Class 9

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 3.3 Nutrition can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Nutrition Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
By nutrition-
(A) Potential energy is converted into kinetic energy
(B) Kinetic energy is stored in the cells
(C) Heat is generated in the body
(D) Dry weight of the body increases
Answer:
(D) Dry weight of the body increases

Question 2.
Function of food is-
(A) Generation of energy
(B) Maintaining body growth
(C) Prevention of diseases
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 3.
Select the correct statement.
(A) Nutrition always depends upon digestion
(B) Digestion is a type of nutrition
(C) Nutrition is none other than digestion
(D) Digestion is a step of nutrition
Answer:
(D) Digestion is a step of nutrition

Question 4.
Select the correct statement.
(A) All foods need digestion before assimilation
(B) Assimilation of food is unnecessary for green plants as they synthesise ready food
(C) Assimilation is the most essential part of any nutrition
(D) All are correct
Answer:
(C) Assimilation is the most essential part of any nutrition

Question 5.
Assimilation is a step of nutrition, by which-
(A) Complex food is converted into simple absorbable form
(B) Essential nutrients get integrated into the protoplasm
(C) Nutrients are taken in by body fluid from the digestive tract
(D) Blood supply nutrients to the tissue
Answer:
(B) Essential nutrients get integrated into the protoplasm

Question 6.
Green plants perform nutrition by-
(A) Photosynthesis and absorption
(B) Photosynthesis and digestion
(C) Photosynthesis and assimilation
(D) Photosynthesis and egestion
Answer:
(C) Photosynthesis and assimilation

Question 7.
Parasitic nutrition is seen amongst-
(A) Some fungi
(B) Cuscuta
(C) Louse
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 8.
Similarity between Rafflesia and Puccinia is that, both are-
(A) Parasitic plants
(B) Saprophytic plants
(C) Autotrophic plants
(D) Partial parasites
Answer:
(A) Parasitic plants

Question 9.
Lichen is a-
(A) Saprophytic fungus
(B) Symbiotic association of algae and fungi
(C) Parasitic fungus
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Symbiotic association of algae and fungi

Question 10.
Insectivorous plants depend on insects for-
(A) Phosphorus
(B) Iron
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Calcium
Answer:
(C) Nitrogen

Question 11.
Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between plant root and-
(A) Bacteria
(B) Algae
(C) Fungus
(D) None of there
Answer:
(C) Fungus

Question 12.
Parasitic organisms always show-
(A) Close association
(B) Nutritional interdependence
(C) Benefit of themselves
(D) Benefit of both members
Answer:
(C) Benefit of themselves

Question 13.
Escherichia coli helps in the synthesis of vitamin B₁₂ in our intestine. This is a case of-
(A) Autotrophism
(B) Heterotrophism
(C) Symbiosis
(D) Competition
Answer:
(C) Symbiosis

Question 14.
Coprophagy is a typical nutritional technique, seen among-
(A) Few cattle
(B) Few rodents
(C) Most herbivores
(D) Few carnivores
Answer:
(B) Few rodents

Question 15.
Sanguinivores include-
(A) Mosquitoes
(B) Mosquitoes and vampire bats
(C) Leeches and bedbugs
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 16.
Mammals are heterodont because they-
(A) Possess similar type of teeth
(B) Have different types of teeth
(C) Show teething twice in life
(D) Have socketted teeth
Answer:
(B) Have different types of teeth

Question 17.
Dental formula of adult man is-
(A) I \(\frac{2}{2}\), C \(\frac{1}{1}\), PM \(\frac{2}{2}\), M \(\frac{3}{3}\)
(B) I \(\frac{2}{2}\), C \(\frac{1}{1}\), PM \({\frac{3}{3}]/latex[, M [latex]\frac{2}{2}\)
(C) I \(\frac{1}{1}\), C \(\frac{2}{2}\), PM \(\frac{2}{2}\), M \(\frac{3}{3}\)
(D) I \(\frac{2}{2}\), C \(\frac{1}{1}\), PM \(\frac{2}{2}\), M\(\frac{2}{2}\)
Answer:
(A) I \(\frac{2}{2}\), C \(\frac{1}{1}\), PM \(\frac{2}{2}\), M \(\frac{3}{3}\)

Question 18.
A five year old child has-
(A) 24 teeth
(B) 28 teeth
(C) 16 teeth
(D) 20 teeth
Answer:
(D) 20 teeth

Question 19.
Ptyalin and trypsin act respectively on-
(A) Starch and peptone
(B) Peptone and starch
(C) Sucrose and protein
(D) Peptide and peptone
Answer:
(A) Starch and peptone

Question 20.
The processes by which absorption occur in the small intestine are-
(A) Diffusion
(B) Osmosis
(C) Active transport
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 21.
Oesophagus enters into stomach through-
(A) Cardiac end
(B) Fundus
(C) Pyloric end
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Cardiac end

Question 22.
The ‘J’ shaped portion of the small intestine is called-
(A) Jejunum
(B) Duodenum
(C) Ilium
(D) Ileum
Answer:
(B) Duodenum

Question 23.
Chyme is the semi-fluid acidic mass of partially digested food found in the-
(A) Buccal cavity
(B) Stomach
(C) Duodenum
(D) Jejunum
Answer:
(B) Stomach

Question 24.
The longest portion of the human intestine is-
(A) Duodenum
(B) Jejunum
(C) Ileum
(D) Colon
Answer:
(C) Ileum

Question 25.
The main site of water absorption in the human GI tract is-
(A) Stomach
(B) Ileum
(C) Jejunum
(D) Colon
Answer:
(D) Colon

Question 26.
Bile helps in the digestion of-
(A) Protein
(B) Fat
(C) Carbohydrates
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 27.
Chyle is a partly digested liquid present in the-
(A) Stomach
(B) Jejunum
(C) Large intestine
(D) Rectum
Answer:
(B) Jejunum

Question 28.
Villi increase-
(A) Inner surface area of oesophagus
(B) Inner surface area of small intestine
(C) Inner surface area of stomach
(D) Inner surface area of colon
Answer:
(B) Inner surface area of small intestine

Question 29.
HCl in the stomach helps in-
(A) Killing germs
(B) Activation of proenzymes
(C) Decrease of pH
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 30.
Liver has role in-
(A) Excretion
(B) Gastric juice secretion
(C) HCl secretion
(D) Bile secretion
Answer:
(D) Bile secretion

Question 31.
Succus entericus is secreted from-
(A) Salivary gland
(B) Stomach
(C) Pancreas
(D) Small intestine
Answer:
(D) Small intestine

Question 32.
Similarity between saliva and gastric juice is-
(A) Both kill bacteria
(B) Both help in fat digestion
(C) Both help in carbohydrate digestion
(D) Both help in protein digestion
Answer:
(A) Both kill bacteria

Question 33.
Carrion feeding is shown by-
(A) Cattle
(B) Crow
(C) Pigeon
(D) Cat
Answer:
(B) Crow

Question 34.
Saprophytic nutrition is also found in-
(A) Euglena
(B) Amoeba
(C) Paramoecium
(D) Plasmodium
Answer:
(A) Euglena

Question 35.
Hydrolytic enzymes help in-
(A) Digestion
(B) Absorption
(C) Assimilation
(D) Diffusion of food
Answer:
(A) Digestion

Question 36.
Generally, enzymes and hormones are formed from-
(A) Carbohydrate
(B) Protein
(C) Fats
(D) Vitamins
Answer:
(B) Protein

Question 37.
Which of the following is not an essential fatty acid?
(A) Linoleic acid
(B) Ascorbic acid
(C) Linolenic acid
(D) Arachidonic acid
Answer:
(B) Ascorbic acid

Question 38.
The enzyme present in the salivary glands which helps to kill bacteria, is-
(A) Amylase
(B) Ptyalin
(C) Maltase
(D) Lysozyme
Answer:
(D) Lysozyme

Question 39.
The proteinaceous part of tooth is the-
(A) Enamel
(B) Pulp
(C) Dentine
(D) Gum
Answer:
(C) Dentine

Question 40.
The bacteria, present in the large intestine, which helps to synthesise vitamin K and folic acid, is-
(A) Escherichia coli
(B) Clostridium sp.
(C) Rhizobium sp.
(D) Nostoc sp.
Answer:
(A) Escherichia coli

Question 41.
The protein-digesting enzyme which is not present in the human body, is-
(A) Pepsin
(B) Rennin
(C) Erepsin
(D) Trypsin
Answer:
(B) Rennin

Question 42.
The aerial roots found in the orchids, which help in the absorption of water vapour, is called-
(A) Haustoria
(B) Velamen
(C) Villus
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Velamen

Fill in the blanks :

1. Growth and _____ are two anabolic processes.
2. We can taste sweet with the taste buds placed at _____ of our tongue.
3. Agaricus performs _____ type of nutrition.
4. There are _____ salivary glands in human mouth.
5. Trypsin is a/an _____ enzyme.
6. Haustoria is a _____ .
7. _____ engulfs food with the help of pseudopodia.
8. _____ reacts with starch to form a deep blue colour.
9. The part of the alimentary canal to which appendix is attached, is the _____ .
10. Heterotrophic nutrition involves _____ steps.
11. Hydra engulfs food with the help of _____ .
12. _____ is an animal starch.
13. _____ is a balanced diet for children.
14. Gall bladder is located beneath the _____ lobe of liver.
15. In the stomach, HCl hydrolyses _____ into glucose and fructose.

Answer:

1. Nutrition
2. Tip
3. Saprophytic
4. Six
5. Proteolytic
6. Sucking root
7. Amoeba
8. Iodine
9. Caecum
10. Five
11. Tentacles
12. Glycogen
13. Milk
14. Right
15. Sucrose

State true or false :

1. About 9.3 kcal energy is generated by complete oxidation of one gram of protein.
2. There are three pairs of salivary glands, namely parotid, sub-maxillary and sublingual glands.
3. One of the functions of liver is to kill germs by phagocytosis.
4. Hyperthyroidism is a metabolic disorder.
5. During photosynthesis anabolism occurs.
6. Bile acts in the acidic pH of stomach.
7. In atherosclerosis, hypertension occurs due to reduction in diameter of arterial lumen.
8. Ptyalin acts on boiled proteins.
9. For perfect distribution of calorie in a diet, the ratio of carbohydrate, protein and fat should be 2: 1: 1.
10. Prolonged fasting leads to excessive protein breakdown and discharge of ketone through urine.
11. A symbiotic bacterium Rhizobium sp. synthesises vitamin B₁₂ in human intestine.
12. Lichen is an example of symbiotic association between algae and fungi.
13. Blue-green algae are capable of synthesising their own food by photosynthesis.
14. Bile juice contains different enzymes that help in the emulsification of fats.
15. Vitamin C is not found in eggs.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True
6. False
7. True
8. False
9. False
10. True
11. False
12. True
13. True
14. False
15. True

Match the columns :

Question 1.

Left column	Right column
1. Parasitic nutrition	A. Mucor
2. Saprophytic nutrition	B. Green plant
3. Symbiotic nutrition	C. Cuscuta
4. Insectivory	D. Lichen
	E. Sundew

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Parasitic nutrition	C. Cuscuta
2. Saprophytic nutrition	A. Mucor
3. Symbiotic nutrition	D. Lichen
4. Insectivory	E. Sundew

Question 2.

Left column	Right column
1. Herbivory	A. Mosquito
2. Carnivory	B. Agaricus
3. Omnivory	C. Hyena
4. Sanguinivory	D. Cow
	E. Human

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Herbivory	D. Cow
2. Carnivory	C. Hyena
3. Omnivory	E. Human
4. Sanguinivory	A. Mosquito

Question 3.

Left column	Right column
1. Lipase	A. Maltose
2. Pepsin	B. Fatty acid and glycerol
3. Lactose	C. Peptone
4. Ptyalin	D. Glucose and galactose
	E. Glucose and fructose

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Lipase	B. Fatty acid and glycerol
2. Pepsin	C. Peptone
3. Lactose	D. Glucose and galactose
4. Ptyalin	A. Maltose

Question 4.

Left column	Right column
1. Ptyalin	A. Liver
2. Pepsin	B. Salivary glands
3. Bile	C. Stomach
4. Trypsin	D. Small intestine
	E. Pancreas

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Ptyalin	B. Salivary glands
2. Pepsin	C. Stomach
3. Bile	A. Liver
4. Trypsin	E. Pancreas

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 2.3A Tissue: Plant Tissue and its Distribution can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Tissue: Plant Tissue and its Distribution Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following does not have a tissue system?
A. Amoeba
B. Volvox
C. Sponges
D. All of these
Answer:
D. All of these

Question 2.
An organism possesses different types of tissues and organs due to………….
A. Organogenesis
B. Differentiation
C. Cell division
D. None of these
Answer:
B. Differentiation

Question 3.
Cells of a tissue always have………….
A. Similarity in size and shape
B. Same life span
C. Same function
D. Different origin
Answer:
C. Same function

Question 4.
Cells of meristematic tissue are………….
A. Of same size and shape
B. Capable of division
C. Undifferentiated
D. All of these
Answer:
D. All of these

Question 5.
Meristematic tissues are seen in………….
A. Green leaves
B. Matured fruit
C. Root tip
D. Shoot
Answer:
C. Root tip

Question 6.
Meristem present at the tip of root and stem is called………….
A. Primary meristem
B. Secondary meristem
C. Cambium
D. Apical meristem
Answer:
D. Apical meristem

Question 7.
Stems of trees become thick by the activity of………….
A. Lateral meristem
B. Intercalary meristem
C. Primary meristem
D. Apical meristem
Answer:
A. Lateral meristem

Question 8.
Intercalary meristem is found in………….
A. Root apex
B. Stem apex
C. Nodes
D. Internodes
Answer:
D. Internodes

Question 9.
A tissue has cells with no intercellular space and vacuole in cytoplasm. This tissue is a………….
A. Xylem tissue
B. Parenchyma tissue
C. Meristematic tissue
D. Collenchyma tissue
Answer:
C. Meristematic tissue

Question 10.
The crispy nature of pears and apples is due to………….
A. Parenchyma
B. Xylem
C. Sclereids
D. Collenchyma
Answer:
C. Sclereids

Question 11.
Permanent tissues are composed of………….
A. Undifferentiated cells
B. Identical cells
C. Growing cells
D. Matured cells
Answer:
D. Matured cells

Question 12.
Cambium is a meristematic tissue, which may be seen in………….
A. Vascular bundle
B. Shoot tip
C. Root tip
D. Flower bud
Answer:
A. Vascular bundle

Question 13.
Cork cambium is present………….
A. Inside vascular bundle
B. Outside vascular bundle
C. Inside fruits
D. In the leaves
Answer:
B. Outside vascular bundle

Question 14.
Cells of permanent tissue are………….
A. Thin………….walled and full of cytoplasm
B. Without vacuoles
C. Unable to divide
D. Capable of cell division
Answer:
C. Unable to divide

Question 15.
Cells of parenchymal tissues are………….
A. Loosely packed with wide intercellular spaces
B. Unevenly thickened at the corners
C. Evenly thick and highly lignified
D. Undifferentiated
Answer:
A. Loosely packed with wide intercellular spaces

Question 16.
Cells with thick and highly lignified cell wall are seen in………….
A. Parenchyma
B. Collenchyma
C. Sclerenchyma
D. Aerenchyma
Answer:
C. Sclerenchyma

Question 17.
The gymnosperm where trachea is found, is ………….
A. Pinus sp.
B. Gnetum sp.
C. Cycas sp.
D. Ginkgo sp.
Answer:
B. Gnetum sp.

Question 18.
The tissue taking part in photosynthesis belongs to………….
A. Parenchyma
B. Collenchyma
C. Sclerenchyma
D. Meristematic tissue
Answer:
A. Parenchyma

Question 19.
Which tissue takes part in storing food in plant body?
A. Parenchyma
B. Sclerenchyma
C. Phloem
D. Xylem
Answer:
A. Parenchyma

Question 20.
Which are the main components of vascular bundle?
A. Parenchyma
B. Sclerenchyma
C. Xylem
D. Xylem and Phloem
Answer:
D. Xylem and Phloem

Question 21.
Which simple permanent tissue is composed of non………….living cells?
A. Xylem
B. Phloem
C. Sclerenchyma
D. Collenchyma
Answer:
C. Sclerenchyma

Question 22.
Cells of a tissue having a large and prominent nucleus and are capable of undergoing division can be identified as a………….
A. Meristem
B. Parenchyma
C. Collenchyma
D. Sclerenchyma
Answer:
A. Meristem

Question 23.
Cells of this tissue are thin………….walled, densely packed, capable of undergoing division and are located at the tip of roots. This is………….
A. Parenchyma
B. Collenchyma
C. Intercalary meristem
D. Apical meristem
Answer:
D. Apical meristem

Question 24.
Intercalary meristem remains………….
A. At the apex of shoots and roots
B. In vascular bundle
C. In between two permanent tissue layers
D. On the surface of plant body
Answer:
C. In between two permanent tissue layers

Question 25.
Formation of bark involves………….
A. Apical meristem
B. Intercalary meristem
C. Vascular cambium
D. Cork cambium
Answer:
D. Cork cambium

Question 26.
Parenchyma cells containing ergastic materials are called………….
A. Aerenchyma
B. Parenchyma
C. Idioblasts
D. Collenchyma
Answer:
C. Idioblasts

Question 27.
Epidermis and ground tissue of plant body are typically made up of………….
A. Parenchyma
B. Collenchyma
C. Sclerenchyma
D. Aerenchyma
Answer:
A. Parenchyma

Question 28.
Buoyancy of aquatic plants is maintained by………….
A. Parenchyma
B. Collenchyma
C. Sclerenchyma
D. Aerenchyma
Answer:
D. Aerenchyma

Question 29.
Cells of this tissue have typical angular thickening; this simple permanent tissue is called………….
A. Parenchyma
B. Collenchyma
C. Sclerenchyma
D. Xylem
Answer:
B. Collenchyma

Question 30.
Sieve tube of an angiospermic plant………….
A. Is involved in transportation of water in plants
B. Is associated with companion cells
C. Is associated with guard cells
D. Provides additional mechanical strength
Answer:
B. Is associated with companion cells

Question 31.
Which are complex permanent tissues?
A. Parenchyma and collenchyma
B. Collenchyma and sclerenchyma
C. Sclerenchyma and xylem
D. Xylem and phloem
Answer:
D. Xylem and phloem

Question 32.
Ray cells are a kind of………….
A. Parenchyma
B. Companion cell
C. Sieve tube
D. Trachea
Answer:
A. Parenchyma

Question 33.
Tracheae of xylem are………….
A. Elongated cells with pointed ends and pits on the cell wall
B. Elongated hollow tubular cells
C. Thin elongated fibre………….like cells
D. Elongated living cells
Answer:
B. Elongated hollow tubular cells

Question 34.
Tissue responsible for transportation of food in different parts of a plant body is………….
A. Xylem
B. Trachea
C. Tracheid
D. Sieve tube
Answer:
D. Sieve tube

Question 35.
The cells involved in water transportation in plants are………….
A. Tracheids
B. Trachea
C. Xylem fibres
D. Both A. and B.
Answer:
D. Both A. and B.

Question 36.
Mechanical strength of a plant is provided by………….
A. Sieve tubes
B. Companion cells
C. Parenchyma
D. Phloem fibres
Answer:
D. Phloem fibres

Question 37.
Stone cell is a modification of………….
A. Parenchyma
B. Collenchyma
C. Sclerenchyma
D. Aerenchyma
Answer:
C. Sclerenchyma

Question 38.
Harder wood are rich in………….
A. Xylem parenchyma
B. Trachea
C. Xylem fibre
D. Tracheid
Answer:
C. Xylem fibre

Question 39.
Cells of sclerenchyma tissue have………….
A. Evenly thick cell wall with hollow lumen
B. Cell wall with angular thickening and no intercellular space
C. Thin cell walled living cells
D. Large intercellular spaces
Answer:
A. Evenly thick cell wall with hollow lumen

Question 40.
Fibre of jute is………….
A. Xylem fibre
B. Tracheid
C. Trachea
D. Phloem fibre
Answer:
D. Phloem fibre

Fill in the blanks

1. The term tissue was given by …………
2. Thickening in collenchyma is consisted of ………… and pectin.
3. ………… cells of phloem do not have perforated cell wall.
4. The phenomenon by which a mass of cells take up definite structure and function is called …………
5. Tracheae are also known as …………
6. Organisation of tissue is absent in ………… organisms.
7. Jute is one economically important ………… fibre.
8. ………… is the living plant tissue that is devoid of intercellular spaces.
9. Study of tissue is called …………
10. The only living component of xylem is …………
Answer:
1. Bichat
2. Cellulose
3. Companion
4. Differentiation
5. Vessels
6. Unicellular
7. Phloem
8. Merisem
9. Histology
10. Xylem parenchyma

State True or False

1. Sieve tubes are unicellular. — False
2. Intercellular spaces can be found in meristematic tissue. — False
3. Permanent tissue differentiates into meristematic tissue. — False
4. All types of sclereids are called as stone cells. — False
5. Gnetum is the only gymnosperm where companion cells are present in phloem. — True
6. Phloem parenchyma is absent in monocotyledonous plants. — True
7. Apical meristem is responsible for growth of plant along the length. — True
8. Connective tissue is actually one type of parenchyma without intercellular space found in xylem and phloem. — True
9. The only dead component of phloem is sieve tube. — False
10. Same or different types of cells aggregate to form a tissue to perform a specific function. — True
11. Cells of phloem parenchyma store ergastic metabolites in them. — True

Match the columns

Left column	Right column
1. Nutritive tissue	A. Cork cambium
2. Stone cells	B. Xylem parenchyma
3. Phellogen	C. Chlorenchyma
4. Wood fibre	D. Tracheae
	E. Sclereids

Answer:
1-C; 2-E; 3-A; 4-B

Left column	Right column
1. Flexibility	A. Parenchyma
2. Growth	B. Sclerenchyma
3. Photosynthesis	C. Meristem
4. Mechanical strength	D. Collenchyma
	E. Aerenchyma

Answer:
1-D; 2-C; 3-A; 4-B

Left column	Right column
1. Chromoplastid	A. Vascular cambium
2. Night blindness	B. Lysosome
3. Autolysis	C. Cisternae
4. Lateral meristem	D. Carotene, xanthophyll
	E. Vitamin A

Answer:
1-D; 2-E; 3-B; 4-A

Left column	Right column
1. Idioblast	A. Parenchyma
2. Eleioplast	B. Chromosome
3. Nucleoside	C. Cell membrane
4. Phagocytosis	D. Plastid
	E. Cell wall

Answer:
1-A; 2-D; 3-B; 4-C

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 3.4 Circulation can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Circulation Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Circulation is a biological process, involved in the transportation of –
(A) Nutrients
(B) Excretory materials
(C) Respiratory gases
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 2.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) By circulation metabolic wastes are carried to the excretory organs
(B) By circulation metabolic wastes are expelled from the body
(C) Blood carries oxygen as a compound
(D) Blood keeps our body warm
Answer:
(B) By circulation metabolic wastes are expelled from the body

Question 3.
The components of circulatory system are-
(A) Lungs, heart, kidney
(B) Blood vessels and blood
(C) Blood and lymph
(D) Heart, blood vessels, blood and lymph
Answer:
(D) Heart, blood vessels, blood and lymph

Question 4.
Blood vessels include-
(A) Arteries
(B) Veins
(C) Arteries and veins
(D) Veins, arteries and capillaries
Answer:
(D) Veins, arteries and capillaries

Question 5.
Normal human heart beats-
(A) 5720 times / hr.
(B) 4320 times / hr.
(C) 6720 times/hr.
(D) 72 times/hr.
Answer:
(B) 4320 times / hr.

Question 6.
Heartbeat is controlled by the-
(A) Activity of cardiac muscle
(B) Activity of cardiac muscles and special connective tissues
(C) Activity of cardiac muscles, special connective tissues and central nervous system
(D) Activity of cardiac muscles and central nervous system
Answer:
(C) Activity of cardiac muscles, special connective tissues and central nervous system

Question 7.
Human blood is red due to-
(A) A respiratory pigment
(B) An excretory material
(C) A photosynthetic pigment
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) A respiratory pigment

Question 8.
Haemoglobin and haemocyanin are similar, because both-
(A) Are non-protein pigments
(B) Are metallo-proteins
(C) Carry iron
(D) Carry copper
Answer:
(B) Are metallo-proteins

Question 9.
Artery carries blood from-
(A) Heart to body parts
(B) Body parts to heart
(C) Lungs to heart
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Heart to body parts

Question 10.
Haemolymph and haemocoel are the components of circulatory system of-
(A) Crab
(B) Earthworm
(C) Cockroach
(D) Starfish
Answer:
(C) Cockroach

Question 11.
Haemocoel is a-
(A) Chamber of insect heart
(B) Chamber of earthworm heart
(C) Body cavity filled with haemolymph
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Body cavity filled with haemolymph

Question 12.
Pericardial sinus is present in cockroach-
(A) Around the heart
(B) Around the gut
(C) Around the nerve cord
(D) Inside head
Answer:
(A) Around the heart

Question 13.
Largest sinus of insect haemocoel is-
(A) Pericardial sinus
(B) Perivisceral sinus
(C) Perineural sinus
(D) Cephalic sinus
Answer:
(B) Perivisceral sinus

Question 14.
Cockroach heart has-
(A) 13 chambers
(B) 25 openings
(C) 24 ostia
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 15.
Blood from cockroach’s heart first reaches the-
(A) Pericardial sinus
(B) Perivisceral sinus
(C) Perineural sinus
(D) Cephalic sinus
Answer:
(D) Cephalic sinus

Question 16.
Open circulatory system does not possess-
(A) Artery
(B) Vein
(C) Capillaries
(D) Heart
Answer:
(C) Capillaries

Question 17.
Blood from heart to lungs passes through-
(A) Pulmonary vein
(B) Pulmonary artery
(C) Systemic artery
(D) Carotid artery
Answer:
(B) Pulmonary artery

Question 18.
Body fluid includes-
(A) Blood and lymph
(B) Blood, lymph and cerebrospinal fluid
(C) Urine, blood and lymph
(D) All of these
Answer:
(B) Blood, lymph and cerebrospinal fluid

Question 19.
Select the wrong statement.
(A) Intracellular fluid is called cytosol
(B) Blood is an intracellular fluid
(C) Urine is an extracellular fluid
(D) Cerebrospinal fluid is an extracellular fluid
Answer:
(B) Blood is an intracellular fluid

Question 20.
The material, synthesised in the cell and transported through the blood is-
(A) Enzyme
(B) Starch
(C) Hormones
(D) Fat
Answer:
(C) Hormones

Question 21.
The material, stored in the blood is-
(A) Glycogen
(B) Steroid
(C) Cholesterol
(D) Enzyme
Answer:
(C) Cholesterol

Question 22.
Transportation of lipid is the main function of-
(A) Blood
(B) Lymph
(C) Synovial fluid
(D) Cerebrospinal fluid
Answer:
(B) Lymph

Question 23.
Prawn blood is bluish in colour due to the presence of-
(A) Iron
(B) Copper
(C) Haemocyanin
(D) Haemoglobin
Answer:
(C) Haemocyanin

Question 24.
Blood sugar is-
(A) Glucose
(B) Fructose
(C) Glycogen
(D) Starch
Answer:
(A) Glucose

Question 25.
Which is serum protein?
(A) Albumin and globulin
(B) Fibrinogen and prothrombin
(C) Only globulin
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 26.
A non-protein nitrogen present in plasma is-
(A) Urea
(B) Albumin
(C) Haemoglobin
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Urea

Question 27.
Which one does not have any granules in cytoplasm?
(A) Eosinophil
(B) Basophil
(C) Neutrophil
(D) Lymphocyte
Answer:
(D) Lymphocyte

Question 28.
Agranulocytes have-
(A) Non-granular cytoplasm
(B) Unlobbed nucleus
(C) Homogeneous cytoplasm
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 29.
destroy germs by phagocytosis.
(A) Monocyte
(B) Neutrophil
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Both (A) and (B)

Question 30.
RBC of blood group AB contains-
(A) Agglutinogen A
(B) Agglutinogen B
(C) Agglutinin A and B
(D) Agglutinogen A and B
Answer:
(D) Agglutinogen A and B

Question 31.
Blood group 0 contains-
(A) Agglutinogen A & B on RBC
(B) Agglutinin alpha & beta in plasma
(C) Agglutinogen alpha & beta in plasma
(D) Agglutinin A & B on RBC
Answer:
(B) Agglutinin alpha & beta in plasma

Question 32.
Blood coagulation needs-
(A) Ca²⁺ ions
(B) Thromboplastin
(C) Fibrinogen
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 33.
Transfusion of unmatched blood may lead to-
(A) Increase in blood pressure
(B) Heart failure
(C) Haemolysis
(D) Blood coagulation
Answer:
(C) Haemolysis

Question 34.
Anti-coagulant of blood inside blood vessels is-
(A) Sodium citrate
(B) Calcium citrate
(C) Heparin
(D) All of these
Answer:
(C) Heparin

Question 35.
Which valve of human heart remains closed during diastole of ventricle
(A) Mitral valve
(B) Right atrioventricular valve
(C) Semi-lunar valve
(D) Eustachian valve
Answer:
(C) Semi-lunar valve

Question 36.
Which valves remain closed during systole of ventricle?
(A) Mitral valve
(B) Right atrioventricular valve
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Both (A) and (B)

Question 37.
In puimonary circulation, blood moves-
(A) From heart to lungs
(B) From lungs to heart and back to lungs
(C) From heart to lungs and lungs to other parts of the body
(D) From different parts of the body to lungs
Answer:
(B) From lungs to heart and back to lungs

Question 38.
The lipid present in blood is-
(A) Cholesterol
(B) Glucose
(C) Lactic acid
(D) Glycerol
Answer:
(A) Cholesterol

Question 39.
Venous heart is found in-
(A) Frog
(B) Human
(C) Fish
(D) Birds
Answer:
(C) Fish

Question 40.
Vitamin helps in the production of prothrombin in liver.
(A) A
(B) K
(C) E
(D) C
Answer:
(B) K

Question 41.
The instrument used to measure blood pressure is-
(A) Haemometer
(B) Sphygmomanometer
(C) Haemocytometer
(D) Sphygmograph
Answer:
(B) Sphygmomanometer

Fill in the blanks :

1. By means of ______ fluid, excretory matters from tissues are transported to the excretory organs.
2. Other than cholesterol, lecithin is present in plasma, which is a ______.
3. Only ______ blood passes through the venous heart of fish.
4. The matrix of blood is known as ______.
5. ______ blood group is known as universal recipient.
6. The outer layer of blood vessels is known as ______.
7. _____ valve is present at the right atrioventricular opening of human heart.
8. The unit by which human blood pressure is measured, is mm of ______.

Answer:

1. Circulatory
2. Fat
3. Deoxygenated
4. Plasma
5. AB
6. Tunica adventitia
7. Tricuspid
8. Hg

State true or false :

1. Lymph is a special tissue fluid.
2. Haemocyanin is present in the body of prawn.
3. Bicuspid valve is present at right atrioventricular opening.
4. ‘O’ blood group is known as universal doner.
5. Some invertebrates contain haemoglobin in RBC.
6. Veins carry blood towards the heart.
7. Thrombocytes contain bilobed nucleus.
8. Due to blood donation doner becomes sick.
9. Karl Landsteiner was the person who discovered Rh} factor.
10. Blood can be created artificially.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. False
6. True
7. False
8. False
9. True
10. False

Match the columns :

Question 1.

Left column	Right column
1. RBC	A. Blood clotting
2. WBC	B. Shock absorber of brain
3. Platelet	C. Transportation of bile
4. CSF	D. Prevention of disease
	E. Carries O2 and CO2 to organs

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. RBC	E. Carries O2 and CO2 to organs
2. WBC	D. Prevention of disease
3. Platelet	A. Blood clotting
4. CSF	B. Shock absorber of brain

Question 2.

Left column	Right column
1. Lymph	A. Fluid connective tissue
2. Blood	B. Modified tissue fluid
3. Plasma	C. mm of Hg
4. Blood pressure	D. Matrix of blood
	E. Excretory fluid

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Lymph	B. Modified tissue fluid
2. Blood	A. Fluid connective tissue
3. Plasma	D. Matrix of blood
4. Blood pressure	C. mm of Hg

Question 3.

Left column	Right column
1. Anaemia	A. Left atrioventricular opening
2. Tricuspid valve	B. Pancreas
3. Trypsin	C. Superior vena cava
4. Mitral valve	D. Decreased RBC count
	E. Right atrioventricular opening

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Anaemia	D. Decreased RBC count
2. Tricuspid valve	E. Right atrioventricular opening
3. Trypsin	B. Pancreas
4. Mitral valve	A. Left atrioventricular opening

Question 4.

Left column	Right column
1. Cockroach	A. Oxygen transport
2. Haemoglobin	B. Sphygmomanometer
3. Right atrium	C. Pulmonary vein
4. Blood pressure	D. Vena cava
	E. Open circulation

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Cockroach	E. Open circulation
2. Haemoglobin	A. Oxygen transport
3. Right atrium	D. Vena cava
4. Blood pressure	B. Sphygmomanometer

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 2.2 Cell can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Cell Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
Concept of a cell was first proposed by -……………………..
A. Gearge Bentham
B. Robert Hook
C. Linnaeus
D. Leeuwenhoek
Answer:
B. Robert Hook

Question 2.
Protoplasm of a prokaryotic cell has cytoplasm and a- ……………..
A. Nucleus
B. Nucleolus
C. Nucleoid
D. Nucellus
Answer:
C. Nucleoid

Question 3.
Which two are essential parts of a living cell?
A. Nucleus and protoplasm
B. Nucleus and cytoplasm
C. Cell membrane and nucleus
D. Cell membrane and protoplasm
Answer:
D. Cell membrane and protoplasm

Question 4.
Cell membrane is- ……………..
A. Absent in prokaryotic cells
B. Present in eukaryotic cells
C. Present in some prokaryotic cells and all eukaryotic cells
D. Present in all types of cells
Answer:
D. Present in all types of cells

Question 5.
Selectively permeable nature of cell membrane allows the entry of through it.
A. All types of solutions
B. All types of solvents
C. Some solutes without solvents
D. Some solutes with solvents
Answer:
B. All types of solvents

Question 6.
Main structural components of cell membrane are- ……………..
A. Proteins and lipids
B. Proteins and carbohydrates
C. Lipids and carbohydrates
D. Cellulose and lignin
Answer:
A. Proteins and lipids

Question 7.
Which of the cellular function does not involve cell membrane?
A. Cellular secretion
B. Cellular respiration
C. Cell drinking
D. Cell eating
Answer:
B. Cellular respiration

Question 8.
Which type of protein does remain submerged within the lipid bi-laye of a cell membrane?
A. External protein
B. Internal protein
C. Extrinsic protein
D. Intrinsic protein
Answer:
D. Intrinsic protein

Question 9.
A prokaryotic cell is devoid of-……………..
A. Cell membrane
B. DNA
C. True nucleus
C. RNA
Answer:
C. True nucleus

Question 10.
You will find cell wall in a-……………..
A. Blood cell
B. Bacterial cell
C. Bone cell
D. Muscle cell
Answer:
B. Bacterial cell

Question 11.
Basic structural component of cell wall in a photosynthetic plant is -……………..
A. Pectin and protein
B. Lignin and protein
C. Cellulose and pectin
D. Hemi-cellulose and lipid
Answer:
C. Cellulose and pectin

Question 12.
Bacterial cell wall is composed of-……………..
A. Proteins and carbohydrates
B. Amino acids and carbohydrates
C. Proteins and lipids
D. Phospholipids and amino acids
Answer:
B. Amino acids and carbohydrates

Question 13.
According to ‘Fluid Mosaic Model’, which of the statements is best fitted?
A. Phospholipid molecules remain suspended in the protein bi-layer
B. Protein molecules remain suspended in the fluid lipid bi-layer
C. Carbohydrate chains remain attached to the protein molecules
D. Protein molecules remain fixed to the fluid lipid molecules
Answer:
B. Protein molecules remain suspended in the fluid lipid bi-layer

Question 14.
Primary cell wall is present-……………..
A. Just above cell membrane
B. Beyond secondary cell wall
C. Below secondary cell wall
D. Below cell membrane
Answer:
B. Beyond secondary cell wall

Question 15.
Cell organelles remain suspended in-……………..
A. Cell sap
B. Cytoplasm
C. Protoplasm
D. Nuclear sap
Answer:
B. Cytoplasm

Question 16.
Which cellular material helps in locomotion of Amoeba?
A. Cytoplasm
B. Flagella
C. Cilia
C. All of these
Answer:
A. Cytoplasm

Question 17.
Intracellular distribution of molecules depends upon the flow of-……………..
A. Nucleoplasm
B. Cell sap
C. Cytoplasm
D. Nucleoplasm and cytoplasm
Answer:
C. Cytoplasm

Question 18.
In human, which cell does not divide?
A. Matured RBC
B. Matured neuron
C. Matured muscle cell
D. Sieve tube
Answer:
B. Matured neuron

Question 19.
Mitochondria is absent in-……………..
A. RBC of mammals
B. Nerve cells
C. Muscle cells
D. All of these
Answer:
A. RBC of mammals

Question 20.
Nucleus is popularly known as-……………..
A. Brain of a cell
B. Brain of the tissues
C. Heart of a cell
D. Male gametes
Answer:
A. Brain of a cell

Question 21.
Nucleolus is the denser part of a nucleus, which is rich in-……………..
A. DNA
B. RNA
C. Protein
D. Both A and B.
Answer:
B. RNA

Question 22.
Overall activity of a living cell is controlled by-……………..
A. Mitochondrion
B. Plastid
C. Cytoplasm
D. Nucleus
Answer:
D. Nucleus

Question 23.
The cell organelles which have their own DNA are-……………..
A. Nucleus and Golgi body
B. Golgi body and mitochondrion
C. Mitochondrion and chloroplastid
D. Chloroplastid and nucleus
Answer:
C. Mitochondrion and chloroplastid

Question 24.
Cristae of mitochondria are projected-……………..
A. Towards outer chamber
B. Towards inner chamber
C. Beyond outer surface
D. None of these
Answer:
B. Towards inner chamber

Question 25.
The cell organelle involved in the production of ATP is-……………..
A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondrion
C. Plastid
D. Golgi body
Answer:
B. Mitochondrion

Question 26.
Apart from nucleus, two other cell organelles with double membrane are-……………..
A. Mitochondrion and Golgi body
B. Plastid and Golgi body
C. Golgi body and endoplasmic reticulum
D. Mitochondria and plastid
Answer:
D. Mitochondria and plastid

Question 27.
Which of the following cell organelles have single membrane?
A. Plastids and Golgi bodies
B. Mitochondria and Golgi bodies
C. Mitochondria and plastids
D. Golgi bodies and lysosomes
Answer:
D. Golgi bodies and lysosomes

Question 28.
Two semi-independent cell organelles are-……………..
A. Mitochondrion and chloroplastid
B. Plastid and Golgi body
C. Golgi body and endoplasmic reticulum
D. Mitochondrion and Golgi body
Answer:
A. Mitochondrion and chloroplastid

Question 29.
Chlorophyll molecules remain stored in-……………..
A. Thylakoids
B. Inner chamber of chloroplastids
C. Stroma
D. Outer chamber of chloroplastids
Answer:
A. Thylakoids

Question 30.
Reactions of photosynthesis occur in the-……………..
A. Stroma of chloroplastids
B. Grana of chloroplastids
C. Both A. and B.
D. None of these
Answer:
C. Both A. and B.

Question 31.
ATP molecules are stored in the of mitochondria.
A. Outer surface
B. Membranes
C. Outer chamber
D. Matrix
Answer:
D. Matrix

Question 32.
Who invented Electron microscope?
A. Robertson
B. Palade
C. Knoll and Ruska
D. Leeuwenhoek
Answer:
C. Knoll and Ruska

Question 33.
The minute cell organelles, which remain attached to rough endoplasmic reticulum is-……………..
A. Small Golgi vesicles
B. Lysosomes
C. Ribosomes
D. Large Golgi vesicles
Answer:
C. Ribosomes

Question 34.
Ribosomes remain within or in contact of-……………..
A. Nucleus, Golgi bodies and ER
B. Nucleus, cytoplasm, RER, chloroplast and mitochondrion
C. Nucleus and cytoplasm
D. Nucleus, cytoplasm and RER
Answer:
B. Nucleus, cytoplasm, RER, chloroplast and mitochondrion

Question 35.
The largest unicellular plant is -……………..
A. Spirogyra
B. Mucor
C. Acetabularia
D. Volvox
Answer:
C. Acetabularia

Question 36.
The cell organelle, which divides cytoplasm in a number of intracellular compartments is-……………..
A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Mitochondrion
C. Middle lamella
D. Golgi cisternae
Answer:
A. Endoplasmic reticulum

Question 37.
The cell organelle involved in the formation of flagella is -……………..
A. Centrosome
B. Lysosome
C. Ribosome
D. Nucleus
Answer:
A. Centrosome

Question 38.
70s ribosomes are seen in the cytoplasm of-……………..
A. White Blood cells
B. Neurons
C. Muscle cell
D. Bacterial cell
Answer:
D. Bacterial cell

Question 39.
The cell organelle, which is called the ‘protein factory of the cell’ is -…………………
A. Plastid
B. Golgi body
C. Nucleus
D. Ribosome
Answer:
D. Ribosome

Question 40.
The organisms which do not possess cytoplasm, are called-…………………
A. Prokaryotes
B. Mesokaryotes
C. Eukaryotes
D. None of these
Answer:
D. None of these

Question 41.
In prokaryotic cell, the function of mitochondria is replaced by-…………………
A. Polysome
B. Ribosome
C. Mesosome
D. Informosome
Answer:
C. Mesosome

Question 42.
The ‘Cell Theory’ was proposed by-…………………
A. Huxley
B. Schwann and Schleiden
C. Rudolf Virchow
D. Robert Hook
Answer:
B. Schwann and Schleiden

Question 43.
The letter ‘S’ of 80S ribosome indicates- …………………
A. Standard
B. Size
C. Sedimentation coefficient
D. All of these
Answer:
C. Sedimentation coefficient

Question 44.
Synthesis of proteins within a cell involves- …………………
A. Lysosome
B. Golgi body
C. Ribosome
D. Centrosome
Answer:
C. Ribosome

Fill in the blanks:

1. The 70S type of ribosome is found in a ……………. type of cell.
2. Oxysome is also known as ……………. particle.
3. ……………. is the cell organelle that helps in the formation of acrosome of a spermatozoa.
4. Total number of microtubule triplet in each centriole is …………….
5. Lysosome with undigested food materials is also named as …………..
6. Colourless, immature plastids are known as …………..
7. The term ………….. is used for a multinucleated animal cell.
8. An ………….. is the biggest cell in human body.
9. Middle lamella of cell-wall is formed from during cell division.
10. …………. is the cytoplasm with yolk and fat as stored material for nutrition.
11. Discs of thylakoids are stacked into a …………………
12. Mitochondrion and plastid are two semi-independent cell organelles as they have their own ……………….
Answer:
1. Prokaryotic
2. F₀ – F₁
3. Golgi body
4. 9/Nine
5. Residual body
6. Proplastids
7. Syncvtium
8. Egg! Ovum
9. Cell plate
10. Trophoplasm
11. Granum
12. DNA

State True or False

1. Both micronucleus and macronucleus can be seen in a Paramoecium cell. — True
2. Plasmodesmata are present in an animal cell. — False
3. A ribosome has two subunits of Parson. — False
4. Aleuroplast is a type of leucoplast which stores proteins. — True
5. Anthocyanin and betacyanin are two fat soluble pigments. —
6. 55S type of ribosomes are found in mitochondria. — True
7. Perinuciear space is the space between the two units of nuclear membrane. — True
8. Spherosome is also known as ‘Plant lysosome.’ — True
9. We can observe the presence of mucopeptide in plant cell wall. — False
10. Chromosomes are only visible in the dividing cells. — True
11. Extrinsic proteins are also called as Tunnel proteins. — False
12. Peridinium is an example of mesokaryotic organism. — True
13. Fernandez-Moran sub-unit is the other name of oxysome. — True

Match the columns

Left column	Right column
1. Ceil Wall	A. Robertson
2. Cell membrane	B. Robert Brown
3. Nucleus	C. Benda
4. Ribosome	D. Robert Hook
	E. George Palade

Answer:
1 – D; 2 – A; 3 – B; 4 – E

Left column	Right column
1. Pinocytosis	A. Ribosome
2. Krebs cycle	B. Chloroplastid
3. Protein synthesis	C. Pinosome
4. Photosynthesis	D. Cell wall
	E. Mitochondrion

Answer:
1-C; 2-E; 3-A; 4-B

Left column	Right column
1. Fibrous protein	A. Ribosome
2. Glycocalyx	B. Cell membrane
3. Homopoly­saccharide	C. Collagen
4. Stored Food	D. Starch
	E. Elaiopiast

Answer:
1-C; 2-B: 3-D; 4-E

Left column	Right column
1. Basic protein	A. Histone and DNA
2. Cell eating	B. Histone
3. Chromosome	C. Calcium pectate
4. Middle lamella	D. Phagosome
	E. Polysaccharide

Answer:
1-B: 2-D; 3-A; 4-C

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 2.1 Biomolecules and their Behaviour can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Biomolecules and their Behaviour Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
Existence of life depends upon………………….
A. Water
B. Mineral salts
C. Organic molecules
D. All of these
Answer:
D. All of these

Question 2.
Life forms on earth are composed of various………………….
A. Minerals
B. Organic matters
C. Chemical substances
D. Salts and water
Answer:
C. Chemical substances

Question 3.
Most abundant elements of a living body are………………….
A. Carbon, water and oxygen
B. Carbon and nitrogen
C. Water
D. Oxygen, hydrogen, carbon and nitrogen
Answer:
D. Oxygen, hydrogen, carbon and nitrogen

Question 4.
Medium of transportation in plants is………………….
A. Water
B. Phloem
C. Xylem
D. Both A. and B.
Answer:
A. Water

Question 5.
HCl in stomach helps in the digestion of………………….
A. Protein
B. Lactose
C. Maltose
D. Fructose
Answer:
A. Protein

Question 6.
Acidic chyme of stomach is neutralised by………………….
A. Bile salt
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. NaOH
D. KOH
Answer:
B. Sodium bicarbonate

Question 7.
Percentage of mineral salts present in cellular components is………………….
A. 10-30%
B. 1-3%
C. 0.1-0.3%
D. 0.01-0.03%
Answer:
B. 1-3%

Question 8.
A biomicromolecule is………………….
A. Glucose
B. Peptide
C. Lipid
D. Protein
Answer:
A. Glucose

Question 9.
The main energy generating biomolecule is………………….
A. Protein
B. Carbohydrate
C. Fat
D. Vitamin
Answer:
B. Carbohydrate

Question 10.
A simple carbohydrate molecule present in glycogen is………………….
A. Glucose
B. Fructose
C. Lactose
D. Galactose
Answer:
A. Glucose

Question 11.
The sugar present in milk is………………….
A. Sucrose
B. Maltose
C. Glucose
D. Lactose
Answer:
D. Lactose

Question 12.
Which of the following is not a disaccharide?
A. Lactose
B. Fructose
C. Sucrose
D. Maltose
Answer:
B. Fructose

Question 13.
A polypeptide is composed of many………………….
A. Monosaccharides
B. Proteins
C. Fatty acids
D. Amino acids
Answer:
D. Amino acids

Question 14.
Peptide bonds bind two………………….
A. Fatty acids
B. Amino acids
C. Monosaccharides
D. Proteins
Answer:
B. Amino acids

Question 15.
Nucleic acids are………………….
A. Polymers and amino acids
B. Present only in nucleus
C. Composed of many nucleotides
D. Composed of nucleoproteins
Answer:
C. Composed of many nucleotides

Question 16.
An oligosaccharide molecule is composed of ………………….
A. 1-2 monosaccharides
B. 3-9 monosaccharides
C. Many monosaccharides
D. None of these
Answer:
B. 3-9 monosaccharides

Question 17.
The main component of plant cell wall is………………….
A. Cellulose
B. Glycogen
C. Glucose
D. Lipid and protein
Answer:
A. Cellulose

Question 18.
Starch molecule is formed by………………….
A. Glucose
B. Maltose
C. Galactose
D. Lactose
Answer:
A. Glucose

Question 19.
Chemical name of common table sugar is………………….
A. Glucose
B. Fructose
C. Sucrose
D. Starch
Answer:
C. Sucrose

Question 20.
The main sugar present in honey is ………………….
A. Glucose
B. Fructose
C. Sucrose
D. Maltose
Answer:
B. Fructose

Question 21.
Which of the following carbohydrates is not digested in human intestine?
A. Glycogen
B. Cellulose
C. Maltose
D. Inulin
Answer:
B. Cellulose

Question 22.
The walls of xylem become rigid by………………….
A. Glycogen
B. Chitin
C. Cellulose
D. Lignin
Answer:
D. Lignin

Question 23.
The main component of fungal cell wall is………………….
A. Inulin
B. Chitin
C. Cellulose
D. Pectin
Answer:
B. Chitin

Question 24.
Which of the following is known as animal starch?
A. Glucose
B. Cellulose
C. Inulin
D. Glycogen
Answer:
D. Glycogen

Question 25.
Besides amino group, the other functional group present in an amino acid is………………….
A. Hydroxyl group
B. Carboxyl group
C. Aldehyde group
D. Ketone group
Answer:
B. Carboxyl group

Question 26.
Glycogen and starch are………………….
A. Monosaccharides
B. Disaccharides
C. Oligosaccharides
D. Polysaccharides
Answer:
D. Polysaccharides

Question 27.
Glucose and fructose are………………….
A. Monosaccharides
B. Disaccharides
C. Oligosaccharides
D. Polysaccharides
Answer:
A. Monosaccharides

Question 28.
Which are disaccharides?
A. Glucose and maltose
B. Sucrose and maltose
C. Sucrose and fructose
D. All of these
Answer:
B. Sucrose and maltose

Question 29.
The sugar present in sugarcane juice is ………………….
A. Fructose
B. Glucose
C. Maltose
D. Sucrose
Answer:
D. Sucrose

Question 30.
Structural component of a simple protein molecule is………………….
A. Peptide
B. Peptone
C. Amino acid
D. Nucleic acid
Answer:
C. Amino acid

Question 31.
Which of the following compounds is essentially a protein structure?
A. Hormone
B. Enzyme
C. Co-enzyme
D. Prostaglandin
Answer:
B. Enzyme

Question 32.
The two radicals of a protein molecule are………………….
A. Amino and ketone
B. Amino and carboxyl
C. Carboxyl and aldehyde
D. Aldehyde and ketone
Answer:
B. Amino and carboxyl

Question 33.
Which is not a conjugated protein?
A. Proteose
B. Nucleoprotein
C. Metalloprotein
D. Glycoprotein
Answer:
A. Proteose

Question 34.
Haemoglobin is a………………….
A. Simple protein
B. Conjugated protein
C. Derived protein
D. Colloidal protein
Answer:
B. Conjugated protein

Question 35.
Chromosome is a………………….
A. Combination of many nucleotides
B. Nucleoprotein substance
C. Combination of many proteins
D. Combination of proteins and lipids
Answer:
B. Nucleoprotein substance

Question 36.
Cell membrane is composed of………………….
A. Proteins and lipids
B. Proteins and polysaccharides
C. Proteins, lipids and carbohydrates
D. All of these
Answer:
C. Proteins, lipids and carbohydrates

Question 37.
An essential component of lipid is………………….
A. Nucleic acid
B. Malic acid
C. Fatty acid
D. Amino acid
Answer:
C. Fatty acid

Question 38.
Wax belongs to………………….
A. Carbohydrates
B. Lipids
C. Glycoproteins
D. Lipoproteins
Answer:
B. Lipids

Question 39.
Which of the following is a simple protein?
A. Haemoglobin
B. Nucleoprotein
C. Glycoprotein
D. Globulin
Answer:
D. Globulin

Question 40.
Which of the following is not a fibrous protein?
A. Collagen
B. Haemoglobin
C. Keratin
D. Elastin
Answer:
B. Haemoglobin

Question 41.
Which is a chromoprotein?
A. Gleadin
B. Keratin
C. Haemoglobin
D. Elastin
Answer:
C. Haemoglobin

Question 42.
Which has close association with fibrous protein?
A. Centrosome
B. Golgi body
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Mitochondria
Answer:
A. Centrosome

Question 43.
Each fatty acid has a hydrocarbon chain ending with………………….
A. Hydroxyl group
B. Aldehyde group
C. Ketone group
D. Carboxyl group
Answer:
D. Carboxyl group

Question 44.
Which of the following combinations of vitamins are fat soluble?
A. Vit. A, vit. B and vit. K
B. Vit. A, vit. B and vit. C
C. Vit. A, vit. D and vit. E
D. Vit. B, vit. C and vit. P
Answer:
C. Vit. A, vit. D and vit. E

Question 45.
DNA is a………………….
A. Single stranded chain of nucleotides
B. Double stranded chain of polypeptides
C. Double stranded chain of nucleotides
D. Double stranded chain of amino acids
Answer:
C. Double stranded chain of nucleotides

Question 46.
The nitrogenous base, absent in DNA is………………….
A. Adenine
B. Thymine
C. Uracil
D. All of these
Answer:
C. Uracil

Question 47.
Which combination includes all macroelements?
A. Calcium, magnesium and boron
B. Sodium, potassium and iodine
C. Sodium, molybdenum and iron
D. Potassium, calcium and phosphorus
Answer:
D. Potassium, calcium and phosphorus

Question 48.
A vitamin related to blood coagulation is………………….
A. Vit. A
B. Vit. E
C. Vit. D
D. Vit. K
Answer:
D. Vit. K

Question 49.
Which combination of vitamins and minerals is related to formation of bones and teeth?
A. Vit. A and phosphorus
B. Vit. D and calcium
C. Vit. C and calcium
D. Vit. D and sodium
Answer:
B. Vit. D and calcium

Question 50.
To get vitamin K, you will have to eat………………….
A. Guava
B. Lettuce
C. Butter
D. Tomato
Answer:
B. Lettuce

Question 51.
Pellagra is caused due to the deficiency of………………….
A. Vit. B₂
B. Vit. B₂
C. Vit. B₁
D. Vit. B₁₂
Answer:
B. Vit. B₂

Question 52.
Contraction of muscie is concerned with………………….
A. Collagen
B. Myosin
C. Elastin
D. Keratin
Answer:
B. Myosin

Question 53.
Pernicious anaemia occurs due to deficiency of………………….
A. Vit. B₆
B. Vit. B₅
C. Vit. B₃
D. Vit. B₁₂
Answer:
D. Vit. B₁₂

Question 54.
Number of amino acids taking part in protein synthesis is………………….
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
Answer:
B. 20

Question 55.
The non………………….protein component of a haemoglobin molecule is………………….
A. Magnesium
B. Calcium
C. Copper
D. Iron
Answer:
D. Iron

Question 56.
Which protein is found in our nails and hairs?
A. Keratin
B. Elastin
C. Collagen
D. Globulin
Answer:
A. Keratin

Question 57.
Sulphur………………….containing amino acid is………………….
A. Serine
B. Valine
C. Methionine
D. Isoleucine
Answer:
C. Methionine

Question 58.
An essential amino acid is………………….
A. Valine
B. Glutamic acid
C. Argenine
D. Glycine
Answer:
A. Valine

Question 59.
95 of total vitamin A absorbed in human body is stored in………………….
A. Kidney
B. Lungs
C. Liver
D. Stomach
Answer:
C. Liver

Question 60.
The bond present in protein molecules, is………………….
A. Covalent bond
B. Peptide bond
C. Electrovalent bond
D. Glycosidic bond
Answer:
B. Peptide bond

Question 61.
Which of the following carbohydrates is present in RNA?
A. Ribulose
B. De-oxyribose
C. Ribose
D. None of these
Answer:
C. Ribose

Question 62.
Lipid is an………………….
A. Acidic compound
B. Alcoholic compound
C. Ester
D. Aldehyde
Answer:
C. Ester

Question 63.
An essential fatty acid is………………….
A. Stearic acid
B. Oleic acid
C. Linolenic acid
D. All of these
Answer:
C. Linolenic acid

Question 64.
Simple structural formula of carbohydrate is………………….
A. C_n(H₂O)_n-1
B. (C₆H₁₀O₅)_n
C. (CH₂O)_n
D. R-COOH
Answer:
C. (CH₂O)_n

Question 65.
Simple structural formula of a lipid is………………….
A. C – ROOH
B. R-CHO
C. R-COOH
D. R=CO
Answer:
C. R-COOH

Question 66.
Simple structural formula of an amino acid is………………….
A. R – CHNH₂ COOH
B. NH₂-R=CO₂
C. R-COOH
D. R-NH₂
Answer:
A. R – CHNH₂ COOH

Question 67.
An example of contractile protein is………………….
A. Keratin
B. Collagen
C. Haemoglobin
D. Elastin
Answer:
D. Elastin

Question 68.
One useful lipoprotein for human is………………….
A. LDL
B. HDL
C. VLDL
D. DL
Answer:
B. HDL

Question 69.
A hydrophobic amino acid is………………….
A. Leucine
B. Tyrosine
C. Histidine
D. Serine
Answer:
A. Leucine

Question 70.
Molecules of disaccharides are held together by………………….
A. Hydrogen bond
B. Peptide bond
C. Glycosidic bond
D. Nitrogen bond
Answer:
C. Glycosidic bond

Question 71.
The carbohydrate, which does not belong to the ketose group………………….
A. Erythrose
B. Fructose
C. Xylulose
D. Ribulose
Answer:
A. Erythrose

Question 72.
Sugar present in DNA molecule is composed of………………….
A. 6-Carbon
B. 5-Carbon
C. 4-Carbon
D. 1-Carbon
Answer:
B. 5-Carbon

Question 73.
Purines include………………….
A. Adenine and guanine
B. Thymine and cytosine
C. Thymine and adenine
D. Guanine and cytosine
Answer:
A. Adenine and guanine

Question 74.
In a DNA molecule, hydrogen bonding occurs between………………….
A. Adenine and guanine
B. Thymine and cytosine
C. Adenine and cytosine
D. Guanine and cytosine
Answer:
D. Guanine and cytosine

Question 75.
Nitrogenous base present in both DNA and RNA are………………….
A. Adenine, guanine, cytosine
B. Adenine, guanine, thymine
C. Adenine, thymine, uracil
D. Adenine, guanine, uracil
Answer:
A. Adenine, guanine, cytosine

Question 76.
Chlorosis in plants can be seen in deficiency of………………….
A. Calcium
B. Magnesium
C. Oxygen
D. Sodium
Answer:
B. Magnesium

Question 77.
Highest calorific value is seen in which of the following four nutrients?
A. Protein
B. Carbohydrate
C. Fat
D. Vitamin
Answer:
C. Fat

Question 78.
Name the vitamin that helps in developing immunity against common cough and cold.
A. Retinol
B. Pantothenic acid
C. Ascorbic acid
D. Calciferol
Answer:
C. Ascorbic acid

Question 79.
Which of the following food items should one take to prevent xerophthaimia?
A. Papaya
B. Pulses
C. Carrot
D. Beans
Answer:
C. Carrot

Question 80.
Which vitamin can reduce the chance of foetal death?
A. Vit. B₁₂
B. Vit. E
C. Vit. K
D. Vit. B₆
Answer:
B. Vit. E

Question 81.
Hydrolysis of sucrose produces………………….
A. Glucose + Galactose
B. Glucose + Fructose
C. Glucose + Glucose
D. Glucose + Mannose
Answer:
B. Glucose + Fructose

Question 82.
Which combination of elements is widely used in making fertilisers?
A. N, C, H
B. N, P, K
C. N, Fe, Mg
D. Mn, K,C
Answer:
B. N, P, K

Question 83.
A microelement helping in fixation and assimilation of nitrogen………………….
A. Molybdenum
B. Magnesium
C. Manganese
D. Potassium
Answer:
A. Molybdenum

Question 84.
The disease caused by deficiency of iodine is………………….
A. Night blindness
B. Beriberi
C. Goitre
D. Anaemia
Answer:
C. Goitre

Question 85.
The provitamin of vitamin A is………………….
A. Beta carotene
B. Retinol
C. Calciferol
D. Pyrithiamine
Answer:
A. Beta carotene

Question 86.
Contraction of muscles is controlled by………………….
A. Magnesium
B. Calcium
C. Phosphorus
D. Iron
Answer:
B. Calcium

Fill in the blanks:

1. Maltotriose is an example of …………… saccharide.
2. In the process of ……………, fats are hydrolised in presence of alkali to produce soap and glycerol.
3. In 1912, the term ‘vitamin’ was first coined by ……………
4. ‘Biotin’ was previously known as ……………
5. Calorific value of fat is …………… kcal / g.
6. The chemical name of vitamin K is ……………
7. In animals, fat is stored in …………… cell.
8. Name of the protein present in white part of egg is ……………
9. …………… is example of longest chain fatty acid.
10. The vitamin which helps in production of insulin is ……………
11. We get vitamin …………… from Streptomyces griseus.
12. Osteoporosis is caused due to deficiency of …………… in bones.
Answer:
1. Oligo
2. Saponification
3. Casimir Funk
4. Vitamin H
5. 9.3
6. Phylloquinone
7. Adipose
8. Albumin
9. Palmitic acid/Linoleic acid
10. Vitamin C/Ascorbic acid
11. B₁₂
12. Calcium

State True or False

1. Glucose is a pentose sugar. — False
2. C_n(H₂O)_n-1 is the basic molecular formula of oligosaccharides. — True
3. Avitaminosis refers to a state of lacking vitamins. — True
4. Carbonic acid is involved in the transportation of carbon dioxide gas. — True
5. Chemical name of B₁₂ is cyanocobalamin. — True
6. We may suffer from ketosis due to malnutrition of fat. — False
7. Roughage mainly consists of cellulose. — True
8. Disaccharides cannot be hydrolised further to their smaller units. — False
9. Cytosin is a non-nitrogenous base present in DNA. —
10. Vitamin C can be dissolved in water. — True
11. Non-histone proteins are basic in nature. — False
12. In presence of sunlight, vitamin-D is synthesised within human body. — True
13. Dissacharide maltose is present in jaggery. — True
14. Ratio of hydrogen and oxygen present in carbohydrate is 3: 1. — False

Match the columns

Left column	Right column
1. PUFA	A. Deficiency of vitamin A
2. Protein	B. Omega 3-fatty acid
3. Phrynoderma	C. Respiration
4. Pyruvic acid	D. 4.1 kcal/g
	E. Fatty acid

Answer:
1-8; 2-D; 3-A; 4-C

Left column	Right column
1. Peptide bond	A. Claws, horns
2. Keratin	B. Carbohydrate
3. Glycosidic bond	C. Protein
4. Ketohexose	D. Lipid
	E. Fructose

Answer:
1-C; 2-A; 3-B; 4-E

Left column	Right column
1. Hibernation	A. Heating of protein molecule
2, Rancidity	B. Animal cellulose
3. Tunicin	C. Fat provides energy
4. Denaturation	D. Solidified ester
	E. Bad odour from old fat

Answer:
1-C; 2-E; 3-B; 4-A

Left column	Right column
1. Scurvy	A. Osmoregulation
2. Salt	B. Cholesterol
3. Manganese	C. Vitamin C
4. Egg yolk	D. Inuiln
	E. Microelement

Answer:
1-C; 2-A; 3-E; 4-B

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 3.5 Excretion can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Excretion Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
One objective of excretion is –
(A) Disposal of metabolic waste matters
(B) Disposal of excess water
(C) Disposal of unwanted salts
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 2.
Plants dispose their excretory matters by –
(A) Shedding leaves
(B) Shedding fruits
(C) Exfoliation of bark
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 3.
‘Dhuna’ is a , secreted from sal tree.
(A) Gum
(B) Resin
(C) Alkaloid
(D) Olio resin
Answer:
(B) Resin

Question 4.
Camphor is a –
(A) Gum
(B) Resin
(C) Alkaloid
(D) Olio resin
Answer:
(A) Gum

Question 5.
A latex producing plant is –
(A) Pine
(B) Calotropis
(C) Mango
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Answer:
(D) Both (B) and (C)

Question 6.
Papain is secreted from –
(A) Pea
(B) Papaya
(C) Pumpkin
(D) Potato
Answer:
(B) Papaya

Question 7.
Rauvolfia is the source of-
(A) Quinine
(B) Reserpine
(C) Morphine
(D) Tannin
Answer:
(B) Reserpine

Question 8.
A non-nitrogenous plant excretory matter is –
(A) Reserpine
(B) Caffeine
(C) Daturine
(D) Tannin
Answer:
(D) Tannin

Question 9.
A nitrogenous plant excretory product is-
(A) Latex
(B) Tannin
(C) Resin
(D) Theine
Answer:
(D) Theine

Question 10.
Which is used as a strong pain kilier?
(A) Daturine
(B) Quinine
(C) Tannin
(D) Morphine
Answer:
(D) Morphine

Question 11.
Which of the following is used as a nerve soother and blood pressure regulator?
(A) Reserpine
(B) Morphine
(C) Caffeine
(D) Tannin
Answer:
(A) Reserpine

Question 12.
Excretory organ of unicellular organism is-
(A) Lysosome
(B) Contractile vacuole
(C) Endoplasmic reticula
(D) Golgi body
Answer:
(B) Contractile vacuole

Question 13.
Flame cells are seen in-
(A) Tapeworm
(B) Earthworm
(C) Round worm
(D) Caterpillar
Answer:
(A) Tapeworm

Question 14.
Nephridia open outside the body through-
(A) Nephrostome
(B) Nephridiopore
(C) Excretory pore
(D) Anus
Answer:
(B) Nephridiopore

Question 15.
Malpighian tubule is associated with the excretory system of-
(A) Tapeworms
(B) Earthworms
(C) Insects
(D) Starfishes
Answer:
(C) Insects

Question 16.
Outer covering of human kidney is popularly known as –
(A) Pericardium
(B) Pleura
(C) Renal cortex
(D) Capsule
Answer:
(D) Capsule

Question 17.
Uretar comes out from-
(A) Pelvis
(B) Renal cortex
(C) Renal medulla
(D) Major calyces
Answer:
(A) Pelvis

Question 18.
An example of uricotelic organism is –
(A) Human
(B) Monkey
(C) Bird
(D) Amoeba
Answer:
(C) Bird

Question 19.
Malpighian corpuscle is composed of-
(A) Afferent and efferent arteriole
(B) Bowman’s capsule and efferent arteriole
(C) Glomerular filtrate
(D) None of these
Answer:
(D) None of these

Question 20.
Transfer of excretory matters from blood to the nephron occurs at-
(A) Bowman’s capsule
(B) Glomerulus
(C) Malpighian corpuscle
(D) Malpighian tubule
Answer:
(C) Malpighian corpuscle

Question 21.
The major site for water absorption in nephron is-
(A) Malpighian corpuscle
(B) Proximal convoluted tubule
(C) Loop of Henle
(D) Distal convoluted tubule
Answer:
(C) Loop of Henle

Question 22.
The component present in glomeruiar filtrate but absent in normal urine, is-
(A) Blood
(B) Protein
(C) Ammonia
(D) Creatinine
Answer:
(B) Protein

Question 23.
Ketone body is an excretory product produced during metabolism of-
(A) Amino acid
(B) Monosaccharide
(C) Fat
(D) Proteins
Answer:
(C) Fat

Question 24.
is excreted through the lungs.
(A) Amino acids
(B) CO₂
(C) Acetone
(D) Uric acid
Answer:
(B) CO₂

Fill in the blanks :

1. A flavour adding plant product, asafoetida is a _____.
2. A latex, named _____ is used as a digestive enzyme.
3. Amino acids are reabsorbed in the _____ tubule of nephron.
4. Creatine and _____ are secreted in the distal convoluted tubule.
5. _____ is the largest excretory organ of the human body.
6. The proximal end of nephron consists of _____.
7. _____ is the structural and functional unit of the kidneys.
8. _____ is the plant excretory product present in apples.
9. In animals, urea is produced as an end product of _____ metabolism.
10. The base of urethra is equipped with _______ muscles, which help to hold the urine inside urinary bladder.

Answer:

1. Resin
2. Papain
3. Proximal convoluted
4. Creatinine
5. Skin
6. Bowman’s capsule
7. Nephron
8. Malic Acid
9. Protein
10. Sphincter

State true or false :

1. Resin of pine is used as a fixative of lime based paints.
2. Alkaloids are soluble in water but insoluble in ethyl alcohol.
3. Coffee is obtained from seeds of Coffea arabica plant.
4. Paramoecium carries out excretion by forming contractile vacuoles.
5. The concave face of the kidney is called pelvis.
6. The afferent renal arteriole comes out of the Bowman’s capsule.
7. Creatine and creatinine are secreted from the proximal convoluted tubule.
8. A nephron has 2 parts-malpighian tubule and renal tubule.
9. In cockroach, malpighian tubules absorb nitrogenous waste matters from haemolymph.
10. In liver fluke, the entire excretory matter is disposed finally through excretory pore.
11. Nephridium is the excretory organ of annelids.
12. Human skin has no function in excretion.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. True
6. False
7. False
8. False
9. True
10. True
11. True
12. False

Match the columns :

Question 1.

Left column	Right column
1. Contractile vacuole	A. Dog
2. Flame cell	B. Amoeba
3. Nephridia	C. Butterfly
4. Malpighian tubule	D. Tapeworm
	E. Leech

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Contractile vacuole	B. Amoeba
2. Flame cell	D. Tapeworm
3. Nephridia	E. Leech
4. Malpighian tubule	C. Butterfly

Question 2.

Left column	Right column
1. Reserpine	A. Cinchona officinalis
2. Morphine	B. Rauvolfia serpentina
3. Quinine	C. Camellia sinensis
4. Caffeine	D. Papever somniferum
	E. Coffea arabica

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Reserpine	B. Rauvolfia serpentina
2. Morphine	D. Papever somniferum
3. Quinine	A. Cinchona officinalis
4. Caffeine	E. Coffea arabica

Question 3.

Left column	Right column
1. Heart	A. Capsule
2. Muscle	B. Pleura
3. Lungs	C. Pericardium
4. Kidney	D. Meninges
	E. Perimysium

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Heart	C. Pericardium
2. Muscle	E. Perimysium
3. Lungs	B. Pleura
4. Kidney	A. Capsule

Question 4.

Left column	Right column
1. Lungs	A. Ventricles
2. Kidney	B. Villi
3. Nerves	C. Alveoli
4. Small intestine	D. Nephron
	E. Neuron

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Lungs	C. Alveoli
2. Kidney	D. Nephron
3. Nerves	E. Neuron
4. Small intestine	B. Villi

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 4.1 Immunity and Human Diseases can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Immunity and Human Diseases Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
The word ‘immunis’ means-
(A) Exempt
(B) Recovery
(C) Health
(D) Hygiene
Answer:
(A) Exempt

Question 2.
Which of the following is involved in immunity?
(A) Lymphocyte cells
(B) Plasma proteins
(C) Lymph and lymph gland
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 3.
Chemically antigen is a-
(A) Polysaccharide
(B) Lipoprotein
(C) Glycoprotein
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 4.
Soil dwelling bacterium that enters into the body through broken skin or wound is-
(A) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
(B) Clostridium tetani
(C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(D) All of these
Answer:
(B) Clostridium tetani

Question 5.
Which of the following is not an immunological response?
(A) Formation of antibody in response to antigen
(B) Monocytes killing germs by phagocytosis
(C) Antibody formation by vaccination
(D) Killing germs by antibiotic
Answer:
(D) Killing germs by antibiotic

Question 6.
Protection of body against common cold is –
(A) Innate immunity
(B) Acquired passive immunity
(C) Acquired active immunity
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Innate immunity

Question 7.
Immunity against chicken pox that is developed by a person after first infection from the same disease is –
(A) Innate immunity
(B) Active acquired immunity
(C) Passive acquired immunity
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Active acquired immunity

Question 8.
In B-cells ‘B’ indicates-
(A) B blood group
(B) B-agglutinogen
(C) Beta antibody
(D) Bursa fabricius
Answer:
(D) Bursa fabricius

Question 9.
Cell-mediated response involves-
(A) Helper T-cells
(B) Plasma Cells
(C) Antibodies
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Helper T-cells

Question 10.
T-cells mature in-
(A) Bone marrow
(B) Blood
(C) Thymus gland
(D) Kidney
Answer:
(C) Thymus gland

Question 11.
Humoral response is related to-
(A) T_s-cells
(B) T_c-cells
(C) Antibodies
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Antibodies

Question 12.
Helper T-cells activate-
(A) Phagocytic macrophage
(B) Killer T-cells
(C) B-cells
(D) Both (b) & (c)
Answer:
(D) Both (b) & (c)

Question 13.
Which cells produce specific antibody to inactivate antigens?
(A) T-lymphocytes
(B) RBC
(C) Plasma cells
(D) Macrophages
Answer:
(C) Plasma cells

Question 14.
Active immunity develops within the body by-
(A) Inflow of antibodies from mother’s blood to foetal blood through placental circulation
(B) Blood transfusion
(C) Primary infection of any antigenic pathogen
(D) Direct injection of antibodies into the body
Answer:
(C) Primary infection of any antigenic pathogen

Question 15.
Passive immunity develops within the body by-
(A) Direct injection of any attenuated germ
(B) Inflow of antibodies from mother to foetus through placental circulation
(C) Injection of a toxin, extracted from antigenic pathogen
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Inflow of antibodies from mother to foetus through placental circulation

Question 16.
Formation of antibody depends directly upon-
(A) Cytotoxic T-cells
(B) Helper T-cells
(C) Monocytes
(D) Plasma cells
Answer:
(D) Plasma cells

Question 17.
Memory cells, involved in immune response are formed by-
(A) Neutrophils
(B) Basophils
(C) Monocytes
(D) Lymphocytes
Answer:
(D) Lymphocytes

Question 18.
Memory cells are stored in-
(A) Brain
(B) Liver
(C) Spleen
(D) Kidney
Answer:
(C) Spleen

Question 19.
Cytotoxic T-cells kill-
(A) Healthy body cells
(B) Infected body cells
(C) Macrophages
(D) All of these
Answer:
(B) Infected body cells

Question 20.
An antiviral substance produced within a virus-infected cell to prevent proliferation and spreading of virus is-
(A) Antigen
(B) Antibody
(C) Interferon
(D) Toxin
Answer:
(C) Interferon

Question 21.
Vaccine against small pox was first successfully applied by-
(A) Pasteur
(B) Koch
(C) Fleming
(D) Jenner
Answer:
(D) Jenner

Question 22.
Who is known as the father of immunology?
(A) Louis Pasteur
(B) Edward Jenner
(C) Alexander Fleming
(D) Robert Koch
Answer:
(B) Edward Jenner

Question 23.
Louis Pasteur was famous for-
(A) Invention of chicken pox vaccine
(B) Invention of rabies vaccine
(C) Invention of vaccination process
(D) Invention of immunization technique
Answer:
(B) Invention of rabies vaccine

Question 24.
The names of Sara Nelmes and James Phipps are related to-
(A) Small pox vaccine
(B) Chicken pox vaccine
(C) Cow pox vaccine
(D) Cholera vaccine
Answer:
(A) Small pox vaccine

Question 25.
The main immunoglobulin present in blood plasma is –
(A) IgA
(B) IgG
(C) IgM
(D) IgD
Answer:
(B) IgG

Question 26.
The immunoglobulin, which reaches the body of neonates through colostrum is-
(A) IgA
(B) IgG
(C) IgM
(C) IgD
Answer:
(A) IgA

Question 27.
Which of the following is present on the cell membrane of mast cells and B-lymphocytes?
(A) IgE
(B) IgG
(C) IgM
(D) IgA
Answer:
(A) IgE

Question 28.
Select the correct option from the following-
(A) An IgG molecule has two antigen binding sites and one heavy and one light chain
(B) IgG molecule is composed of two light and two heavy chains
(C) An antigen-binding site of IgG is made up of two light chains
(D) An antigen-binding site of IgG is composed of two heavy chains
Answer:
(B) IgG molecule is composed of two light and two heavy chains

Question 29.
A disease, that has been completely eradicated by vaccination is –
(A) Diphtheria
(B) Small pox
(C) Chicken pox
(D) Polio
Answer:
(B) Small pox

Question 30.
Toxoid vaccine is applied to immunize the body against-
(A) Small pox
(B) Hepatitis B
(C) Diphtheria
(D) Cholera
Answer:
(C) Diphtheria

Question 31.
In attenuated vaccine-
(A) Dead germs are used
(B) Living but inactive germs are used
(C) Toxins from the germs are used
(D) Combination of bacteria and viruses are used
Answer:
(B) Living but inactive germs are used

Question 32.
Killed germs are used to immunise against-
(A) Tetanus
(B) Plague
(C) Diphtheria
(D) All of these
Answer:
(B) Plague

Question 33.
DPT is a-
(A) Attenuated vaccine
(B) Inactive vaccine
(C) Toxoid
(D) Combination vaccine
Answer:
(D) Combination vaccine

Question 34.
Smail pox was deciared officially as an eradicated disease by WHO in the year-
(A) 1977
(B) 1978
(C) 1796
(D) 1980
Answer:
(D) 1980

Question 35.
DPT vaccine immunises babies against –
(A) Diarrhoea, Polio and Typhoid
(B) Diphtheria, Pertussis and Typhoid
(C) Diphtheria, Pertussis and Tuberculosis
(D) Diphtheria, Pertussis and Tetanus
Answer:
(D) Diphtheria, Pertussis and Tetanus

Question 36.
BCG vaccine is applied to immunise babies against-
(A) Polio
(B) Whooping cough
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Cholera
Answer:
(C) Tuberculosis

Question 37.
Spienomegaly or enlargement of spleen is a common symptom of-
(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Malaria
(C) Hepatitis B
(D) Dengue
Answer:
(B) Malaria

Question 38.
Washing hand before taking food can prevent-
(A) Diarrhoea
(B) Dysentery
(C) Polio
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 39.
Orally administrable vaccine-
(A) Salk polio vaccine
(B) Sabin polio vaccine
(C) Cholera vaccine
(D) Rubella vaccine
Answer:
(B) Sabin polio vaccine

Question 40.
Which one of the following is not related to phagocytosis process-
(A) Macrophages
(B) Lymphocytes
(C) Neutrophils
(D) Monocytes
Answer:
(B) Lymphocytes

Question 41.
Effectiveness of a vaccine is retained within the body by-
(A) Helper T-cells
(B) Macrophage cells
(C) Memory T and B-cells
(D) All lymphocytes
Answer:
(C) Memory T and B-cells

Question 42.
Diarrhoea may be caused by-
(A) Entamoeba
(B) Shigella
(C) Salmonella
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 43.
Which of the following diseases may be caused by protozoa, bacteria and even virus?
(A) Cholera
(B) Diphtheria
(C) Pneumonia
(D) Diarrhoea
Answer:
(D) Diarrhoea

Question 44.
Prolonged diarrhoea results into-
(A) Severe respiratory distress
(B) Dehydration of the body
(C) Very high fever
(D) Severe headache
Answer:
(B) Dehydration of the body

Question 45.
The organism acting as a vector for diarrhoea causing pathogen is –
(A) House Fly
(B) Cockroach
(C) Both
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Both

Question 46.
Feeling of extreme chill followed by very high fever is the symptom of –
(A) Pneumonia
(B) Diphtheria
(C) Malaria
(D) Dengue
Answer:
(C) Malaria

Question 47.
Plasmodium, the pathogen of malaria is a type of-
(A) Bacteria
(B) Virus
(C) Fungus
(D) Protozoa
Answer:
(D) Protozoa

Question 48.
Vector of malarial pathogen is-
(A) Female Anopheles mosquito
(B) Male Anopheles mosquito
(C) Female Culex mosquito
(D) Female Aedes mosquito
Answer:
(A) Female Anopheles mosquito

Question 49.
Inflamed tonsil with white sheath over it indicates –
(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Pneumonia
(C) Diphtheria
(D) All of these
Answer:
(C) Diphtheria

Question 50.
Diphtheria is caused by-
(A) Mycobacterium
(B) Corynebacterium
(C) Streptococcus
(D) Plasmodium
Answer:
(B) Corynebacterium

Question 51.
Respiratory droplets may cause infections like-
(A) Malaria, Cholera and Diarrhoea
(B) Diphtheria, Tuberculosis and Tetanus
(C) Tuberculosis, Diphtheria and Pneumonia
(D) Tuberculosis, Dengue and Diphtheria
Answer:
(C) Tuberculosis, Diphtheria and Pneumonia

Question 52.
Lock Jaw disease is caused by the infection of –
(A) Dengue virus
(B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
(C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(D) Clostridium tetani
Answer:
(D) Clostridium tetani

Question 53.
Lungs are affected in-
(A) Tuberculosis and diarrhoea
(B) Pneumonia and tuberculosis
(C) Tuberculosis and dengue
(D) All of these
Answer:
(B) Pneumonia and tuberculosis

Question 54.
Prolonged dry cough with quick loss of weight is a common indication of-
(A) Diphtheria
(B) Dengue
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Pneumonia
Answer:
(C) Tuberculosis

Question 55.
Severe joint pain with high fever and occasional rash on the back and shoulder are the common symptoms of-
(A) Malaria
(B) Chicken pox
(C) Pneumonia
(D) Dengue
Answer:
(D) Dengue

Question 56.
Transmission of which of the following diseases is caused by contaminated blood transfusion?
(A) Malaria, Tuberculosis and AIDS
(B) Malaria, Hepatitis B and AIDS
(C) Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B and AIDS
(D) AIDS only
Answer:
(B) Malaria, Hepatitis B and AIDS

Question 57.
Transmission of which of the following diseases are caused by contaminated food and water?
(A) Diarrhoea
(B) Diarrhoea and Hepatitis A
(C) Hepatitis A and Hepatitis B
(D) Hepatitis B only
Answer:
(B) Diarrhoea and Hepatitis A

Question 58.
Small pox vaccination as well as foundation of immunology has been laid down by-
(A) Robert Koch
(B) Louis Pasteur
(C) Edward Jenner
(D) Ronald Ross
Answer:
(C) Edward Jenner

Question 59.
Flavivirus causes-
(A) Dengue
(B) Hepatitis B
(C) AIDS
(D) Viral diarrhoea
Answer:
(A) Dengue

Question 60.
Which of these diseases may be transmitted sexually?
(A) AIDS and Hepatitis B
(B) Hepatitis A and AIDS
(C) Tuberculosis and Hepatitis B
(D) Hepatitis B, Hepatitis A and AIDS
Answer:
(A) AIDS and Hepatitis B

Question 61.
Which of the following set of diseases are of viral origin?
(A) Hepatitis B, Hepatitis A, Dengue and AIDS
(B) Dengue, Malaria and AIDS
(C) Tuberculosis and Pneumonia
(D) Hepatitis B, Hepatitis A, Tetanus and AIDS
Answer:
(A) Hepatitis B, Hepatitis A, Dengue and AIDS

Question 62.
Which cell of human body is damaged by HIV?
(A) Lymphocyte
(B) Eosinophil
(C) Macrophage
(D) Red blood cell
Answer:
(A) Lymphocyte

Question 63.
Vector of dengue virus is –
(A) Female Anopheles mosquito
(B) Male Anopheles mosquito
(C) Female Culex mosquito
(D) Female Aedes mosquito
Answer:
(D) Female Aedes mosquito

Question 64.
Which pathogen is not spread through blood?
(A) Hepatitis A
(B) Hepatitis B
(C) Malarial parasite
(D) HIV
Answer:
(A) Hepatitis A

Question 65.
ORS treatment protects a diarrhoea patient from-
(A) Abdominal pain
(B) Muscular cramp
(C) Thirst
(D) Dehydration
Answer:
(D) Dehydration

Question 66.
Personal level of washing includes-
(A) Brushing teeth
(B) Bathing
(C) Cleaning hands before taking food
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 67.
Which is treated as family level of washing?
(A) Bathing
(B) Cleaning toilet
(C) Cleaning hands
(D) All of these
Answer:
(B) Cleaning toilet

Question 68.
Social level of washing includes-
(A) Washing the door-step of your house
(B) Washing the water reservoir of your house
(C) Washing the toilets of rail station premises
(D) All of these
Answer:
(C) Washing the toilets of rail station premises

Question 69.
A disinfectant used for personal washing is –
(A) Bleaching powder
(B) Phenyl
(C) Hand sanitiser
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Hand sanitiser

Question 70.
A common but very effective disinfectant for cut wound is –
(A) Soap
(B) Ethyl alcohol
(C) Methyl alcohol
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 71.
Consuming a ripe tomato by plucking it directly from the plant of a field is harmful, as it may carry-
(A) Eggs of parasitic worms
(B) Remnants of pesticides
(C) Dirt and mud
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 72.
Which organisation has developed a global strategy to lift the standard of health of school children?
(A) UNICEF
(B) UNO
(C) WHO
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) UNICEF

Fill in the blanks :

1. Plasma cells produce specific antibodies to inactivate _____.
2. Tetanus vaccine is prepared by inactivated _____ from Clostridium tetani.
3. In ‘ T ‘ cells, ‘T ‘ indicate _____.
4. Two types of B cells are plasma cells and _____ cells.
5. The ability of body to resist harmful effect of pathogens is known as _____.
6. ‘WASH’ programme was developed by _____.
7. Small pox vaccine is a _____ vaccine.
8. _____ cells destroy T_C cells and T_H Cells.
9. Memory cells stay in _____ glands.
10. Acquired _____ immunity develops naturally due to the introduction of antigens.
11. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a pathogenic _____.
12. Thymus gland is a _____ lymphoid organ.

Answer:

1. Antigens
2. Toxin
3. Thymus
4. Memory
5. Immunity
6. UNICEF
7. Heterotypic
8. Suppressor
9. Lymph
10. Active
11. Bacterium
12. Primary

State true or false :

1. Vaccine against Hepatitis $B$ is an example of subunit vaccine.
2. Toxic chemicals like snake venom can act as antigens.
3. Stiffness of muscles with severe pain is a symptom of diarrhoea.
4. Tuberculosis is a virus borne disease.
5. Female Aedes aegypti mosquito carries Flavivirus from a diseased person to a healthy individual.
6. Antigens mainly include proteins.
7. IgM is a pentamer.
8. IgA is present in tears.
9. AIDS is transmitted through drinking water.
10. Yellowing of skin and eye is a symptom of pneumonia.
11. Vaccination develops artificial active immunity.
12. Epitope is a part of antibody.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. True
8. True
9. False
10. False
11. True
12. False

Match the columns :

Question 1.

Left column	Right column
1. Vaccine of plague	A. Heterotypic vaccine
2. Vaccine of mumps	B. Subunit vaccine
3. Vaccine of small pox	C. Attenuated vaccine
4. Vaccine of hepatitis B	D. Killed vaccine
	E. Conjugate Vaccine

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Vaccine of plague	D. Killed vaccine
2. Vaccine of mumps	C. Attenuated vaccine
3. Vaccine of small pox	A. Heterotypic vaccine
4. Vaccine of hepatitis B	B. Subunit vaccine

Question 2.

Left column	Right column
1. Cause of diarrhoea	A. Retro virus
2. Cause of malaria	B. Flavivirus
3. Cause of AIDS	C. E.coli
4. Cause of Dengue	D. Plasmodium vivax
	E. Rotavirus

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Cause of diarrhoea	E. Rotavirus
2. Cause of malaria	D. Plasmodium vivax
3. Cause of AIDS	A. Retro virus
4. Cause of Dengue	B. Flavivirus

Question 3.

Left column	Right column
1. T-cell	A. Part of antigen
2. Plasma cells	B. Cell-mediated immunity
3. Interferon	C. Part of antibody
4. Epitope	D. Viral infection
	E. Humoral immunity

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. T-cell	B. Cell-mediated immunity
2. Plasma cells	E. Humoral immunity
3. Interferon	D. Viral infection
4. Epitope	A. Part of antigen

Question 4.

Left column	Right column
1. lgA	A. Pentamer
2. lgE	B. Allergic reaction
3. lgM	C. Dimer
4. lgG	D. Placenta
	E. Trimer

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. lgA	D. Placenta
2. lgE	B. Allergic reaction
3. lgM	A. Pentamer
4. lgG	D. Placenta

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 1.3D Classification of Kingdom Animalia can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Classification of Kingdom Animalia Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
Multicellular animals without true tissues, belong to phylum-……………
A. Cnidaria
B. Porifera
C. Ctenophora
D. Protozoa
Answer:
B. Porifera

Question 2.
Which of the following phyla has numerous pores over its body to allow water to come inside?
A. Echinodermata
B. Mollusca
C. Porifera
D. Cnidaria
Answer:
C. Porifera

Question 3.
Which of the following features is absent in non-chordates?
A. Metameric segmentation
B. Bilateral symmetry
C. Axial skeleton
D. All of these
Answer:
C. Axial skeleton

Question 4.
The animals which perform excretion by numerous nephridia, belong to phylum-……………
A. Echinodermata
B. Arthropoda
C. Annelida
D. Porifera
Answer:
C. Annelida

Question 5.
Marine animals which performs locomotion with the help of eight meridional cilliary plates, belong to phylum-……………
A. Cnidaria
B. Ctenophora
C. Mollusca
D. Echinodermata
Answer:
B. Ctenophora

Question 6.
Which of the following animals has a single body cavity?
A. Cnidaria
B. Ctenophora
C. Both A. and B.
D. None of these
Answer:
C. Both A. and B.

Question 7.
The tiny pores through which water enters into the body of poriferans, are called-……………
A. Stomodeum
B. Osculum
C. Ostia
D. Proctodeum
Answer:
C. Ostia

Question 8.
Flower vase-like body with a single opening at the top is seen in-……………
A. Starfish
B. Hydra
C. Snail
D. Crab
Answer:
B. Hydra

Question 9.
Body is covered with thick chitinous exoskeleton in-……………
A. Arthropoda
B. Mollusca
C. Porifera
D. Annelida
Answer:
A. Arthropoda

Question 10.
The group of animals possessing stinging cells on the body surface, belong to phylum-……………
A. Echinodermata
B. Cnidaria
C. Ctenophora
D. Arthropoda
Answer:
B. Cnidaria

Question 11.
Placoid scale is seen in-……………
A. Rohu fish
B. Dolphins
C. Whales
D. Sharks
Answer:
D. Sharks

Question 12.
Unevenly divided tail fin is seen in-……………
A. Shark
B. Rohu fish
C. Cat fish
D. Whale
Answer:
A. Shark

Question 13.
Which of the following is never seen in fresh water bodies?
A. Poriferans
B. Echinoderms
C. Molluscs
D. Cnidarians
Answer:
B. Echinoderms

Question 14.
Which of the following is not a chordate?
A. Balanoglossus
B. Ascidia
C. Branchiostoma
D. Myxine
Answer:
A. Balanoglossus

Question 15.
Flame cells, nephridia and green glands are the excretory organs of-……………
A. Earthworm, cockroach and tape worm respectively
B. Tape worm, earthworm and prawn respectively
C. Prawn, butterfly and snail respectively
D. Starfish, jelly fish and prawn respectively
Answer:
B. Tape worm, earthworm and prawn respectively

Question 16.
Swim bladder is typically seen in-……………
A. Bony fishes
B. Cartilaginous fishes
C. Seals
D. Dolphins
Answer:
A. Bony fishes

Question 17.
Which of the following is an amphibian feature?
A. Naked glandular skin
B. Three-chambered heart
C. Aquatic larva
D. All of these
Answer:
D. All of these

Question 18.
Reptiles have-……………
A. Epidermal scales
B. Dermal scales
C. Glandular skin
D. None of these
Answer:
A. Epidermal scales

Question 19.
Beaks are the modification of-……………
A. Cranium
B. Teeth
C. Jaws
D. Tongue
Answer:
C. Jaws

Question 20.
Body hair, sweat glands and sebaceous glands are seen in that class of animals, which possess-……………
A. External pinnae
B. Muscular foot
C. Clawed digits
D. Beaks
Answer:
A. External pinnae

Question 21.
Radula is the-……………
A. Feeding organ of snails
B. Biting organ of starfishes
C. Swimming organ of squids
D. Feeding organ of insects
Answer:
A. Feeding organ of snails

Question 22.
Clawed digits are seen amongst-……………
A. Amphibia, reptilia and aves
B. Reptilia, aves and mammatia
C. Mammalia, amphibia and aves
D. Mammalia and aves only
Answer:
B. Reptilia, aves and mammatia

Question 23.
Water-vascular system is present in-……………
A. Cnidaria, Ctenophora and Porifera
B. Cnidaria, Ctenophora, Porifera and Echinodermata
C. Porifera and Echinodermata
D. Echinodermata only
Answer:
D. Echinodermata only

Question 24.
Larval stage has more advanced features in comparison to adults in members of-……………
A. Vertebrata
B. Urochordata
C. Cephalochordata
D. Hemichordata
Answer:
B. Urochordata

Question 25.
The richest animal phylum with respect to the number of species is-……………
A. Protozoa
B. Chordata
C. Mollusca
D. Arthropoda
Answer:
D. Arthropoda

Fill in the blanks:

1. Members of the phylum ……………. do not possess any of the three germ layers.
2. Poriferans release water from the body through a large opening called …………….
3. Members of the phylum ……………. perform locomotion by the help of soft muscular foot.
4. Choanocyte cells are seen in …………….
5 The visceral mass of Mollusca remains covered with …………….
6 Hydra and sea anemone belong to the phylum …………….
7 Single nostril is seen in the members of superclass …………….
Answer:
1. Porifera
2. Osculum
3. Mollusca
4. Porifera
5. Mantle
6. Cnidaria
7. Agnatha

State True or False

1. Insects possess three pairs of joint limbs. — True
2. Mammalian heart is four-chambered. — True
3. Frog is a warm-blooded animal. — False
4. In birds, the forelimbs are modified into wings. — True
5. Members of the class Chondricthyes are all bony fishes. — False
6. Presence of notochord is a characteristic feature of the phylum Echinodermata. — False

Match the columns

Left column	Right column
1. Sycon sp.	A. Annelida
2, Hormifora sp.	B. Porifera
3. Hirudinaria sp.	0. Ctenophora
4. Duttaphrynus sp.	D, Urochordata
	E. Amphibia

Answer:
1-B; 2-C; 3-A; 4-E

Left column	Right column
1. Placoid scale	A. Amphibia
2. External pinnae	B. Aves
3. Homocercal tail fin	C. Mammalia
4. Cloacal aperture	B. Osteichthyes
	E. Chondricthyes

Answer:
1-E; 2-C; 3-D; 4-A

Left column	Right column
1. Porifera	A. Comb-plate
2. Cnidaria	B. Retrogressive metamorphosis
3. Ctenophora	C. Choanocyte
4. Urochordata	0. Nephridium
	E. Nematocyst.

Answer:
1-C: 2-E; 3-A; 4-B

Left column	Right column
1. Diploblastic	A. Echinodermata
2. Radially symmetric	B. Cnidaria
3. Pseudocoe-lomate	C. Porifera
4. lawless	B. Nemathelminthes
	E. Agnatha

Answer:
1-B; 2-A; 3-D; 4-E

 

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 1.3C Classification of Kingdom Plantae can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Classification of Kingdom Plantae Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
Non-flowering photosynthetic plants belong to-………….
A. Pteridophyta
B. Fungi
C. Angiospermea
D. Gymnospermea
Answer:
A. Pteridophyta

Question 2.
The bryophyte, having thallus-like body is-………….
A. Moss
B. Liverwort
C. Hornwort
D. All of these
Answer:
D. All of these

Question 3.
Caulid is a part of moss, which is somewhat similar to-………….
A. Root
B. Stem
C. Leaf
D. Flower
Answer:
B. Stem

Question 4.
Among the following, seed of has two cotyledons…………..
A. Coconut
B. Wheat
C. Palm
D. Mango
Answer:
D. Mango

Question 5.
Phyllid is somewhat similar to-………….
A. Root
B. Stem
C. Leaf
D. Thallus
Answer:
C. Leaf

Question 6.
Which of the following is a higher non-flowering plant?
A. Fungus
B. Algae
C. Fern
D. Pine
Answer:
C. Fern

Question 7.
Which of the following is a lower non-flowering plant?
A. Pine
B. Moss
C. Fern
D. None of these
Answer:
B. Moss

Question 8.
Among the following, parallel venation is observed in-………….
A. Palm leaves
B. Rose leaves
C. Pine leaves
D. Mango leaves
Answer:
A. Palm leaves

Question 9.
Reticulate venation is seen in-…………
A. Bamboo leaf
B. Palm leaf
C. Banana leaf
D. Cucumber leaf
Answer:
D. Cucumber leaf

Question 10.
Which of the following pairs denotes gymnosperms?
A. Cycas and palm
B. Pinus and coconut
C. Coconut and date palm
D. Pinus and Cycas
Answer:
D. Pinus and Cycas

Question 11.
Seeds without fruit is seen in-………….
A. Pea plant
B. Apple tree
C. Pine tree
D. Coconut tree
Answer:
C. Pine tree

Question 12.
Which of the following pairs develop fruits?
A. China rose and paddy
B. Pinus and Dryopteris
C. Cycas and Ephedra
D. All of these
Answer:
A. China rose and paddy

Question 13.
Both gametophytic and sporophytic phases are independently seen in-………….
A. Gymnosperms
B. Ferns
C. Angiosperms
D. None of these
Answer:
B. Ferns

Question 14.
Dryopteris is an example of-………….
A. Moss
B. Fern
C. Coniferous plant
D. Monocotyledonous plant
Answer:
B. Fern

Question 15.
Coenocytic hypha means-………….
A. Septate hypha with one nucleus
B. Septate hypha with multiple nuclei
C. Aseptate hypha with one nucleus
D. Aseptate hypha with multiple nuclei
Answer:
D. Aseptate hypha with multiple nuclei

Question 16.
Which of the following is not an insectivorous plant?
A. Pitcher plant
B. Bladderwort
C. Stonewort
D. Sundew
Answer:
C. Stonewort

Question 17.
The division of plants with maximum number of species is-………….
A. Algae
B. Ferns
C. Gymnosperms
D. Angiosperms
Answer:
D. Angiosperms

Question 18.
The symbiotic association of an aiga and a fungus is called-………….
A. Mycorrhiza
B. Lichen
C. Haustoria
D. None of these
Answer:
B. Lichen

Fill in the blanks:

1. The body of thallophyta is called …………….
2. fossil. is a good example of a living plant …………….
3. ……………. are called photosynthetic thallophyta.
4. The leaf-like parts of a moss is called …………….
5. Gnetum is an example of …………….
6. Monocotyledonous plants possess roots.
7. In ……………., endosperm tissue develops before fertilisation.
8. Plant body of moss is …………….
Answer:
1. Thallus
2. Ginkgo biloba
3. Algae
4. Phyllid
5. Gymnosperm
6. Adventitious
7. Gymnosperms
8. Gametophytic

State True or False

1. The stem-like structure of a moss is called rhizoid. — False
2. Fern is an example of non-flowering tracheophyte. — True
3. Nostoc is a cyanobacteria. — True
4. Dicots show parallel venation. — False
5. In angiosperms, endosperm is formed after fertilisation. — True
6. Phanerogams do not produce seeds. — False

Match the columns

Left column	Right column
1. Agaricus	A. Gymnosperm
2. Dryopteris	B. Clubmoss
3. Pinus	C. Coenocyte
4. Lycopodium	D. Pileus
	E. Ramenta

Answer:
1-D: 2-E; 3-A; 4-B

Left column	Right column
1. Bryophyta	A. Cycas
2. Thallophyta	B. Mango
3. Gymnosperm	C. Riccia
4. Angiosperm	D. Pteris
	E. Spirogyra

Answer:
1-C; 2-E; 3-A: 4-B

 

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 4.2 Microbes in Human Welfare can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Microbes in Human Welfare Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Microbes are-
(A) Virus
(B) Bacteria
(C) Protozoa
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 2.
The term ‘microbe’ was coined by-
(A) Robert Hook
(B) Sedillot
(C) Robert Brown
(D) Leeuwenhoek
Answer:
(B) Sedillot

Question 3.
Azolla maintains symbiotic association with-
(A) Azotobacter
(B) Clostridium
(C) Nostoc
(D) Anabaena
Answer:
(D) Anabaena

Question 4.
Which is not a bio-fertiliser?
(A) Rhizobium
(B) Azolla
(C) Agaricus
(D) Azotobacter
Answer:
(C) Agaricus

Question 5.
Some cyanobacteria are used as bio-fertiliser because-
(A) They are capable of trapping free O₂ more than other plants
(B) They can solubilise phosphorus
(C) They can trap atmospheric nitrogen
(D) They help the soil to retain more water
Answer:
(C) They can trap atmospheric nitrogen

Question 6.
‘Bt’ for Bt-cotton stands for-
(A) Biologically transformed
(B) Biotechnology
(C) Bacillus thuringiensis
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Bacillus thuringiensis

Question 7.
Mycorrhiza is an-
(A) Association of fungi and algae
(B) Association of fungi and flowering plants
(C) Association of fungi and bacteria
(D) Association of algae and vascular plants
Answer:
(B) Association of fungi and flowering plants

Question 8.
Cyanobacteria are-
(A) Chemosynthetic bacteria
(B) Photosynthetic prokaryotic microorganism
(C) Non-photosynthetic nitrogen-fixing prokaryotic microorganism
(D) Nitrogen-fixing protozoa
Answer:
(B) Photosynthetic prokaryotic microorganism

Question 9.
A soil-dwelling nitrogen-fixing bacterium is-
(A) Anabaena
(B) Salmonella
(C) Clostridium
(D) Lactobacillus
Answer:
(C) Clostridium

Question 10.
Which of the following microorganisms can kill insect pests?
(A) Bacillus thuringiensis
(B) Leptomonas
(C) Nosema locustae
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 11.
The virus used in bio-control of insect pests is-
(A) Phage virus
(B) Rubella virus
(C) Nuclear Polyhedrosis virus
(D) Lipovirus
Answer:
(C) Nuclear Polyhedrosis virus

Question 12.
An anaerobic nitrogen-fixing non-symbiotic bacterium-
(A) Azotobacter
(B) Clostridium
(C) Rhizobium
(D) Azospirillum
Answer:
(B) Clostridium

Question 13.
VAM is a/an-
(A) Ectomycorrhiza
(B) Ectendomycorrhiza
(C) Endomycorrhiza
(D) Cyanobacterium
Answer:
(C) Endomycorrhiza

Question 14.
Granulosis virus and NPV are similar as both act as-
(A) Antibacterial substance
(B) Bio-control agents
(C) Bio-fertilisers
(D) Disease causing agent for human
Answer:
(B) Bio-control agents

Question 15.
Bacteria used for controlling Japanese beetle-
(A) Bacillus thuringiensis
(B) Bacillus popilae
(C) Bacillus subtilis
(D) Rhizobium fascioli
Answer:
(B) Bacillus popilae

Question 16.
Spodopterin, a bio-control agent for insect pest is composed of-
(A) Virus
(B) Bacteria
(C) Protozoa
(D) Fungus
Answer:
(D) Fungus

Question 17.
Example of cyanobacteria is-
(A) Anabaena
(B) Gleocapsa
(C) Oscillatoria
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 18.
Mycorrhizae fungi develop in symbiotic association with-
(A) Root system of pine
(B) Leaf of fern
(C) Green algae
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Root system of pine

Question 19.
Application of Azolla in paddy fialds are popularly practiced in-
(A) European countries
(B) South American states
(C) Southeast Asian countries
(D) All of these
Answer:
(C) Southeast Asian countries

Question 20.
Mycorrhiza is used as a bio-fertiliser because it-
(A) Can remove harmful heavy metals from soil
(B) Can absorb water
(C) Can help in”mineral absorption
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 21.
An antibiotic producing fungus is-
(A) Aspergillus
(B) Agaricus
(C) Penicillium
(D) Saccharomyces
Answer:
(C) Penicillium

Question 22.
Nitrifying bacteria are-
(A) Parasitic bacteria
(B) Chemosynthetic bacteria
(C) Autotrophic bacteria
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Chemosynthetic bacteria

Question 23.
Bacteria which are capable of trapping atmospheric nitrogen are-
(A) Putrefying bacteria
(B) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria
(C) Denitrifying bacteria
(D) Nitrifying bacteria
Answer:
(B) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria

Question 24.
The bacterium, mostly used in the experiments of biotechnology is-
(A) Rhizobium
(B) Streptomyces
(C) Salmonella
(D) E.coli
Answer:
(D) E.coli

Question 25.
Rhizobium is a-
(A) Free-living, nitrogen-fixing bacteria
(B) Symbiotic, nitrogen-fixing bacteria
(C) Cyanobacteria
(D) Denitrifying bacteria
Answer:
(B) Symbiotic, nitrogen-fixing bacteria

Question 26.
Application of Azolla in paddy field increases in soil.
(A) Phosphorus
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Sulphur
(D) Potassium
Answer:
(B) Nitrogen

Question 27.
Nostoc is a-
(A) Nitrogen-fixing protozoa
(B) Nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria
(C) Symbiotic fungus
(D) Green algae
Answer:
(B) Nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria

Question 28.
Which of the following organisms is not used as bio-fertiliser?
(A) Rhizobium
(B) Lichen
(C) Azotobacter
(D) Azolla
Answer:
(B) Lichen

Question 29.
insoluble phosphate of soil is transformed into soluble phosphate by-
(A) Azolla
(B) Nostoc
(C) Rhizobium
(D) Pseudmonas putida
Answer:
(D) Pseudmonas putida

Question 30.
Sweet pea plant can grow in infertile land because of-
(A) Azotobacter
(B) Clostridium
(C) Rhizobium
(D) Anabaena
Answer:
(C) Rhizobium

Question 31.
The microbe which does not have any role as bio-fertiliser is-
(A) Bacteria
(B) Cyanobacteria
(C) Fungus
(D) Protozoa
Answer:
(D) Protozoa

Question 32.
Cyanobacterial colony is formed in-
(A) Equisitum
(B) Cycas
(C) Psilotum
(D) Pinus
Answer:
(B) Cycas

Question 33.
A fungal bio-control agent is-
(A) Nosema
(B) Beauveria bassiana
(C) Popilla japonica
(D) Mattesia grandis
Answer:
(B) Beauveria bassiana

Fill in the blanks :

1 Bacillus thuringiensis produces a poison called _____.
2 Rhizobium is present in the _____ nodules of leguminous plants.
3 Mycorrhiza exhibits the phenomenon of _____.
4. Beauveria bassiana is a fungus, which controls _____ pest population effectively.
5. Mycorrhizal _____ absorb nutrients from soil very efficiently.
6. _____ is a protozoan microbe which effectively controls cotton ball weevils.
7. Anabaena is present in the _____ cavities of Azolla.
Answer:
1. Bt-toxin
2. Root
3. Symbiosis
4. Insect
5. Hyphae
6. Mettasia grandis
7. Leaf

State true or false :

1. Nosema locustae is a bacterium, which is used to control harmful grasshoppers.
2. Examples of aerobic nitrogen-fixing bacteria are Azomonas, Azospirillum.
3. Scientists have introduced genetic materials of Bacillus thuringiensis bacterium in corn and cotton plants.
4. Caudovirales is a fungus, which can control pests.
5. Except paddy field, cyanobacterial colony is formed in Cycas.
6. Viruses are also used as bio-control agents to kill insect pests.
Answer:
1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True
6. True

Match the columns :

Question 1.

Left column	Right column
1. Rhizobium	A. Soil living aerobic bacteria
2. Azospirillum	B. Anaerobic bacteria
3. Clostridium	C. Cyanobacteria
4. Aulosira	D. Retorvirus
	E. Symbiotic bacteria

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Rhizobium	E. Symbiotic bacteria
2. Azospirillum	A. Soil living aerobic bacteria
3. Clostridium	B. Anaerobic bacteria
4. Aulosira	C. Cyanobacteria

Question 2.

Left column	Right column
1. Caudovirales	A. Bio-fertiliser
2. Rotavirus	B. Hepatitis-A
3. Azolla	C. Bio-control agent
4. HAV	D. Diarrhoea
	E. AIDS

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Caudovirales	C. Bio-control agent
2. Rotavirus	D. Diarrhoea
3. Azolla	A. Bio-fertiliser
4. HAV	B. Hepatitis-A

Question 3.

Left column	Right column
1. Algae	A. Plasmodium
2. Virus	B. NPV
3. Bacteria	C. Azolla
4. Protozoa	D. Clostridium
	E. Glomus

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Algae	C. Azolla
2. Virus	B. NPV
3. Bacteria	D. Clostridium
4. Protozoa	A. Plasmodium

Question 4.

Left column	Right column
1. Leguminous plant	A. Amanita
2. Mycorrhiza	B. Protozoa
3. Malaria causing agent	C. Virus
4. Dengue causing agent	D. Caudovirales
	E. Rhizobium

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Leguminous plant	E. Rhizobium
2. Mycorrhiza	A. Amanita
3. Malaria causing agent	B. Protozoa
4. Dengue causing agent	C. Virus