(D) The draining of water from the field before harvesting is made easy
Answer:
(B) It is helpful in achieving an economical use of water and a higher yield of grain

Question 4.
Which of the following is the second most important crop of India?
(A) Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Jowar
(D) Bajra
Answer:
(A) Wheat

Question 5.
Wheat is not suitable for growing in the south because
(A) The winters there are too warm
(B) It is too humid in the south
(C) Rainfall is low there
(D) Dry conditions prevail in early summers
Answer:
(A) The winters there are too warm

Question 6.
The Green Revolution involved the use of high yielding varieties of seeds which require
(A) Less fertilizer and less water
(B) More fertilizer and less water
(C) Less fertilizer and more water
(D) More fertilizer and more water
Answer:
(D) More fertilizer and more water

Question 7.
The Kharif season beings
(A) With the onset of south-west monsoon
(B) At the end of the south-west monsoon
(C) In December
(D) In March
Answer:
(A) With the onset of south-west monsoon

Question 8.
Which of the following states is the leading producer of tea ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Sikkim
(C) Assam
(D) Karnataka
Answer:
(C) Assam

Question 9.
Percentage of food crops in total cropped area is :
(A) 80
(B) 75
(C) 85
(D) 70
Answer:
(B) 75

Question 10.
The crops of Kharif are :
(A) Wheat
(B) Barley
(C) Rice
(D) Peas
Answer:
(C) Rice

Question 11.
In rice production India’s position in the world is :
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fifth
Answer:
(B) Second

Question 12.
The largest producer of rice in India is :
(A) Bihar
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) West Bengal
(D) Karnataka
Answer:
(C) West Bengal

Question 13.
Cotton cultivation is widespread in Maharashtra and Gujarat, mainly because :
(A) It requires moderate rainfall
(B) It requires irrigation
(C) Regur soils retain moisture
(D) There is demand from local cotton mills
Answer:
(C) Regur soils retain moisture

Question 14.
Which of the following is the important cotton producing area of India?
(A) Indo-Gangetic Plain
(B) Deccan Trap
(C) Damodar Valley
(D) Yamuna Valley
Answer:
(B) Deccan Trap

Question 15.
Which state has the largest acreage under coffee?
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Odisha
Answer:
(A) Kerala

Question 16.
Cotton’s largest producer in India is :
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Punjab
(C) U.P.
(D) Gujarat
Answer:
(A) Maharashtra

Question 17.
India in production of cotton is :
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth
Answer:
(D) Fourth

Question 18.
Which state is first in coffee production ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Assam
(C) Odisha
(D) Karnataka
Answer:
(D) Karnataka

Question 19.
Sugarcane needs :
(A) Hot climate
(B) Cool climate
(C) Moderate climate
(D) Moist climate
Answer:
(D) Moist climate

Question 20.
The largest producer of sugarcane in India is :
(A) Bihar
(B) Punjab
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(D) Uttar Pradesh

Question 21.
Which of the following states has largest number of sugar mills ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Bihar
Answer:
(C) Uttar Pradesh

Question 22.
Assertion (A) : Production of food grains has increased in India in recent years. Reason (R) : The area under food grains has increased in recent years.
(A) A and R are correct and R explains A
(B) A and R are correct and R does not explain A
(C) A is correct but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Answer:
(C) A is correct but R is false

Question 23.
Rainfall of more than 30 cm per month for at least 3 consecutive months is suitable for the cultivation of :
(A) Paddy
(B) Sugarcane
(C) Sunn hemp
(D) Dhencha
Answer:
(A) Paddy

Question 24.
Rainfall of 10-20 cm per months for at least 3 consecutive months is suitable for the cultivation of :
(A) Bajra
(B) Wheat
(C) Pea
(D) None of these crops
Answer:
(A) Bajra

Question 25.
Large area in Gujarat, Maharashtra, A.P. and Karnataka is occupied by:
(A) Jowar
(B) Groundnut
(C) Cotton
(D) Bajra
Answer:
(A) Jowar

Question 26.
Cotton, wheat and millets are most predominant crops of regions receiving monthly rainfall during season as follows :
(A) 10-20 cm for 3-4 months
(B) 10-20 cm for 1 month
(C) 20-30 cm for 3-4 months
(D) 10-20 cm for 2 months
Answer:
(A) 10-20 cm for 3-4 months

Question 27.
Main crops of areas having rainy season during October to December are :
(A) Sugarcane, jute
(B) Paddy, cotton, millets
(C) Wheat, barley and gram
(D) Jowar, pea and lobia
Answer:
(B) Paddy, cotton, millets

Question 28.
Paddy, wheat, jowar, cotton and maize are the main crops of regions receiving monthly rainfalls of 10-20 cm and 20-30 cm for 2 months each during :
(A) Pre-monsoon
(B) Monsoon
(C) Post-monsoon
(D) Whole year
Answer:
(B) Monsoon

Question 29.
Paddy is grown as irrigated crop in areas having \mathbf{2 – 4 months rainy season from :
(A) May
(B) November
(C) September
(D) June
Answer:
(C) September

Question 30.
Major crops of the region having 6-8 months of rainy season beginning from March or April are under :
(A) Paddy and plantation crops
(B) Jute and forests
(C) Sugarcane and grasslands
(D) Tapioca and beans
Answer:
(A) Paddy and plantation crops

Question 31.
The Principal Rice Research Institute of India is located at :
(A) Patna
(B) Cuttack
(C) Kolkata
(D) Shillong
Answer:
(B) Cuttack

Question 32.
Sonalika is an important high yielding variety of :
(A) Rice
(B) Millet
(C) Wheat
(D) Tea
Answer:
(C) Wheat

Question 33.
The second largest tea producing state of India is :
(A) Assam
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Karnataka
(D)West Bengal
Answer:
(D)West Bengal

Question 34.
Tea is mainly exported through the port :
(A) Mumbai
(B) Chennai
(C) Paradeep
(D) Kolkata
Answer:
(D) Kolkata

Question 35.
Wheat cultivation requires rainfall between :
(A) 50-100 cm
(B) 100-150 cm
(C) 150-200 cm
(D) 200-250 cm
Answer:
(A) 50-100 cm

Question 36.
Rice cultivation require temperature between :
(A) 15°-20° C
(B) 20°-30° C
(C) 30°-35° C
(D) above 35° C
Answer:
(B) 20°-30° C

Question 37.
The Principal Tea Research Institute of India is located at :
(A) Kolkata
(B) Jorhat
(C) Chennai
(D) Mumbai
Answer:
(B) Jorhat

Question 38.
Cotton Research centre is located at :
(A) Kanpur
(B) Nagpur
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Coimbatore
Answer:
(B) Nagpur

Question 39.
Boll weevil, Pink boll-warm are insects of :
(A) Rice cultivation
(B) Wheat cultivation
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Cotton growing
Answer:
(D) Cotton growing

Question 40.
Central sugarcane research centre is located at :
(A) Kanpur
(B) Allahabad
(C) Lucknow
(D) Banaras
Answer:
(C) Lucknow

Fill in the blanks : 1 Mark

1. India has about ________ of the world’s rice cultivating area.
2. India has about ________ of the world’s wheat cutivating area.
3. The ideal temperature for the growth of bajra is ________ .
4. India is the ________ largest producer of jute in the world.
5. Over ________ percent of world’s cotton is produced in India.
6. The highest yield per hectare of jowar is found in the state of ________.
7. The highest yield per hectore of sugarcane has been recorded in the state of ________ .
8. ________ region is known as the rice bowl of India.
Answer:
1. 28%
2. 8%
3. 25°-35°C
4. Second
5. 8%
6. Maharashtra
7. Uttar Pradesh
8. Krishna-Godavari delta

State True or False : 1 Mark

1. The usage of black roasted tea is highest in India. [ ]
2. Coffee grows best in laterite soil. [ ]
3. Jhum cultivation is practised in the north-eastern states of India. [ ]
4. Tamil Nadu is known as the rice bowl of South India. [ ]
5. Aman rice is also known as Vadui. [ ]
6. Karnataka ranks first in highest yield of tea per hectore in India. [ ]
7. Corn is a rabi crop. [ ]
8. Saline soil is best suitable for growing tea. [ ]
9. Boll Weevil pests attack on the wheat crop. [ ]
10. Assam is famous for tea cultivation. [ ]
Answer:
1. True
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. False
6. False
7. False
8. False
9. False
10. True

Match the following : 1 Mark

immmmm
Answer:
immmmmm

Answer in few words : 1 Mark

Question 1.
Why is India called an agro-based country?
Answer:
Agriculture forms the base of the economy.

Question 2.
What kind of agriculture is seen in maximum parts of India ?
Answer:
Subsistence agriculture.

Question 3.
What leads to subsistence agriculture in India?
Answer:
High pressure of population.

Question 4.
What kind of crops are predominantly cultivated in India ?
Answer:
Food crops.

Question 5.
Which factor controls agriculture in India ?
Answer:
Monsoons.

Question 6.
What are the crops growing during summer and monsoon called ?
Answer:
Kharif crops.

Question 7.
What are the crops growing during winter called?
Answer:
Rabi crops.

Question 8.
Paddy belongs to which family of crops ?
Answer:
Grass family.

Question 9.
Where did rice originate first?
Answer:
China or India.

Question 10.
Which state produces about 15 % of rice of the country?
Answer:
West Bengal.

Question 11.
Where is the Central Rice Research Institute located?
Answer:
Cuttack, Odisha.

Question 12.
Rice is a predominant crop of which region of the earth?
Answer:
Tropical and sub-tropical region.

Question 13.
Wheat is a predominant crop of which region of the earth ?
Answer:
Temperate region.

Question 14.
Which is the best soil for growing wheat ?
Anis.
Chemozem.

Question 15.
Which state in India is the largest producer of wheat ?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh (27%).

Question 16.
Which state yields the highest amount of wheat per hectare?
Answer:
Haryana.

Question 17. Where is India’s Wheat Research Institute located ?
Answer:
Pusha, near Delhi.

Question 18.
Name some millet crops.
Answer:
Jowar, Bajra, Ragi.

Question 19.
Name a plantation beverage crop.
Answer:
Tea.

Question 20.
Which state of India ranks first in tea production?
Answer:
Assam (45%).

Question 21.
How many tea estates are there in Assam?
Answer:
About 750.

Question 22.
Which state ranks second in tea production ?
Answer:
West Bengal (20-25%).

Question 23.
Where are the tea research centres located in India ?
Answer:
Jorhat (Assam) and Coimbatore (Tamil Nadu)

Question 24.
Which is the largest coffee producing state in India ?
Answer:
Karnataka (65%).

Question 25.
Which soil is the most suitable for cultivation of cotton ?
Answer:
Black cotton soil, or regur.

Question 26.
Which is the largest cotton producing state in India ?
Answer:
Gujarat (28%).

Question 27.
Where is the Central Institute of Cotton Research located ?
Answer:
Nagpur in Maharashtra.

Question 28.
Name the countries to which India exports cotton.
Answer:
Japan, USA, Bangladesh and some European countries.

Question 29.
Name the countries from which India imports cotton.
Answer:
USA, Egypt, Iran, Sudan, Kenya, Tanzania etc.

Question 30.
To which family does sugarcane belong ?
Answer:
Grass family.

Question 31.
Which is the largest sugarcane growing state in India ?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh (45%)

Question 32.
When did the Green Revolution take place?
Answer:
1964-65.

Question 33.
Which states gave the best response to Green Revolution ?
Answer:
Punjab and Haryana.

Question 34.
Which crop gave the best result in Green Revolution ?
Answer:
Wheat.

Question 35.
Which method of farming can be used to stop fragmentation of land holdings?
Answer:
Co-operative farming.