Class 9

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 9 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 1 Earth as a Planet offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Question Answer – Earth as a Planet

Very Short Questions and Answers : (1 mark for each question)

Question 1.
How many true planets are there in the solar system?
Answer:
8.

Question 2.
What is the area of the earth’s surface?
Answer:
Almost 510.72 million sq km.

Question 3.
Name two planets that do not have satellites.
Answer:
Mercury and Venus.

Question 4.
Which planet has the most number of satellites?
Answer:
Jupiter.

Question 5.
What is the estimated mass of the earth?
Answer:
5.97219 × 10²⁴ kg.

Question 6.
What is the meaning of ‘geoid’?
Answer:
Like the earth.

Question 7.
How much time does it take for the light of the sun to reach the earth?
Answer:
8.2 minutes.

Question 8.
What was the circumference of the earth according to Eratosthenes?
Answer:
46,250 km.

Question 9.
Name one Jovian planet.
Answer:
Mars.

Question 10.
What is the only source of light in the solar system?
Answer:
Sun

Question 11.
What is the full form of GPS?
Answer:
Global Positioning System.

Question 12.
What is the minimum number of satellites required to operate GPS?
Answer:
3.

Question 13.
Which planet was designated as a dwarf planet in 2006?
Answer:
Pluto.

Question 14.
Which heavenly body is at the centre of the solar system?
Answer:
The sun.

Question 15.
Which planet is known as the ‘Red Planet’?
Answer:
Mars.

Question 16.
Which heavenly body is the source of light to the solar system?
Answer:
Sun.

Question 17.
What is the greatest distance between the sun and the earth?
Answer:
152.6 million km.

Question 18.
Which is the deepest point on the earth?
Answer:
Challenger Deep in Mariana Trench, in the Pacific Ocean.

Question 19.
At which point will the angle of elevation of the North Star be 90° ?
Answer:
North Pole.

Question 20.
In which direction does the earth rotate?
Answer:
West to east.

Question 21.
What is the full form of IAU?
Answer:
International Astronomical Union.

Question 22.
Which cities of Egypt had Eratosthenes chosen in order to calculate the circumference of the earth?
Answer:
Synene and Alexandria.

Question 23.
Where was the General Assembly of the IAU held on August 24, 2006?
Answer:
Prague, capital of Czech Republic.

Question 24.
In which region is the gravitational force of the earth felt the least?
Answer:
Equatorial region.

Question 25.
Where is the earth’s diameter the greatest?
Answer:
Equatorial region (about 12,757 km).

Question 26.
Which is the largest planet in the solar system?
Answer:
arrow Jupiter.

Question 27.
Where on the earth’s surface is the main control system of GPS located?
Answer:
Colorado, USA.

Question 28.
Till what depth in oceans are organisms found?
Answer:
9 km.

Question 29.
Where was the Bedford Level Experiment conducted?
Answer:
Old Bedford River in England.

Question 30.
What is the shape of the earth really like?
Answer:
Geoid.

Question 31.
From when did GPS become operational?
Answer:
From the 1990 s.

Question 32.
From where do living organisms get the oxygen required for their survival?
Answer:
The atmosphere.

Question 33.
Which motion of the earth has caused the middle portion to bulge out?
Answer:
Rotation.

Question 34.
What does the science of ‘geodesy’ study?
Answer:
The earth’s shape.

Question 35.
Who was the first person to use the word ‘geoid’?
Answer:
Johann Benedict Listing.

Question 36.
What is the estimated age of the earth?
Answer:
About 4600 million years.

Question 37.
What is the average temperature of the earth?
Answer:
15° C.

Question 38.
What is the Kuiper Belt?
Answer:
A region of icy objects beyond the orbit of Neptune.

Short Questions and Answers : (2 marks for each question)

Question 1.
What is meant by the solar system?
Answer:
Solar system is the name given to the sun and the various planets, satellites, comets, asteroids and other heavenly bodies, that move in their unique and specific orbits.

Question 2.
Name the planets of the solar system.
Answer:
The planets of the solar system are as follows-

1. Mercury
2. Venus
3. Earth
4. Mars
5. Jupiter
6. Saturn
7. Uranus
8. Neptune.

Question 3.
What is meant by a star?
Answer:
A star is a gigantic, self-luminous heavenly body made of burning gas. Other celestial bodies such as planets, satellites, comets and asteroids revolve around a star. For instance, the sun is the star of our solar system.

Question 4.
What is meant by a planet?
Answer:
A planet (word derived from Greek term that means ‘wanderer’), is a large heavenly body that revolves in a particular orbit around a star. A planet does not radiate heat or light energy from internal nuclear fusion reactions-it receives heat and light from the star that it revolves around. For instance, our Earth is a planet that revolves around its star, the sun.

Question 5.
What is meant by a satellite?
Answer:
A satellite is a small heavenly object that orbits or revolves around a larger object usually a planet. Like planets, satellites also do not radiate heat or energy from internal nuclear fusion reactions. Except for Mercury and Venus, all the planets in the solar system have satellites. For instance, the moon is a satellite that orbits around its planet, the earth.

Question 6.
How can the planets of the solar system be classified?
Answer:
The planets of the solar system can be classified into two sub-categories. They are as follows-

1. planets
2. dwarf planets.

Question 7.
What is meant by a dwarf planet?
Answer:
‘Dwarf planet’ is defined by the International Astronomical Union (IAU) as a celestial body that –
1. is in orbit around the sun,
2. has sufficient mass for its self-gravity to overcome rigid body forces so that it assumes a hydrostatic equilibrium (nearly round) shape,
3. has not cleared the neighbourhood around its orbit, and (4) is not a satellite. For example, Pluto.

Question 8.
What is meant by geodesy?
Answer:
Geodesy is a scientific discipline that makes use of surveys and other measurements to study the shape and size of the earth.

Question 9.
In which part of the world did GPS first come into use?
Answer:
GPS was first developed and implemented in the USA in the 1970 s by the U.S. Department of Defence and was used only for military purposes.

Question 10.
What is meant by ‘geoid’?
Answer:
The word ‘geoid’ is taken from the Greek word ‘geoeides’. ‘Geo’ means earth and ‘oeides’ means similar to. Therefore, geoid means similar to, or like the earth.

Question 11.
Name the major components of GPS.
Answer:
GPS consists of three major segments. They are-(1) the space segment, (2) the control segment, (3) the user segment.

Question 12.
Why is the earth called the ‘Blue Planet’?
Answer:
From space, the earth appears as a blue and white ball. The clouds in the atmosphere appear white, whereas, the areas covered by water bodies appear blue. As almost three-fourths of the earth is covered with water, it appears mostly blue from space. This is why the earth is known as the ‘Blue Planet’.

Question 13.
Why is the earth’s equatorial diameter not equal to its polar diameter?
Answer:
The equatorial region of the earth experiences centrifugal force and so, it bulges out. On the other hand, the polar regions experience centripetal force and so, are flattened. Therefore, the equatorial diameter of the earth is not equal to that of the polar diameter.

Question 14.
What is meant by GPS?
Answer:
The Global Positioning System (GPS) is a radio-based navigation system that provides a three dimensional coverage of the earth in any weather condition. Till date, it is the only system which is able to show one’s exact position on the earth- any time and anywhere.

Question 15.
What is meant by horizon?
Answer:
The boundary where the sky seems to meet the ground or the sea is known as the horizon. The higher the observer places himself, the more distant the horizon become.

Question 16.
Which experiment of Magellan proved that the earth is spherical?
Answer:
The Portuguese explorer, Magellan, set off on an expedition to circumnavigate the earth from east to west. After three years, he came back to the same place from where he had started. This proved that the earth is spherical in shape, because, had it not been so, he would not have come back to the same place that he had started from.

Question 17.
Where is the Kuiper belt located?
Answer:
The ring of icy bodies that revolves around the sun beyond the orbit of Neptune is known as the Kuiper belt. The outer limit of the Kuiper belt is poorly defined. It contains some big heavenly bodies such as Eris, Pluto as well as millions of other smaller bodies.

Question 18.
What are the effects of centrifugal force on the earth?
Answer:
When a spherical object is continuously rotated, a centrifugal force acts on it. Therefore, the middle part bulges out and at the same time, the polar areas flatten. The earth is continuously rotating on its axis from the time of its origin. This is the reason why the earth has a bulged-out middle and flattened poles, i.e., it has developed an oblate spheroid shape.

Question 19.
What information can be gathered from a GPS receiver?
Answer:
The information that can be gathered from a GPS receiver are as follows –
1. A GPS receiver operated by an user on earth measures the time taken by radio signals to travel from four or even more satellites to its location, calculates the distance of each satellite, and from this calculation, determines the user’s longitude, latitude, and altitude, thereby triangulating his or her exact position.
2. A GPS receiver also displays time. GPS satellites have atomic clocks on board to keep accurate time. General and special relativity however, assess that variations will appear between these clocks and an identical clock on earth.

Short Questions and Answers : (3 marks for each question)

Question 1
Make a comparative study of dwarf planets and satellites.
Answer:
The similarities between dwarf planets and satellites are as follows-
1. Size: Both dwarf planets and satellites are relatively small in size.
2. Light and heat: Neither dwarf planets nor satellites emit light or heat of their own.
The dissimilarities between dwarf planets and satellites are as follow-
1. Revolution: The dwarf planets revolve around the sun, whereas the satellites revolve around their individual, specific planets of origin.
2. Number: The number of dwarf planets is much less compared to the number of satellites.

Question 2
Why is the earth considered to be a planet of the solar system?
Answer:
The earth is considered to be a planet of the solar system because of the following reasons-
1. Origin: The earth has originated from the star of the solar system, the Sun.
2. Revolution: Like the other planets of the solar system (such as Venus, Jupiter), the earth also revolves around the Sun in its own orbit.
3. Light: Like the other planets of the solar system, the earth too, does not emit any light.

Question 3
Why has Pluto been classified as a dwarf planet?
Answer:
One of the characteristics that define planets is that they have enough gravitational force to dominate their neighbourhoods by clearing up the debris near their orbits. Pluto’s orbit is still somewhat cluttered. Pluto is just 0.07 times the mass of the other objects in or near its orbit and there are still many objects similar in size to Pluto moving around in its orbit. Moreover, Pluto is the smallest planet in the solar system. It is only about one-tenth of the size of the Earth. Hence, on August 24, 2006, the International Astronomical Union classified Pluto as a dwarf planet.

Question 4
Curvature of the earth’s surface is lesser at the equator than at the poles-Explain.
Answer:
The earth bulges out at the centre and gets flattened at the poles. Therefore, the earth forms an oblate spheroid. Oblate spheroids have varying curvature from north to south. It is observed that, smaller the circle, greater is the curvature. This is why the curvature of the earth’s surface is lesser at the equator than at the poles.

Question 5
Why is the average distance between the earth and the sun not the same throughout the year?
Answer:
The earth revolves around the sun in an elliptical orbit. As the sun is located at one of the foci of the ellipse, the distance of the earth from the sun varies during its period of revolution. The distance of the earth is maximum on July 4 , when it is 152.6 million kilometre away, and minimum on January 3 , when it is 147.5 million kilometre away from the sun. Had the orbit been a perfect circle, the distance between the earth and the sun would have remained the same throughout.

Question 6.
What roles have gravity and centrifugal force played in shaping the earth as we know it today?
Answer:
At the time of its origin, the earth was a swirling ball of gases and viscous matter. Gravity caused this ball of viscous matter to contract and form a sphere as it pulls the mass of an object as close to the centre of gravity as possible. Centrifugal force comes into effect when an object spins on an axis, and it causes objects to move outward and away from the centre of gravity. The rotation of the earth caused its middle part to bulge out and simultaneously, the polar areas to flatten. Therefore, the gravity and the centrifugal force have played a significant role in shaping the earth.

Question 7
Give a brief description of biosphere.
Answer:
The sum of all ecosystems on earth is known as the biosphere. This includes all the parts of the atmosphere, lithosphere and hydrosphere that are suitable for the sustenance of life. Water, sunrays and the proper structure of the atmosphere has made life pussible on earth, and has also supported the wide range of flora and fauna. The range of the biosphere generally extends from a height of 15 km above the earth’s surface to about 9 km below the sea level in the hydrosphere. Right from the creation of life, various evolutions taking place in the biosphere has supported its expansion. Till date the earth is the only planet in the solar system where the existence of life can be found.

Question 8
How can a pendulum clock be used to confirm the oblate spheroid shape of the earth?
Answer:
In 1671, the French astronomer, Jean Richer, observed the speed of pendulum in a few places of the earth.He noticed that his pendulum clock was running 21 \(1 / 2^{\circ}\) minutes slower when he was in Cayenne (5° N), in South America, the capital of French Guiana. However, the same pendulum clock would show the correct time when at Paris (49° N). This is because, the time period of the pendulum changes due to the difference in the gravitational pull that occurs with change in latitude. If the time period of the pendulum clock at Cayenne is greater than at Paris, it implies that the gravitational force of the earth is lower at Cayenne, indicating that Cayenne is at a greater distance from the centre of the earth than Paris. This confirms that the earth’s equatorial radius is greater than its polar radius – or that the earth’s shape is that of an oblate spheroid.

Question 9
How is the earth unique among all the other planets in the solar system?
Answer:
The earth is unique among all the other planets in the solar system because of the following reasons-

1. It is the largest among all the inner planets.
2. The distance of the earth from the sun is exactly suitable for sustenance of life.
3. The earth is the only planet to have water and so is rightly named the ‘Blue Planet’.
4. The earth’s axis is tilted at an angle of 23 \(1 / 2^{\circ}\).
5. The average temperature on the surface of the earth is 15° C, which is suitable for the growth and sustenance of life.

Write the differences between the following –

Question 1
Star and Planet
Answer:
The differences between a star and a planet are as follows-

Points of difference	Star	Planet
1. Light and heat	Stars emit light and heat of their own. E.g., the sun.	Planets do not emit light and heat of their own. E.g., the earth.
2. Nature	Stars are huge, swirling mass of fiery gases.	Planets are relatively smaller, cool and solid masses.
3. Origin	The stars were formed before the planets.	Planets were formed after the formation of stars.

Question 2
Planet and Satellite
Answer:
The differences between a planet and a satellite are as follows-

Points of difference	Planet	Sotellife
1. Revolution	Planets revolve around a star. E.g., the earth revolves around the sun.	Satellites revolve around a planet. E.g., the moon revolves around the earth.
2. Size	Planets are larger than satellites.	Satellites are smaller than planets.
3. Dependence	Planets are not dependent on satellites.	Satellites are dependent on planets.

Question 3.
Planet and Dwarf planet
Answer:
The differences between a planet and a dwarf planet are as follows-

Points of difference	Planet	Dwarf planer
1. Size	Planets are relatively larger in size.	Dwarf planets are relatively smaller in size. Dwarf planets have not been able to remove other celestial objects near them.
2. Features	Planets have been able to remove other celestial objects near them.	There are 5 dwarf planets in the solar system.
3. Number	There are 8 planets in the solar system.	Dwarf planer

Give reasons for the following –

Question 1.
The Pole Star’s angle of elevation helps to determine that the earth is spherical in shape.
Answer:
The angle of elevation of the Pole Star helps to show that the earth is round. From different places on the earth’s surface in the Northern Hemisphere, the Pole Star is visible at different angles of elevation. At the equator, it is visible at 0°, from the Tropic of Cancer at 23 \(1 / 2^{\circ}\) N, and from the North Pole at 90° N.

Figure 1.1: The angle of elevation of the Pole Star helps to determine that the earth is spherical

This happens only because the earth is spherical. Had the earth been just a plane, the Pole Star would have been visible at the same angle of elevation from all the places on earth.

Question 2.
The gravitational force is more at the polar regions than at the equatorial region.
Answer:
The earth is not a perfect sphere- it is an oblate spheroid. Its equatorial diameter is 12,757 km and its polar diameter is 12,714 km which means there is a difference of 43 km between the lengths of the diameters of these two regions. As the poles are closer to the centre of the earth than the equator, greater gravitational force is exerted on the polar regions.

Question 3.
An object weighs more at the poles than at the equator.
Answer:
The regions that are closer to the centre of the earth experience greater gravitational pull than those farther away from the centre. Since the earth is an oblate spheroid, the poles are closer to the centre of the earth and thus, experience greater gravitational force. As a result, all objects weigh more (about 0.5 %) at the poles than at the equator.

Question 4
The moon appears bigger than all other heavenly objects in the sky, though it is smaller.
Answer:
When we look up at the sky, the moon appears to be the largest object in space. In reality, the moon is much smaller in size than the other planets, satellites and stars. In fact, it is only about 1 / 50th of the earth’s size. However, being the earth’s only satellite, it is also our nearest neighbour in space. The distance between the moon and the earth is only 3,84,400 kilometre. So it appears larger than the other celestial bodies which are much larger, but are at greater distances from the earth.

Long Questions and Answers : (5 marks for each question)

Question 1
Discuss the main planets of our solar system.
Answer:
Solar system is the name given to the sun and the various planets, satellites, comets, asteroids and other heavenly bodies that move in their unique orbits around it in space. The names of the planets and their characteristics are listed in the table below.

Question 2
Describe the earth as a planet.
Answer:
The earth is an important planet in the solar system. The features of the earth as a planet are as follows-
1. Location: The earth is the third planet on the basis of its distance from the sun, after Mercury and Venus.
2. Distance from the sun: The average distance of the earth from the sun is 149.6 million kilometre.
3. Shape: The shape of the earth is like that of an oblate spheroid. The North and South Poles are somewhat flattened and the equatorial region bulges out a little.
4. Mass and area: The mass of the earth is about 5.97219 × 10²⁴ kg and surface area is about 510,072,000 square km.
5. Diameter: The earth’s equatorial diameter is 12,757 km and the polar diameter is 12,714 km (approx.).
6. Speed: The earth revolves around the sun while rotating on its own axis. It takes 23 hours 56 minutes and 4 seconds to complete one rotation on its axis and 365 days 5 hours 48 minutes and 46 seconds to complete one revolution around the sun.
7. Orbit: The earth’s orbit is elliptical, with the sun at one of its loci. The length of the orbit is about 960 million km.
8. Satellite: The earth has only one satellitethe moon. The moon is at a distance of about 3,84,400 km from the earth. It has no light of its own-it is illuminated by the light of the sun.
9. Structure: The exterior of the earth is made up of a hard rock strata and its interior is made up of hot, viscous magma. About 71 % of the earth’s surface is made up of water and 29 % is land. The earth’s atmosphere is primarily made up of nitrogen and oxygen.
10. Sustenance of life: The earth is the only planet in the solar system that sustains life as we know it.

Question 3.
“The earth is not flat, it is instead almost spherical.” Discuss with evidence.
Answer:
Though earlier the earth was believed to be a flat plane or a disc, it is actually almost spherical in shape- in fact, an oblate spheroid to be precise. A practical demonstration of the earth’s spherical shape was achieved by Magellan’s circumnavigation of the earth (1519-1522). Recent photographs taken from outer space have also shown that the earth is spherical in shape. Some other points in support of this view are-
1. The study of other planets: When other planets of our solar system have been studied through powerful telescopes, all of them have been observed to be spherical. Since the earth is also a part of the solar system, it stands to reason that the earth would also be spherical like the other planets.

2. The study of the earth’s shadow: When one studies the shadow of the earth that falls on the moon during a lunar eclipse, it is seen to be circular in shape. If an object casts a shadow that is circular in shape, it stands to reason that the object itself is also circular in shape.

Figure 1.3: The circular shadow of the earth on the moon during a lunar eclipse

3. Observing a ship sailing out to sea: If we observe a ship that has just set sail from the shore, we will see that the ship is not visible

Figure 1.4: A sailing ship slowly disappears from our eyesight as the earth is spherical in shape after some time even with the help of binoculars or telescopes. This happens because of the curve of the earth’s surfaceif the earth were a flat plane, the ship would never disappear from our line of sight.

4. Observing the horizon: The boundary where the sky seems to meet the ground or

Figure 1.5: As the observer moves higher, the circumference of the line of horizon increases the sea is known as the horizon. The visible horizon marks the end of our line of sight. As we go higher up in an aeroplane or up a mountain, the visible horizon becomes more distant and its circumference seems to increase – as a result of which the line of horizon appears circular. If the earth were a flat plane, the circumference of the line of horizon would not increase with increase in altitude of the position of the observer; instead, it would have remained the same.

5. Bedford Canal Experiment: In 1870 , renowned naturalist and surveyor Alfred Russel Wallace (A.R. Wallace) put in 3 sticks of equal height and diameter in a straight line at 1 kilometre interval in the slowmoving Old Bedford River in the United

Kingdom. Through a telescope, he then observed that the second stake seemed to be higher than the first and third stakes. This proved that the earth is round. If the earth were flat, the tops would be in a straight line.

6. Sunrise and sunset: The spherical shape of the earth causes the countries in the Eastern Hemisphere to experience sunrise and sunset earlier than those in the Western Hemisphere. If the earth were flat then sunrise and sunset would occur at the same time at all places on the earth.

Question 4.
Why is the earth called an oblate spheroid? Give reason for your answer. [2 + 3]
Answer:
A sphere that has a bulged-out centre and flattened poles is defined as an oblate spheroid. The equatorial region of the earth is bulged out and the polar regions are flattened due to the rotation of the earth, and this is why the earth is considered an oblate spheroid.
Evidence that the earth is an oblate spheroid:
1. Polar diameter is less than equatorial diameter: The equatorial diameter of the earth is 12,757 km whereas the polar

Figure 1.8: The difference between the earth’s equatorial diameter and its polar diameter
diameter is 12,714 km. If the earth would have been a perfect sphere, then both the diameters would have been the same.

2. Difference in time given by the same pendulum clock: In 1671 the French astronomer, Jean Richer, observed that his pendulum clock was running 2 \(\frac{1}{2}\) minutes slower when he was in Cayenne (5° N), the capital of French Guiana, in South America, However, the same pendulum clock would show the correct time when at Paris (49° N). This is because the beat of the pendulum is different with the difference in the gravitational pull with change of latitude.

Sir Isaac Newton used this example later to show that places nearer to the centre of the earth experience stronger gravitational pull. This confirms that earth’s equatorial radius is greater than its polar radius – or that the earth is oblate spheroid in shape.

Figure 1.9: The time period of oscillation is greater at the equatorial region than at the poles

3. Rotational movement of the earth: When a spherical object rotates continuously a centrifugal force acts on it. Therefore, the middle part bulges out and at the same time, the polar areas flatten. The earth is continuously rotating on its axis from the time of its origin. This is the why the earth has become an oblate spheroid in shape.

4. Variation in weight: The regions that are closer to the centre of the earth experience greater gravitational pull than those farther away from the centre. Since the earth is an oblate spheroid, the poles are closer to the centre of the earth and thus, experience greater gravitational force. As a result, all objects weigh more (about 0.5 % ) at the poles than at the equator.

5. Variation in curvature: Oblate spheroids have varying curvature from north to south. It is observed that, smaller the circle, greater is the curvature. In case of the earth, the curvature is observed to be lesser at the equator than at the poles. This means that the earth is bulged out at the centre and flattened at the poles. Therefore, from the variation in curvature, we can deduce that the earth is an oblate spheroid.

Figure 1.10: Bulging of the equatorial region of the earth due to rotation on its own axis

Question 5.
How does the earth look from space?
Describe the actual shape of the earth. [2 + 3]
OR,
‘The shape of the earth is geoid.’Explain.
Answer:
From space, the earth appears to be a sphere, half of which is lit by the rays of the sun and the other half is in darkness. The areas covered by water bodies appear blue, the mountain and plateau regions appear brown, the forest areas appear green and the areas under snow or cloud cover appear white. As almost 71 % of the earth is covered by water bodies, it appears mostly blue from space and is also called the ‘Blue Planet’.

The shape of the earth is geoid (like the earth itself): As a spherical object is continuously rotated, a centrifugal force acts on it. Therefore, the middle part bulges out and at the same time, the polar areas flatten. As the earth is continuously rotating on its axis from the time of its origin, the oblate spheroid shape was formed. Later on, further studies revealed that the shape of the earth is not a perfect oblate spheroid either. This is because of the following reasons-

1. Various types of landforms such as mountains, hills, plateaus, valleys and rifts are present on the earth’s surface. Apart from this, the water bodies with their waves, high and low tides are also present. The highest point on the earth’s surface is Mount Everest (8,848 m), and the lowest point is Challenger Deep (10,994 m) in Mariana Trench in the Pacific Ocean. Therefore, the surface of the earth is undulating and uneven.

Figure 1.11: The actual shape of the earth (geoid)

2. Recent data from artificial satellites show that –

1. The South Pole of the earth is more flattened than the North Pole.
2. The North Pole is about 20 m higher and the South Pole is 20 m lower than perfect oblate spheroid shape. If it were a perfect oblate spheroid, both would have been the same.
3. The latitudinal circumference is 8 m more in the Southern Hemisphere than in the Northern Hemisphere.

Therefore, the shape of the earth cannot be compared with the shape of any other object on earth. So, it can be said that the shape of the earth is like the earth itself, or that the earth is ‘geoid’.

Question 6.
Give a brief note on GPS. How does the GPS help in understanding the shape of the earth?
[2 \(\frac{1}{2}\) + 2 \(\frac{1}{2}\)]
Answer:
The Global Positioning System (GPS) is a radio-based navigation system that is able to locate the exact position of someone or something on the earth – at any time. A further elaboration of the system is given below:
1. Location: Several artificial satellites have been launched in space to orbit the earth at an altitude of about 20,200 km. The functioning of GPS requires a minimum of three artificial satellites.

2. Components: GPS consists of three major parts. They are-

• the space segment
• the control segment
• the user segment

3. Information: GPS is mainly capable of providing four types of information about a place. They are-

• ‘X’ = Latitude
• ‘Y’ = Longitude
• ‘Z’ = Altitude
• ‘T’ = Time.

4. Usage: Though GPS was first developed in the USA in the 1970 s by the U.S. Department of Defence for military purposes, but the use of GPS for everyday use became common from the 1990 s. This system helps us to-

• find out the exact location of a place on the earth’s surface,
• find out the average elevation of a place,
• determine the direction for flying aircrafts and sailing ships
• make maps for various development projects.

Application of GPS in understanding the shape of the earth: As the receiver of the GPS on the surface of the earth receives the signals sent from the artificial satellites positioned in space, the exact position on the earth can be determined. The GPS signals are so accurate and powerful that even a small variation in height can be easily read. The following example will further explain this –
For instance, say three points (A, B and C) are marked at a distance of 10 m on the same latitude. The GPS information from all these places are noted, where, ‘ X ‘ = Latitude, ‘ Y ‘ = Longitude, ‘Z’ = Altitude and ‘ T ‘ = Time.

A graphical representation of the entire data will give us a clear picture of the variation of the height of the places studied.

Question 7.
How did the Greek scholar Eratosthenes calculate the circumference of the earth? Write a note on the use of GPS. [3 + 2]
Answer:
In the third century B C, Eratosthenes was the first person who attempted to calculate the size of the earth, with an assumption that the earth is a perfect sphere. Eratosthenes observed that on June 21 (Summer Solstice), the sun in Syene 23 \(\frac{1}{2}\) ° N is exactly vertical at noon. On the same day in Alexandria 3012° N, the angle between the sun’s rays and the vertical was 7° 12′. Now, 7° 12′ is (360° 7° 12′) = 1 / 50 part of the circumference of the earth. Eratosthenes had already calculated the actual distance between Alexandria and Syene, which he found to be 5000 stadia. From these, he calculated the circumference of the earth to be 5000 stadia x 50 = 2,50,000 stadia, or 46,250 km. (Now the circumference of the earth has been measured to be 40,000 km.)

Figure 1.13: Eratosthenes’s mathematical calculation of the circumference of the earth

The Global Positioning System (GPS) is a radiobased navigation system that is able to locate the exact position of an object on the earth-at any time and any where. The applications of GPS are as follows-

1. Town planning: Nowadays, GPS is used for town planning in most urban areas.
2. Shape of the earth’s surface: GPS is used to determine the shape of the earth’s surface.
3. Distance and ruggedness: GPS is used to determine the difference in distance and ruggedness between two places on the surface of the earth.
4. Transportation system: GPS is useful for determining the direction in order to fly aircrafts and sail ships or even for determining road routes to different places.
5. Defence: Currently, GPS is used to track movement and carry out rescue operations by defence forces.
6. Geometric location: The geometric location of any object on the surface of the earth can be traced with the help of GPS.
7. Weather: Information on weather can be found through the use of GPS and dependable forecasts can be made.
8. Cartography: Cartography becomes easier, more informative and more accurate if drawn on a computer using data gathered from GPS.
9. Rescue work: GPS helps in tracking any aircraft or ship that has met with an accident or has gone missing.
10. Routing: GPS plays a significant and useful role in tracking routes on the surface of the earth.

Question 8.
‘Earth is the abode of man’ – Elucidate.
OR,
Describe why life has been found only on the earth instead of all the other planets in the solar system.
Answer:
Among all the planets in the solar system, the earth is the only planet where life exists. This is because of suitable living conditions on earth. So, earth has become the home to man and other living organisms. The reasons for this are as follows-
1. Suitable temperature: The earth receives light and heat from the sun. Some of it is retained and the rest is reflected back by the atmosphere-this helps to regulate the temperature of the earth and maintain it at an average of 15° C, which is suitable for sustenance of life forms. Both the planets that are nearer to the sun (such as Mercury and Venus) and planets far away from the sun (such as Jupiter and Saturn) cannot sustain life because either they are too hot or too cold.

2. Abundant availability of water: Life is not possible without water. Water constitutes 71 % of the earth’s surface – this is another major reason for the existence of life on earth. No traces of water have been found in other planets like Jupiter or Venus.

3. Availability of oxygen: Oxygen content in the earth’s atmosphere is about 21 %. Oxygen is used by life forms to breathe and survive.

4. Availability of food: The earth’s environment is favourable for growing food. All the necessary elements such as sunlight, water, gaseous elements (O and N), mineral components (Fe, Cu) are found in suitable proportions on earth. The green plants make their food from these elements and the food chain continues.

5. Sunlight: Sun is the source of all known energy, and life is not possible without sunlight. The first link of any food chainthe autotrophs – use solar energy to produce their food.

Figure 1.14: Factors which sustain life on earth

6. Other factors: Life has become possible on the earth also because of the following reasons-

• Right proportion of gases in the atmosphere.
• Weather elements such as formation of cloud, rain, wind flow and others.
• Occurrence of day and night.
• Occurrence of seasons and various other factors.

Well structured WBBSE 9 Geography MCQ Questions Chapter 2 Movements of the Earth can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Movements of the Earth Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
The rotational speed of the earth at the equator………………..
A. 1600 km
B. 1630 km
C. 1650 km
D. 1670 km
Answer:
D. 1670 km

Question 2.
The angle of inclination of the earth’s axis towards the orbital plane………………..
A. 231 1/2°
B. 30°
C. 60°
D. 66 1/2°
Answer:
D. 66 1/2°

Question 3.
The date on which earth is at Perihelion position is ………………..
A. January 3
B. January 4
C. March 21
D. September 23
Answer:
A. January 3

Question 4.
The earth’s rotation causes………………..
A. tides
B. seasons
C. years
D. days and nights
Answer:
A. tides

Question 5.
The country called ‘The Land of the Midnight Sun’ is ………………..
A. Australia
B. Norway
C. Japan
D. Sri Lanka
Answer:
B. Norway

Question 6.
The Tropic of Cancer receives direct rays of the sun on………………..
A. March 21
B. June 21
C. July 21
D. December 21
Answer:
B. June 21

Question 7.
Autumnal Equinox occurs on………………..
A. June 23
C. August 23
C. September 23
D. November 23
Answer:
C. September 23

Question 8.
The longest day at the equator is of ………………..
A. 11 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 13 hours
D. 12 1/2 hour
Answer:
B. 12 hours

Question 9.
The earth completes one revolution around the sun in………………..
A. 364 days
B. 360 days
C. 365 days
D. 367 days
Answer:
C. 365 days

Question 10.
Summer in Antarctica starts in………………..
A. June
B. July
C. December
D. September
Answer:
C. December

Question 11.
The Aurora Borealis can be seen at the………………..
A. equatorial region
B. north pole
C. south pole
D. middle latitudes
Answer:
B. north pole

Question 12.
The shape of the earth’s orbit is………………..
A. circular
B. elliptical
C. triangular
D. semicircular
Answer:
B. elliptical

Question 13.
The earth’s movement around the sun is called………………..
A. apparent motion
B. rotation
C. revolution
D. daily motion
Answer:
C. revolution

Question 14.
The sun’s apparent northward movement ends on………………..
A. July 22
B. July 21
C. June 21
D. March 21
Answer:
C. June 21

Question 15.
The earth experiences equal duration of days and nights on………………..
A. March 21 and June 21
B. March 21 and September 23
C. July 22 and December 22
D. September 23 and July 4
Answer:
B. March 21 and September 23

Question 16.
The speed of the earth’s revolution is about………………..
A. 20 km/s
B. 30 km/s
C. 40 km/s
D. 50 km/s
Answer:
B. 30 km/s

Question 17.
Aphelion occurs on………………..
A. July 4
B. January 3
C. February 2
D. March 1
Answer:
A. July 4

Question 18.
At Perihelion, the distance between the sun and the earth is………………..
A. 150 million km
B. 140 million km
C. 152 million km
D. 147 million km
Answer:
D. 147 million km

Question 19.
At Aphelion, the distance between the sun and the earth is………………..
A. 150 million km
B. 140 million km
C. 152 million km
D. 147 million km
Answer:
C. 152 million km

Question 20.
The path along which the sun’s annual apparent movement occurs is called………………..
A. sun’s apparent northward movement
B. sun’s apparent southward movement
C. sun path
D. daily apparent motion
Answer:
C. sun path

Question 21.
Change of seasons does not occur in the………………..
A. equatorial region
B. tropical region
C. sub-tropical region
D. polar region
Answer:
A. equatorial region

Question 22.
The sun appears larger in the Northern Hemisphere in………………..
A. summer
B. autumn
C. winter
D. spring
Answer:
C. winter

Question 23.
The longest night of the Northern Hemisphere occurs on………………..
A. March 21
B. September 23
C. July 21
D. December 22
Answer:
D. December 22

Question 24.
The longest day and shortest night in the Southern Hemisphere occurs on………………..
A. March 21
B. September 23
C. July 21
D. December 22
Answer:
D. December 22

Question 25.
Mercury completes one revolution around the sun in………………..
A. 90 days
B. 100 days
C. 88 days
D. 85 days
Answer:
C. 88 days

Question 26.
The average distance of the earth from the sun is………………..
A. 147 million km
B. 150 million km
C. 152 million km
D. 160 million km
Answer:
B. 150 million km

Question 27.
At the poles, the speed of rotation of the earth is………………..
A. 660 km/h
B. 1536 km/h
C. 1674 km/h
D. 0 km/h
Answer:
D. 0 km/h

Question 28.
In relation to the sun, the earth is………………..
A. 1.3 million times smaller
B. 1.2 million times smaller
C. almost half in size
D. almost same in size
Answer:
A. 1.3 million times smaller

Question 29.
The sun rises exactly in the east on………………..
A. March 21 and September 23
B. June 21
C. July 21
D. December 22
Answer:
A. March 21 and September 23

Question 30.
The speed of revolution of the earth at Kolkata is ………………..
A. 1547 km/h
B. 1674 km/h
C. 0 km/h
D. 666 km/h
Answer:
A. 1547 km/h

Question 31.
When the earth is at Perihelion, the Northern Hemisphere experiences………………..
A. summer
B. monsoon
C. autumn
D. winter
Answer:
D. winter

Question 32.
The total number of motions of the earth is………………..
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer:
B. two

Fill in the blanks

1. The distance between the earth and the sun is least during …………..
Answer: Aphelion

2. ………….. occurs on March 21.
Answer: Vernal equinox

3. Winter Solstice occurs on …………..
Answer: June 21

4. ………….. means equal length of day and night.
Answer: Equinox

5. In comparison to the equatorial region, the speed of rotation of the earth at the poles is …………..
Answer: lesser

6. According to ………….. Law, wind gets deflected towards the right in the Northern Hemisphere.
Answer: Ferrel’s

7. Norway is called the ‘Land of the ………….. Sun’.
Answer: Midnight

8. The ………….. regions experience 6 months of continuous night.
Answer: polar

9. The sun is located at the ………….. of the elliptical orbit of the earth.
Answer: focus

10. During revolution, the ………….. pole faces the Pole Star.
Answer: north

11. There is no change of seasons at the ………….. region.
Answer: equatorial

12. Leap year occurs every ………….. years.
Answer: four

13. The speed of rotation at the two poles is …………..
Answer: almost O

14. The sun rises in the east because in reality, the earth rotates from to …………..
Answer: west; east

15. ………….. is one complete rotation of the earth on its own axis in 24 hour.
Answer: Solar day

16. The earth’s orbit is …………..in shape.
Answer: elliptical

17. The speed of revolution of the earth is ………….. per hour.
Answer: 10,8000km

18. The Indian scientist who first put forward a sun-centric model of the universe was …………..
Answer: Aryabhatta

19. ………….. was the first to prove that the sun is fixed and the planets are revolving.
Answer: Copernicus

20. …………..proved that both motions of the earth occur simultaneously.
Answer: Sir Isaac Newton

21. The boundary between the lit half and the dark half of the earth is marked by the …………..
Answer: Circle of Illumination

22. The first scientist to say that all planets have an elliptical orbit was …………..
Answer: Copernicus

23. The ………….. region does not experience change of seasons.
Answer: equatorial

State True or False

1. The earth has only one motion.
Answer: False

2. The cycle of seasons in the Southern Hemisphere is opposite to that in the Northern Hemisphere.
Answer: True

3. Days and nights occur due to the annual movement of the earth.
Answer: False

4. The earth is farthest from the sun on September 21.
Answer: False

5. The movement of the earth is fastest at the equator.
Answer: True

6. The year 2016 is not a leap year.
Answer: False

7. Tides occur due to the revolution of the earth.
Answer: False

8. The sun’s apparent northward movement begins from March 21.
Answer: False

9. The Earth has an elliptical orbit.
Answer: True

10. The polar regions have cold climate almost throughout the year.
Answer: True

11. The equatorial regions receive the direct rays of the sun throughout the year.
Answer: True

12. During the winter season in the Northern Hemisphere, the earth revolves faster.
Answer: True

13. The days are longer in the Northern hemisphere during the month of December.
Answer: False

14. Winds get deflected due to the Coriolis Force.
Answer: True

15. The speed of earth’s revolution decreases during Aphelion.
Answer: False

16. The polar regions have 6 months of night.
Answer: True

17. The circular boundary line between light and darkness is known as latitude.
Answer: False

18. The earth resembles an oblate sphere, due to its rotation.
Answer:
True

19. The centrifugal force is created due to the rotation of the earth.
Answer:
True

20. The equatorial region of the earth bulges out while the polar regions are flattened.
Answer: True

21. The sun is farther away from us during the winter season.
Answer: False

22. The south pole faces the North Star.
Answer: False

23. December 22 is the longest day of the Southern Hemisphere.
Answer:
True

24. We see the sun shifting southward during March 21 to September 23.
Answer: False

25. Coriolis force is created due to the shape of the earth.
Answer: True

Match the columns

Column I	Column II
1. 4th July	a. Perihelion
2. January 3	b. Spring Equinox
3. June 21	c. Aphelion
4. March 21	d. Summer Solstice

Answer:
1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

Column 1	Column II
1. Earth’s rotational speed	a. Season Change
2. Earth’s speed of revolution	b. Change in wind direction
3. Centrifugal force	c. Coriolis
4. Ferrel	d. Formation of day and night

Answer:
1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B

Column 1	Column II
1. Solar day	a. 23 hours, 56 minutes, 4 seconds
2. Sidereal day	b. 365 days, 5 hours, 48 minutes,46 seconds
3. Solar year	c. 366 days
4. Leap year	d. 24 hours

Answer:
1 -D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C

Crossword

Question 1.

Answer:
Clues:
Down:
1 . This word means equal day and night.
2. The least distance between the sun and the orbit of the earth is this.
Across:
3. One complete circle by the earth around the sun.
4. When there is summer in the Northern Hemisphere, the Southern Hemisphere has
5. This pole faces the North Star during revolution.
Answer:
Down:
1. EQUINOX
2. PERIHELION
Across:
3. REVOLUTION
4. WINTER
5. NORTH

Question 2.

Answer:
Clues:
Down:
1. The spinning of the earth on its own axis.
3. Change of season does not take place in this region.
Across:
2. Summer is on June 21.
4. Sir Newton proved that the sun does not move.
5. This galaxy contains the solar system
Answer:
Down:
1. ROTATION
3. EQUATORIAL
Across:
2. SOLSTICE
4. ISAAC
5. MILKY

Well structured WBBSE 9 Geography MCQ Questions Chapter 1 Earth as a Planet can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Earth as a Planet Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
The ‘Blue Planet’ is another name for- …………….
A. Earth
B. Saturn
C. Venus
D. Mars
Answer:
A. Earth

Question 2.
The planet nearest to the earth is- …………….
A. Mercury
B. Venus
C. Mars
D. Jupiter
Answer:
B. Venus

Question 3.
The earth’s equatorial diameter is- …………….
A. 12,712 km
B. 12,745 km
C. 12,757 km
D. 12,500 km
Answer:
C. 12,757 km

Question 4.
The earth’s polar diameter is- …………….
A. 12,400 km
B. 12,714 km
C. 12,700 km
D. 12,720 km
Answer:
B. 12,714 km

Question 5.
“The earth revolves around the sun.” – This was first stated by-…………….
A. Galileo
B. Copernicus
C. Aryabhatta
D. Varahamihir
Answer:
C. Aryabhatta

Question 6.
The planet closest to the sun is-…………….
A. Mercury
B. Venus
C. Pluto
D. Neptune
Answer:
A. Mercury

Question 7.
“The earth revolves around the sun and on its own axis.” The first person to say this was-…………….
A. Copernicus
B. Aryabhatta
C. Galileo
D. Newton
Answer:
A. Copernicus

Question 8.
The average distance of the earth from the sun is-…………….
A. 140 million km
B. 150 million km
C. 160 million km
D. 120 million km
Answer:
B. 150 million km

Question 9.
The highest point on the surface of the earth is-…………….
A. Mount Everest
B. Pamir Plateau
C. Tibetan Plateau
D. North Pole region
Answer:
A. Mount Everest

Question 10.
The deepest known point on the earth is-…………….
A. Mariana Trench
B. Sunda Trench
C. St. Louis Trench
D. South Pole region
Answer:
A. Mariana Trench

Question 11.
The difference between the earth’s polar diameter and the equatorial diameter is -…………….
A. 40 km
B. 42 km
C. 43km
D. 45 km
Answer:
C. 43km

Question 12.
An example of a dwarf planet is- …………….
A. Pluto
B. Mercury
C. Mars
D. Neptune
Answer:
A. Pluto

Question 13.
The Bedford Canal Experiment was carried out by-…………….
A. Wallace
B. Torricelli
C. Foucault
D. Galileo
Answer:
A. Wallace

Question 14.
The average radius of the earth is-…………….
A. 6,300 km
B. 6,371 km
C. 6,500 km
D. 6,600 km
Answer:
B. 6,371 km

Question 15.
In 1797, scientist Henry Cavendish determined the earth’s-…………….
A. density
B. weight
C. circumference
D. diameter
Answer:
B. weight

Question 16.
In terms of distance from the sun, the earth is-…………….
A. second
B. third
C. fourth
D. fifth
Answer:
B. third

Question 17.
The average circumference of the earth is -…………….
A. 40,400 km
B. 40,075 km
C. 40,500 km
D. 40,200 km
Answer:
B. 40,075 km

Question 18.
The sun is a-…………….
A. planet
B. satellite
C. star
D. galaxy
Answer:
C. star

Question 19.
The sun is heavier than the earth by-…………….
A. 0.35 million times
B. 0.33 million times
C. 0.325 million times
D. 0.32 million times
Answer:
B. 0.33 million times

Question 20.
The number of Jovian planets in the solar system is -…………….
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 6
Answer:
B. 8

Question 21.
The planet which has rings around it is-…………….
A. Saturn
B. Earth
C. Mercury
D. Venus
Answer:
A. Saturn

Question 22.
The name of one satellite of Saturn is -…………….
A. Moon
B. Titan
C. Phobos
D. Haumea
Answer:
B. Titan

Question 23.
The total number of components in a GPS is-…………….
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
C. 5
Answer:
A. 3

Question 24.
In ancient times, man believed that the earth was a-…………….
A. sphere
B. oblate spheroid
C. plane
D. square
Answer:
C. plane

Question 25.
The ancient Mesopotamians believed that the earth was -…………….
A. floating in space
B. floating on an ocean
C. a single entity standing on its own
D. is not floating anywhere
Answer:
B. floating on an ocean

Question 26.
“The earth is round.”- This statement was first made by-…………….
A. Plato
B. Pythagoras
C. Aristotle
D. Strabo
Answer:
B. Pythagoras

Question 27.
Pythagoras was a-…………….
A. Greek philosopher
B. Roman philosopher
C. British philosopher
D. Portuguese philosopher
Answer:
A. Greek philosopher

Question 28.
The first empirical proof that the earth is round was given by-…………….
A. Pythagoras
B. Magellan
C. Columbus
D. Aristotle
Answer:
B. Magellan

Question 29.
A proof that the earth is round is-…………….
A. the view from the mast of a ship
B. travelling around the world in a ship
C. photographs taken from space
D. the view from the top of Mt. Everest
Answer:
C. photographs taken from space

Question 30.
The person to calculate the earth’s circumference on the basis of the difference in the angle of incidence of sun rays was-…………….
4. Strabo
B. Aristotle
C. Eratosthenes
D. Plato
Answer:
C. Eratosthenes

Question 31.
The Old Bedford River is in-…………….
A. England
B. France
C. Germany
D. Italy
Answer:
A. England

Question 32.
The earth can be called an oblate spheroid because-…………….
A. the earth’s surface is elevated by 15m at the North Pole
B. there is more water at the equatorial region
C. the highest point on earth is Mt. Everest
D. the poles are flattened and the equatorial region is bulging out
Answer:
D. the poles are flattened and the equatorial region is bulging out

Question 33.
The earth’s gravitational force is the greatest-…………….
A. at the equatorial region
B. in the ocean beds
C. on mountain peaks
D. at the poles
Answer:
D. at the poles

Question 34.
The pendulum clock experiment was conducted by-…………….
A. Pythagoras
B. Eratosthenes
C. Jean Richer
D. Galileo
Answer:
C. Jean Richer

Question 35.
The word ‘geoid’ means-…………….
A. oblate spheroid
B. perfect sphere
C. flattened
D. like the earth
Answer:
D. like the earth

Question 36.
The shape of Mercury and Venus is-…………….
A. oblate spheroid
B. perfect sphere
C. geoid
D. flattened
Answer:
B. perfect sphere

Question 37.
To complete one revolution around the sun, Venus takes-…………….
A. 365 days
B. 24 hours
C. 243 days
C. 27 days
Answer:
C. 243 days

Question 38.
One of the believers in the earth-centric model of the universe was-…………….
A. Copernicus
B. Aristotle
C. Bruno
D. Brahe
Answer:
B. Aristotle

Question 39.
The telescope was invented by-…………….
A. Kepler
B. Galileo Galilei
C. Newton
D. Edmond Halley
Answer:
B.Galileo Galilei

Question 40.
If we move 111.3 kilometre from the equator towards the poles, the angle of incidence of sun’s rays will increase by-…………….
A. 1° 30‘
B. 2° 30‘
C. 1°
D. 1° 02‘
Answer:
C. 1°

Question 41.
To complete one revolution around the earth, the moon takes-…………….
4. 36 days
B. 20 days
C. 27 days
D. 27 \(\frac{1}{3}\) days
Answer:
D. 27 \(\frac{1}{3}\) days

Question 42.
The latitudinal coordinate of Paris is-…………….
A. 26° 32′ N
B. 47° N
C. 49° N
D. 75° 03′ N
Answer:
C. 49° N

Question 43.
The Cayenne islands are in-…………….
A. North America
B. South America
C. Asia
D. Austria
Answer:
B. South America

Question 44.
The length of the earth’s orbit is -…………….
A. 9.6 million km
B. 11 million km
D. 14.70 million km
D. 15.20 million km
Answer:
A. 9.6 million km

Question 45.
The deepest point in the Mariana Trench has a depth of-…………….
A. 10,053 m
B. 11,035 m
C. 11,350 m
D. 10,994 m
Answer:
B. 11,035 m

Question 46.
The earth’s centrifugal force is greatest at the-…………….
A. equatorial region
B. tropics
C. polar regions
D. frigid zone
Answer:
B. tropics

Question 47.
To determine the location of any place on earth using GPS, the number of satellites launched in space by the USA is-…………….
A. 23
B. 24
C. 25
D. 31
Answer:
A. 23

Question 48.
The largest planet in the solar system is-…………….
A. Mercury
B. Venus
C. Jupiter
D. Mars
Answer:
C. Jupiter

Question 49.
During a lunar eclipse, the shadow of the earth on the moon looks-…………….
A. straight
B. curved
C. circular
D. rectangular
Answer:
C. circular

Question 50.
As we go higher up from the surface of the earth, the line of horizon appears-…………….
A. shorter
B. longer
C. stays the same
D. none of the above
Answer:
B. longer

Question 51.
At present, the number of known planets in the solar system is-…………….
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 8
Answer:
D. 8

Question 52.
Eratosthenes was-…………….
A. a Roman philosopher
B. a Greek philosopher
C. an Egyptian philosopher
D. an Indian philosopher
Answer:
B. a Greek philosopher

Question 53.
At present, the number of dwarf planets in the solar system is-…………….
A. 5
C. 6
B. 4
D. 3
Answer:
A. 5

Fill in the blanks

1. The first person to calculate the circumference of the earth was …………….
Answer: Eratosthenes

2. In terms of size, the earth stands among …………… the planets of the solar system.
Answer: fifth

3. The sun is …………… times larger in size than the earth.
Answer: 1.3 million

4. The earth’s equatorial diameter is ……………..than its polar diameter.
Answer: greater

5. The only satellite of the earth is the……………..
Answer: moon

6. The earth is divided equally into ……………..lines of longitude.
Answer: 360

7. The moon is at a distance of about ……………..km from the earth.
Answer: 3,84,400 km

8. The sun and the heavenly objects that revolve around it are together known as the ……………..
Answer: solar system

9. The satellites used for GPS are generally at a distance of ……………..km from the earth’s surface.
Answer: 20,200

10. The person who first succeeded in estimating the volume of the earth was……………..
Answer: Aristotle

11. One stadia is equal to …………….. metre.
Answer: 185

12. From space, the earth appears …………….. in colour.
Answer: blue

13. The earth is an …………….. spheroid.
Answer: oblate

14. Magellan started his expedition from the city of …………….. in Spain.
Answer: Seville

15. …………….. was the first person to observe that the earth was round after observing the relative position of some stars.
Answer: Aristotle

16. …………….. estimated the circumference of the earth on the basis of the angle of incidence of the sun’s rays.
Answer: Eratosthenes

17. The Bedford Canal Experiment proves that the earth is……………..
Answer: spherical

18. The …………….. star is visible from any point in the Northern Hemisphere.
Answer: North/ Pole

19. The earth’s North and South Poles are……………..
Answer: slightly flattened

20. The earth’s equatorial diameter is ……………..km.
Answer: 12,757

21. The earth’s polar diameter is ……………..km.
Answer: 12,714

22. In the year…………….., Jean Richard conducted the pendulum experiment.
Answer: 1671

State True or False

1. The moon does not have any light of its own.
Answer: True

2. The shape of the earth is geoid.
Answer: True

3. Saturn is called the ‘King of the Planets’.
Answer: False

4. The average diameter of the earth is 12,800 kilometre.
Answer: False

5. The earth, along with other planets, moves around the sun.
Answer: True

6. The earth is the only planet in the solar system known to support life.
Answer: True

7. Stars do not have light of their own.
Answer: False

8. The earth’s orbit is elliptical in shape.
Answer: True

9. If the earth was a flat plane, sunrise and sunset would occur at the same time at every place on earth.
Answer: True

10. Artificial satellites are used to gather information for use by GPS.
Answer: True

11. The main control system of GPS is in the United States of America.
Answer: True

12. According to Eratosthenes, the circumference of the earth is 2,50,000 stadia.
Answer: True

13. Eris is a planet.
Answer: False

14. Planets are smaller than dwarf planets.
Answer: False

15. The weight of any object is always lesser at the poles.
Answer: False

16. The shape of the earth is an oblate spheroid because of centrifugal force.
Answer: True

17. The Southern Hemisphere has a greater percentage of landmass.
Answer: False

18. The shape of the earth is known as geoid.
Answer: True

19. Mercury’s shape is like that of the earth.
Answer: False

20. The earth’s circumference was calculated by Ptolemy.
Answer: False

21. The average circumference of the earth is about 40,000 km.
Answer: True

22. With the help of GPS, we have come to know the exact shape of the earth.
Answer: True

23. The gravitational force acting on the city of Paris is stronger than that at the Cayenne Islands.
Answer: True

24. The earth’s orbit is 960 million km and its shape is circular.
Answer: False

25. Saturn is the largest planet in the solar system.
Answer: False

26. The earth’s area is determined by using the formula 4πR.
Answer: False

27. The Pole Star can be seen even from the Southern Hemisphere.
Answer: False

28. Jupiter has two satellites.
Answer: False

29. The dwarf planet Eris has 10 satellites.
Answer: False

30. The Pole Star is located at an angle of 90° to the Equator.
Answer: False

31. The gravitational force acting on the earth is the same at all latitudes.
Answer: False

32. It is because of the presence of the atmosphere that only the white ray from the sun reaches the earth’s surface.
Answer: True

Match the columns

Column I	Column II
A. Dwarf planet	A. Earth
B. Ringed planet	B. Jupiter
C. King of planets	C. Pluto
D. Blue Planet	D. Saturn

Answer:
1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A

Column I	Column II
1. Earth’s equatorial diameter	A. 6,371 km
2. Earth’s polar diameter	B. 12,714 km
3. Earth’s average circumference	C. 12,757 km
4. Earth’s radius	D. 40,000 km

Answer:
1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A

Crossword

Question 1.

Clues:
Down:
1. The seventh planet of the solar system.
2. He said that the earth revolves around the sun.
Across:
3 . He first measured the diameter of the earth.
4. Largest planet of the solar system.
5. Bedford level experiment shows that the earth is
Answer:
Down:
1. URANUS
2. COPERNICUS
Across:
3. ERATOSTHENES
4. JUPITER
5. SPHERICAL

Question 2.

Clues:
Down:
1. The eighth planet of the solar system.
4. A satellite of Saturn.
Across:
2 . The ‘blue planet’ of the solar system.
3. A man-made object that orbits the sun, moon, planets and helps in communication.
Answer:
Down:
1. NEPTUNE
4. TITAN
Across:
2. EARTH
3. SATELLITE

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 3.1C Transpiration can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Transpiration Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
During transpiration, plants release-
(A) Water from the body
(B) Excess water as vapour
(C) Only CO₂
(D) Water and CO₂
Answer:
(B) Excess water as vapour

Question 2.
Transpiration occurs through-
(A) Stomata of leaves
(B) Lenticels of stem
(C) Cuticle of leaves
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 3.
Maximum transpiration occurs through-
(A) Stomata
(B) Cuticle
(C) Lenticels
(D) Cracks on the plant surface
Answer:
(A) Stomata

Question 4.
Rate of transpiration is-
(A) Inversely proportional to the intensity of light
(B) Directly proportional to the humidity of atmosphere
(C) Directly proportional to the intensity of light
(D) Inversely proportional to the rate of water absorption
Answer:
(C) Directly proportional to the intensity of light

Question 5.
The scientist who said that “transpiration is a necessary evil”-
(A) Curtis
(B) Barnes
(C) Woodland
(D) Calvin
Answer:
(A) Curtis

Question 6.
Stoma remains guarded by a pair of-
(A) Guard cells
(B) Companion cells
(C) Sclerenchymatous cells
(D) Sieve cells
Answer:
(A) Guard cells

Question 7.
Increase in CO₂ concentration in the atmosphere-
(A) Increases transpiration
(B) Decreases transpiration
(C) Has no role in transpiration
(D) Stops transpiration
Answer:
(B) Decreases transpiration

Question 8.
increase in atmospheric temperature-
(A) Increases transpiration
(B) Decreases transpiration
(C) Shows no significant change in transpiration
(D) Has no role in transpiration
Answer:
(A) Increases transpiration

Question 9.
Very high temperature (above 35° C)-
(A) Increases the rate of transpiration
(B) Decreases the rate of transpiration
(C) Shows no change in the rate of transpiration
(D) Stops transpiration
Answer:
(B) Decreases the rate of transpiration

Question 10.
Higher rate of transpiration needs-
(A) Sudden gusty wind
(B) Continuous hot air flow
(C) Steady moist wind flow
(D) All of these
Answer:
(B) Continuous hot air flow

Question 11.
During hot summer noon, herbaceous plants wilt because of–
(A) Short food production
(B) Evaporation
(C) Excess transpiration
(D) Lower ascent of sap
Answer:
(C) Excess transpiration

Question 12.
A plant shows higher rate of transpiration, which has-
(A) Wider leaves
(B) Fewer leaves
(C) Finer leaves
(D) Leaves with cuticle
Answer:
(A) Wider leaves

Question 13.
Transpiration occurs at night in plant.
(A) Mango
(B) Sugarcane
(C) Aloe vera
(D) Colocasia (Arum)
Answer:
(C) Aloe vera

Question 14.
Desert plants perform transpiration preferably-
(A) At morning
(B) At dusk
(C) At afternoon
(D) At night
Answer:
(D) At night

Question 15.
Normal transpiration makes a plant-
(A) Weak
(B) Cool
(C) Fresh
(D) Dry
Answer:
(B) Cool

Question 16.
Which of the following leaves performs transpiration most efficiently?
(A) Pine leaf
(B) Arum leaf
(C) Paddy leaf
(D) Grass leaf
Answer:
(B) Arum leaf

Question 17.
The cells which are present around the guard cells are called-
(A) Epithelial cells
(B) Sclerenchyma cells
(C) Prosenchyma cells
(D) Subsidiary cells
Answer:
(D) Subsidiary cells

Question 18.
Which of the following leaves shows least rate of transpiration?
(A) Banana leaf
(B) Rose leaf
(C) Cactus leaf
(D) Apple leaf
Answer:
(C) Cactus leaf

Question 19.
The rate of transpiration through cuticle is about $\%$ of the total transpiration by plants.
(A) 0.1
(B) 10
(C) 90
(D) 100
Answer:
(B) 10

Question 20.
In which type of leaves does maximum rate of transpiration occur?
(A) Tender leaf
(B) Fully grown leaf
(C) Aged leaf
(D) Dry leaf
Answer:
(B) Fully grown leaf

Question 21.
Guard cells are shaped.
(A) Oval
(B) Square
(C) Bean
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Bean

Question 22.
The opening and closing of stomatal pore is controiled by cells.
(A) Mesophyll
(B) Spongy
(C) Guard
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Guard

Question 23.
The essential element which controls the rate of transpiration is-
(A) Potassium
(B) Iron
(C) Boron
(D) Manganese
Answer:
(A) Potassium

Question 24 .
The hormone, which helps in the closing of stomatal pore, is-
(A) Auxin
(B) Abscisic Acid (ABA)
(C) Cytokinin
(D) Indole Acetic Acid (IAA)
Answer:
(B) Abscisic Acid (ABA)

Question 25.
Highest rate of transpiration occurs in-
(A) Hot and humid climate
(B) Cold and dry climate
(C) Cold and moist climate
(D) Hot and dry climate
Answer:
(D) Hot and dry climate

Fill in the blanks :

1. Minimum rate of transpiration occurs through ____.
2. ____ ions help in the opening of stomata.
3. Xerophytic plants possess _____ stomata.
4. In dorsiventral leaves, maximum number of stomata is seen on the ____ side.
5. ____ is an example of anti-transpirant.
6. In airy environment, rate of transpiration ____.
7. A thin and porous cuticle _____ transpiration rate.
8. _____ is a slow and controlled process in plants.
9. Drooping of plant, due to excess transpiration is called _____.

Answer:

1. Lenticels
2. Potassium
3. Sunken
4. Ventral ABA
5. Abscisic acid
6. Increases
7. Enhances
8. Transpiration
9. Wilting

State true or false :

1. Ganong’s potometer is used to measure the rate of respiration.
2. Sunken stomata are seen in evergreen plants.
3. Plants give out excess water as vapours by a process called evaporation.
4. Transpiration is a physiological process.
5. Excess transpiration causes wilting of plants.
6. Maximum rate of transpiration occurs through cuticle.
7. Relative humidity is one of the main controlling factors of evaporation.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. True
6. False

Match the columns :

Question 1.

Left column	Right column
1. Maximum transpiration	A. Lenticel
2. Lens-shaped pores on bark	B. Cuticle
3. Guttation	C. Stomata
4. Waxy coating on leaves	D. Spine
	E. Hydathode

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Maximum transpiration	C. Stomata
2. Lens-shaped pores on bark	A. Lenticel
3. Guttation	E. Hydathode
4. Waxy coating on leaves	B. Cuticle

Question 2.

Left column	Right column
1. Physical process	A. Guttation
2. Photochemical process	B. Wilting
3. Water disposal through hydathodes	C. Respiration
4. Drooping of plant	D. Evaporation
	E. Photosynthesis

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Physical process	D. Evaporation
2. Photochemical process	E. Photosynthesis
3. Water disposal through hydathodes	A. Guttation
4. Drooping of plant	B. Wilting

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 3.1D Movement of Water, Minerals, Food and Gases can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Movement of Water, Minerals, Food and Gases Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Rate of diffusion increases with the-
(A) Increase in temperature of the medium
(B) Increase in viscosity of the medium
(C) Decrease in relative difference in concentration of two media
(D) All of these
Answer:
(A) Increase in temperature of the medium

Question 2.
Which type of transport never needs any carrier?
(A) Simple diffusion
(B) Osmosis
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Ion absorption
Answer:
(C) Both (A) and (B)

Question 3.
In diffusion of molecules, the main driving force is the-
(A) Electrical gradient
(B) Concentration gradient
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Both (A) and (B)

Question 4.
O₂ is absorbed in the living cells by-
(A) Diffusion
(B) Osmosis
(C) Active absorption
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Diffusion

Question 5.
The main cause of diffusion pressure is-
(A) Size of diffusible molecules
(B) Velocity of the diffusible molecules
(C) Weight of the diffusible molecules
(D) Viscosity of the medium
Answer:
(B) Velocity of the diffusible molecules

Question 6.
The phloem element which helps in the transport of food material, is-
(A) Sieve tube
(B) Companion cells
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Both (A) and (B)

Question 7.
Increase in size of diffusible molecules results into-
(A) Slower rate of diffusion
(B) Faster rate of diffusion
(C) No change in diffusion rate
(D) Stoppage of diffusion
Answer:
(A) Slower rate of diffusion

Question 8.
Increase in viscosity of medium-
(A) Has no role in diffusion
(B) Has negative role in diffusion rate
(C) Has positive role in diffusion rate
(D) Stops diffusion completely
Answer:
(B) Has negative role in diffusion rate

Question 9.
If a living cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, the protoplasm-
(A) Shrinks
(B) Swells
(C) Remains as it is
(D) Gets dissolved in the solution
Answer:
(A) Shrinks

Question 10.
In active transport, sodium and potassium ions-
(A) Jointly enter into a cell through cell membrane
(B) Move against each other through cell membrane
(C) Never enter in a cell through cell membrane
(D) Sodium ion enters but potassium ion does not enter in a cell
Answer:
(B) Move against each other through cell membrane

Question 11.
During deplasmolysis-
(A) A cell with shrunken protoplasm swells
(B) Protoplasm shrinks
(C) Cell membrane swells
(D) Cell membrane shrinks
Answer:
(A) A cell with shrunken protoplasm swells

Question 12.
Select the correct statement.
(A) Diffusion is possible only in liquid medium.
(B) Osmosis occurs through a permeable membrane.
(C) Semi-permeable membrane allows solvent molecules to pass through it.
(D) All cell membranes are semi-permeable in nature.
Answer:
(C) Semi-permeable membrane allows solvent molecules to pass through it.

Question 13.
In active transport, ATP-
(A) Carries the ions with it
(B) Pushes the ions through the membrane
(C) Binds to the carrier protein
(D) Provides physical energy
Answer:
(C) Binds to the carrier protein

Question 14.
The transport of molecules with the help of a carrier protein but without any role of ATP through a cell membrane, is called-
(A) Facilitated diffusion
(B) Diffusion
(C) Passive transport
(D) Active transport
Answer:
(A) Facilitated diffusion

Question 15.
It a flower is cut and immersed in dilute Nacl solution, then-
(A) Exosmosis occurs
(B) Endosmosis occurs
(C) Absorption of solutes inside the cells of flower occurs
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Endosmosis occurs

Fill in the blanks :

1. _____ does not need any metabolic energy for transportation.
2. In osmosis, the molecules of _____ move from a region of low concentration to a region of high concentration.
3. Diffusion occurs due to difference in ____ of the two media.
4. The physiological process for which a semi-permeable membrane is required, is called ____.
5. The process which helps herbs to stand erect on the ground, is ____.
6. The pressure flow hypothesis was given by scientist ______.
7. The cell membrane of a living cell is usually a kind of _____ permeable membrane.
8. The passage of water from one cell to the next is called _____ osmosis.

Answer:

1. Water
2. Solvent
3. Density
4. Osmosis
5. Osmosis
6. Munch
7. Selectively
8. Intercellular

State true or false :

1. ‘Root Pressure Theory’ was proposed by Curtis.
2. Transpiration pull helps in the ascent of sap.
3. A cell shrinks when placed in hypotonic solution.
4. Air bladder of fish is an example of a semipermeable membrane.
5. Symport and antiport are types of coupled transport.
6. Only downward transport of food materials takes place in phloem.
7. Tif Swelling of the protoplasm of a flaccid cell by endosmosis is called deplasmolysis.
8. Call wall is a selectively premeable membrare.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. True
6. False
7. True
8. False

Match the columns :

Question 1.

Left column	Right column
1. Active transport	A. Diffusion
2. Ascent of sap	B. Shrinking of protoplasm
3. Passive transport	C. Upward transport through xylem
4. Plasmolysis	D. ATP consumption
	E. Photolysis

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Active transport	D. ATP consumption
2. Ascent of sap	C. Upward transport through xylem
3. Passive transport	A. Diffusion
4. Plasmolysis	B. Shrinking of protoplasm

Question 2.

Left column	Right column
1. Endosmosis	A. Hypertonic solution
2. Symport	B. Hypotonic solution
3. Exosmosis	C. Transport towards same direction
4. Transpiration pull	D. Transport towards opposite directions
	E. Root pressure

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Endosmosis	B. Hypotonic solution
2. Symport	C. Transport towards same direction
3. Exosmosis	A. Hypertonic solution
4. Transpiration pull	E. Root pressure

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 3.2A Respiration: Organ-Level Respiration can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Respiration: Organ-Level Respiration Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which feature is essential for a respiratory organ?
(A) It must have wide surface area
(B) It must be wet
(C) It must be well vascularised
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 2.
Respiratory organ of starfish is
(A) Tube feet
(B) Lungs
(C) Book lung
(D) Gills
Answer:
(A) Tube feet

Question 3.
The respiratory organ of herbs are-
(A) Stomata
(B) Stomata and lenticels
(C) Stomata and cuticle
(D) Cuticle
Answer:
(C) Stomata and cuticle

Question 4.
Halophytes respire with-
(A) Stomata
(B) Stomata and cuticle
(C) Stomata and pneumatophores
(D) Pneumatophores and cuticle
Answer:
(C) Stomata and pneumatophores

Question 5.
Pneumatophores collect air from the-
(A) Atmosphere
(B) Mud
(C) Saline water
(D) Moist soil
Answer:
(A) Atmosphere

Question 6.
The most efficient organ for aerial respiration in animals is-
(A) Skin
(B) Lungs
(C) Book lungs
(D) Trachea
Answer:
(B) Lungs

Question 7.
Blood plays no role in carrying respiratory gases in-
(A) Fishes
(B) Earthworms
(C) Cockroaches
(D) Molluscs
Answer:
(C) Cockroaches

Question 8.
Gills collect oxygen from water by-
(A) Diffusion
(B) Endosmosis
(C) Active transport
(D) Facilitated diffusion
Answer:
(A) Diffusion

Question 9.
Trachea of insects supply oxygen to-
(A) Haemolymph
(B) Body fluid
(C) Intercellular fluid
(D) Cells
Answer:
(C) Intercellular fluid

Question 10.
Other than fishes, gills are seen in-
(A) Aquatic insects
(B) Spiders
(C) Tadpoles
(D) All of these
Answer:
(C) Tadpoles

Question 11.
Air enters in the tracheal network of insects by-
(A) Stomata
(B) Tracheoles
(C) Plurites
(D) Spiracles
Answer:
(D) Spiracles

Question 12.
Elongated respiratory tube acts as an accessory respiratory organ in-
(A) Koi fish
(B) Magur fish
(C) Singhi fish
(D) Shol fish
Answer:
(C) Singhi fish

Question 13.
Pleural fluid is present in between the-
(A) Lung and visceral pleura
(B) Lung and parietal pleura
(C) Visceral and parietal pleura
(D) Alveoli
Answer:
(C) Visceral and parietal pleura

Question 14.
Total alveoli in two lungs of a healthy and normal human being ranges from-
(A) 10-20 crores
(B) 20-25 crores
(C) 30-50 crores
(D) 70-80 crores
Answer:
(C) 30-50 crores

Question 15.
Which statement is correct?
(A) In a normal human being, both lungs are of same volume.
(B) In human, right lung is smaller.
(C) In human, left lung is smaller with three lobes.
(D) In human, right lung is larger with three lobes.
Answer:
(D) In human, right lung is larger with three lobes.

Question 16.
In lungs, _____ takes part in the gaseous exchange.
(A) Bronchus
(B) Bronchiole
(C) Alveolus
(D) Trachea
Answer:
(C) Alveolus

Question 17.
The carcinogenic compound, that enters into the lungs during cigarette smoking, is-
(A) CO₂
(B) CO
(C) HCN
(D) Benzopyrine
Answer:
(D) Benzopyrine

Question 18.
Spiracles of cockroach are present on-
(A) Tergite
(B) Sternite
(C) Pleurite
(D) Pronotum
Answer:
(C) Pleurite

Question 19.
In which fish, accessory respiratory organs are found?
(A) Rohu
(B) Prawn
(C) Shark
(D) Magur
Answer:
(D) Magur

Question 20.
Haemocyanin pigment is found in _____.
(A) Prawn and cockroach
(B) Prawn and snail
(C) Snail and earthworm
(D) Cockroach and snail
Answer:
(B) Prawn and snail

Question 21.
Pigeons have ____ air sacs.
(A) 8
(B) 8 pairs
(C) 9
(D) 10 pairs
Answer:
(C) 9

Question 22.
An adult human being can normally breath ______ times in one minute.
(A) 100
(B) 10
(C) 14-18
(D) 20-25
Answer:
(C) 14-18

Question 23.
The copper-containing pigment which carries oxygen during respiration, is _____.
(A) Haemoerythrin
(B) Haemocyanin
(C) Haemoglobin
(D) Chlorocruonin
Answer:
(B) Haemocyanin

Question 24.
Which of the following is a respiratory muscle?
(A) Biceps
(B) Triceps
(C) External intercostal muscle
(D) Myocardium
Answer:
(C) External intercostal muscle

Question 25.
Ribcage of human is made up of _____ pairs of bones.
(A) 14
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) 16
Answer:
(B) 12

Question 26.
The most efficient organs for respiration in plants are-
(A) Stomata
(B) Lenticels
(C) Pneumatophores
(D) Cuticular pores
Answer:
(A) Stomata

Fill in the blanks :

1. Whales respire through _____.
2. Respiration is a/an _____ process.
3. Limulus respire through _____.
4. The ____ is known as Adam’s apple.
5. During hibernation, animals respire through ____.
6. Spiders respire through ____.
7. In blood, oxygen is transported as ______.
8. _____ is the cartilaginous covering present at the entrance of the larynx.
9. Todpoles breath through external _____.

Answer:

1. Lungs
2. Anabolic
3. Bookgills
4. Larynx
5. Skin
6. Booklung
7. Oxyhaemoglobin
8. Epiglottis
9. Gills

State true or false :

1. A typical respiratory organ should not be moist.
2. Pneumatophores are called ‘breathing roots’, which grow against gravity.
3. Frogs show cutaneous respiration.
4. Gills are covered with bony plates, called cranium.
5. Each bronchus of lung ramifies reveral times, from finer to finest air tubules, called bronchioles.
6. Breathing involves two phases-inspiration and expiration.
7. During expiration diaphragm expands.
8. Smokers develop a chronic lung disease, called emphysema.
9. During inspiration, intercostal muscles relax to push the ribs downwards.
10. Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. True
8. True
9. False
10. True

Match the columns :

Question 1.

Left column	Right column
1. Stomata	A. Halophytes
2. Lenticel	B. Barks of trees
3. Pneumatophore	C. Photosynthesis
4. Chloroplast	D. Leaf surface
	E. Food storage

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Stomata	D. Leaf surface
2. Lenticel	B. Barks of trees
3. Pneumatophore	A. Halophytes
4. Chloroplast	C. Photosynthesis

Question 2.

Left column	Right column
1. Skin	A. Amoeba
2. Gills	B. Cockroach
3. Body surface	C. Toad
4. Trachea	D. Fish
	E. Human

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Skin	C. Toad
2. Gills	D. Fish
3. Body surface	A. Amoeba
4. Trachea	B. Cockroach

Question 3.

Left column	Right column
1. Labyrinth organ	A. Clarias (Magur)
2. Respiratory tube	B. Anabas (Koi)
3. Respiratory tree	C. Frog
4. Spiracles	D. Heteropneustes (Singhi)
	E. Cockroach

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Labyrinth organ	B. Anabas (Koi)
2. Respiratory tube	D. Heteropneustes (Singhi)
3. Respiratory tree	A. Clarias (Magur)
4. Spiracles	E. Cockroach

Question 4.

Left column	Right column
1. Double layered membrane	A. Alveoli
2. Tubular wind pipe	B. Bronchioles
3. Fine air tubules	C. Thylakoids
4. Balloon shaped sacs	D. Trachea
	E. Pleura

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Double layered membrane	E. Pleura
2. Tubular wind pipe	D. Trachea
3. Fine air tubules	B. Bronchioles
4. Balloon shaped sacs	A. Alveoli

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 3.1A Plant Physiology: Photosynthesis can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Plant Physiology: Photosynthesis Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following is/are plant physiological process/processes?
A. Respiration
B. Transpiration
C. Photosynthesis
D. All of these
Answer:
D. All of these

Question 2.
Which of the following components is/are necessary for photosynthesis?
A. Light and chlorophyll
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Water
D. All of these
Answer:
D. All of these

Question 3.
The gas released during photosynthesis is- …………..
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Both A. and B.
D. None of these
Answer:
A. Oxygen

Question 4.
The type of tissue, which serves as the site of photosynthesis, is-…………..
A. Meristematic tissue
B. Mesophyll tissue
C. Epidermal tissue
D. Vascular tissue
Answer:
B. Mesophyll tissue

Question 5.
The main end product of photosynthesis is-…………..
A. Glucose
B. Starch
C. Fructose
D. Glycogen
Answer:
A. Glucose

Question 6.
During photosynthesis, terrestrial plants absorb this gas from atmosphere. Which gas is it?
A. H₂O
B. CO₂
C. O₂
D. None of these
Answer:
B. CO₂

Question 7.
Aquatic plants absorb CO₂ through-…………..
A. Stomata
B. Root hair
C. Body surface
D. Leaves
Answer:
C. Body surface

Question 8.
in plants, stomata help in-…………..
A. Absorption of CO₂ and O₂
B. Exchange of CO₂ and O₂ and release of extra water as vapour
C. Intake of CO₂ and release of extra water as vapour
D. None of these
Answer:
B. Exchange of CO₂ and O₂ and release of extra water as vapour

Question 9.
The cell organelle in plants, acting as the site of photosynthetic reactions, is-…………..
A. Chloroplast
B. Chromoplast
C. Leucoplast
D. Mitochondrion
Answer:
A. Chloroplast

Question 10.
in flowering green plants, photosynthesis occurs in-…………..
A. Leaves only
B. Leaves, sepals, green fruit skin and tender stems
C. Leaves, stems and roots
D. Leaves and tender stems
Answer:
B. Leaves, sepals, green fruit skin and tender stems

Question 11.
Select the correct statement-…………..
A. Light reactions of photosynthesis occur in the presence of sunlight.
B. Photosynthesis can take place only under sunlight.
C. Dark reaction is hindered in the presence of sunlight.
D. Glucose is produced as a by-product in light reaction.
Answer:
A. Light reactions of photosynthesis occur in the presence of sunlight.

Question 12.
The only metallic element present in chlorophyll is-…………..
A. Carbon
B. Copper
C. Iron
D. Magnesium
Answer:
D. Magnesium

Question 13.
Source of oxygen, released during photosynthesis, is-…………..
A. CO₂
B. H₂O
C. Both A. and B.
D. None of these
Answer:
B. H₂O

Question 14.
The colour of light preferable for maximum rate of photosynthesis, is-…………..
A. Green light
B. Blue light
C. Yellow light
D. Red light
Answer:
D. Red light

Question 15.
Photosynthesis occurs at its best under-…………..
A. High oxygen concentration
B. Low carbon dioxide concentration
C. High carbon dioxide concentration under red light
D. Low oxygen concentration under green light
Answer:
C. High carbon dioxide concentration under red light

Question 16.
During photosynthesis, phosphorylation occurs in -…………..
A. Light-dependent phase
B. Light-independent phase
C. Both A. and 3.
D. None of these
Answer:
A. Light-dependent phase

Question 17.
One of the end products of light-dependent phase is -…………..
A. NADP
B. FAD
C. ADP
D. ATP
Answer:
D. ATP

Question 18.
Which of the following is called the Hill reagent?
A. NADP
B. ATP
C. NAD
D. FAD
Answer:
A. NADP

Question 19.
Reactions of light-dependent phase occur in-…………..
A. Stroma of chloroplast
B. Grana of chloroplast
C. Inner membrane of chloroplast
D. Mitochondrial matrix
Answer:
B. Grana of chloroplast

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with the correct option.
________ +Pi → ATP
A. AMP
B. ADP
C. NADP
D. NAD
Answer:
B. ADP

Question 21.
Fill in the blank with the correct option.
H₂O → __________+oH^–
A. H₂
B. H
C. 2H
D. H⁺
Answer:
D. H⁺

Question 22.
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Ionisation of water in photosynthesis needs no light.
B. Photophosphorylation is the only light-dependent reaction, taking place in photosynthesis.
C. Both hydrolysis and photophosphorylation involve chlorophyll.
D. Photophosphorylation needs chlorophyll but hydrolysis does not.
Answer:
C. Both hydrolysis and photophosphorylation involve chlorophyll.

Question 23.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. ATP formation occurs during photosynthesis by photophosphorylation.
B. Hill reaction occurs in light-dependent phase of photosynthesis.
C. Carbon assimilation does not occur at all in presence of light.
D. Glucose formation is the last phase of photosynthesis.
Answer:
C. Carbon assimilation does not occur at all in presence of light.

Question 24.
The scientist who discovered the reaction pathway for the photolysis of water is-…………..
A. Robin Hill
B. M. Calvin
C. Blackman
D. C. Linnaeus
Answer:
A. Robin Hill

Question 25.
The first stable carbon compound produced during photosynthesis is -…………..
A. PGA
B. PGAld
C. Glucose
D. Starch
Answer:
A. PGA

Question 26.
What is the name of the following reaction?

A. Photophosphorylation
B. Photolysis of water
C. Carbon assimilation
D. Glucogenesis
Answer:
C. Carbon assimilation

Question 27.
Resynthesis of RuBP from PGA occurs during-…………..
A. Hill reaction
B. Glycolysis
C. Blackman reaction
D. Calvin cycle
Answer:
D. Calvin cycle

Question 28.
In photosynthesis, photolysis of water is popularly known as-…………..
A. Blackman reaction
B. Hill reaction
C. Z-scheme
D. None of these
Answer:
B. Hill reaction

Question 29.
Food synthesised during photosynthesis, is generally stored in plant tissue as-…………..
A. Glucose
B. Glycogen
C. Starch
D. Cellulose
Answer:
C. Starch

Question 30.
Which of the following is not a photosynthetic pigment?
A. Carotene
B. Phycobilin
C. Chlorophyll
D. Haemocyanin
Answer:
D. Haemocyanin

Question 31.
Photosynthesis is a-…………..
A. Chemical process
B. Mechanical process
C. Photochemical process
D. None of these
Answer:
C. Photochemical process

Question 32.
Out of the 7 colours of the visible spectrum, which two lights are the most effective for photosynthesis?
A. Red and blue
B. Green and red
C. Blue and green
D. Yellow and green
Answer:
A. Red and blue

Question 33.
The wavelength of red light of the visible spectrum ranges from-…………..
A. 430-470 nm
B. 650-760 nm
C. 580-650 nm
D. 480-570 nm
Answer:
B. 650-760 nm

Fill in the blanks

1. ………………. is the photosynthetic tissue of green plants.
2. Reactions of light-independent phase occur in ………………. of chloroplast.
3. Scientist ………………. proved that photosynthetic reactions occur in two phases.
4. …………….. is considered as the energy currency of the cells.
5. In plant cell, starch is stored in ……………..
6. Green plants absorb ……….. to synthesise glucose during photosynthesis.
7. …………….. is a cellular compound which reacts with atmospheric CO₂ to produce phosphoglyceric acid.
8. …………….. is the enzyme which is necessary for the synthesis of PGA in the light independent phase.
Answer:
1. Chlorenchyma
2. Stroma
3. Blackman
4. ATP
5. Leucoplast
6. Carbon dioxide
7. RuBP
8. RuBisCO

State True or False

1. Aquatic plants absorb CO₂ from water through root hair. — False
2. ATP stands for Adenosine Tri Phenol. — False
3. Blue-green algae like Nostoc, Anabaena etc. can synthesise their own food. — True
4. Ionisation of water is known as Blackman’s reaction. — False
5. NADP is an artificial Hill reagent. — False
6. Out of 12 PGAld molecules, only 2 take part in glucose synthesis. — True
7. RuBisCO is used in the light-dependent phase of photosynthesis. — False
8. Photosynthesis stops due to excessive heat from the sun. — True
9. Light-independent phase of photosynthesis is also known as Blackman’s reaction. — True

Match the columns

Left column	Right column
1. Light-dependent phase	A. ATP produced
2. Light- independent phase	B. Fructose produced
3. Photophospho­rylation	C. PGA produced
4. Carbon assimilation	D. O2, ATP, NADPH2 produced
	E. Glucose produced

Answer:
1-D; 2-E: 3-A; 4-C

Left column	Right column
1. Chlorophyll absent	A. Eugiena
2. Highest rate of photosynthesis	B. Orchid
3. Photosynthetic animal	C. Fungus
4. Velamen present	D. Moss
	E. Chlorella

Answer:
1-C; 2-E; 3-A; 4-B

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 2.4 Major Organs of Human Body and Their Function can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Major Organs of Human Body and Their Function Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
Which is the largest organ of our body?
A. Liver
B. Intestine
C. Skin
D. Brain
Answer:
C. Skin

Question 2.
Select the correct statement-…………..
A. An organ is an assemblage of many tissues.
B. An organ is an assemblage of different tissues, performing a specific function of the body.
C. Any part of the body is called organ.
D. An organ is a body part present inside the body.
Answer:
B. An organ is an assemblage of different tissues, performing a specific function of the body.

Question 3.
The protective layer of human body that prevents the attack of different germs is- …………..
A. Composed of epithelium
B. Composed of connective tissue
C. Skin
D. Dermis
Answer:
C. Skin

Question 4.
The largest lymph gland in animal body, is the-…………..
A. Spleen
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Stomach
Answer:
A. Spleen

Question 5.
The organ of human body responsible for partial digestion is-…………..
A. Liver
B. Stomach
C. Small intestine
D. Pancreas
Answer:
B. Stomach

Question 6.
The organ of human body secreting HCl is-…………..
A. Liver
B. Pancreas
C. Stomach
D. Kidney
Answer:
C. Stomach

Question 7.
The food matters inside the stomach become-…………..
A. Acidic
B. Basic
C. Neutral
D. Slightly alkaline
Answer:
A. Acidic

Question 6.
Pepsinogen is converted into pepsin within the-…………..
A. Liver
B. Duodenum
C. Stomach
D. Large intestine
Answer:
C. Stomach

Question 9.
The organ that produces a number of enzymes and hormones is -…………..
A. Heart
B. Liver
C. Brain
D. Pancreas
Answer:
D. Pancreas

Question 10.
The organs involved in secretion of pepsin and trypsin are-…………..
A. Liver and pancreas
B. Gastric glands and pancreas
C. Liver and stomach
D. Salivary gland and gall bladder
Answer:
B. Gastric glands and pancreas

Question 11.
The organ of human body, where digestion of protein starts is-…………..
A. Stomach
B. Duodenum
C. Jejunum
D. Buccal cavity
Answer:
A. Stomach

Question 12.
Bile, secreted from the liver is-
A. Alkaline
B. Acidic
C. Slightly acidic
D. Neutral
Answer:
A. Alkaline

Question 13.
The organ of human body involved in detoxification is -…………..
A. Stomach
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Spleen
Answer:
B. Liver

Question 14.
Formation of urea is the function of………..
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Stomach
D. Small intestine
Answer:
A. Liver

Question 15.
The diaphragm is located below the………..
A. Kidneys
B. Stomach
C. Lungs
D. Spleen
Answer:
C. Lungs

Question 16.
The organ, helping in neutralisation of the acidic contents of the stomach is………..
A. Duodenum
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Jejunum
Answer:
B. Liver

Question 17.
The organ responsible for absorption of fat is ………..
A. Stomach
B. Kidney
C. Pancreas
D. Liver
Answer:
D. Liver

Question 18.
……………. of human body acts as the ‘crematorium of RBS’
A. Lung
B. Kidney
C. Spleen
D. Rectum
Answer:
C. Spleen

Question 19.
Different plasma proteins are synthesised in………..
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Heart
Answer:
B. Liver

Question 20.
Immunity of our body is controlled by………..
A. Stomach
B. Heart
C. Spleen
D. Brain
Answer:
C. Spleen

Question 21.
The organ which is related to insulin and trypsin………..
A. Liver
B. Stomach
C. Spleen
D. Pancreas
Answer:
D. Pancreas

Question 22.
Digestion of fat is related to ………..
A. Liver and stomach
B. Stomach, liver, pancreas and small intestine
C. Pancreas, stomach and small intestine
D. Liver, stomach and small intestine
Answer:
B. Stomach, liver, pancreas and small intestine

Question 23.
Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between blood and air occurs in………..
A. Liver
B. Skin
C. Kidney
D. Lungs
Answer:
D. Lungs

Question 24.
Blood pressure is maintained by………..
A. Heart
B. Heart and lungs
C. Heart and spleen
D. Heart, lungs and kidney
Answer:
D. Heart, lungs and kidney

Question 25.
Coordination of different organs depends upon………..
A. Liver
B. Heart
C. Kidney
D. Brain
Answer:
D. Brain

Question 26.
Production and elimination of urea involve………..
A. Small intestine and skin
B. Liver and kidney
C. Liver and spleen
D. Spleen and kidney
Answer:
B. Liver and kidney

Question 27.
Reflex action of our body involves………..
A. Spinal cord
B. Skin
C. Skin and brain
D. None of these
Answer:
A. Spinal cord

Question 28.
Memory and intelligence is controlled by………..
A. Spinal cord
B. Nerves
C. Heart
D. Brain
Answer:
D. Brain

Question 29.
The sense of love and affection is controlled by………..
A. Spinal cord
B. Brain
C. Heart
D. Heart and brain
Answer:
B. Brain

Question 30.
This organ is located in a cavity called mediastinum. This is the………..
A. Lungs
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Heart
Answer:
D. Heart

Question 31.
Hormone testosterone is secreted from………..
A. Pancreas
B. Ovary
C. Testis
D. None of these
Answer:
C. Testis

Question 32.
Besides production of egg cells, ovary acts as a………..
A. Hormone gland
B. Balancing organ
C. Sensory organ
D. Food storing organ
Answer:
A. Hormone gland

Question 33.
The component, present in sweat, which attacks bacteria, is………..
A. Ribosome
B. Lysozyme
C. Mesosome
D. Lysosome
Answer:
B. Lysozyme

Question 34.
The process of formation of sperms is known as………..
A. Glycogenesis
B. Eugenesis
C. Gluconeogenesis
D. Spermatogenesis
Answer:
D. Spermatogenesis

Question 35.
Pericardium protects from friction.
A. Heart
B. Spleen
C. Intestine
D. Testis
Answer:
A. Heart

Question 36.
Brain is protected by a tri-layered membrane, which is known as………..
A. Perineurium
B. Pericardium
C. Epineurium
D. Meninges
Answer:
D. Meninges

Fill in the blanks

1. …………… is the membrane, lining the cavity of abdomen and covering the abdominal organs.
2. Outer covering of lung is known as ……………
3. Stomach helps in partial digestion of protein, by secreting ……………
4. Contraction of heart is known as ……………
5. There are …………… chambers in human heart.
6. Toxic wastes of human body are filtered out by ……………
7. The main organ of circulatory system is ……………
8. …………… is the protective covering of human brain.
9. The process of production of spermatozoa is known as ……………
Answer:
1. Peritonium
2. Pleura
3. Pepsin
4. Systole
5. Four
6. Kidney
7. Heart
8. Cranium
9. Spermatogenesis

State True or False

1. Sweat helps to kill bacteria. — True
2. The pigment which gives colour to the skin is melatonin. — False
3. Liver secretes bile juice. — True
4 Spleen is an organ, where formation and destruction of RBC occur. — True
5. All emotions are the sensory infomations towards the brain. — False
6. Human heart drives oxygenated blood from left ventricle to the body, through pulmonary circulation.– False
7. Kidney is held at the back wall of abdominal cavity. — True

Match the columns

Left column	Right column
1. Abdominal cavity	A. Pericardium
2. Heart	B. Periosteum
3. Kidney	C. Peritonium
4. Lung	D. Capsule
	E. Pleura

Answer:
1-C; 2-A; 3-D; 4-E

Left column	Right column
1. Insulin production	A. Adipose tissue
2. Storage of fat	B. Pancreas
3. Synthesis of blood cells	C. Heart
4. Systole and diastole	D. Liver
	E. Spleen

Answer:
1-B: 2-A: 3-E; 4-C

Left column	Right column
1. Stomach	A. ATP systhesis
2. Thymine	B. Lens shaped
3. Mitochondria	C. Blood transport
4. Companion cell	D. HCl secretion
	E. Pyrimidine

Answer:
1-D; 2-E; 3-A; 4-B

Left column	Right column
1. Testosterone	A. Ovary
2. Progesterone	B. Testis
3. Reflex action	C. Liver
4. Bile juice	D. Spinal cord
	E. Pancreas

Answer:
1-B: 2-A; 3-D; 4-C

 

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 3.2B Cellular Level Respiration can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Cellular Level Respiration Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
An example of anaerobic fungus, is-
(A) Chlorella
(B) Yeast
(C) Agaricus
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Yeast

Question 2.
Which phase of respiration directly involves atmospheric O₂ ?
(A) Glycolysis
(B) Krebs cycle
(C) Terminal respiration
(D) Krebs cycle and terminal respiration
Answer:
(C) Terminal respiration

Question 3.
Production of CO₂ occurs during-
(A) Glycolysis and Krebs cycle
(B) Terminal respiration
(C) Krebs cycle
(D) All of these
Answer:
(C) Krebs cycle

Question 4.
Which of the following is involved in anaerobic respiration?
(A) HNO₃
(B) N₂O
(C) NH₂
(D) NO₃
Answer:
(D) NO₃

Question 5.
One molecule of glucose breaks into molecules of pyruvic acid in glycolysis.
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) More than 3
Answer:
(B) 2

Question 6.
EMP pathway is biochemically known as-
(A) Glycolysis
(B) Krebs cycle
(C) Terminal respiration
(D) Electromotive pressure
Answer:
(A) Glycolysis

Question 7.
The other name of terminal respiration is-
(A) EMP pathway
(B) ETS
(C) TCA cycle
(D) ATP
Answer:
(B) ETS

Question 8.
In anaerobic respiration, the terminal respiration path is
(A) Present
(B) Absent
(C) Long
(D) Short
Answer:
(D) Short

Question 9.
Terminal respiration occurs in the
(A) Inner membrane of mitochondria
(B) Cytoplasm
(C) Outer membrane of mitochondria
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer:
(A) Inner membrane of mitochondria

Question 10.
Which statement is incorrect?
(A) Krebs cycle is TCA cycle
(B) Glycolysis is known as ETS
(C) EMP path is Glycolysis path
(D) ETS is terminal respiration
Answer:
(B) Glycolysis is known as ETS

Question 11.
Which of the following is incorrect regarding respiration?
(A) Enzyme is not required during respiration
(B) Respiration occurs in living cells only
(C) Respiration occurs in the presence or absence of free oxygen
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Enzyme is not required during respiration

Question 12.
gram mole of glucose is equal to of glucose.
(A) 80 gm
(B) 280 gm
(C) 360 gm
(D) 180 gm
Answer:
(D) 180 gm

Question 13.
Which of the following is not a respiratory substrate?
(A) Protein
(B) Vitamin
(C) Carbohydrate
(D) Fat
Answer:
(B) Vitamin

Question 14.
The cell organelle in bacteria, where respiration occurs is
(A) Mitochondrion
(B) Chromatophore
(C) Mesosome
(D) Genophore
Answer:
(C) Mesosome

Fill in the blanks :

1. In respiration, about ___ of the free energy is entrapped in ATP as kinetic energy.
2. In aerobic respiration, 1 gram mole glucose is oxidised to liberate _____ of energy.
3. ______ respiration results in muscle fatigue.
4. The source of heat energy, which is released during combustion of coal, is ____ energy.
5. _____ is also called controlled combustion.
6. _____ is the first compound of Krebs cycle.
7. The enzyme ATP-ase is present in the _______ of mitochondria.
8. Respiration is a/an ______ reaction.
9. ______ is a fast and uncontrolled process.
10. Pyruvate is the end product of glycolysis which gets converted into _____.

Answer:

1. 40%
2. 686 kcal
3. Anaerobic
4. Solar
5. Respiration
6. Citrate
7. Oxysome
8. Exothermic
9. Combustion
10. Acetyl Co-A

State true or false :

1. ADP is popularly known as the energy currency’.
2. Respiration is a physico-chemical reaction.
3. Aerobic respiration occurs is presence of free molecular oxygen.
4. By complete oxidation, one mole of glucose generates 586 kcal heat.
5. Methanobacterium sp. is an anaerobic bacterium.
6. Fermentation occurs in yeast.
7. Bacteria named Lactobacillus lactis produce ethanol by the process of fermentation.
8. ATP are gained directly from glycolysis.
9. Krebs cycle occurs both in cytoplasm and mitochondria.
10. The reaction path of terminal transpiration is known as ETS.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. False
8. True
9. False
10. True

Match the columns :

Question 1.

Left column	Right column
1. Energy currency	A. Combustion
2. Bio-chemical reaction	B. Fermentation
3. Physico-chemical process	C. Breathing
4. Oxygen-free process	D. Respiration
	E. ATP

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Energy currency	E. ATP
2. Bio-chemical reaction	D. Respiration
3. Physico-chemical process	A. Combustion
4. Oxygen-free process	B. Fermentation

Question 2.

Left column	Right column
1. Lactic acid fermentation	A. 50 kcal / mole
2. Aerobic respiration	B. 36 kcal / mole
3. Acetic acid fermentation	C. 686 kcal / mole
4. Anaerobic respiration	D. 116 kcal / mole
	E. 300 kcal / mole

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Lactic acid fermentation	B. 36 kcal / mole
2. Aerobic respiration	C. 686 kcal / mole
3. Acetic acid fermentation	D. 116 kcal / mole
4. Anaerobic respiration	A. 50 kcal / mole

Question 3.

Left column	Right column
1. Site of glycolysis	A. TCA cycle
2. Other name of Krebs cycle	B. Mitochondria
3. Other name of glycolysis	C. Cytoplasm
4. Site of Krebs cycle	D. Plastid
	E. EMP Pathway

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Site of glycolysis	C. Cytoplasm
2. Other name of Krebs cycle	A. TCA cycle
3. Other name of glycolysis	E. EMP Pathway
4. Site of Krebs cycle	B. Mitochondria

Question 4.

Left column	Right column
1. End product of glycolysis	A. Ethanol, Lactic acid
2. By-product of Krebs cycle	B. Glucose
3. End product of fermentation	C. NADH2, FADH2
4. End product of anaerobic respiration	D. Pyruvate
	E. Inorganic compounds

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. End product of glycolysis	D. Pyruvate
2. By-product of Krebs cycle	C. NADH2, FADH2
3. End product of fermentation	A. Ethanol, Lactic acid
4. End product of anaerobic respiration	E. Inorganic compounds

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 2.3B Tissue: Animal Tissue and its Distribution can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Tissue: Animal Tissue and its Distribution Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
Protection is the main function of ……….
A. Epithelial tissue
B. Muscular tissue
C. Nervous tissue
D. None of these
Answer:
A. Epithelial tissue

Question 2.
Inner lining of blood vessels are made up of……….
A. Muscular tissue
B. Epithelial tissue
C. Connective tissue
D. None of these
Answer:
D. None of these

Question 3.
Bone is a ……….
A. Specialised connective tissue
B. Weight carrying tissue
C. Very high density tissue
D. All of these
Answer:
D. All of these

Question 4.
Histology is the study of……….
A. Cells
B. Bones and muscles
C. Blood
D. Tissues
Answer:
D. Tissues

Question 5.
Similarity between areolar and adipose tissue is……….
A. Both provide protection
B. Both are connective tissues
C. Both help in coordination
D. All of these
Answer:
B. Both are connective tissues

Question 6.
Animal body is structurally much more complex compared to that of plants, because……….
A. Animals can move
B. Animals can feed on others
C. Animals have well differentiated organs and organ systems
D. Animals can survive in air, earth and water
Answer:
C. Animals have well differentiated organs and organ systems

Question 7.
Haversian canal is present in……….
A. Bones
B. Blood vessels
C. Muscles
D. All of these
Answer:
A. Bones

Question 8.
Blood is a type of……….
A. Epithelial tissue.
B. Connective tissue
C. Muscular tissue
D. Nervous tissue
Answer:
B. Connective tissue

Question 9.
Bone is a……….
A. Dead tissue
B. Modified muscular tissue
C. Solid adipose tissue
D. Solid connective tissue
Answer:
D. Solid connective tissue

Question 10.
Which tissue is called the coordinating tissue?
A. Epithelial tissue
B. Muscle tissue
C. Nervous tissue
D. Blood
Answer:
C. Nervous tissue

Question 11.
Which of the following is a conducting tissue?
A. Muscle tissue
B. Bone tissue
C. Adipose tissue
D. Blood
Answer:
D. Blood

Question 12.
Which of the following tissues has no role in the protection of animal body?
A. Blood
B. Epithelial tissue
C. Nerve tissue
D. All of these
Answer:
C. Nerve tissue

Question 13.
The walls of thick blood vessels are made up of……….
A. Epithelial tissue and muscular tissue
B. Nervous tissue and epithelial tissue
C. Only muscular tissue
D. All of these
Answer:
A. Epithelial tissue and muscular tissue

Question 14.
Which tissue acts as the shock absorber in our body?
A. Epithelial tissues
B. Bones
C. Muscles
D. Adipose tissues
Answer:
D. Adipose tissues

Question 15.
Epithelium of which region is involved in gaseous exchange?
A. Trachea
B. Bronchus
C. Bronchiole
D. Alveolus
Answer:
D. Alveolus

Question 16.
Which tissue takes part in the production of digestive enzymes?
A. Muscle tissue
B. Nervous tissue
C. Squamous epithelium
D. Glandular epithelium
Answer:
D. Glandular epithelium

Question 17.
Which of the following tissues may have ciliated lining?
A. Muscular tissue
B. Epithelial tissue
C. Connective tissue
D. Nervous tissue
Answer:
B. Epithelial tissue

Question 18.
Movement of different body parts involves……….
A. Muscular tissue
B. Nerves
C. Both A. and B.
D. None of these
Answer:
D. None of these

Question 19.
Involuntary muscles are seen in……….
A. Stomach
B. Urinary bladder
C. Walls of blood vessels
D. All of these
Answer:
D. All of these

Question 20.
Neurons are held or surrounded by……….
A. Acellular matrix
B. Basement membrane
C. Plasma
D. Neuroglia
Answer:
D. Neuroglia

Question 21.
Cytoplasm inside axon is called……….
A. Sarcoplasm
B. Axoplasm
C. Tonoplasm
D. None of these
Answer:
B. Axoplasm

Question 22.
Voluntary movement of our limbs involves……….
A. Only muscles
B. Muscles and bones only
C. Bones and nerves only
D. Muscles, bones and nerves
Answer:
D. Muscles, bones and nerves

Question 23.
Nucleated cells found in neurolemma are……….
A. Nissl granules
B. Plasma cells
C. Cell body
D. Schwann cells
Answer:
D. Schwann cells

Question 24.
Sarcolemma is the……….
A. Cell membrane of nerve cells
B. Cytoplasm of muscle cells
C. Cell membrane of muscle cells
D. Cytoplasm of nerve cells
Answer:
C. Cell membrane of muscle cells

Question 25.
A tissue with higher volume of inter-celiular matrix than cells, is……….
A. Epithelial tissue
B. Connective tissue
C. Muscle tissue
D. Nervous tissue
Answer:
B. Connective tissue

Question 26.
Celis with many projections is the common feature of……….
A. Neurons
B. Muscle cells
C. Epithelial cells
D. Blood cells
Answer:
A. Neurons

Question 27.
Our body movement is controlled by……….
A. Cardiac muscles
B. Involuntary muscles
C. Voluntary muscles
D. All of these
Answer:
C. Voluntary muscles

Question 28.
Which of the following tissues show contraction and expansion from the start to the end of our life?
A. Involuntary muscles
B. Voluntary muscles
C. Cardiac muscles
D. Neurons
Answer:
C. Cardiac muscles

Question 29.
Receiving external stimuli is the function of………………..
A. Nerves
B. Muscles
C. Epithelium
D. None of these
Answer:
A. Nerves

Question 30.
Intercalated discs are found in ……….
A. Skeletal muscle
B. Smooth muscle
C. Both A. and B.
D. Cardiac muscle
Answer:
D. Cardiac muscle

Question 31.
The animal tissue which stores fat, is……….
A. Blood
B. Areolar tissue
C. Muscle tissue
D. Adipose tissue
Answer:
D. Adipose tissue

Question 32.
Contractile proteins are seen in……….
A. Only in muscle tissues
B. Only in connective tissues
C All connective tissues and muscle tissues
D. Only in epithelial tissues
Answer:
A. Only in muscle tissues

Question 33.
Cytoplasm of muscle cells is called……….
A. Sarcomere
B. Sarcoplasm
C. Neuroplasm
D. Neuroglia
Answer:
B. Sarcoplasm

Question 34.
Which of the following is a part of a nerve cell?
A. Sarcolemma
B. Node of Ranvier
C. Myofibrils
D. Myofilaments
Answer:
B. Node of Ranvier

Question 35.
Actin and myosin are components of……….
A. Nerve
B. Blood
C. Muscle
D. Bone
Answer:
C. Muscle

Question 36.
Axon and dendron are involved in……….
A. Muscle contraction
B. Neural transport
C. Nutrient transport
D. Both A and B
Answer:
D. Both A and B

Question 37.
Syncytial cells are typically seen in……….
A. Voluntary muscle fibres
B. Involuntary muscle fibres
C. Cardiac muscle fibres
D. Neurons
Answer:
A. Voluntary muscle fibres

Question 38.
Schwann cell is related to……….
A. Axon
B. Dendron
C. Cell body
D. Muscle
Answer:
A. Axon

Question 39.
Cartilage is present in……….
A. Teeth
B. Cranium
C. Nail
D. Knee
Answer:
D. Knee

Question 40.
The tissue, which does not have direct blood supply is……….
A. Epithelial tissue
B. Nervous tissue
C. Muscular tissue
D. All of these
Answer:
A. Epithelial tissue

Question 41.
The percentage of plasma in blood is about……….
A. 45 %
B. 49 %
C. 65 %
D. 55 %
Answer:
D. 55 %

Question 42.
The inner lining of our mouth is made up of ……….
A. Blood and muscle
B. Epithelial tissue
C. Blood cells
D. All of these
Answer:
B. Epithelial tissue

Question 43.
The tissue that supplies food to all other tissues of our body is……….
A. Muscles
B. Blood
C. Nerves
D. All of these
Answer:
B. Blood

Question 44.
End brush is related to……….
A. Axon
B. Dendron
C. Cell body
D. None of these
Answer:
A. Axon

Question 45.
Involuntary striated muscles are found in the walls of……….
A. Lungs
B. Heart
C. Kidney
D. Blood vessels
Answer:
B. Heart

Fill in the blanks

1. ………… epithelium takes part in gaseous exchange.
2. Blood and ………… act as transporting fluids.
3. Voluntary muscles are attached to…………
4. ………… muscles are responsible for rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the heart.
5…………. tissue stores fat for future use.
6. ………… is anchored to bones by tendons.
7. Epithelial layers receive nourishment from the underlying connective tissue through ………… membrane.
8. A ………… is the basic unit of striated muscle tissue.
9. A ………… is the basic unit of nervous system.
10. Bones and ……….. form the skeleton.
Answer:
1. Squamous
2. Lymph
3. Bones
4. Cardiac
5. Adipose
6. Muscle
7. Basement
8. Sarcomere
9. Neuron
10. Cartilages

State True or False

1. A skeletal muscle fibre is surrounded by a plasma membrane called sarcolemma. — True
2. Epithelial cells have a special role in secretion. — True
3. Muscle fibres are always uninucleated. — False
4. Epithelial tissue is also known as the contracting tissue. — False
5. Fibrous tissues are a kind of epithelial tissue. — False
6. Connective tissue orginates from mesoderm layer of embryo. — True
7. Smooth muscles control movement of visceral organs like intestine, ovary, urinary bladder etc. — True
8. Several neuroglias, surrounded by a connective tissue, form a nerve. — False

Match the columns

Left column	Right column
1. Epithelial tissue	A. Connecting tissue
2. Nervous tissue	B. Covering tissue
3. Muscular tissue	C. Coordinating tissue
4. Connective tissue	D. Contracting tissue
	E. Controlling tissue

Answer:
1-B; 2-C; 3-D; 4-A

Left column	Right column
1. Plasma membrane	A. Vacuole
2. Nucle protein	B. Myelin sheath
3. Tonoplast	C. Nissl granules
4. Lipid coating	D. Sarcolemma
	E. Sarcomere

Answer:
1-D; 2-C; 3-A; 4-B

Left column	Right column
1 Chlorenchyma	A. Complex permanent tissue
2 Neuroglia	B, Connective tissue
3. Tracheids	C. Muscular tissue
4, Adipocytes	D, Nervous tissue
	E. Simple permanent tissue

Answer:
1-E; 2-D; 3-A; 4-B

Left column	Right column
1. Transportation and storage of foods	A. Muscular tissue
2. Movements of viscera! organs	B. Phloem
3. Coordination among all organs within body	C. Sclerenchyma
4. Provides mechanical strength	D. Collenchyma
	E. Nervous tissue

Answer:
1-B; 2-A; 3-E; 4 -C