Class 9

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 9 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 9 Maps and Scales offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 9 Geography Chapter 9 Question Answer – Maps and Scales

Very Short Questions and Answers : (1 mark for each question)

Question 1.
Where was the oldest map found?
Answer:
Babylon.

Question 2.
What is the small scale representation or model of the earth called?
Answer:
Globe.

Question 3.
How is the difference between two points determined from a map?
Answer:
Using a scale.

Question 4.
Who first determined the circumference of the earth?
Answer:
Eratosthenes.

Question 5.
What is the meaning of ‘cartography’?
Answer:
The art of drawing maps.

Question 6.
Give an example of a large scale map.
Answer:
Cadastral map or ‘mauza’ map.

Question 7.
Who was the first geographer to publish an atlas in the 16th century?
Answer:
Mercator.

Question 8.
What is the ratio of the distance between two points on a map and those two points on the ground known as?
Answer:
Map scale.

Question 9.
Which instrument indicates the magnetic directions of the earth?
Answer:
Magnetic compass.

Question 10.
Name the colour used for showing agricultural fields on a map.
Answer:
Yellow.

Question 11.
Which colour on a map indicates forests?
Answer:
Green.

Question 12.
The first book of maps was named after which Greek God?
Answer:
Atlas.

Question 13.
What is a village formally called?
Answer:
‘Mauza’.

Question 14.
Name an instrument where the vernier scale is seen.
Answer:
Barometer.

Question 15.
What is the other name of diagonal scale?
Answer:
Gunter’s scale.

Question 16.
A map is known by what other names?
Answer:
Drawing / Plan or Model / Image.

Question 17.
What are the central themes of a map?
Answer:
Various physical and cultural aspects.

Question 18.
How many types of maps are there, based on the type of drawing?
Answer:
3 types.

Question 19.
What type of map is a wall map?
Answer:
Small scale map.

Question 20.
What type of map is an economic map?
Answer:
Cultural.

Question 21.
Which type of map is drawn by using contours?
Answer:
Topographical map.

Question 22.
Which map shows agricultural land?
Answer:
Land use map.

Question 23.
What is the other name of fractional scale?
Answer:
Representative fraction scale.

Question 24.
What is the name of the map drawn according to a plan and used for construction?
Answer:
Blueprint.

Question 25.
What is the meaning of the symbol ‘N’ on a map?
Answer:
North direction.

Question 26.
Which type of map shows hills, mountains, rivers, etc.?
Answer:
Physical map.

Question 27.
Which type of map shows the location of a country or state?
Answer:
Political map.

Question 28.
What are those maps called which depict physical and cultural features?
Answer:
Thematic maps.

Question 29.
Which type of map shows the characteristics of soil?
Answer:
Soil map.

Question 30.
Which scale is used to compare two units?
Answer:
Comparative scale.

Question 31.
Give an example of a quantitative map.
Answer:
Population density map of India.

Question 32.
Give an example of a medium scale map?
Answer:
Topographical map.

Question 33.
By which colour are roads and settlements shown in a topographical map?
Answer:
Red.

Question 34.
What do the figures on the left side of a fractional scale indicate?
Answer:
Map distance.

Question 35.
What do the figures on the right side of a fractional scale indicate?
Answer:
Ground distance.

Question 36.
Which scale is represented only in graphs?
Answer:
Graphical scale.

Question 37.
How many types of graphical scale are there?
Answer:
3 types.

Question 38.
What type of scale is a vernier scale?
Answer:
Graphical scale.

Question 39.
Name the instrument that is used to measure air pressure.
Answer:
Barometer.

Question 40.
What is the circumference of the equator?
Answer:
40,000km.

Question 41.
1 inch is equal to how many cm ?
Answer:
2.54cm

Question 42.
When a map is reduced in size, how does its scale change?
Answer:
It is enlarged.

Question 43.
What is the book containing different types of maps called?
Answer:
Atlas.

Question 44.
Which organisation publishes topographical maps of India?
Answer:
Survey of India.

Question 45.
Maps can be classified into how many types, based on data, theme or information?
Answer:
Two types.

Question 46.
How many types of maps are there, based on scale?
Answer:
Three types.

Question 47.
Name the type of map which depicts the quantity of any geographical feature.
Answer:
Quantitative map.

Question 48.
1km is equal to how many miles?
Answer:
0.6214 mile.

Question 49.
An atlas or a globe is drawn using what type of maps?
Answer:
Small scale maps.

Question 50.
Name the person who first gave the idea of a rectangular earth.
Answer:
Herodotus.

Short Questions and Answers : (2 marks for each question)

Question 1.
What is map?
Answer:
A map is a graphic representation of the features on the earth’s surface. It is drawn on flat paper using a specific scale, and with internationally accepted signs and symbols.

Question 2.
How were maps made in the ancient times?
Answer:
The maps drawn by the Eskimos, Red Indians and the inhabitants of Marshall Island are considered to be the most ancient by archaeologists. They made maps by tying scales of fishes and shells of molluscs to slender structures using palm leaves.

Question 3.
What is meant by map scale?
Answer:
A map scale is the ratio of the distance between two points, i.e., map distance and ground distance.
Example: 1cm to 500m.

Question 4.
Based on scale, how many types of map are there and what are they?
Answer:
On the basis of scale, maps are of three types- small scale map, medium scale map and large scale map.

Question 5.
What are the advantages of a small scale map?
Answer:
The advantages of a small scale map are as follows-

• In small scale maps, the area shown is larger.
• The whole world, or parts of it, can be shown on a single piece of paper.

Question 6.
What are the advantages of a large scale map?
Answer:
The advantages of a large scale map are as follows-

• A small area can be shown in greater detail.
• Different features can be marked on the map using internationally accepted symbols.

Question 7.
Where was directions first used while drawing a map?
Answer:
Directions were first used in Babylon while drawing a map. The Babylonians first used the directions east, west, north and south.

Question 8.
What are the main components used for drawing a map?
Answer:
The main components used for drawing a map are scale, projection, a plane surface, subject or theme, north arrow, drawing of boundary lines.

Question 9.
What is a fractional scale?
Answer:
The ratio of the distance between two points on a map and the distance between those points on the ground is called fractional scale. For example, 1:3000 indicates that 1 unit on the map is equal to 3000 units on the earth’s surface.

Question 10.
What is a blueprint?
Answer:
The plan of construction of a house, market, town, etc., drawn beforehand using a specific scale, is called a blueprint. The scales of a blueprint are usually 1: 500, 1: 1250,1 inch to 8 feet, etc.

Question 11.
What type of a map is a topographical map?
Answer:
A topographical map is a medium scale map. The scale ranges between 1:50000 and 1: 10000000.

Question 12.
What is a cadastral map?
Answer:
A map that shows the shape of plots of land, the areas and boundaries along with specific ‘dag’ numbers in a village, drawn to particular scale, is known as a cadastral map. The scale of a cadastral map is usually 16 inches to 1 mile.

Question 13.
What is the use of a cadastral map?
Answer:
Cadastral maps are used by land revenue offices for collection of land revenue. These maps are also used for drawing land use maps.

Question 14.
Based on their purpose, maps can be divided into how many types?
Answer:
Maps can be of two types – general map (e.g., map of India and its neighbouring countries) and special map (e.g., map of roadways of an area).

Question 15.
What is a quantitative map?
Answer:
A quantitative map is a map that gives a statistical representation of the various elements in a geographical region. For example, population density map of India.

Question 16.
What is a thematic map?
Answer:
A map that represents both natural and cultural factors of a region is known as a thematic map. For example, a weather map.

Question 17.
What is a physical map?
Answer:
A map that shows physical features, such as relief, rivers, etc., is known as a physical map.

Question 18.
What is a cultural map?
Answer:
A map that represents cultural features, such as religion, language, distribution of population, etc., is known as a cultural map.

Question 19.
On the basis of representation, how many types of scales are there and what are they?
Answer:
There are 3 types of scale-

• statement scale,
• representative fraction scale
• geographical scale.

Question 20.
What is a statement scale?
Answer:
In a statement scale, the scale of a map is written in the form of a sentence.
For example, 1cm to 2km, where 1cm on the map is equivalent to 2km on the ground.

Question 21.
What are the advantages of a statement scale?
Answer:
The advantages of statement scale are as follows-

• It can be expressed easily.
• Calculations can be avoided and graphical representation is not necessary as well.

Question 22.
What are the advantages of a fractional scale?
Answer:
The advantages of a fractional scale are as follows-

• This is a unitless scale, hence the scale can be changed easily.
• This scale can be easily converted to a statement scale or a linear scale.

Question 23.
What is a graphical scale?
Answer:
When the relation of the map distance between two points and the actual distance between those two is shown with the help of a drawing, it is known as a graphical scale.

Question 24.
What is a linear scale?
Answer:
A linear scale refers to a straight line that is used to measure directly the distance between two points on the map and the actual ground distance between those two points on the ground. There are two divisions on this scale-primary and secondary.

Question 25.
What are the advantages of a linear scale?
Answer:
The advantages of a linear scale are as follows –

• It is easy to understand since it is depicted as a straight line.
• If the map is enlarged or reduced, the scale can also be changed accordingly with ease.

Question 26.
What is a comparative scale?
Answer:
Measurements in two different units can be compared in a comparative scale. In this case, the primary and secondary parts have the same value, but they have different units. For example, 10 km and 10 miles.

Question 27.
What is a diagonal scale?
Answer:
A scale where two sets of lines cross each other obliquely, forming grids, which provides accurate measurements for smaller units which cannot be obtained generally, is known as a diagonal scale.

Question 28.
What is a vernier scale?
Answer:
In a vernier scale, a smaller scale is attached to the main scale, which is movable and can be used to obtain small fractional measurements accurately. It indicates the measurement that lies between two marks on the main scale.

Question 29.
What is a reduced map?
Answer:
When a map is depicted in a smaller form, it is known as a reduced map. In this case, the scale of the map gets enlarged.

Question 30.
What is an enlarged map?
Answer:
When a map is depicted in a larger form, it is known as an enlarged map. In this case, the scale of the map gets reduced.

Question 31.
What is the importance of scale in a map?
Answer:
A scale is of vital importance in the drawing of a map. A map is a two-dimensional representation of the world or any part of it, and this representation can be made accurately with the use of a scale.

Question 32.
What are the disadvantages of a fractional scale?
Answer:
The disadvantages of a fractional scale are as follows-

• It is difficult for amateur readers to comprehend this scale.
• If a map is reduced or enlarged, the scale has to be made afresh.

Question 33.
What are the uses of scale?
Answer:
Some of the various uses of a scale are as follows–

• It is used to enlarge or reduce a map as necessary, to measure the altitude of a point on the earth’s surface, to calculate the area of a region, and represent the three dimensional world on a two-dimensional plane (piece of paper).
• It is used for surveys, carrying out geographical researches, and even in the defence sector of the country.

Question 34.
Name the scale that is used in the atlas or the globe.
Answer:
Small scale maps are used for drawing in the atlas or the globe. Details of a particular region cannot be shown accurately in these maps.

Question 35.
What is a weather map?
Answer:
A weather map shows the components of the weather of a particular place, such as temperature, humidity, rainfall, air pressure, cloudiness, etc. Weather forecasts can be made based on these maps.

Question 36.
What do you understand by a political map?
Answer:
A political map shows the location of a country, its boundaries, states, capitals, location of administrative centres, etc. The political and administrative structure of any country or region can be observed from such a map.

Question 37.
What are primary and secondary divisions on a linear scale?
Answer:
When a straight line of a particular length is divided into a specific number of parts, which are equal in length, each of those divisions is known as a primary division. If these divisions are further divided into smaller parts, those are known secondary divisions.

Question 38.
What is a relief map?
Answer:
A map that depicts the altitude or depth of different regions on the earth’s surface, and gives a representation of hills, mountains, plateaus and plains, is known as a relief map. Contour lines are generally used to depict the relief features in these maps.

Question 39.
What is the importance of symbols in a map?
Answer:
All the features of a particular geographical region cannot be shown on a map. Hence, only the necessary features (according to the purpose of the map) are shown on it with the help of symbols. These symbols are accepted universally.

Short Questions and Answers : (3 marks for each question)

Question 1.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of a statement scale?
Answer:
A statement scale has various advantages and disadvantages.
Advantages: Some of its advantages are-

• It is a simple scale, and can be used easily for interpreting maps.
• As it is written in the form of a statement, there is no need of drawing.
• Complex mathematical calculations are not required in this scale.

Disadvantages: Some of the disadvantages of a statement scale are-

• Only the person who knows the language in which the scale is written will be able to comprehend it.
• Changing the units of measurement is difficult in this system, and is a time consuming process.
• If the map is enlarged or reduced, the scale has to be calculated again.

Question 2.
Mention the advantages and disadvantages of a linear scale.
Answer:
A linear scale has its own set of advantages and disadvantages.
Advantages: Some of its advantages are:

• This scale is very easy to understand as the calculations are not complex.
• In case of enlargement or reduction of the map, the linear scale gets reduced or enlarged proportionately. Thus, the map distance and the ground distance remain the same.
• The area of a map can be easily determined with the help of this scale.
• A short distance on a map can also be measured accurately through this scale.

Disadvantages: Some of its disadvantages are-

• Calculations required for drawing this scale is very complex.
• Designing the scale along with headings to make it presentable is a laborious and time consuming process.

Question 3.
What are the different types of quantitative maps?
Answer:
There are various types of quantitative maps-
1. Isoline maps: The maps where lines are drawn joining different places having same values (of air pressure, rainfall, etc.) are known as isoline maps. These maps can be of various types-

• isobar
• isothermal
• isohyet
• isohaline
• isohel
• contour line map, etc

2. Symbolic maps or maps with conventional signs: Several internationally accepted signs and symbols are used to draw these maps. These can be of various types-

• dot distribution maps,
• circle maps,
• wheel maps,
• proportional symbol maps, etc.

3. Geometric maps: These maps include:

• spherical maps,
• choropleth maps,
• flow maps, etc.

Question 4.
What is the importance of a map?
Answer:
A map is a drawing that is done in accordance with a particular scale and a specific projection using lines, colours, symbols, etc., from which many geographical data can be obtained. The importance of a map is unparalleled.

Universality: A map is used not only by a geographer, but also by people from various other professions. Thus it has a universal value.

Main tool of geographers: A map is the main tool of a geographer. An idea about the geographical aspects of any region of the world can be made using maps.

Administrative work: A map is necessary for several administrative purposes. For example, a cadastral map is of utmost importance in the collection of land revenue and taxes.

Defence purposes: Military personnel plan their routes in any region using the map of that part. Topographical maps play a major role in this respect.

Besides, maps are of great use to tourists visiting unknown areas.

Question 5.
Name the topographical maps included in different series.
Answer:
The various topographical maps included in different series are-
International series map: These maps are drawn according to international treaties. The scale of the maps of this series is 1: 100000. An area spanning over 4° latitude and 4° longitude is covered in this map.

South Asian series: Iran, Afghanistan, Saudi Arabia, India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, China, Myanmar, Thailand, Vietnam, etc., are included in this series. The scale used in the series is 1: 200000. It spans over an area of 8° latitude and 12° longitude.

Series of India and her neighbouring countries: These maps are drawn to a scale of 1: 1000000. An area spanning over 4° latitude and 4° longitude is covered in this map.

4. Map of the Survey of India department: For the ease of conducting surveys, the Survey of India department has divided the Indian subcontinent from 44° East to 104° East and 4° North to 40° North into 4°×4° grids.

Question 6.
How is the R.F. determined in the statement scale?
Answer:
When a scale in a map is expressed as a statement, it is known as a statement scale. This is the easiest way of writing a scale. A statement scale can be converted into R.F. scale in two ways.

1. Determination of R.F. by formula:
\(\text { R.F. }=\frac{\text { Map Distance }}{\text { Ground Distance }}\)
For example, if 16 inches on the map is equal to 1 mile on the ground, then
\( \text { R.F. }=\frac{16 \text { inches }}{63360 \text { inches }}[1 \text { mile }=63360]
=\frac{1}{3960}\)
Therefore, the R.F. of the map =1: 3960.

2. Determination of R.F. by unitary method: If a distance of 10km on the ground is represented by 1cm on the map, the R.F. of that map will be,
1cm on map =10km on ground
or, 1cm on map=10×100000cm
= 1000000 cm
Therefore, the R.F. of the map =1: 1000000.

Question 7.
What is a political map? Mention some of its characteristics.
Answer:
A map that depicts districts, subdivisions, boundaries and important places of states and countries is known as a political map. The political map of every district depicts its subdivisions, CD Block, municipal towns, important offices, etc.

Characteristics: Some of its characteristics are-

• Different administrative blocks are demarcated using lines and several symbols.
• The bordering/neighbouring countries, states, districts are all shown in this map.
• An idea about the political and administrative conditions can be made from this map.
• This type of map is presentable.

Question 8.
How can statement scale be determined from the R.F.?
Answer:
Statement scale can be obtained from the R.F. in the given method-
If the R.F. a map is 1: 500000, the statement scale will be-
Distance of 1cm on the map =500000cm on the ground
or, 1cm on the map =\(\frac{500000}{100000}\) = 5km on the ground.
Therefore, the statement scale is 1cm to 5km.

Question 9.
What do you mean by a globe? Discuss its importance.
Answer:
A globe is a small model or representation of the earth. It is of much importance to geographers as well as people in other professions.

Importance:

• An overall picture of the whole world can be obtained from a globe.
• An idea about the concept of scales can be made by observing a globe.
• An idea about the exact locations of oceans, seas and continents can be made from a globe.
• The spinning of the globe gives an idea about the rotation of the earth.

Question 10.
A railway line has been measured to be 12.6cm in length in a topographical map. The actual length of that railway line is 31.5km. What is the R.F. of the map?
Answer:
Solution: A distance of 12.6cm on the topographical map =31.5km on the ground
or, 12.6cm on the map =31.5 × 100000cm on the ground.
Therefore, 1cm on the map =\(\frac{31.5 \times 100000}{12.6}=250000cm\) on the ground.

Write the differences between the following –

Question 1.
Globe and Map
Answer:
The differences between a globe and a map are as follows-

Points of difference	Globe	Map
1. Nature	It is a three-dimensional representa­tion of the world.	It is a two-dimensional representa­tion of the world or a part of it.
2. Determination of distance	Determining the distance between two points is difficult on a globe.	Determination of the distance between two points is relatively easy on a map.
3. Uses	It is less useful than a map.	It is more useful than a globe.

Question 2.
Small Scale map and Large Scale map
Answer:
The differences between a small scale and a large scale map are as follows:

Points of difference	Small Scale Map	Large Scale Map
1. Concept	A large area is depicted in a smaller form on paper in this type of map.	A small area is depicted in a larger form on paper in this type of map.
2. Scale	The ratio of the scale is small, for example, 1: 1000000.	The ratio of the scale is large, for example, 1: 4000
3. Data obtained	Less details are shown in this type of map, for example, a wall map.	More details are shown in this type of map, for example, a cadastral map.

Question 3.
Qualitative map and Quantitative map
Answer:
The differences between a qualitative and a quantitative map are as follows:

Points of difference	Qualitative Map	Quantitative Map
1. Concept	Qualitative aspects of various geographical factors are expressed in these maps.	Quantitative aspects of various geographical factors are expressed in these maps.
2. Measurement	Geographical components cannot be measured in these maps.	Geographical components can be measured properly in these maps.
3. Statistical use	These maps are not useful for statistical purposes.	These maps are of much use for statistical purposes.

Question 4.
Statement scale and Graphical scale
Answer:
The differences between a statement scale and a graphical scale are as follows:

Points of difference	Statement Scale	Graphical Scale
1. (Mature	It is written in the form of a state­ment, for example, 1 cm to 5 km.	This scale is represented by a graph.
2. Types	It can be of no other type.	It can be of 4 types-linear, comparative, diagonal, vernier.
3. Uses	It is easy to use, but is used less frequently.	Using this scale is difficult and laborious, but is used more frequently.

Question 5.
Fractional scale and Graphical scale
Answer:
The differences between a fractional scale and a graphical scale are as follows:

Points of difference	Fractional Scale	Graphical Scale
1. Concept	Relation between map distance and ground distance shown as a fraction in this scale.	Map scale represented by a graph in this scale.
2. Unit	This scale has no fixed unit.	This scale has a fixed unit.
3. Uses	Values in any unit can be used in this scale, hence it is universal.	This scale is more widely used; however, it is difficult to convert from one unit to another.

Question 6.
Statement scale and Fractional scale
Answer:
The differences between a statement scale and a fractional scale are as follows:

Points of difference	Statement Seals	Fractional Scale
1. Concept	This scale is written in the form of a statement, for example, 1cm to 5 km.	In this scale, the relation between map distance and ground distance is shown as a fraction, for example, R.F. 1:50000.
2. Unit	Unit is used in this scale.	This scale has no unit.
3. Uses	It is less useful.	It is more useful as compared to a statement scale.

Question 7.
Physical map and Cultural map
Answer:
The differences between a physical map and a cultural map are as follows:

Points of difference	Physical Map	Cultural Map
1. Concept	This type of map shows the physical features of a geographical region.	This type of map shows the cultural aspects of a particular region.
2. Matter	Separate maps are drawn depicting each physical feature in this case.	Different topics are depicted together in these maps.
3. Example	Tectonic map, relief map, weather map, vegetation map, etc.	Social, political, regional, land use maps, etc.

Question 8.
Topographical map and Cadastral map
Answer:
The differences between a topographical map and a cadastral map are as follows:

Points of difference	Topographical Map	Cadastral’Map.
1. Concept	The distribution of physical and cultural aspects of a region is shown in this type of map.	Data related to land use is represented in this type of map.
2. Scale	These maps are drawn on medium or small scales.	These maps are drawn only on a large scale.
3. Composition	Physical and cultural aspects are shown using internationally accep­ted symbols in these maps.	Lakes, fields, schools, etc., are shown on these maps.
4. Uses	These maps are used in survey of resources and defence purposes.	These maps are used for collection of land revenue and taxes.

Give reasons for the following:

Question 1.
Scales are of utmost importance in maps.
Answer:
A scale is important in a map due to the following reasons-

• Measurement: A map can be reduced or enlarged using a scale. Distance between two points, area of a region, can also be calculated using a scale.
• Representation of the earth: The three dimensional world can easily be represented on a two-dimensional surface (paper) with the help of a scale.
• Other uses: Scales are vital in geographical researches, surveys, defence purposes, etc.

Question 2.
Detailed data cannot be shown on small scale maps.
Answer:
Much details cannot be shown on small scale maps because-

• Use of symbols: Since a large area is depicted in a small space, it is not possible to mark each feature with a symbol. Hence it cannot depict all features in detail.
• Small space: Since it is made on a small space, it is not possible to show all the details of a large area.
• Complicated topics: Physical, cultural, economic features (thematic maps) cannot be shown on a small scale map, and therefore the interpretation of these complicated themes is not possible.

Question 3.
Topographical maps are of utmost importance to geographers.
Answer:
A topographical map is of vital importance to geographers because-

• Determining the relationship between physical and cultural environment: The relationship between different physical and cultural aspects of the environment can be determined through these maps, and this knowledge is valuable for geographers.
• Nature of a region: Natural vegetation and relief (rivers, hills, plateaus, plains, etc.) of any area can be easily determined from these maps.
• Useful in developmental planning: The construction of roads, railways, etc., together with local and regional planning, is done based on topographical maps.

Long Questions and Answers : (5 marks for each question)

Question 1.
Give a brief account of the history of development of maps.
Answer:
When the world or a part of it is represented on a flat piece of paper with a specific scale, universally accepted conventional signs and some basic principles, it is called a map.

The history is map-making is quite old-about 4000 years. It can be discussed as follows:
According to anthropologists, the maps drawn by the Eskimos, Red Indians, and Marshall Island dwellers are quite old. Charts were made on palm leaves that were attached to narrow frames and shells of snails or fish-bones were used.

Straight lines were drawn to denote the sea and curved lines to denote the waves approaching the island. The people of Babylon were the first to divide a circle into 360 parts. The four cardinal points north, south, east and west, were also first used by them while drawing maps.

The Greeks were experts in Mathematics and Astrology. They were responsible for drawing the lines of Equator, Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn, North and South Poles on a spherical world. Eratosthenes was the most well-known person who could draw maps accurately. Herodotus (485BC- 425BC ) believed that the earth was round, comprising Asia, Europe and Libya. Ptolemy drew a map of the world as well as 26 regional maps published in his book ‘Geographia’.

Many sailors while exploring different parts of the world, drew maps of newly discovered lands. Columbus was most famous among them. Remassus II, the Egyptian Pharaoh, drew a map of his empire for the convenience of tax and revenue collection. The science of map-making (cartography) was thus initiated and it gained much importance at that time.

Question 2
What is a map? Classify the different types of maps.
Answer:
A map is a graphic representation of the features of the earth’s surface as drawn on a flat paper according to a specific scale and on a specific map projection, using internationally accepted signs and symbols.

1. Classification of maps based on scale:

(1) Small scale maps: When a map is drawn in a small dimension on a piece of paper, representing a bigger land surface, a small scale is used. These are known as small-scale maps.

Advantages:

• As the scale is small, a bigger area can be represented on a smaller dimension on space on a piece of paper.
• The whole world on a part of it is represented on paper

Disadvantages:

• Various symbols are used to show different components on the map.
• Due to smaller space or dimension, details of the area cannot be shown.
  Example: Wall map, international map, navigation maps, etc.

(2) Medium scale maps: When any large area is divided into smaller areas on a medium scale to represent on paper (i.e., map), it is called a medium scale map. Example to pographical maps.

(3) Large scale maps: When a small area is shown on a larger dimension, it is known as a large scale map.
Example-cadastral maps.

2. Classification of maps based on utility:

• General map: When a map is easily used or understood by the common people, it is known as a general map. Example-district map of West Bengal.
• Special map: When a map is used for any specific purpose, it is known as a special map. Example-physical map of India.

3. Classification of maps based on information/data:

• Qualitative map: This map shows the qualitative aspect of any geographical feature.
• Quantitative map: This map shows the quantity-wise variation of geographical features, such as altitude, area, etc. Example-population density map of India, dots and sphere maps, etc.

4. Classification of maps based on topic/ theme:

• Physical map: This type of map shows the physical features of any area. Examplerelief map.
• Cultural map: When any cultural aspect is shown on a map, it is called a cultural map. Usually, the socio-economic or political aspects are depicted in such maps. Example-population density map.

Question 3.
Write a note on some of the important cartographers.
Answer:
The Greek philosopher, Anaximander ( 610BC-546BC) was the first to draw a map of a human settlement according to scale. In his map, Greece was shown in the centre of Europe and the land portion of the world was surrounded by seas on all sides.

The Greek philosopher, Eratosthenes (276BC-194BC) is known as the ‘Father of Geography’. He was the pioneer in using lines of latitude and longitude on accurately drawn maps.

Hecataeus (550 BC – 476 BC) slightly modified the map drawn by Anaximander and drew it accurately with more descriptive details. This was a map showing Eurasia.

Herodotus ( 484BC- 425BC) is known as the ‘Father of History’. He believed that the area of land between the coastal areas of India and Spain was surrounded by seas and oceans. He divided the earth into Asia, Europe and Libya.

Several other scholars also gave importance to drawing maps. Among them, mention can be done of the Roman philosopher Strabo (64 BC -24 AD) and Claudius Ptolemy (90 AD – 168 AD). Ptolemy drew about 26 regional maps of different parts of the world.

In the later period, Chinese geographers and scientists drew maps on the basis of grids. Zhang Heng (78 AD – 139 AD), Fi Sui (224 AD – 271 AD), Chu Su Pin (1273 AD – 1337 AD), etc., were well-known for drawing maps. Fi Sul is known as the Father of Map Science’. He drew the rolitical map of China on a large scale in 276 AD.

In the middle ages, Al Idrisi (1099 AD – 1161 AD) tried to draw maps as well. In the later period, Columbus Magellan, James Cook and several others made huge improvements in the methods of map-making.

Question 4.
What is a thematic map? Classify thematic maps and describe each type.
Answer:
A thematic map is based on the physical and cultural aspects of an area.
Classification: Thematic maps can be of two types-physical map and cultural map.

1. Physical map: This map shows the physical features like relief, climate, and so on, of any place. Physical maps can be of various types –

• Relief map: This map helps to identify the altitude, slope, rock types, etc. E.g., the hilly, plateau and plain regions of India can easily be identified from the relief map of India.
• Climatic map: This map is based on climatic features like air pressure, rainfall, wind, cloudiness, etc. E.g., from the rainfall map of india, we can have an idea of the areas receiving high and low rainfall.
• Vegetation map: The types of natural vegetation is shown on such a map.E.g., from the natural vegetation map of India, evergreen, deciduous, coniferous forests can be identified.
• Soil map: It is drawn on the basis of the characteristics of soil of a region.E.g., the soil map of India reveals that the Gangetic plain has silt, the Rajasthan region has sand and the Deccan Plateau region has black cotton soil.
• Others: Space related topics such as location of stars and planets and also rock types, drainage basins and other such features on the earth’s surface are shown on these maps.

2. Cultural map: The cultural aspects (like social, political, historical, economic, etc.) of a particular region are shown on such a map.

Question 5.
What is map scale? Classify map scales.
Answer:

The ratio of distance between two points on a map and the actual ground distance between those two points is called map scale. For example, if the distance measured on the map is 1cm and that on the ground is 5km, the map scale will be 1cm = 5km.

1. Statement scale: When the distance between two points on a map and the corresponding distance between these two points on the actual ground is expressed in a descriptive manner, that is, in a statement form, it is called a statement scale. For example, 1cm =2 km. This means that 1cm distance on the map represents 2km on the ground.

2. Representative fraction scale: When the map distance and actual ground distance is expressed as a ratio, it is called a representative fraction scale. E.g., if in a map the scale is mentioned as 1: 4000, it implies that 1 unit distance on the map is equivalent to 4000 units distance on the actual ground.

3. Graphical scale or drawn scale: When the distance on the map and the corresponding distance on the actual ground is shown by drawing a line with measurements on it, it is called a graphical scale. Graphical scales can be further divided into four types-

(1) Linear scale: When the map distance and ground distance is represented by drawing a straight line with measurements on it, it is called a linear scale.

(2) Comparative scale: When two different units are represented at the same time with different measurements indicated on either side of a straight line, it is called a comparative scale.

(3) Vernier scale: In this scale, a small scale slides along a main scale, indicating the actual measurement that lies between two marks on the main scale. This scale can measure very small areas.

(4) Diagonal scale: When the primary divisions of a linear scale is converted into further subdivisions for accurate measurements, it is called a diagonal scale.

Question 6.
What are the uses and importance of maps?
Answer:
A map is an important tool for geographers and its importance is immense.
Uses of maps:

• It is extremely valuable for the study of history, geography, tourism etc.
• Precise locations (exact latitude and longitude) can be determined from a map.
• Large scale maps are used if one wants to study a small part of any area intensively.
• Maps are very important for defence personnel.
• Changes in international and national boundaries are clearly demarcated on maps.
• Maps are used to show physical features and distribution of resources.
• Special maps (drawn on specific map projections) are used to determine the routes of planes and ships.
• Maps are used to teach History and Geography in classrooms.
• Maps are used to plan the development of any area and for a host of other purposes.

Importance of maps:

• Complex topics are easily comprehended by students with the help of maps.
• Maps are useful in giving an idea about and to analyse the physical and cultural features of any area.
• Maps are important for developmental planning of any region or local area.
• Maps are also valuable for governance and administrative purposes.
• Even a layman can read a map and analyse it to get a clear idea of any area as required.

Question 7.
What are the sub-divisions of small and large scale maps? Why are ‘mauza’ maps drawn?
Answer:
Types of small scale maps:
1. Wall maps: Wall maps are drawn on a large sheet of paper showing different continents and countries.

2. Atlas or book of maps: Various maps based on different themes are drawn and published in the form of a book known as an atlas.

3. International maps: They are drawn on 1 unit =1 million unit scale.
Besides, maps related to aviation, navigational charts, etc., are also maps of this type.

Types of large scale maps:
1. Blueprint: They are made for the purpose of building houses, local area demarcation, planning cites, towns, etc.

2. ‘Mauza’ maps: These are drawn for the purpose of collecting land revenue by the governmental (Land Revenue and Survey Department) agencies.

3. Topographical maps: In this type of map, different physical features as well as cultural features are depicted using various conventional signs and symbols. These maps play an important role in planning the development of any area (local or regional).

Reasons for drawing ‘mauza’ maps: Any property or land division based on surveys, showing any city or village with details of houses, land or plot boundaries, agricultural land, grasslands and so on are drawn on these maps. These are also called cadastral maps. In India the Survey Department of the government publishes such maps for the purpose of collecting land revenue. These are large scale maps. in India, ‘mauza’ maps are usually drawn on a scale of 16 inches=1 mile.

Question 8.
What is a topographical map? Write a note on its characteristics and importance.
Answer:
A topographical maps shows the physical features and cultural composition of an area using symbols.
The word ‘topography’ originated from the Greek words ‘topos’ meaning a place and ‘graphien’ meaning to write. Characteristics: The characteristic features of a topographical map are-

• It has a fixed index number.
• The R.F. is fixed at 1: 50,000.
• The latitude and longitude are extended equally.
• Specific colours and symbols are used in the maps.
• The physical and cultural features of an area are shown here.

Importance: Topographical maps are important for the following reasons-

• The physical and cultural features are shown together.
• The nature of the area can be known easily.
• This type of map is important for conservation of national resources.
• This type of map is important for the planning of regional development.

Question 9.
What are the uses and importance of scale in maps?
Answer:
The word ‘scale’ means measurement.
When the distance between any two points on a map and the corresponding distance on the actual ground is expressed as a ratio, it is called map scale.

Uses of scale in maps:

• The actual size of any area on a map can easily be determined with the help of a scale.
• Use of scale is mandatory for drawing an accurate map.
• Any map can be reduced or enlarged accurately with the help of scale.
• The distance between any two points can be measured on a map in order to determine the actual distance on the ground with the help of scale.
• Land can be measured accurately using vernier scale.

Importance of scale:

• A map cannot be drawn and is incomplete without a scale.
• Scale is important for determining the length, width, etc., of any region.
• Scale is valuable in determining the cost of building or contracting anything by a planner or a designer.
• Vernier scale is important for making minute measurements.

Question 10
What is an open or unclassified map? What are its characteristics?
Answer:
A map containing extensive geographical details of any particular area (small in size) to be used for developmental work and to be comprehended and used by the common people, is called an open/unclassified map. From a detailed map of this kind, a clear idea of any specific area can be obtained.

The Survey of India has therefore published quite a number of maps drawn on different scales and they are easily available to the common people. That is why they are called open/unclassified maps.

Characteristics:

• These maps are usually drawn on large scales. Usually 1: 250,000, 1: 50,000 and 1: 25,000 scales are used.
• These maps are unrestricted in nature and can be obtained easily.
• To prepare such maps, map projections used in the market are used.
• There are no grids on this type of map.
• Universal data are compiled in this map.
• World Geodetic Survey method is used for these maps since they contain temperature related data.

Question 11.
Which components are used for drawing a map? Give examples.
Answer:
When the world or a part of it is represented on paper as a map, the following components are of vital importance-

• Scale: Any part of the earth’s surface can be shown on paper in a reduced or enlarged form with the help of specific scales.
• Map projection: The graticules (longitudes and latitudes) on which the map is drawn is known as map projection.
• Paper or flat surface: A paper or a flat surface on which the map is to be drawn is required.
• Choosing a subject or theme: Specific themes, subjects or topics have to be determined before drawing a map.
• Selecting alphabets: This has to be done for writing the heading, scale, north line, index or a key, etc.
• Indicating the north line: If the latitudes and longitudes are not shown on the map the north line has to be drawn to indicate the north direction by this sign ‘N’.
• Drawing boundaries: Different symbols for boundaries showing country, states, districts, coastal areas, etc., have to be chosen and marked on the map.

For example, in the fig. (given in next page) it can be observed that-

• The scale of the map is 1cm=50km (approximately).
• The latitudes 22°, 24°N, 26°N (every 2° apart) and 88° longitude are shown on the graticules drawn on the map.
• The map is drawn on a flat surface, i.e., on paper.
• The theme of the map is-‘Rivers of West Bengal’.
• ‘Rivers’ is written in big and bold letters on top of the map.
• symbol is used in the map to indicate the north direction.
• Different symbols are used to show the boundaries of a country, states and coastal areas.

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 9 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 3 Determination of Location of a Place on the Earth’s Surface offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Question Answer – Determination of Location of a Place on the Earth’s Surface

Very Short Questions and Answers : (1 mark for each question)

Question 1.
What is the latitude of the Arctic Circle?
Answer:
66 1/2° N.

Question 2.
What are lines of longitude also known as?
Answer:
Meridians of longitude.

Question 3.
What is Prime Meridian also known as?
Answer:
Greenwich Meridian.

Question 4.
What is the latitude of the Tropic of Capricorn?
Answer:
23 1/2°

Question 5.
What are latitudes also known as?
Answer:
Parallels of latitude.

Question 6.
What is the angular distance of a place, east or west of the Prime Meridian known as?
Answer:
Longitude.

Question 7.
What is 90° N also known as?
Answer:
North Pole.

Question 8.
What is 90° S also known as?
Answer:
South Pole.

Question 9.
Which natural object can be used to calculate time?
Answer:
Sun.

Question 10.
What is the other name for local mean time?
Answer:
Solar time.

Question 11.
Who invented the chronometer?
Answer:
John Harrison.

Question 12.
What is the linear distance between two lines of longitude, at an interval of 1^{\circ, along the equator?
Answer:
111.3 km.

Question 13.
What is located at the antipode of the Prime Meridian?
Answer:
180° or the International Date Line.

Question 14.
What is the time difference between IST and GMT?
Answer:
5 h and 30 m.

Question 15.
What is the time difference between a place and its antipode?
Answer:
12 hours.

Question 16.
What is the longitudinal difference between a place and its antipode?
Answer:
180°

Question 17.
How many artificial satellites were launched by the USA to determine the location of any place on earth?
Answer:
24.

Question 18.
Name the latitude that is located at an equal distance from either of the poles.
Answer:
The equator.

Question 19.
How much time is gained while crossing the International Date Line from the Western Hemisphere?
Answer:
24 hours or 1 day.

Question 20.
When and where was the International Meridian Conference held?
Answer:
October, 1884 in Washington D. C.

Question 21.
Name the imaginary plane that passes through the equator and is perpendicular to the earth’s axis.
Answer:
Equatorial plane.

Question 22.
Which state of India experiences sunrise first?
Answer:
Arunachal Pradesh.

Short Questions and Answers : (2 marks for each question)

Question 1.
What is meant by parallels of latitude?
Answer:
The imaginary lines drawn around the earth, which run parallel to the equator are known as the parallels of latitude. They are also called lines of latitude. These lines join all places having the same latitudinal degree or angular distance from the equator. For example, the Tropic of Cancer (23 1/2° N).

Question 2.
What is meant by meridian?
Answer:
In geography, a meridian is the half of an imaginary great circle on the surface of the earth, that ends at the geographical polesThe North Pole and the South Pole. It connects all the points of equal longitude. Each meridian is of equal length and is perpendicular to all the circles of latitude.

Question 3.
What are the properties of latitudes?
Answer:
The properties of latitudes are as follows-

1. All the latitudes are full circles and run parallel to each other.
2. Latitudes run in an east-west direction.
3. As the angular distance of a place north or south of the equator increases, the circumference of the circle of latitude decreases.
4. The local time of the places lying on the same latitude are always different.

Question 4.
What are the properties of lines of longitude?
Answer:
The properties of lines of longitude are as follows-

1. All the longitudes are half circles.
2. All the longitudes are of equal length.
3. The longitudes run in a north-south direction.
4. The local time of the places lying on the same longitude are always same.

Question 5.
What is the equator?
Answer:
The equator is the imaginary east-west line encircling the earth midway between the North and South poles. The equator is the 0° latitude. It divides the earth into two equal halves called the Northern Hemisphere and the Southern Hemisphere. The average circumference of the equator is 40,000 km.

Question 6.
What is the Prime Meridian?
Answer:
Prime Meridian is the notional line drawn from the North Pole to the South Pole that passes through Greenwich and is designated as the 0° longitude. All other longitudes are measured from this line. The Greenwich Meridian divides the earth into two equal halves – the Eastern and Western hemispheres.

Question 7.
What is the Hadley’s Octans? From where is it visible?
Answer:
Hadley’s Octans is a constellation of stars in the southern sky that appears to circle around the south celestial pole. This constellation is faintly visible from any place in the Southern Hemisphere. However, it is difficult to view this with naked eyes.

Question 8.
What is meant by latitude?
Answer:
The angular distance of a place, north or south of the equator, usually measured in degrees is known as latitude. All the places having the same latitudinal degree, if joined by a single line, forms the parallel. For example, the latitude of Kolkata is 22° 30′ N.

Question 9.
What is meant by longitude?
Answer:
The angular distance of a place, east or west of the Greenwich meridian, usually measured in degrees is known as longitude. All the places having the same longitudinal degree, if joined by a single line, forms the meridian. For example, the longitude of Kolkata is 88° 30′ E.

Question 10.
What is local time?
Answer:
The time of a place as determined according to noon or when the sun is directly overhead the meridian passing through that place, is called local time. The earth rotates around its axis once in every 24 hours, and during the course of this rotation, sunrays fall vertically overhead at different places at different times. Local time is also determined using the angle of elevation of the sun at that place.

Question 11.
What is standard time?
Answer:
The time of any country as standardised according to the local time at its Standard Meridian or the longitude passing through the middle of that country, is called standard time. The time of a country can be determined from this.

Question 12.
What is meant by antipode?
Answer:
The antipode of a point is the point on the earth’s surface which is diametrically opposite to it. The two points which are antipodal to one another can be connected by a straight line running through the centre of the earth.

Question 13.
What is the International Date Line?
Answer:
The International Date Line is an imaginary line that mostly follows the 180° longitude but deviates from its position near the Aleutian Islands, the Fiji and Chatham Islands. The International Date Line acts as a dividing line between the dates of the Eastern and Western Hemispheres. According to this line, the calendar dates are changed.

Question 14.
What is meant by equatorial plane?
Answer:
The plane that passes through the equator and cuts the earth into two equal halves is called the equatorial plane. The centre of the earth lies on this plane and so, the angular value of this plane is 0°. It is perpendicular to the earth’s axis.

Question 15.
What is a sextant?
Answer:
A sextant is an instrument used to determine the angle between a celestial object and the horizon (this angle is also known as the object’s altitude). The instrument has an in-built telescope and helps in determining the latitude of a place.

Question 16.
What is a Chronometer?
Answer:
Chronometer is a precise and accurate clock, used to determine the longitude at sea. In 1735, John Harrison built the first chronometer, which he improved, with many innovations, over the next thirty years before submitting it for examination. The most complete international collection of chronometers, including the Harrison’s, is at the Royal Observatory, in London, England.

Question 17.
What is the difference between a great circle and a small circle?
Answer:
A circle formed on the surface of a sphere by a plane that passes through the centre of the sphere is called a great circle. It is different from a small circle in the sense that, a small circle is formed on the surface of a sphere by a plane that does not pass through the centre of the sphere. For example, the equator (0°) is a great circle whereas, both the Tropics (23 1/2°) are small circles.

Question 18.
How are longitude and time related?
Answer:
Determination and calculation of time is greatly dependent on the lines of longitude. The time for a particular longitude is calculated on the basis of noon time or 120′ clock midday of that place. We know that, for every 1° difference in longitude, there is a time difference of 4 minutes. Moreover, if the time difference between any two places is known, the longitudinal difference of those two places can be easily determined.

Question 19.
Why does high temperature prevail in the torrid zone all through the year?
Answer:
The torrid zone extends between the Tropic of Cancer (231° N) and the Tropic of Capricorn (23 1/2° S). The apparent motion of the sun is also restricted between these tropics. From December 22 upto June 21 the sun apparently moves from Tropic of Capricorn to Tropic of Cancer that is known as the apparent northward movement of the sun. Similarly from June 21 till December 22 the sun apparently moves in the opposite direction that is known as the apparent southward movement of the sun. Therefore, this region receives vertical rays of the sun all year, and this is why high temperatures (25°-35° C) prevail.

Question 20.
At which places does the International Date Line deviate from the 180° longitude?
Answer:
The International Date Line is not a straight line, but moves in a zigzag manner to avoid crossing through any landmass. In the Northern Hemisphere, the International Date Line is displaced eastwards to avoid the Wrangel island and then deviates west to avoid the Bering Sea and almost 7° to avoid Aleutian Islands. In the Southern Hemisphere, the International Date Line deviates almost 11° to avoid Fiji, Chatham and such other islands.

Question 21.
What is meant by graticule?
Answer:
Graticule is a network or web of lines representing the earth’s parallels of latitude and meridians of longitude, on which maps are drawn. The combination of these two components specify the position of any place on the earth. However, it does not consider the altitude or depth of a place.

Question 22.
What is meant by angular distance?
Answer:
An angle whose apex is at the centre of the spherical earth and whose legs are radii intersecting the circle in two distinct points, thereby subtending an arc between those two points is known as the angular distance. The unit used to measure the angular distance is degree, minute and seconds as it is conceptually identical to an angle.

Question 23.
What are Arctic and Antarctic Circles?
Answer:
Arctic Circle is the parallel of latitude that runs 661° north of the equator, whereas, Antarctic Circle is the parallel of latitude that runs 66 1/2° south of the equator. The region beyond the Arctic and the Antarctic circles experience 6 months of complete daylight and 6 months of complete darkness throughout the year.

Question 24.
What is the time difference between a place and its antipode?
Answer:
The longitudinal difference between any place and its antipodal point is 180°. We know that, for every 1° longitudinal difference time difference experienced is 4 minute. Therefore, the time difference between the place and its antipodal point becomes (180 × 4 = 720 minute) 12 hours.

Question 25.
What is meant by the northern and the southern latitudes?
Answer:
The latitudes can be delineated into two types on the basis of which hemisphere it is located-
1. Northern latitudes: Latitudes located to the north of the equator are known as northern latitudes. So, all the latitudes from 1° to 90° in the Northern Hemisphere come under this. These are denoted by the letter ‘N’.
2. Southern latitudes: Latitudes located towards the south of the equator are known as the southern latitudes. So, all the latitudes from 1° to 90° in the Southern Hemisphere come under this. These are denoted by the letter ‘S’.

Question 26.
What is the Standard Meridian for India? Through which place does it pass?
Answer:
India, in the Eastern Hemisphere, has a vast longitudinal extension i.e., from 68° 07′ E to 97° 25′ E. The 82 1/2° E longitude is taken as the Standard Meridian for the country and the local time of this meridian is considered as the standard time for entire India. It is known as the Indian Standard Time (IST).The IST passes through the city of Allahabad. Therefore, the local time of Allahabad is taken as the standard time for India.

Question 27.
What is a sundial?
Answer:
Sundial is the earliest timekeeping device, that indicates the time of day by the position of the shadow of some object open to the sun’s rays. As the day advances, sun moves across the sky, causing shadow of the object to move and indicating the passage of time. The flat surface of the sundial is called the dial plate, that is generally made out of materials like wood, stone, metal and such others.

Question 28.
Name the standard meridians of the U.S.A.
Answer:
A country with a greater east-west expanse, like the USA, may have more than one standard time. These are known as time zones. The United States of America has 4 time zones. They are as follows-

1. Eastern Standard Time (EST): This time zone is 5 hours behind G.M.T. New York falls in this time zone.
2. Central Standard Time (CST): This time zone is 6 hours behind G.M.T. Chicago falls in this time zone.
3. Mountain Standard Time (MST): This time zone is 7 hours behind G.M.T.
4. Pacific Standard Time (PST): This time zone is 8 hours behind G.M.T. Los Angeles is located in this time zone.

Question 29.
Why is standard time more useful for a country than local time?
Answer:
A number of meridians pass through every country. If their local time is considered then the proper functioning of the national services like railways, airways, postal department in the country gets hindered. So, a country considers the time of its central meridian or the standard meridian as the standard time for the entire country. This is why standard time is more useful for a country than local time.

Question 30.
What is the Indian Standard Time?
Answer:
India, in the Eastern Hemisphere, has a vast longitudinal extent i.e., from 68° 7′ E to 97° 25′ E. Thirty meridians, each having their own local time, pass through this country. So, the local time of the meridian, 821° E, that passes through the city of Allahabad, which is more or less in the middle of the India, is followed as its Standard Time. This local time is known as the Indian Standard Time (I.S.T.).

Short Questions and Answers : (3 marks for each question)

Question 1.
How can we determine the longitude of a place?
Answer:
The longitude of a place can easily be determined with the following references-
1. With reference to time of any other longitude: We know that for a time difference of 4 minutes, we experience a 1° difference in longitude. So, if 4 minutes are added to the local time of a place we get the next longitude, at an interval of 1°, towards the east of that place. Similarly, if 4 minutes are subtracted from the local time of a place we get the next longitude, at an interval of 1°, towards the west of that place. Therefore, if the local times of any two places are known along with the longitude of any one place, the longitude of the other place can be easily calculated.

2. With reference to G.M.T.: G.M.T. is the local time of the 0° meridian passing through Greenwich near London. This is also known as the Universal Time. So, if the time difference of a place from the G.M.T. is known, the longitude can be easily calculated. Time is ahead for places due east and behind for the places due west of Prime Meridian. E.g., the Indian Standard Time is ahead by 5 hours 30 minutes than that of G.M.T. Therefore, the longitude of the Standard Meridian of India will be 82° 30′ E.

Question 2.
How does the angle of elevation of Hadley’s Octans help to determine latitudes?
Answer:
In ancient times, people used the Pole Star to determine North, Hadley’s Octans to determine South, the Morning Star to determine East in the morning and Evening Star to determine West in the evening. Later, with the advent of an instrument called sextant, things became easier. Sextant is used to determine the angle between a celestial object and the horizon. This angle is also known as the object’s altitude. The instrument has an in-built telescope and helps to determine the latitude of a place. For example, altitude of the Hadley’s Octans in the Southern Hemisphere near the equator is zero and thus equator is located at the 0° latitude. From equator, if we move 111.3 km to the south we reach the 1° S latitude, and the sextant also shows an altitude of 1° between Hadley’s Octans and the local horizon.

Question 3.
What do you mean by the Greenwich Mean Time?
Answer:
Greenwich Mean Time or G.M.T. is the local time of the 0° Meridian passing through Greenwich near London. As different countries have different standard times, it becomes difficult to carry out international communications. To avoid this problem, Greenwich Mean Time is followed across the globe. Therefore, G.M.T. is also known as the Universal Time. Countries located due east of the Prime Meridian are ahead of the GMT while those due west are behind GMT.

Question 4.
How was the International Date Line determined?
Answer:
To use a global time zone system with an International Date Line, the day and date have to be separated at some part on the earth by marking a terminal point. The suitable solution was provided in 1884 by the International Meridian Conference (IMC), held in Washington D.C., that was attended by representatives of 25 nations. The IMC selected the 180° meridian as this terminal point. The imaginary line of International Date Line was thus drawn that follows the 180° longitude mostly but deviates from its original position near the Aleutian Islands, the Fiji and Chatham Islands. The International Date Line acts as a dividing line between the dates of the Eastern and Western Hemispheres. It is according to this line, that calendar dates are changed.

Question 5.
Why do some countries have more than one standard time?
Answer:
Places situated on different meridians have different local times. A number of meridians pass through every country. If their local times are considered then the proper functioning of the administration and business gets hindered. So, to avoid such situation, the local time of a central meridian is taken as the standard time for the entire country. However, countries with a vast east-west extent face problems regarding time difference between its eastern and western parts. Too great a time difference between the extreme east and the extreme west, causes inconvenience and confusion. Therefore, these countries are divided into several time zones, each having its own standard time. For example, the USA is divided into 4 time zones while the Russian Federation has 11 time zones.

Question 6.
What do you mean by the Daylight Saving Time or DST?
Answer:
In the countries of the high latitudes, the difference between the duration of day and night is quite high with the changing seasons. Therefore, many countries started using Daylight Saving Time or DST (first proposed by Benjamin Franklin in 1784) to make better use of the natural daylight in the evenings. Many use it to reduce the amount of energy needed for artificial lighting during the evening hours. Many countries in the Northern Hemisphere- like the USA, Central America, Canada, Europe, Asia, North Africa, observe DST. Similarly, many countries in the Southern Hemisphere-like Australia, New Zealand, South America, South Africa also observe DST. Daylight Saving Time is in use between March and April and ends between September and November. This is because the countries return to Standard Time in the Northern Hemisphere and the reverse in Southern Hemisphere.

Question 7.
Write a brief note on Prime Meridian and International Date Line.
Answer:
The Prime Meridian is the imaginary line of longitude, considered to have a value of 0°, which passes through the Greenwich Observatory in London.
Special characteristics:

1. Directly opposite to it is the 180° line of longitude or the International Date Line.
2. This divides the earth into two equal hemispheres-east and west.
3. As this passes over the Royal Observatory in Greenwich, London, it is called the Greenwich line.
4. Determines the location and local time of any place.

The International Date Line is an imaginary line that follows the 180° longitude mostly but deviates from its original position over the landmasses.

Special characteristics:

1. A calendar date first starts and ends at this line.
2. When anyone crosses the International Date Line from east to west, he subtracts 1 day and similarly adds 1 day as he crosses it from west to east.

Question 8.
Into how many heat zones can the earth be divided on the basis of latitudes?
Answer:
The earth is divided into three heat zones on the basis of the angle at which the sunrays fall. These are as follows-
1. Torrid Zone: It extends from the equator (0°) to the Tropics (23 1/2° N. and S). Some important countries that come under this zone are-Brazil, Venezuela, Nigeria, Kenya, Ghana, Malaysia, Indonesia, England and such others.
2. Temperate Zone: It extends from the Tropics (23 1/2° N. and S) to the Arctic and Antarctic Circles (66 1/2° N. and S). Some important countries that come under this zone are-the United States of America, Chile, France, South Africa, New Zealand, England, Canada, Japan, Germany, Italy and such others.
3. Frigid Zone: It extends from the Arctic and Antarctic Circles (66 1/2° N. and S) to the Poles (90° N. and S). Some important countries that come under this zone are-Antarctica, Siberia, Alaska, Greenland, Northern Canada, Norway, and northern parts of Sweden.

Write the differences between the following –

Question 1.
Latitude and Parallels of latitude
Answer:
The differences between a latitude and parallels of latitude are as follows-

Points of difference	Lalitude	Parallels of latitude
1. Definition	It is the angular distance of a place, north or south of the equator, measured in degrees.	These are imaginary lines drawn around earth, parallel to the equator.
2. Characteristics	These are angular distances from the centre of the earth.	These are imaginary lines drawn around the earth.
3. Method of construction	Places having same latitudinal degree, if joined by a single line, form the parallel.	Parallels join all the places having the same latitudinal degree.

Question 2.
Longitude and Meridians of longitude
Answer:
The differences between a longitude and meridians of longitude are as follows-

Points of difference	Longitude	Meridians of longitude
1. Definition	Angular distance of a place east or west of the Greenwich Meridian, measured in degrees, is known as the longitude.	A meridian is the half of an imaginary great circle on the surface of the earth, that ends at the geographical polesthe North Pole and the South Pole.
2. Characteristics	These are angular distances from the centre of the earth.	These are imaginary lines drawn between the north and south poles.
3. Method of construction	All the places having the same longitudinal degree, if joined by a single line, form the meridian.	It connects all the points of equal longitude.

Question 3.
Latitude and Longitude
Answer:
The differences between latitude and longitude are as follows-

Points of difference	Lafitude	Longtude
1. Definition	The angular distance of a place north or south of the equator, usually measured in degrees, is known as latitude.	The angular distance of a place east or west of the Greenwich meridian, usually measured in degrees, is known as longitude.
2. Direction	Latitudes are drawn from east to west.	Longitudes are drawn from north to south.
3. Shape and size	Latitudes are full circles and their size become smaller as we move from equator to the poles.	Longitudes are half circles and their size remains the same throughout.
4. Total number	There are 181 latitudes in all, including the equator, when drawn at 1° interval.	There are 360 longitudes in all, when drawn at 1° interval.
5. Measured from	Latitudes are measured on north or south of the equator.	Latitudes are measured on east or west of the Prime Meridian.
6. Extension	Latitudes extend from the equator (0°) to the poles (90°) in either hemisphere.	Longitudes extend from the Prime Meridian (0°) to the 180° longitude in either hemisphere. (Note: 180° E and 180° W are the same line of longitude.)
7. Hemispheres	Latitudes divide the earth into two hemispheres.	Longitudes divide the earth into Eastern and Western Hemispheres.
8. Climatic characteristics	The climatic characteristics of various places lying on the same latitude are alike.	The climatic characteristics of various places lying on the same longitude are different.
9. Local time	The local time of various places lying on the same latitude are different.	The local time of various places lying on the same longitude are alike.
10. Use	The earth can be divided into heat zones on the basis of latitudes.	Local time of a place can be calculated on the basis of longitudes.

Question 4.
Local time and Standard time
Answer:
The differences between local time and standard time are as follows-

Points of difference	Local Time	Standard Time
1. Concept	The time of a place as determined when the sun is directly overhead the meridian passing through that place, is called local time.	The time in any country as standardised according to the local time at its Standard Meridian is called standard time.
2. Number	Each longitude has a local time, which means that there are innumerable local times.	This is the central meridian of a country or a time zone. So only 1 standard time is there for a country or a time zone.
3. Usage	Practical usage of this is not significant.	This is done primarily for convenience of administration and governance.

Give reasons for the following :

Question 1.
The equator is known as Great Circle.
Answer:
When the centre of the circle and the centre of the globe are the same it becomes a Great Circle. There are several imaginary lines of latitude drawn over the earth’s surface, and out of those lines, the equator is known as the Great Circle, because-

1. The great circle is the largest circle. It is not possible to draw a circle larger than the Great Circle over the earth’s surface.
2. The centre of the earth and that of the Great Circle lies at the same point.
3. If any circle is divided along the Great Circle, we get two equal halves.

Question 2.
Longitude and time are interrelated.
Answer:
Longitude and time are interrelated because –
1. Determination of mid-day and local time: Longitude helps in determining the time of mid-day of any area. The time of mid-day helps in determining the rest of the time of the day, because each and every longitude of the earth faces the sun at least once in 24 hours.
2. The difference between each 1° longitude and time is 4 minutes: The earth takes 24 hours to complete a rotation. So, the earth rotates 360° in 24 hours i.e., 360 / 24 = 15° or 1° in 4 minutes.
3. The time which lies in the longitude of the Eastern areas is always ahead: The earth rotates from West to the East, so the places in the East experience sunrise and sunset earlier than the places in the West.
So, the places located in the East are ahead in time than the places located in the West.

Question 3.
The difference of time between a place and its antipode is 12 hours.
Answer:
If any imaginary line from any point on the earth’s surface passes through the centre of the earth and touches the point opposite to the starting point, the latter is called the antipode of the former. So, an antipodal point is situated at the opposite longitude. The longitudinal difference between any place and its antipode point is 180°. So, we can mathematically prove thatWhen longitudinal difference is 1°, time difference is = 4 minutes
When longitudinal difference is 180°, time difference is = 180 × 4 minutes
= 720 × minutes = 12 × hours

Question 4.
Why is the 180° longitude is known as International Date Line?
Answer:
180° longitude is known as International Date Line because –
1. 180° longitude is the starting and ending point of the dates and time of the earth.
2. Since 180° longitude passes mostly over the water bodies, the time zones of the continents are not affected.
3. When the 180° longitudinal line is crossed from the western side of the Greenwich, the international date increases by a day. Again, when the 180° longitudinal line is crossed from the eastern side of the Greenwich, international date is decreased by a day.

Long Questions and Answers : (5 marks for each question)

Question 1.
What are meant by parallels of latitude? Discuss their properties and their uses. [1 + 2 + 2]
Answer:
The imaginary lines drawn around the earth parallel to the equator are known as the parallels of latitude. These are used to indicate the lines of latitude. These lines join all the places with the same latitudinal degree.

Properties:

1. The paraliels of latitude are full circles and parallel to each other.
2. As the value of the latitudes increase, the circumference of the parallels of latitude gradually decreases.
3. At the poles, the distance around the earth is zero. Therefore, the poles appear to be dots.
4. All places on the same parallel of latitude have the same latitudinal degree.
5. Solar incidence changes with changing latitude. Accordingly, the climatic characteristics of the places also vary.
6. The local time of various places lying on the same latitude are different.

Uses:

1. The North-South position of a place can be determined by using the equator and the other latitudes as standard of measurement.
2. The parallels of latitude are often used as the boundary of a country or a state. For instance, the 45° N parallel forms an approximate border between Quebec (Canada), and the states of New York and Vermont in the USA.
3. The earth can be divided into different heat zones (Torrid zone, Temperate zone and Frigid zone) on the basis of latitudes.

Question 2.
How can you determine the latitude of a place geometrically? How can the latitude of a place in the Northern Hemisphere be determined using the elevation of the Pole Star? [2 \(\frac{1}{2}\) + 2 \(\frac{1}{2}\)]
Answer:
Geometric determination of the latitude of a place: In the given Fig. 3.3, B denotes the earth’s centre, DC the equator, A the North Pole and P the Pole Star. N is a place in the Northern Hemisphere with MO as its horizon. Moreover, BQ is perpendicular to MO. As the Pole Star is located vertically above the North Pole, it will be visible at P’ position from N. Consequently, the angle of elevation of the North Star, as visible from N, would be ∠MNP ‘ and the latitudinal degree of N would be ∠NBC.

Figure 3.3: Geometric determination of latitude
Now, MNP’ + QNP’ = A right angle and, PBN + NBC = A right angle
Therefore, PBN + NBC = M MP’ + QNP’
Moreover, since BP and NP’ are parallel to each other, so PBN = QNP’
Hence, NBC = MNP’
Therefore, the angle of elevation of the Pole Star, as visible from N = the latitudinal degree of N.
Elevation of the Pole Star to determine the latitude of a place: In an open place-two poles, one taller than the other, were fixed. The smaller pole was fixed south of the taller one in such a way that the smaller pole, the taller pole to its north and the Pole Star as visible in the sky, were all in a straight line. Now, after measuring the exact distance between the poles on a white paper. the poles need to be drawn to the scale. Therefore, in the figure, YR and ZS are the two poles, with RS being the distance between the two. Now, Y and Z are joined and simultaneously, SR is extended so that these two meet at the point D and form an angle ∠ZDS. Hence, ∠YDR is the angle of elevation of the Pole Star and also the latitudinal degree. So, if the ∠YDR is measured with the help of a protractor, the latitude of the place can be determined.

Question 3.
What is meant by meridians of longitude? Discuss their properties and their uses. [1 + 2 + 2]
Answer:
In geography, a meridian is the half of an imaginary great circle on the surface of the earth, that ends at the geographical poles -the North Pole and the South Pole. It connects all the points of equal longitude. Each meridian is of equal length and is perpendicular to all the circles of latitude.

Properties:

1. The meridians of longitude are all half circles.
2. They are not parallel to each other.
3. The distance between two consecutive meridians is the highest at the equator, and reduces gradually towards the poles.
4. All the meridians are of equal length.
5. All places on the same meridian have the same longitudinal degree.
6. The climatic characteristics of the places on the same longitude vary drastically.
7. The local time of various places lying on the same longitude are always the same.

Uses:

1. The East-West position of a place can be determined by using the Prime Meridian and the other longitudes as standard of measure.
2. The local time of any place on the surface of the earth can be calculated based on which longitude it is positioned.

Question 4.
Explain with examples how the location of a place can be determined using the lines of latitude and longitude. How does the local time change with changing lines of longitude? [3 + 2]
Answer:
Determination of location of a place with the help of Parallels of Latitude and Meridians of Longitude: The location of any place on the earth’s surface can be determined by using the lines of latitude and longitude. The Parallels of Latitude are full circles and run in an east-west direction. On the other hand, the Meridians of Longitude are half circles and run in a north-south direction. The combination of these two components form a graticule that specifies the position of any place on the earth. This is why both Parallels of Latitude and Meridians of Longitude are shown on the maps. To determine the exact location of a place, both are essential.

For example, location of the city of Kolkata is 22° 30′ N and 88° 30′ E. This statement explains the fact that Kolkata is located at the intersection point of 22° 30′ N latitude and 88° 30′ E longitude. The local time changes with change in longitude: The longitudes of the earth are half circular lines that extend from north to south. Since the earth rotates on its axis once every 24 hours, each longitude faces the sun directly once every 24 hours. When the sun is directly overhead any longitude, it is noon at that point. The local time at this longitude is measured with reference to noon at this point. Therefore, each line of longitude experiences noon only once every 24 hours and each longitude experiences it at different points of time. That is why local time changes with change in the longitude.

Figure 3.6: Determination of the location of a place with the help of latitudes and longitudes

Question 5.
What is the International Date Line? Explain the significance of the line. Why does the International Date Line not follow the 180° line of longitude throughout? [1 + 2 + 2]
Answer:
The International Date Line is an imaginary line that follows the 180° longitude. However, it deviates from its original position near the Aleutian Islands, the Fiji and Chatham Islands. The International Date Line acts as a divider between the dates of the eastern and western hemispheres. It is according to this line that the calendar date changes.

Significance: The earth takes 24 hours or 1440 minutes to complete one rotation of 360°. Therefore, for every 1° difference in longitude, we experience a time difference of 4 minutes. Moreover, since the earth rotates from west to east, the local time in the east is ahead of the local time in the west. So, if the local time is followed on a world tour, a lot of discrepancies can arise regarding the date and time of the places. This creates a lot of confusion and inconvenience for business purposes.

For example, both the 180° E and the 180° W are actually the same line, but the time difference as any aeroplane or ship crosses the line is calculated to be – 12 h + 12 h = 24 h or 1 day.

A suitable solution was provided in 1884 by the International Meridian Conference (IMC), held in Washington D.C., that was attended by representatives of 25 nations. The IMC selected the 180° meridian as the terminal point. The International Date Line acts as a divider between the dates of the Eastern and Western Hemispheres. It is according to this line, that calendar dates are changed. As anyone crosses the International Date Line from east to west, he subtracts 1 day (that is if it was Monday earlier, now it becomes Sunday for him) and adds 1 day (that is if it was Sunday earlier, now it becomes Monday for him) as he crosses it from west to east, to keep parity with the time and date of that place.

The International Date line does not follow the 180° line of longitude throughout: The International Date Line almost coincides with the 180° longitude but not completely. It zigzags to avoid crossing over any landmass. In the Northern Hemisphere, the International Date Line is displaced eastwards to avoid the Wrangel island as well as the Chukchi Peninsula on the Russian mainland, and then deviates west to avoid the Bering Sea and almost 7° to avoid Aleutian Islands. In the Southern Hemisphere, the International Date Line deviates almost 11° to avoid Fiji, Chatham and such other islands. This makes it convenient for all the people of Siberia to follow the standard time of Siberia, Aleutian Island to follow the Pacific Standard Time of the USA and Fiji, Tonga and Chatham to follow the standard time of New Zealand and avoid any kind of confusion.

Question 6.
Why is it necessary to determine the location of a place? How can the earth be divided into various heat zones? [2 + 3]
Answer:
Necessity of determining the location of a place:

1. The exact location of the place on the surface of the earth can be determined.
2. It helps to find the distance between any two or more places.
3. The location of a place helps us to understand the explanation of any geographical research and study.
4. The climatic characteristics of a place can be more or less surmised if the location of the place is known.

Heat zone: The rays of the sun fall at different angles at different places on the earth at different times of the year. The earth is divided into three heat zones on the basis of the angle at which the sunrays fall. These are as follows-
1. Torrid Zone: Extends from the Equator (0°) to the Tropic of Cancer (231° 2°) in the North and to the Tropic of Capricorn (231° 2°) in the South. Some important countries that come under this zone are-Brazil, Venezuela, Nigeria, Kenya, Ghana, Malaysia, Indonesia, England and such others.

2. Temperate Zone: Extends from the Tropics (231° N. and S) to the Arctic and Antarctic Circles (66 1/2° N. and S). Some countries that come under this zone are- United States of America, Chile, France, South Africa, New Zealand, England, Canada, Japan, Germany, Italy and several others.

3. Frigid Zone: Extends from the Arctic and Antarctic Circles (66 1/2° N. and S) to the Poles (90° N. and S). Some countries that come under this zone are-Antarctica, Siberia, Alaska, Greenland, northern Canada, Norway, and the northern parts of Sweden.

Question 7
What is meant by great circle? What is meant by antipode? [2 \(\frac{1}{2}\) + 2 \(\frac{1}{2}\)]
Answer:
Great Circle:
Concept: A circle formed on the surface of a sphere by a plane that passes through the centre of the sphere is called a great circle. It is different from a general circle in which the intersection point of the sphere and a plane need not pass through the centre of the sphere. For instance, the equator is the only possible great circle among the lines of latitude on the surface of the earth, because equator alone fulfils the requirement to be called a great circle.

Properties:

1. It is the largest possible circle that can be drawn on the surface of a sphere.
2. An infinite number of great circles can be drawn on any sphere and any of the great circles always bisects the sphere.
3. The centre of the great circle and that of the sphere will be the same.
4. The arc of a great circle is the shortest distance between any two points on the surface of the sphere.

Uses: The arc of a great circle being the shortest distance between any two points on the surface of the sphere, the aeroplanes and ships try to follow these routes. This is what is popularly known as the Great Circle Route.

Antipode:
Concept: The antipode of a place is a point on the earth’s surface which is diametrically opposite to it. The two points which are antipodal to one another can be connected by a straight line running through the centre of the earth. For instance, the antipode of North Pole is the South Pole.

Properties:

1. The time difference between a place and its antipode is 12 hours.
2. The longitudinal difference between a place and its antipode is 180°.
3. Though the angular value of a place and its antipode is the same, they are always located in the opposite hemispheres.

Examples: As depicted in the figure above, Kolkata is located at 22° 30′ N latitude and 88° 30′ E longitude. So the antipode of Kolkata would be located at 22° 30′ S latitude and (180° – 88° 30′) = 91° 30′ W longitude.

Significance:

1. To ensure a fair circumnavigation following the great circle route, cressing a pair of antipodal points is inevitable. This is regardless of from where the traveller has started.
2. Antipodes have contrary seasons at the same time.
3. The length of day in a place is equal to the length of night at its antipode.

Question 8.
Discuss the important lines of latitude and longitude.
Answer:
The important lines of latitude are as follows-

The important lines of longitude are as follows-

Question 9.
1. The local time of places X and Y are Saturday 9 pm and Sunday 3 am respectively. The longitude of X is 90° W. Determine the longitude of Y.
2. What will be the time of I.S.T. when chronometer shows 12 noon? [2 \(\frac{1}{2}\) + 2 \(\frac{1}{2}\)]
Answer:
1. Determination of the longitude of Y :

The local time of places X and Y are Saturday 9 pm and Sunday 3 am respectively. Therefore, the difference in local time between X and Y is –
(Saturday 9 pm – Sunday 3 am) i.e., [Saturday (24h – 21h = 3h) + Sunday 3h] = 6 h or 360 m.
Now, we know that for every 4 minutes’ time difference, longitudinal difference is 1°.
Therefore, for 360 minutes’ time difference, the longitudinal difference will be 360 ÷ 4 = 90°
Hence, the longitudinal difference between X and Y is 90°.
Since the local time of Y is ahead of the local time of X, this means that Y is located due east of X.
Therefore, longitude of Y is (90° – 90°) = 0°.

2. Determination of time of I.S.T:

The chronometer runs on the basis of Greenwich time. Therefore, if it is 12 noon according to chronometer, then it can be inferred that time at Greenwich or the Prime Meridian (0°) is also 12 noon. On the other hand, it is also known that the Standard Meridian of India is 82° 30′ E.
Hence, longitudinal difference between the Prime Meridian i.e., the G.M.T. and I.S.T. is(82° 30′-0°) = 82° 30′. Now the time difference for 82° 30′ longitudinal difference will be-
For every 1° longitudinal difference, time difference experienced is 4 minutes.
Therefore, for 82° longitudinal difference, time difference will be (82 × 4)=328 minutes.
Again, for every 1′ longitudinal difference, time difference experienced is 4 seconds.
Therefore, for 30′ longitudinal difference, time difference will be (30 × 4)=120 seconds or 2 minutes.
So, the total time difference between G.M.T. and I.S.T. becomes (328 + 2)=330 minutes or 5 h 30 m.

Since Standard Meridian of India is located due east of the Prime Meridian, so I.S.T. would be ahead of G.M.T.
Therefore, when it is 12 noon according to G.M.T., the time according to I.S.T. would be (12h + 5h 30 m) = 17: 30 hours or 5: 30 pm.

Question 10
1. The longitude of places A and B are 20° E and 35° E respectively. What will be the local time of B when it is Sunday 11 pm at A?
2. A news is broadcast at 8 am from Greenwich. What will be the longitude of the place that receives the broadcast at 2:30 pm? [2 \(\frac{1}{2}\) + 2 \(\frac{1}{2}\)]
Answer:
1. Determination of the local time of the place B:

It is known that, the longitudes of A and B are 20° E and 35° E respectively.
Hence, the longitudinal difference between A and B is – (35°-20°) = 15°.
For every 1° longitudinal difference, the time difference experienced is 4 minutes.
Therefore, for 15° longitudinal difference, the time difference will be (15 × 4)=60 minutes or 1 hour.
Since B is located due east of A, so the time of B would be ahead of A.
Therefore, when it is 11 pm at A, the time at B would be (Sunday 11 pm+1 h) i.e., (23 h+ 1 h)=24 h or Monday 00:00.

2. Determination of the longitude of the unknown place: The news broadcast at 8 am from Greenwich (0°), is received at the unknown place at 2:30 pm, local time.
Therefore, the difference in local time between Greenwich and the unknown place is-
(2: 30 pm-8 am), i.e., (14 h 30 m-8 h)=6 h 30 m or 390 m.
Now, for every 4 m time difference the longitudinal difference is 1°.
Therefore, for 390 m time difference the longi-tudinal difference will be 390 ÷ 4 = 97° 30′.
As per the question, the time of the unknown place is ahead of Greenwich, so the unknown place would be located due east of Greenwich (0°). Therefore, the longitude of the unknown place would be (0° + 97° 30′)=97° or 97° 30′ E.

Question 11.
1. The captain of a ship notices that the local time at a port, where his ship has just reached, is showing 7:30 pm. But the Chronometer then shows the time 11:46 pm. What is the longitude of the port that the ship has reached?
2. How can the latitude be determined with reference to Hadley’s Octans? [2 \(\frac{1}{2}\) + 2 \(\frac{1}{2}\)]
Answer:
1. Determination of the longitude of the port:

The chronometer runs on the basis of the Greenwich time.
When the ship reached the port at 11:46 pm according to Greenwich time, the local time of the port was 7:30 pm
Therefore, the time difference between these two places would be (11:46 pm – 7:30 pm) i.e., (23 h 46 m-19 h 30 m)=4 h 16 m or 256 m.
Now, for every 4 m time difference, the longitudinal difference is 1°.
Therefore, for 256 m time difference the longitudinal difference will be 256 ÷ 4 = 64°.

So, the longitudinal difference between Greenwich and the port is 64°.
As it is known that the time of the port is behind that of Greenwich, so the port would be located due west of Greenwich (0°). Therefore, the longitude of the port would be (64° – 0°) = 64° or 64° W.

2. Determination of a latitude with reference to Hadley’s Octans: Hadley’s Octans is a constellation of stars in the southern sky that is noteworthy as marking the geographical South Pole. In ancient times, people used the Pole Star to determine north and Hadley’s Octans to determine south. The Hadley’s Octans is visible in the night sky from all places in the Southern Hemisphere but its altitude is not the same at all places. The altitude changes with varying latitudes. The altitude of the Hadley’s Octans near the equator is zero and thus equator is measured as 0° latitude. From the equator, if we move 111.3 km to the south, we reach the 1° S latitude and the altitude of Hadley’s Octans at 1° S is measured to be 1°. In the same sequence, the angle of elevation of the Hadley’s Octans is measured to be 90° or exactly vertical at the South Pole. Therefore, with reference to the angle of elevation of the Hadley’s Octans from the horizon of a place, the latitude of the place can be easily determined.

Question 12.
1. New York is located at 74° W. What would be the time at New York when it is 11 am at Greenwich? 2. Determine the difference in local time of a place and its antipodal point.
Answer:
1. Determination of the local time at New York:

Now, the longitude of Greenwich is 0°.

Therefore, the longitudinal difference between Greenwich and New York is(74°-0°)=74°.
Now, for 1° longitudinal difference, time difference is 4 m.
So, for 74° longitudinal difference, time difference will be 74 × 4 = 296 m or 4 h 56 m.
As New York is located due west of Greenwich, the local time of New York will be behind Greenwich time.
Therefore, while it is 11 am at Greenwich, the time at New York would be (11 h – 4 h 56 m) = 6 h 04 m or 6: 04 am.
2. Determination of the difference in local time of a place and its antipodal point: The antipode of a point is a point on the earth’s surface which is diametrically opposite to it. So, the longitudinal difference between these two places is always 180°.
We know, for 1° longitudinal difference, time difference is 4 m.
So, for 180° longitudinal difference, time difference will be 180 × 4 = 720 m or 12 h. Therefore, the difference in local time of a place and its antipodal point is 12 hours.

Question 13.
(1) When it is 6: 30 am in Chennai, the time at New York is 8: 13 pm of the previous day. What is the longitude of New York, if the longitude of Chennai is 80° 15′ E ? 2 While on a voyage, a captain of a ship notices at 1 pm that the time shown in the chronometer is 6:30 pm Which longitude is the ship passing through at that time? [2 \(\frac{1}{2}\) + 2 \(\frac{1}{2}\)]
Answer:
1. Determination of the longitude of New York:

When it is 6: 30 am in Chennai, the time in New York is 8: 13 pm of the previous day. Therefore, the difference in local time between Chennai and New York is (8:13 pm of previous day – 6: 30 am) or [(24 h-20 h 13 m) + 6 h 30 m] = 10 h 17 m or 617 m.
Now, for every 4 m time difference, the longitudinal time difference is 1°.
Therefore, for 617 m time difference, the longitudinal difference will be (617 ÷ 4) = 154° 15′.
So, the longitudinal difference between New York and Chennai is 154° 15′.
Now, since the local time of New York is behind the local time of Chennai, this implies that New York is located due west of Chennai.
Therefore, the longitude of New York is (154° 15′ – 80° 15′) = 74° or 74° W.

2. Determination of longitude of New York:

The chronometer runs on the basis of Greenwich time.
The time difference between Greenwich time and the unknown location of the ship is (6: 30 pm-1 pm) or (18 h 30 m-13 h) = 5 h 30 m or 330 m.
Now, for every 4 m time difference, the longitudinal difference is 1°.
Therefore, for 330 m time difference, the longitudinal difference will be 330 ÷ 4 = 82° 30′.
So, the longitudinal difference between Greenwich and the unknown location of the ship is 82° 30′.
As it is known that the time of the unknown location is behind that of Greenwich, so the unknown location would be located due west of Greenwich (0°). Therefore, the longitude of the unknown location would be (82° 30′-0°) = 82° or 82° 30′ W.

Question 14.
1. When the local time of Tripoli (13°. 12′ E) is 5 pm, the local time of an unknown city would be 7 am. What would be the longitude of this unknown city?
2. When the local time of Kolkata is 11:30 am., the local time of Tokyo is 2:51 pm. What would be the longitude of Tokyo? [2 \(\frac{1}{2}\) + 2 \(\frac{1}{2}\)]
Answer:
1. Determination of the longitude of the unknown city:

The difference in local time between Greenwich and the unknown city is(5 pm-7 am) i.e., (17 h-7 h) = 10 h or 600 m. Now, for every 4 m time difference, the longitudinal difference is 1°.
Therefore, for 600 m time difference, the longitudinal difference will be 600 ÷ 4 = 150°.
As per the question, the time of the unknown city is behind that of Tripoli, so the unknown city would be located due west of Tripoli (13° 12′ E). Therefore, the longitude of the unknown place would be (150°-13° 12′) = 136° 48′ or 136° 48′ W.

2. Determination of the longitude of Tokyo:

The difference in local time between Kolkata and Tokyo is-
(2 : 51pm – 11 : 30am) i.e., (14h 51m – 1h 30m) = 3h or 21m or 201m.
Now, for every 4 m time difference, the longitudinal difference is 1°
Therefore, for 201 m time difference, the longitudinal difference will be 201 ÷ 4 = 50° 15′.
As per the question, the time in Tokyo is ahead of Kolkata, so Tokyo would be located due east of Kolkata (88° 30′ E). Therefore, the longitude of Tokyo would be (88° 30’+ 50° 15′) = 138° 45′ or 138° 45′ E.

Question 15.
What would be the local time of Dhaka (90° E), when it is 6 am in Seoul (127° 06’E)?
Answer:
Both Seoul and Dhaka are located in the Eastern Hemisphere.

The longitudinal difference between Seoul and Dhaka is (127° 06′-90°) = 37° 06′.
So, the difference in time between Seoul and Dhaka would be-
If, for every 1° longitudinal difference, time difference experienced is 4 minutes.
Therefore, for 37° longitudinal difference, time difference will be (37 × 4) = 148 minutes or 2h 28 m.
Again, for every 1 ‘ longitudinal difference, time difference experienced is 4 seconds.
Therefore, for 6 ‘ longitudinal difference, time difference will be (6 × 4) = 24 seconds.
So, the total time difference between Seoul and Dhaka becomes (2 h 28m + 24 seconds) = 2h 28 m 24 seconds.

Since Dhaka is located due west of Seoul, so the local time of Dhaka would be behind the local time of Seoul. Therefore, when it is 6 am in Seoul, the local time of Dhaka would be (6 h-2 h 28 m 24 seconds) = 3 h 31 m 36 seconds or 3:31:36 am.

Question 16.
If one travels along the equator, the change in local time can be accurately measured. Whereas, if we travel along any other lines of longitude from the equator to the poles, the change of seasons can easily be identified. Explain. (2) An important news broadcast in radio from New York at 12 noon, is heard at 8 pm in a certain place. What would be the longitude of that place? [2 \(\frac{1}{2}\) + 2 \(\frac{1}{2}\)]
Answer:
1. Reasons for change in local time and season: The earth rotates around its axis once every 24 hours or 1 day. So if a traveller circumferences the entire globe along the equator, he has to cross all the lines of the longitude. It is known that, for every 1° longitudinal difference, time difference experienced is 4 minutes. Therefore, the traveller who travels along the equator experiences difference in time as he crosses each longitude.

On the other hand, as the earth is in the form of a sphere, the angle of incidence of the sun’s rays on the earth’s surface increases from the equator towards the poles and therefore the amount of heat received in a given area decreases in the same direction. The surface temperature is normally highest near the equator and lowest at the poles. Therefore, the traveller who travels along any line of longitude from the equator towards the poles experiences differences in season.

2. Determination of the longitude of the unknown place:

The important news broadcast in radio from New York at 12 noon, was heard at 8 pm in the unknown place.

So, the difference in local time between New York and the unknown place is ( 8 pm-12 noon) i.e., (20 h-12 h) = 8 h or 480 m.
Now, for every 4 m time difference, the longitudinal difference is 1°.
Therefore, for 480 m time difference, the longitudinal difference will be 480 ÷ 4=120°.
As per the question, the time of the unknown place is ahead of New York, so the unknown place would be located due east of New York (74° W). Therefore, the longitude of the unknown place would be (120°-74°)=46° or 46° E.

Question 17.
Greenwich Time Signal is received by a place at 4:32 pm G.M.T. time. What is the longitude of that place, if the time taken by the signal to reach that place from Greenwich is calculated to be 2 minutes?
Answer:
Determination of the longitude of the unknown place:

Greenwich Time Signal (2 minutes)

The Greenwich Time Signal from Greenwich at 12 noon, was heard at 4: 32 pm in the unknown place. The time taken by the time signal to reach that place from Greenwich is 2 minutes.
Therefore, the signal should have reached that place at (4 h 32 m-2 m) = 4h 30 m i.e., at 4:30 pm if the time lost in transmission is ignored.
So, the difference in local time between Greenwich and the unknown place is( 4: 30 pm-12 noon) i.e., (16 h 30 m-12 h) = 4 h 30 m or 270 m.
Now, for every 4 m time difference, the longitudinal difference is 1°.
Therefore, for 270 m time difference, the longitudinal difference will be 270 ÷ 4 = 67° 30′.
So, the longitudinal difference between Greenwich and the unknown place is 67° 30′.

As per the question, the time of the unknown place is ahead of Greenwich, so the unknown place would be located due east of Greenwich (0°). Therefore, the longitude of the unknown place would be (0°+ 67° 30′) = 67° 30′ or 67° 30′ E.

Question 18.
What would be the local time, day and date at Kolkata (88° 30′ E), while it is Wednesday 8:30 pm on December 31, 2014 at New York?
Answer:
Determination of the local time, day and date at Kolkata:

The longitudinal difference between New York and Kolkata is- (74° + 88° 30′) = 162° 30′.
Therefore, the difference in local time between New York and Kolkata would be-
Now, for 1° longitudinal difference time difference is 4 m.
So, for 162° longitudinal difference time difference will be 162 × 4 = 684 m.
Again, for every 1 ‘ longitudinal difference time difference experienced is 4 s.

Therefore, for 30′ longitudinal difference time difference will be (30 × 4)=120 s or 2 m.
So, the total time difference between New York and Kolkata becomes (648+2)=650 m or 10 h 50 m.
As Kolkata is located due east of New York, the local time of Kolkata will be ahead the New York time.
Therefore, while is Wednesday 8:30 pm on 31 December, 2014 at New York, the time at Kolkata would be (Wednesday 8:30 pm on 31 December, 2014 + 10 h 50m ) = Thursday 7:20 am on 1 January, 2015.

Question 19.
1. What would be the longitude of an unknown place that records 12 o’clock noon, while it is 4: 30 pm at Greenwich?
2. What would be the local time at Madrid (3° 42′ W), when it is 8 pm at Vienna (16° 20’ E) ? [2 \(\frac{1}{2}\) + 2 \(\frac{1}{2}\)]
Answer:
1. Determination of the longitude of the unknown place:

The difference in local time between Greenwich and the unknown place is( 4: 30 pm-12 noon) i.e., (16 h 30 m-12 h)= 4 h 30 m or 270 m.
Now, for every 4 m time difference the longitudinal difference is 1°.
Therefore, for 270 m time difference the longi- tudinal difference will be 270 ÷ 4=67° 30′.
So, the longitudinal difference between Greenwich and the unknown place is 67° 30′.
As per the question, the time of the unknown place is behind Greenwich, so the unknown place would be located due west of Greenwich (0°). Therefore, the longitude of the unknown place would be (67° 30′ – 0°)=67° 30′ or 67° 30′ W.

2. Determination of the local time at Madrid:

The longitudinal difference between Vienna and Madrid is-

(16° 20’+3° 42′) = 20° 02′.
Now, for 1° longitudinal difference time difference is 4 m.
So, for 20° longitudinal difference, time difference will be 20 × 4=80 m or 1 h 20 m.
Again, for every 1′ longitudinal difference, time difference experienced is 4 s.
Therefore, for 2′ longitudinal difference, time difference will be (2 × 4)= 8 s.
So, the total time difference between Vienna and Madrid becomes (1h 20 m+ 8 s)=1 h 20 m 8 s.
As Madrid is located due west of Vienna, the local time of Madrid will be behind Vienna time.
Therefore, while it is 8 pm at Vienna, the time at Madrid would be (20 h-1 h 20 m 8 s) =18 h 39 m 52 s or 6: 39: 52 pm.

Question 20
It takes 8 h by flight to reach London from Kolkata. At what time the flight would reach London, if it takes off for London at 8 pm on 31 December, 2014 as per I.S.T. time?
Answer:
Determination of the time and date when the flight will reach London:

The longitudinal difference between Kolkata and London is (82° 30′-0°)=82° 30′.
So, the difference in time between Kolkata and Greenwich would be-
If, for every 1° longitudinal difference, time difference experienced is 4 minutes.

Therefore, for 82° longitudinal difference, time difference will be (82 × 4) = 328 minutes.
Again, for every 1′ longitudinal difference, time difference experienced is 4 seconds.
Therefore, for 30′ longitudinal difference, time difference will be (30 × 4) = 120 seconds or 2 minutes.
So, the total time difference between London and Kolkata becomes (328 + 2) = 330 minutes or 5 h 30 m.
As London is located due west of Kolkata, the time at London would be behind Kolkata. Therefore, when it is 8 pm on 31 December, 2014 in Kolkata, the time at London would be (20 h-5 h 30 m) = 14: 30 hours or 2 : 30 pm same day and date.
Now, it takes 8 h by a flight to reach London from Kolkata.
So, the flight will reach at (14 h 30 m + 8 h) = 22 h 30 m or 10: 30 pm the same date and day i.e., December 31, 2014.

Question 21.
When it is 6:32 am in Chennai, the time at New York is 8: 15 pm the previous day. As Chennai is located at 80° 15′ E, where is New York located? (2) Why is the radio broadcast time difference between Kolkata (88° 30′ E) and Dhaka (89° E) 30 m even if the longitudinal difference between them is 30′ ? [2 \frac{1{2+2 \frac{1{2]
Answer :
1. Determination of the longitude of New York:

The local time of New York is 8: 15 pm and Chennai is 6:32 am at the same time.
So, the difference in local time between New York and Chennai is-
(Previous day 8:15 pm – 6:32 am) or [(24h20 h 15 m) + 6 h 32 m] = 10 h 17 m or 617 m.
Now, for every 4 m time difference, the longitudinal difference is 1°.

Therefore, for 617 m time difference, the longitudinal difference will be 617 ÷ 4 = 154° 15′.
As per the question, the time at New York is behind that of Chennai, so New York would be located due west of Chennai. Therefore, the longitude of New York would be (154°.15′ – 80° 15′) = 74° or 74° W.

2. Reasons for the difference in radio broadcast time between Kolkata and Dhaka: Longitudinal difference between Kolkata and Dhaka is 30′. Accordingly, the time difference between them should have been 2 m. But the difference in radio broadcast is 30 m. The reason behind this is, the time that the radio broadcast followed in Kolkata is according to the I.S.T. (82° 30′ E) and that in Dhaka is that of their standard meridian of 90° E.
The longitudinal difference between Kolkata and Dhaka is (90° – 82° 30′) = 7° 30′. So, the difference in time between Kolkata and Dhaka would be-
If, for every 1° longitudinal difference, time difference experienced is 4 minutes.
Therefore, for 7° longitudinal difference, time difference will be (7 × 4) = 28 m.
Again, for every 1 ‘ longitudinal difference, time difference experienced is 4 seconds. Therefore, for 30′ longitudinal difference, time difference will be (30 × 4) = 120 seconds or 2 minutes.
Therefore, the total time difference between London and Dhaka becomes (28 + 2) = 30 minutes.

Question 22.
Determine the antipodal point for Kolkata (22° 30′ N, 88° 30′ E). 2 What would be the day and date of the antipodal point of Kolkata, when it is Thursday, 1 March, 2012, 8 am? [2 + 3]
Answer :
1. The antipodal point of Kolkata: It is known that the longitudinal difference between a pair of antipodal points are always 180°. So, if longitude of Kolkata is 88° 30′ E, its antipode will be located at (180°-88° 30′) = 91° 30′ W.
The latitude of the antipode will also be located in the opposite hemisphere. The latitude of the antipode point of Kolkata would be 22° 30′ S.
Therefore, the antipodal point of Kolkata is located at 22° 30′ S, 91° 30’ W.

2. Determine the day, date and time of Kolkata’s antipodal point:
The time difference between a pair of antipodal points are always 12 h. So, if it is Thursday, March 1, 2012, 8 am in Kolkata, its antipode will have (Thursday, March 1, 2012, 8 am -12 h ) = Wednesday, 29 February, 2012, 8 pm. As 2012 is a leap year, February will have 29 days.

Question 23.
What do you mean by Daylight Saving Time or DST?
Answer:
I In the countries of the high latitudes, the difference between the duration of day and night is quite high with the changing seasons. For instance, in the Northern Hemisphere, at the 60° latitude, the length of daylight is 18 hours 27 minutes on the summer solstice day whereas on the winter solstice day it is 5 hours 33 minutes. Therefore, many countries started using Daylight Saving Time or DST to make better use of the natural daylight in the evenings and many use it to reduce the amount of energy needed for artificial lighting during the evening hours.

Though, Benjamin Franklin from the USA was the first to propose the DST concept in 1784, Germany was the first country to practically implement this practice in 1916. DST is now in use in over 70 countries. Today clocks are almost always set one hour back or ahead, but throughout history, there have been several variations. The beginning and end dates vary from one country to another. The European ‘Union adopted the ‘Summer Time’ period that was used in the United Kingdom for many years, where DST begins on the last Sunday in March and ends on the last Sunday in October.

Many countries in the Northern Hemispherelike the USA, Central America, Canada, all European nations, some Asian nations as well as some in northern Africa, observe DST. Similarly, many countries in the Southern Hemispherelike Australia, New Zealand, South America, southern Africa also observe DST. Daylight Saving Time is in use between March and April and ends between September and November as the countries return to Standard Time in the Northern Hemisphere and the reverse in Southern Hemisphere.

Well structured WBBSE 9 Geography MCQ Questions Chapter 9 Maps and Scales can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Maps and Scales Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
The concept of rectangular earth was proposed by-…………
A. Eratosthenes
B. Herodotus
C. Hecataeus
D. Ptolemy
Answer:
B. Herodotus

Question 2.
The number of regional maps shown in Ptolemy’s ‘Geographia’ are-…………
A. 20
B. 22
C. 26
D. 24
Answer:
C. 26

Question 3.
On the basis of scale, maps can be classified into-…………
A. 3 types
B. 4 types
C. 5 types
D. 6 types
Answer:
A. 3 types

Question 4.
Representative Fraction R.F.. of maps in an atlas is -…………
A. 1: 10000
B. 1: 200000
C. 1: 1000000
D. 1: 50000
Answer:
C. 1: 1000000

Question 5.
The R.F. of a cadastral map is -…………
A. 1: 3960
B. 1: 10000
C. 1: 1000
D. 1: 100000
Answer:
A. 1: 3960

Question 6.
The scale that can be used in any country of the world is- …………
A. linear scale
B. statement scale
C. fractional scale
D. diagonal scale
Answer:
C. fractional scale

Question 7.
1 mile is equal to- ………….
A. 63000 inches
B. 63360 inches
C. 63390 inches
D. 63500 inches
Answer:
B. 63360 inches

Question 8.
A magnetic compass always points to the-…………
A. north
B. south
C. east
D. west
Answer:
A. north

Question 9.
The R.F. of a map is 1: 10000. To make the new R.F. of the map 1: 5000, it should be enlarged by-…………
A. 2 times
B. 3 times
C. 4 times
D. 5 times
Answer:
C. 4 times

Question 10.
The word ‘map’ has been derived from the Latin word-…………
A. mapia
B. mappa
C. mappo
D. mapin
Answer:
B. mappa

Question 11.
Mappa is-…………
A. a piece of paper
B. a part of the world
C. a piece of cloth
D. a piece of land
Answer:
C. a piece of cloth

Question 12.
A map is a type of-…………
A. photograph
B. pattern
C coloured image
D. symbol
Answer:
B. pattern

Question 13.
A topic/theme based map is a-…………
A. natural map
B. qualitative map
C. wall map
D. natural vegetation map
Answer:
A. natural map

Question 14.
A political map is a-…………
A. scale oriented map
B. information oriented map
C. topic/theme based map
D. quantitative map
Answer:
C. topic/theme based map

Question 15.
The most useful map for geographers is the-…………
A. topographical map
B. cadastral map
C. political map
D. geotectonic map
Answer:
A. topographical map

Question 16.
The map used for collecting land revenue-…………
A. political map
B. map of police station
C. geotectonic map
D. cadastral map or ‘mauza’ map
Answer:
D. cadastral map or ‘mauza’ map

Question 17.
The weather map indicates-…………
A. cultivated land
B. minerals found underground
C. altitude of land
D. cloudiness
Answer:
D. cloudiness

Question 18.
The main advantage of a statement scale is that it is -…………
A. easy to draw
B. small in size
C. can be shown on a bigger scale
D. none of these
Answer:
A. easy to draw

Question 19.
Among the given options, the map that has a scale is the-…………
A. topographical map
B. cadastral map
C. globe
D. weather map
Answer:
D. weather map

Question 20.
Diagonal scale is a type of-…………
A. graphical scale
B. fractional scale
C. statement scale
D. linear scale
Answer:
A. graphical scale

Question 21.
The ratio of the distance between two points on a map and the actual ground distance between those two points is called-…………
A. statement scale
B. graphical scale
C. fractional scale
D. comparative scale
Answer:
C. fractional scale

Question 22.
The inventor of the vernier scale is-…………
A. John Vernier
B. Pierre Vernier
C. Lear Vernier
D. None of them
Answer:
B. Pierre Vernier

Question 23.
The signs and symbols used in maps are prevalent at the-…………
A. local level
B. state level
C. national level
D. international level
Answer:
D. international level

Question 24.
The headquarters of the Survey of India is in-…………
A. Mumbai
B. Pune
C. Dohradun
D. Delhi
Answer:
C. Dohradun

Question 25.
The globe is drawn on a-…………
A. small scale
B. large scale
C. medium scale
D. none of these
Answer:
A. small scale

Question 26.
The headquarters of NATMO is in-…………
A. Delhi
B. Kolkata
C. Dehradun
D. Ranchi
Answer:
B. Kolkata

Question 27.
The first book of maps was published by-…………
A. Mercator
B. Aryabhatta
C. Hecataeus
D. Herodotus
Answer:
A. Mercator

Question 28.
‘Mauza’ map is a type of-…………
A. cadastral map
B. topographical map
C. atlas
D. none of these
Answer:
A. cadastral map

Question 29.
The J.L. number is given in-…………
A. topographical map
B. cadastral map
C. atlas
D. none of these
Answer:
Answer:
B. cadastral map

Question 30.
The smallest administrative unit of revenue collection is-…………
A. village
B. town
C. block
D. ‘mauza’
Answer:
D. ‘mauza’

Question 31.
1 mile is equal to-…………
A. 1.6093 km
B. 0.1623 km
C. 1.9602 km
D. 1.3206 km
Answer:
A. 1.6093 km

Question 32.
I nautical mile is equal to-…………
A. 1.582 km
B. 1.852 km
C. 1.285 km
D. 1.962 km
Answer:
B. 1.852 km

Fill in the blanks

1. A ……….. map shows the relief.
Answer: physical

2. ‘Mauza’ map is a ………. scale map.
Answer: large

3. The mountains are represented by …………. colour on a map.
Answer: brown

4. A map shows the location of a country or state.
Answer: political

5. A wall map is an example of a scale map.
Answer: small

6. The diametrically opposite direction of south east is ………….
Answer: northwest

7. Weather map is a type of ………… map.
Answer: subjective

8. The word ‘map’ has been derived from the Latin word …………
Answer: mappa

9. The ………… side of any location can be determined from the sunrise observed at that place.
Answer: eastern

10. A map is an important component of …………
Answer: geography

11. The length of 1 secondary division is ………… than a primary division on a linear scale.
Answer: less

12. The ………… scale is used predominantly in maps.
Answer:  linear

13. The distribution of crops in India is an example of a ………… map.
Answer: economic

14. The oldest map of the world was drawn on ………….
Answer: mudstone

15. The relationship of the ratio of the scale of a map with the reduction and enlargement of a map is ………….
Answer: inverse

16. Map is a type of ………….
Answer: pattern

17. The symbols used in maps are ………… accepted.
Answer: internationally

18. An international map is a type of ………… map.
Answer: small scale

19. Defence map is a type of ………… map.
Answer: cultural

20. A map indicating isohyet is a ………… map.
Answer: quantitative map

21. The ………… publishes the topographical map of India.
Answer: Survey of India

22. In a topographical map, the three main natural aspects are-relief, natural vegetation and ………….
Answer: rivers

23. The main cultural aspects of a topographical map are transport, communication and ………….
Answer: settlements

24. The ‘dag’ numbers of individual plots are marked on a …………. map.
Answer: cadastral

25. The scale drawn for a village cadastral map is 16 inches to …………
Answer: 1 mile

26. The ………… map shows the boundary and capital of a country.
Answer: political

27. The rock types of any area can be shown by a ………… map.
Answer: geological

28. A ………… map is used for obtaining information on rainfall and temperature.
Answer: weather map

29. A ………… map is vital for defence purposes.
Answer: topographical

30. A scale is drawn to show ………… the between map distance and actual ground distance.
Answer: ratio

31. In a ………… scale, a part of a fraction can also be measured accurately.
Answer: vernier

32. Based on general characteristics, maps can be divided into ………… types.
Answer: three

33. A political map is a type of ………… map.
Answer: subjective

34. In a topographical map, the contour lines are shown is ………… colour.
Answer: brown

35. A map showing isobars is a type of ………… map.
Answer: informative

36. The ………… are shown in green on a map.
Answer: forests

37. A ………… map shows telephone lines.
Answer: topographical

38. A topographical map shows the relation between physical and ………… features.
Answer: cultural

39. ………… maps are used for collecting revenues and taxes.
Answer: Cadastral

40. The fractional scale is a ………… scale.
Answer: unitless

41. The small divisions of a graphical scale are called …………
Answer: primary divisions

42. Air pressure is measured by a ………….
Answer: barometer

43. In a cadastral map, the general scale is ………… inches to 1 mile.
Answer: 16

44. Maps which are depicted in a small form are called ………… maps.
Answer: reduced

45. A globe is a smaller ………… of the earth.
Answer: model

State True or False

1. A globe is a small model of the earth.
Answer: True

2. The ‘N’ indicates north in the map.
Answer: True

3. White colour is used to indicate water on a map.
Answer: False

4. Projection is important in drawing maps.
Answer: True

5. The statement scale is of no use if a map is enlarged or reduced in size.
Answer: True

6. There is no unit in a fractional scale.
Answer: True

7. The vernier constant is measured in a diagonal scale.
Answer: False

8. The R.F. 1: 50000 in a map means that 1cm on the map is equal to 500m on the actual ground surface.
Answer: True

9. It is possible to show the spherical shape of the earth on a map.
Answer: False

10. 1 inch is equal to 2.54cm.
Answer: True

11. The primary division of a linear scale always refers to the summation of secondary divisions.
Answer: True

12. The ratio of scale increases when a map is enlarged.
Answer: False

13. The ratio of scale increases when a map is reduced.
Answer: True

14. Internationally accepted symbols are used in maps.
Answer: True

15. A map is a diagram where lines have been drawn arbitrarily.
Answer: False

16. Maps only depict mountains, rivers, hills, towns and ports.
Answer: False

17. An economic map is a subjective map.
Answer: True

18. An isohyet map is an informative or thematic map.
Answer: True

19. Railways, bridges, ferries are shown on a geological map.
Answer: False

20. Spotheights and benchmarks are shown on cadastral maps.
Answer: False

21. A political map is most useful when a small part of a village or town has to be identified.
Answer: False

Match the columns

Question 1.

Column I	Column II
1. Wall map	A. Medium scale
2. Cadastral map	B. Small scale
3. Topographical map	C. Large scale

Answer:
1-B , 2-C , 3-A

Question 2.

Answer:
1-C, 2-A , 3-B

Question 3.

Column I	Column II
1. Herodotus	A. Founder of Vernier scale
2. Mercator	B. Concept of rectangular earth
3. Pierre Vernier	C. Published the first book of maps

Answer:
1-B, 2-C, 3-A

Question 4.

Column I	Column II
1. Hill, mountain	A. Soil map
2. Types of soil	B. Weather map
3. Nature of weather	C. Relief map

Answer:
1-C, 2-A, 3-B

Question 5.

Column I	Column II
1. Forest	A. Blue
2. Waterway	B. Yellow
3. Agricultural land	C. Green

Answer:
1-C , 2-A , 3-B

Crossword

Clues:
Down:
1. A scale that is most widely used.
2. An instrument that is used to determine direction.
Across:
3. The science of drawing maps.
4. ‘Map’ has been derived from this Latin word.
5. This region is denoted by greer colour on maps.
Answer:
Down:
1. LINEAR
2. COMPASS
Across:
3. CARTOGRAPHY
4. MAPPA
5. FORESTS

Clues:
Down:
1. Line on a map that shows points of equal gradient.
2. The instrument that shows the vernier scale.
Across:
3. The first person to measure the circumference of the spherical earth.
4. Map drawn on the basis of natural and cultural elements.
5. ‘N’ symbol points to this direction on the map.
Answer:
Down:
1. ISOCLINE
2. BAROMETER
Across:
3. ERATOSTHENES
4. THEMATIC
5. NORTH

 

Well structured WBBSE 9 Geography MCQ Questions Chapter 8 West Bengal can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

West Bengal Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
The highest peak of West Bengal, Sandakphu, is located at an altitude of……………….
A. 3543m
B. 3596m
C. 3636m
D. 3700m
Answer:
C. 3636m

Question 2.
Another peak of Singalila range is ……………….
A. Phalut
B. Tiger Hill
C. Chitrakoot
D. Doddabetta
Answer:
A. Phalut

Question 3.
A famous hill in the plateau region of West Bengal is……………….
A. Raj Mahal
B. Dowhill
C. Baghmundi
D. Chitrakoot
Answer:
A. Raj Mahal

Question 4.
An important river that flows through the Rarh region is……………….
A. Matla
B. Teesta
C. Damodar
D. Churni
Answer:
C. Damodar

Question 5.
A snowfed river of West Bengal is……………….
A. Ganges
B. Saptamukhi
C. Ajay
D. Kangsabati
Answer:
A. Ganges

Question 6.
The region receiving the heaviest rainfall in West Bengal is……………….
A. coastal area of Digha
B. northern mountainous region
C. western plateau region
D. Sundarbans region
Answer:
B. northern mountainous region

Question 7.
The most urbanised district of West Bengal is ……………….
A. Howrah
B. Bankura
C. Kolkata
D. Burdwan
Answer:
C. Kolkata

Question 8.
Number of districts in West Bengal is……………….
A. 17
B. 18
C. 19
D. 20
Answer:
D. 20

Question 9.
The source of river Barakar is ……………….
A. Ganga
B. Mahanadi
C. Damodar
D. Teesta
Answer:
C. Damodar

Question 10.
The most developed industry of Salt Lake is that of……………….
A. iron and Steel
B. information and technology
C. jute
D. cotton and textile
Answer:
B. information and technology

Question 11.
The dairy industry in West Bengal has developed in……………….
A. Raichak
B. Haldia
C. Kakdwip
D. Dankuni
Answer:
D. Dankuni

Question 12.
‘Adra’ of Purulia district is a……………….
A. fishing centre
B. district headquarters
C. healthy place
D. rail junction
Answer:
D. rail junction

Question 13.
The state which shares the longest border with West Bengal is……………….
A. Bihar
B. Jharkhand
C. Odisha
D. Assam
Answer:
B. Jharkhand

Question 14.
Largest river of North Bengal is……………….
A. Teesta
B. Torsa
C. Balasan
D. Jaldhaka
Answer:
A. Teesta

Question 15.
Mama Bhagne hill is in……………….
A. Bankura district
B. Birbhum district
C. Jalpaiguri district
D. Darjeeling district
Answer:
B. Birbhum district

Question 16.
A tributary of Jaldhaka river is ……………….
A. Rili
B. Sevok
C. Diana
D. Balasan
Answer:
C. Diana

Question 17.
A tidal river is ……………….
A. Torsa
B. Ajay
C. Gosaba
D. Jalangi
Answer:
C. Gosaba

Question 18.
The coldest district of West Bengal is ……………….
A. Cooch Behar
B. Darjeeling
C. Purulia
D. Nadia
Answer:
B. Darjeeling

Question 19.
The latitude that extends over Krishnanagar of Nadia district is ……………….
A. 0° latitude
B. 23 1/2° N latitude
C. 23 1/2° S latitude
D. 30° N latitude
Answer:
B. 23° N latitude

Question 20.
District town of East Midnapore is ……………….
A. Digha
B. Kanthi
C. Tamluk
D. Ghatal
Answer:
C. Tamluk

Question 21.
Fishing port has developed in……………….
A. Shankarpur
B. Krishnanagar
C. Durgapur
D. Islampur
Answer:
A. Shankarpur

Question 22.
Iron and steel industry has developed in……………….
A. Kharagpur
B. Kakdwip
C. Durgapur
D. Islampur
Answer:
C. Durgapur

Question 23.
Among the following, the type of soil suitable for agriculture is………………..
A. laterite
B. silt
C. coastal
D. mountainous
Answer:
B. silt

Question 24.
An example of a tidal river is……………….
A. Mathabhanga
B. Torsa
C. Rangit
D. Dwarkeshwar
Answer:
A. Mathabhanga

Question 25.
The main agricultural product of Darjeeling is……………….
A. jute
B. tea
C. coffee
D. paddy
Answer:
B. tea

Question 26.
Food Processing Research Centre is located at……………….
A. Barasat
B. Naihati
C. Panagarh
C. Asansol
Answer:
A. Barasat

Question 27.
Dry deciduous forest is seen in the……………….
A. mountainous regions
B. plateau regions
C. plain regions
D. delta region
Answer:
B. plateau regions

Question 28.
Santiniketan is situated in……………….
A. Burdwan
B. Nadia
C. Howrah
D. Birbhum
Answer:
D. Birbhum

Question 29.
An example of ‘Land’ port is……………….
A. Haldia
B. Kolkata
C. Berhampur
D. Petrapole
Answer:
D. Petrapole

Question 30.
A state to the north of West Bengal is……………….
A. Sikkim
B. Tripura
C. Bihar
D. Odisha
Answer:
A. Sikkim

Question 31.
The state of West Bengal was formed in……………….
A. 1951
B. 1947
C. 1949
D. 1956
Answer:
B. 1947

Question 32.
Western part of the newly formed landmass of Mahananda river of Malda district is ……………….
A. Diara
B. Barendrabhumi
C. Tal
D. Dooars
Answer:
A. Diara

Question 33.
The number of bordering states of West Bengal are……………….
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer:
B. 3

Question 34.
Chandannagar was added to West Bengal in……………….
A. 1956
B. 1968
C. 1952
D. 1954
Answer:
D. 1954

Question 35.
Cooch Behar became a part of West Bengal in……………….
A. 1950
B. 1952
C. 1954
D. 1947
Answer:
A. 1950

Question 36.
The southwestern state of West Bengal is……………….
A. Bihar
B. Arunachal Pradesh
C. Odisha
D. Jharkhand
Answer:
C. Odisha

Question 37.
The latitude which forms the northern limit of West Bengal is ……………….
A. 28° 02′N
B. 21° 30′N
C. 27° 10′N
D. 20° 30′N
Answer:
C. 27° 10‘N

Question 38.
The latitude which forms the southern limit of West Bengal is……………….
A. 21° 38′ N
B. 21° 22′ N
C. 27° 10′ N
D. 27° 05′N
Answer:
A. 21° 38‘N

Question 39.
The highest peak of Purulia is……………….
A. Ayodhya Hill
B. Susunia Hill
C. Mama Bhagne Hill
D. Mt. Maniratna
Answer:
A. Ayodhya Hill

Question 40.
An example of a perennial river is……………….
A. Rupnarayan
B. Ichhamati
C. Teesta
D. Subarnarekha
Answer:
C. Teesta

Question 41.
Plants with round leaves are found in……………….
A. Purulia
B. Jalpaiguri
C. Malda
D. Sundarbans
Answer:
D. Sundarbans

Question 42.
Which one of the following is not a high yielding variety of paddy seed……………….
A. Chaitali
B. Jaya
C. Ratna
D. Padma
Answer:
A. Chaitali

Question 43.
This river flows through the West BengalAssam boundary……………….
A. Raidak
B. Sankosh
C. Kaljani
D. Teesta
Answer:
B. Sankosh

Question 44.
The number of districts as per division of Presidency in West Bengal is……………….
A. 7
B. 9
C. 8
D. 6
Answer:
D. 6

Question 45.
The main city in the district of East Midnapore is……………….
A. Alipurduar
B. Cooch Behar
C. Tamluk
D. Midnapore
Answer:
C. Tamluk

Question 46.
Biharinath hill is situated in……………….
A. Bankura district
B. Birbhum district
C. Malda district
C. Hooghly district
Answer:
A. Bankura district

Question 47.
A river of the Sundarbans region is ……………….
A. Teesta
B. Matla
C. Damodar
D. Ajay
Answer:
B. Matla

Question 48.
Soil type of the mountainous region is suitable for growing……………….
A. jamun
B. jack fruit
C. custard apple
D. orange
Answer:
D. orange

Question 49.
Plassey is situated in……………….
A. Murshidabad
B. Bankura
C. Howrah
D. Hooghly
Answer:
A. Murshidabad

Question 50.
The east-west stretch of West Bengal is……………….
A. 650km
B. 325km
C. 395km
D. 610km
Answer:
B. 325km

Question 51.
Coffee is a……………….
A. plantation crop
B. fibre crop
C. food crop
D. none of these
Answer:
D. Bishnupur

Question 52.
Dolls and statues made of burnt clay is world famous from the region of……………….
A. Ghatal
B. Chandipur
C. Shantipur
D. Bishnupur
Answer:
D. Bishnupur

Question 53.
In jute production, West Bengal ranks……………….
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th
Answer:
A. 1st

Question 54.
The process of collection of data, hardware and software related activities form the……………….
A. tourism industry
B. tant industry
C. information technology industry
D. food processing industry
Answer:
C. information technology industry

Question 55.
Tarapith is a……………….
A. historical place
B. seaside resort
C. religions place
D. commercial centre
Answer:
C. religions place

Question 56.
An example of a metropolitan city is……………….
A. Berhampore
B. Balurghat
C. Darjeeling
D. Kolkata
Answer:
D. Kolkata

Question 57.
The factor which has an impact on human body and mind is……………….
A. ebb and tide
B. change of seasons
C. daily apparent speed of the earth’s rotation with respect to the sun
D. change in duration of day and night
Answer:
B. change of seasons

Question 58.
‘Chhau’ dance is famous in……………….
A. Purulia
B. Bankura
C. Howrah
D. Birbhum
Answer:
A. Purulia

Question 59.
The Royal Bengal Tiger is seen in……………….
A. Bishnupur
B. Sundarbans
C. Bakkhali
D. Jaldapara
Answer:
B. Sundarbans

Question 60.
Rainfall in West Bengal is caused by the……………….
A. southwest monsoon winds
B. southeast monsoon winds
C. northwest monsoon winds
D. northeast monsoon winds
Answer:
A. southwest monsoon winds

Fill in the blanks

1. West Bengal was founded on ………….
Answer: 15 th August, 1947

2. The …………. mountain divides Nepal from Darjeeling.
Answer: Shingalila

3. …………. river flows through the KanthiDigha coastal area.
Answer: Rasulpur

4. The highest peak of the Ayodhya hill is ………….
Answer: Gorgaburu

5. The word ‘Terai’ means ………….
Answer: marshy land

6. Siliguri is known as the …………. of India.
Answer: northeast gateway

7. The word ‘Rarh’ …………. means in Santhali.
Answer: dry rocky land

8. A tributary of the Ganga river which enters into Bangladesh is ………….
Answer: Padma

9. The ‘Ashwin’ storm occurs in West Bengal during the …………. season.
Answer: autumn

10. The driest district of West Bengal is ………….
Answer: Purulia

11. Extensive occurrence of …………. trees has led to the etymology of ‘Sundarban’.
Answer: mangrove

12. …………. district is known as the ‘Rice bowl’ of West Bengal.
Answer: Burdwan

13. …………. district is the ‘Crown’ of West Bengal.
Answer: Darjeeling

14. Hot springs are found in Bakreshwar in …………. district of West Bengal.
Answer: Birbhum

15. …………. is called the ‘Ruhr of India’.
Answer: Durgapur

16. Apart from Kolkata, is an important port of West Bengal.
Answer: Haldia

17. …………. is called the ‘City of Palaces’.
Answer: Kolkata

18. The newly formed Island in South Sundarbans is ……………….
Answer: Purbasha or New Moore

19. The duration of in West Bengal is from March to May.
Answer: summer

20. Rivers of North Bengal are ………….
Answer: snowfed

21. The ………. mountain range lies to the north of West Bengal.
Answer: Himalaya

22. As per census report the population of West Bengal is ………….
Answer: 91,347,736

23. The population density of West Bengal is ………….
Answer:  1029 persons/sq km

24. The northern rivers, being swift flowing, facilitate …………. generation.
Answer: Hydroelectric

25. …………. river is called ‘sorrow of West Bengal’.
Answer: Damodar

26. …………. wind blowing from the Bay of Bengal causes rainfall all over West Bengal.
Answer: Monsoon

27. The largest quantity of coal resources are found in ………….
Answer: Raniganj

28. Hazarduari is situated in ………….district
Answer: Murshidabad

29. Teesta river causes ………….floods.
Answer: destructive

30. Damodar river converges with the ………….river.
Answer: Hooghly

31. The rivers of the plateau region are ………….
Answer: rainfed

32. A right bank tributary of the Teesta river is ………….
Answer: Rangit

33. …………. electricity centre has developed along the channel of the Jaldhaka river.
Answer: Hydro

34. Matla is a …………. river.
Answer: tidal

35. The Teesta river originated from the …………. glacier of Sikkim.
Answer: Jemu

36. Stilted roots and pneumotophores are found …………. in forests.
Answer: mangrove

37. A hot spring is located in …………. of Birbhum.
Answer: Bakreshwar

38. …………. is an alpine tree.
Answer: Rhododendron

39. The biggest city of the Ganga delta region is ………….
Answer: Kolkata

40. A tourist spot in West Bengal …………. is Hill.
Answer: Tiger

41. Burdwan sector of West Bengal has …………. districts
Answer: 7

42. …………. seasons are mainly observed in West Bengal.
Answer: 4

State True or False

1. A mountain pass known as Buxaduar is situated on the northern mountainous regions of Jalpaiguri district.
Answer: True

2. Susunia is the highest mountain in the plateau region of West Bengal.
Answer: False

3. The ancient silt-laden region of South Dinajpur and Malda district is called ‘Barendrabhumi’.
Answer: True

4. The northern part of the Ganga delta is called Mature Delta.
Answer: False

5. Teesta is a rainfed river of West Bengal.
Answer: False

6. The origin of the damodar river is Jemu Glacier of the eastern Himalayas.
Answer: False

7. Rainfall in West Bengal occurs due to southwest monsoon winds.
Answer: True

8. Rainy season prevails in West Bengal from June to September.
Answer: True

9. The driest district of West Bengal is Bankura.
Answer: False

10. The highest railway station of India is Ghoom.
Answer: True

11. Pedong is a small town near Kalimpong.
Answer: True

12. The plateau region of West Bengal is made of granite and gneiss rocks.
Answer: True

13. The rivers of the Sundarbans are swift flowing.
Answer: False

14. The local name of Kangsabati is ‘Kansai’.
Answer: True

15. West Bengal experiences cold temperate type of climate.
Answer: False

16. Summers are dry and winters are humid/ wet in West Bengal.
Answer: False

17. Bangladesh lies to the west of West Bengal.
Answer: False

18. A historical tourist spot in West Bengal is Hazarduari.
Answer: True

19. Rajarhat-Newtown is an information technology hub in Kolkata.
Answer: True

20. An irrigation canal of West Bengal is Kangsabati dam.
Answer: True

21. The storms that occur during autumn in West Bengal are called ‘Aswin’ storm.
Answer: True

22. Being at a higher altitude Darjeeling has a moderate type of climate.
Answer: False

23. The origin of Jaldhaka river is Bitang Lake.
Answer: True

24. The main commercial crop of West Bengal is potato.
Answer: False

25. Haldia is an important industrial zone of West Bengal.
Answer: True

26. Darjeeling is a hill station.
Answer: True

27. The highest peak of Darjeeling district is Gorgaburu.
Answer: False

28. The laterite soil is found in the Rarh region.
Answer: True

29. ‘Terai’ means dry rocky land.
Answer: False

30. Laterite soil is ideal for cultivation.
Answer: False

31. Pneumatophores are found in ‘Sundari’ trees.
Answer: True

32. Purulia district of West Bengal is a plateau area.
Answer: True

33. Haryana is a neighbouring state of West Bengal.
Answer: False

34. The Jalpaiguri sector of West Bengal has 7 districts.
Answer: True

35. The head quarters of Murshidabad district is Chinsura.
Answer: False

36. In the northern part of West Bengal, Bihar is one of the most important neighbouring states.
Answer: False

37. Rivulets known as ‘khanris’ are seen along with the rivers of the Sundarbans region.
Answer: True

38. West Bengal’s topography can be classified into 3 physical divisions.
Answer: True

39. Hooghly is a tributary of Kangsabati.
Answer: False

40. The saline soil of Sundarbans is alkaline in nature.
Answer: True

41. Siliguri is called the ‘Iron and Steel City’.
Answer: False

42. West Bengal is called the ‘Land of Rivers’.
Answer: True

43. Kolkata and Howrah are called twin cities.
Answer: True

44. Brahmani river is called the ‘Sorrow of Midnapore’.
Answer: False

45. Tea is a cash crop.
Answer: True

46. The crops which are cultivated for earning money, are called cash crops.
Answer: True

47. Sajnekhali is a spectacular spot in the Sundarbans.
Answer: True

48. Berhampore is called the ‘City of Palaces’.
Answer: False

49. Jute is the main agricultural crop of the Rarh region.
Answer: False

50. West Bengal has 19 districts at present.
Answer: False

Match the columns

Column I	Column II
1. Rivers of North Bengal	A. Matla
2. Rivers of the plateau region	B. Teesta
3. Rivers of the plain region	C. Ajay
4. Sundarbans	D. Ichhamati

Answer:
1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A

Column I	Column II
1. Extremely Hot	A. Darjeeling
2. Extremely Cold	B. Purulia
3. Extremely Dry	C. Buxaduar
4. Extremely Humid	D. Asansoi

Answer:
1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C

Column I	Column II
1. Iron and Steel	A. Budge Budge
2. Tea	B. Durgapur
3. Jute	C. Rajarhat
4. Information and Technology	D. Alipurduar

Answer:
1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C

Column I	Column II
1. Cotton-Textile Industrial Centre	A. Sea beach of Digha
2. Jute industrial centre	B. Shankarpur
3. Tourism centre	C. Ghusuri in Howrah district
4. Food-processing centre	D. Rishra in Hooghly district

Answer:
1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B

Column I	Column II
1.  Glasgow of India	A.  Durgapur
2. Ruhr of India	B. Siliguri
3. Capital of West Bengal	C. Howrah
4. Gateway to Northeast India	D. Kolkata

Answer:
1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

Answer:
1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C

Crossword

Question 1.

Clues:
Down:
1. The coldest district in West Bengal.
2. The mountain range that separates Darjeeling from Nepal.
4. A neighbouring country of West Bengal.
Across:
3. The delta region of the Ganga river.
5. A famous sea beach in West Bengal.
6. The most sacred river flowing through India.
Answer:
Down:
1. DARJEELING
2. SINGALILA
4. NEPAL
Across:
3. SUNDARBANS
5. DIGHA
6. GANGA

Question 2.

Clues:
Down:
1. Sundarbans have been named after this tree.
2. The capital of West Bengal. Across:
3. This city is called ‘Glasgow of India’.
4. A tributary of the Bhagirathi.
5. The foothills of the Himalayas.
6. A river of the Sundarbans region.
Answer:
Down:
1. SUNDARI
2. KOLKATA
Across:
3. HOWRAH
4. MAYURAKSHI
5. TERAI
6. MATLA

Question 3.

Clues:
Down:
1. An associate port of Kolkata.
3. This names means ‘duar’ or ‘door’.
Across:
2. ‘Commercial hub’ of north Bengal.
4. The highest railway station of India.
5. The newly formed district of West Bengal.
Answer:
Down:
1. HALDIA
3. DOOARS
Across:
2. SILIGURI
4. GHOOM
5. ALIPURDUAR

Well structured WBBSE 9 Geography MCQ Questions Chapter 7 Resources of India can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Resources of India Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following centres is famous for extraction of iron ore?
A. Bonai
B. Jharia
C. Jamshedpur
D. Kolaghat
Answer:
A. Bonai

Question 2.
A Low grade coal is………………..
A. siderite
B. limonite
C. lignite
D. bituminous
Answer:
C. lignite

Question 3.
A coalfield located in the Mahanadi valley………………..
A. Talcher
B. Bokaro
C. Raniganj
D. Thane
Answer:
A. Talcher

Question 4.
An important oil………………..producing centre in Assam………………..
A. Noonamati
B. Naharkatiya
C. Trombay
D. Lunej
Answer:
B. Naharkatiya

Question 5.
An important thermal power station in east India………………..
A. Maithon
B. Hirakud
C. Farakka
D. Nellore
Answer:
C. Farakka

Question 6.
The biggest coal mining area is………………..
A. Raniganj
B. Jharia
C. Singareni
D. Badampahar
Answer:
B. Jharia

Question 7.
An important thermal power station in South India………………..
8. Mettur
B. Periyar
C. Neyveli
D. Santaldih
Answer:
C. Neyveli

Question 8.
A nuclear power station in Rajasthan is
A. Trombay
B. Tarapur
C. Kota
D. Rudrasgar
Answer:
C. Kota

Question 9.
The largest oil refinery in India………………..
A. Koyali
B. Digboi
C. Haldia
D. Thane
Answer:
A. Koyali

Question 10.
The best quality iron………………..ore is………………..
A. magnetite
B. hematite
C. limonite
D. siderite
Answer:
A. magnetite

Question 11.
The first nuclear power station India………………..
A. Trombay
B. Kalpakkam
C. Tarapur
D. Sholapur
Answer:
C. Tarapur

Question 12.
A source of alternate energy is ………………..
A. swift………………..flowing river
B. solar power
C. coal
D. petroleum
Answer:
B. solar power

Question 13.
An example of fossil fuel………………..
A. coal
B. iron
C. copper
D. thorium
Answer:
A. coal

Question 14.
ONGC was established in………………..
A. 1953
B. 1956
C. 1965
D. 1976
Answer:
B. 1956

Question 15.
The oldest oil producing centre in India is located in………………..
A. Digboi
B. Bombay High
C. Ankleshwar
D. Trombay
Answer:
A. Digboi

Question 16.
A geothermal centre in India has come up in………………..
A. Vizhinjam
B. Manikaran
C. Jalkheri
D. Chikmagalur
Answer:
B. Manikaran

Question 17.
A renewable resource is………………..
A. wind
B. petroleum
C. iron
D. coal
Answer:
A. wind

Question 18.
A non………………..renewable resource is………………..
A. sunlight
B. gold
C. wind
D. geothermal power
Answer:
B. gold

Question 19.
A valuable cultural resource is………………..
A. education
B. population
C. water
D. land
Answer:
A. education

Question 20.
An example of an international resource is………………..
A. school
B. water
C. land
D. ozone layer
Answer:
D. ozone layer

Question 21.
A by………………..product of coal is………………..
A. paraffin
B. coal tar
C. diesel
D. plastic
Answer:
B. coal tar

Question 22.
Best quality coal in India is found in………………..
A. Mahanadi valley
B. Godavari valley
C. Damodar valley
D. Son vally
Answer:
C. Damodar valley

Question 23.
The richest zone of Monazite in India is………………..
A. Malabar Coast
B. Konkan Coast
C. Coromandel Coast
D. Northern Circars Coast
Answer:
A. Malabar Coast

Question 24.
One of the following states of India that has centre for wind………………..power production is ………………..
A. Bihar
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
B. Tamil Nadu

Question 25.
The Shivasamudram Hydroelectric power centre has developed on………………..
A. Mahanadi
B. Godavari
C. Narmada
D. Kaveri
Answer:
D. Kaveri

Question 26.
Forest is an…………………
A. cultural resource
B. natural resource
C. human resource
D. abiotic resource
Answer:
B. natural resource

Question 27.
Education is an…………………
A. intangible resource
B. tangible resource
C. human resource
D. biotic/biological resource
Answer:
A. intangible resource

Question 28.
Sea………………..fish is a………………..
A. permanent resource
B. renewable resource
C. cultural resource
D. human resource
Answer:
B. renewable resource

Question 29.
A social resource is………………..
A. wind
B. knowledge
C. health
D. educational institution
Answer:
D. educational institution

Question 30.
The most important mineral resource of India is………………..
A. iron ore
B. mica
C. coal
D. petroleum
Answer:
C. coal

Question 31.
Iron ore is found in Badampahar which is located in the state of………………..
A. Goa
B. Karnataka
C. Odisha
D. Jharkhand
Answer:
C. Odisha

Question 32.
The greatest use of coal is found in………………..
A. running of trains
B. iron and steel industry
C. production of thermal power
D. melting of metals
Answer:
C. production of thermal power

Question 33.
The first coal mine discovered in India is ………………..
A. Kerala
B. Barakar
C. Talcher
D. Raniganj
Answer:
D. Raniganj

Question 34.
Iron ore of the highest grade/ quality, found in India, is
A. magnetite
B. siderite
C. haematite
D. limonite
Answer:
C. haematite

Question 35.
The state which was the pioneer in extracting/producing coal is………………..
A. Bihar
B. Jharkhand
C. Chattisgarh
D. Odisha
Answer:
B. Jharkhand

Question 36.
Coal belonging to which of the following geological age is mostly found in India………………..
A. Tertiary
B. Carboniferous
C. Gondwana
D. Jurassic
Answer:
C. Gondwana

Question 37.
A nuclear power producing centre in Maharashtra is………………..
A. Tarapur
B. Kaiga
C. Kokrajhar
D. Narora
Answer:
A. Tarapur

Question 38.
The topmost state in producing solar energy is ………………..
A. West Bengal
B. Gujarat
C. Rajasthan
D. Kerala
Answer:
B. Gujarat

Question 39.
A resource which is found universally is ………………..
A. wind
B. mineral resource
C. culture
D. school
Answer:
B. mineral resource

Question 40.
Coke is produced from………………..
A. bituminous coal
B. lignite
C. anthracite coal
D. peat
Answer:
A. bituminous coal

Question 41.
The best coal mine in West Bengal is………………..
B. Jamuria
B. Raniganj
C. Andal
D. Jayanti
Answer:
B. Raniganj

Question 42.
The largest petroleum producing region in India is………………..
A. coastal region of Gujarat
B. deep sea off the western coast
C. deep sea off the Eastern coast
D. Brahmaputra valley region
Answer:
B. deep sea off the western coast

Question 43.
In terms of cattle population, India ranks………………..
A. first
B. second
C. third
D. four
Answer:
A. first

Question 44.
In terms of Inland fisheries production wise., India ranks………………..
A. first
B. second
C. third
D. fourth
Answer:
B. second

Fill in the blanks

1. Coal is called ……………….
Answer: black diamond

2. The main lignite mine in South India is ……………….
Answer: Neyveli

3. ………………. is called liquid gold.
Answer: Petroleum

4. Bandel in West Bengal is a ………………. producing centre.
Answer: thermal power

5. Most of the iron ore of India is of ………………. variety.
Answer: haematite

6. The source of all energy in the world is the……………….
Answer: sun

7. The primary stage coal of is ……………….
Answer: peat

8. Lignite coal is also known as ……………….
Answer: brown

9. Saccharine is a ………………. of coal.
Answer: by-product

10. Uranium is the raw material ………………. of energy.
Answer: nuclear

11. Hydroelectric power is also known as ………………. coal.
Answer: white

12. ………………. is derived at the last stage of converting coal.
Answer: Graphite

13. A substance or matter which has functionality and is called a resource.
Answer: utility

14. After the discovering of a new resource the utility of an older resource is ……………….
Answer: reduced

15. A resource may be both ………………. or intangible.
Answer: tangible

16. About ………………. per cent of the coal in India belongs to the Gondwana age.
Answer: 99

17. The oldest coal mine in India is ……………….
Answer: Raniganj

18. A famous wind-power centre called……………….  has come of in Gujarat.
Answer: Lamda

19. ………………. is a hydroelectric power centre in West Bengal.
Answer: Jaldhaka

20. India’s……………….  per cent of coal belongs to the Tertiary age.
Answer: 1

21. ………………. was held in Rio-de-Janeiro in 1992.
Answer: earth summit

22. Innovative thinking of man is a type of ………………. resource.
Answer: human

23. Coal is a prototype of ……………….
Answer: carbon

24. A notable oil refinery of eastern India is ……………….
Answer: Haldia

25. Solar power is an important source of ………………. power.
Answer: inexhaustible

26. ………………. is an example of an alloy.
Answer: steel

27. ………………. geothermal power station is located in Himachal Pradesh.
Answer: Manikaran

28. ………………. is the largest coal mine in India.
Answer: Jharia

29. The three main resources creating component are nature, man and ……………….
Answer: culture

30. India ranks ………………. in the world in production of fish.
Answer: 6th

31. percent of land is covered by forest in India.
Answer: 21.05

32. ………………. is the main component of coal.
Answer: Carbon

33. There are ………………. types of coal depending on carbon content (in percent.)
Answer: four

34. There is ………………. percentage of carbon in Bituminous coal.
Answer: 50-85

35. Wind power is at its maximum within ………………. metres of the earth’s surface.
Answer: 100

State True or False

1. The work done by any matter (tangible or intangible) is called resource.
Answer: True

2. Only tangible matter is called resource.
Answer: False

3. Natural cryolite of Greenland is the only valuable resource found there.
Answer: True

4. The oceans comprise a social resource.
Answer: False

5. Anthracite is the best quality of coal.
Answer: True

6. Noonmati is famous for oil refinery.
Answer: True

7. Baba Budan Hills of Karnataka is noted for coal mines.
Answer: False

8. Solar power is an example of an inexhaustible resource.
Answer: True

9. South India produces more hydroelectricity than North India.
Answer: True

10. The biggest solar power plant has come up in Lamda of Gujarat.
Answer: False

11. Any matter is resource. Its capability of filling up a gap is not considered a resource.
Answer: False

12. By using alternate energy pollution can be checked.
Answer: True

13. Magnetite is an example of a superior quality coal.
Answer: False

14. Petroleum is called ‘Liquid Gold’.
Answer: True

15. There is no fear of exhausting reserved resources.
Answer: False

16. Mineral oil is usually found in sedimentary rocks.
Answer: True

17. Coal is an example of fossil fuel.
Answer: True

18. Lesser amount of raw material is needed to produce nuclear power.
Answer: True

19. Reserves of lignite are the largest in India.
Answer: False

20. Sagar Samrat is an oil drilling ship.
Answer: True

21. The famous wind-energy producing centre is of Mandvi in Gujarat.
Answer: True

22. Bombay High produces largest amount of mineral oil or petroleum.
Answer: True

23. Recycling of resources is a way of conserving resources.
Answer: True

24. Jaldhaka is a thermal power plant in West Bengal.
Answer: False

25. The idea of resource is static.
Answer: False

26. Anthracite is the highest quality coal.
Answer: True

27. Hematite is the highest quality iron ore.
Answer: False

28. Steel is an alloy.
Answer: True

29. Tin is a scarce resource.
Answer: True

30. Huge quantities of coal are found in Gorumahisani in Odisha.
Answer: False

Match the columns

Column 1	Column II
1. Biotic Resource	A. Railway
2. Abiotic Resource	B. School
3. Social Resource	C. Fish
4. National Resource	D. Iron ore

Answer:
1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A

Column 1	Column II
1. Bailadila	A. Nuclear power
2. Singareni	B. Mineral oil
3. Mumbai High	C. Iron ore
4. Tarapur	D. Coal

Answer:
1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A

Column 1	Column II
1. Bokaro	A. Hydroelectric power centre
2. Hirakud	B. Wind energy centre
3. Lamda	C. Geothermal power centre
4. Manikaran	D. Thermal power centre

Answer:
1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C

Crossword

Question 1.

Clues:
Down:
1. A notable steel plant in Jharkhand.
2. First coal mining area in India.
Across:
3. MAPS (Madras Atomic Power Station) is located here.
4. The oldest oil producing centre in India is located here.
5. Famous centre for iron-ore extraction in India.
Answer:
Down:
1. BOKARO
2. RANIGANJ
Across:
3. KALAPAKKAM
4. DIGBOI
5. JHARIA

Question 2.

Clues:
Down:
1. A geothermal power station is located here.
4. The ore of this metal is found in Chikmagalur.
Across:
2. An important thermal power station in South India
3. A coal based power plant of NTPC in West Bengal.
5. First nuclear power station in India
Answer:
Down:
1. MANIKARAN
4. IRON
Across:
2. NEYVELI
3. FARAKKA
5. TARAPUR

Well structured WBBSE 9 Geography MCQ Questions Chapter 6 Hazards and Disasters can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Hazards and Disasters Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
The following is a man-made hazard-
A. drought
B. earthquake
C. volcano
D. riot
Answer:
D. riot

Question 2.
The following is a semi-natural hazard-
A. volcano
B. tsunami
C. snowstorm
D. landslide
Answer:
D. landslide

Question 3.
The following is a natural disaster-
A. drought
B. global warming
C. nuclear disaster
D. riot
Answer:
A. drought

Question 4.
The following is not a cause of landslide-
A. deforestation
B. multi-purpose river valley project
C. urbanisation
D. tsunami
Answer:
D. tsunami

Question 5.
The following is a drought-prone district in West Bengal-
A. Howrah
B. Darjeeling
C. Bankura
D. Jalpaiguri
Answer:
C. Bankura

Question 6.
Give example of a disaster caused by human activity-
A. earthquake
B. volcano
C. nuclear bomb explosion
D. drought
Answer:
C. nuclear bomb explosion

Question 7.
The following is known as the ‘land of earthquakes’-
A. Japan
B. Iraq
C. Myanmar
D. India
Answer:
A. Japan

Question 8.
Volcanic eruptions occur due to-
A. deforestation
B. unplanned development of settlements
C. rise in heat and pressure within the earth
D. construction of roads
Answer:
C. rise in heat and pressure within the earth

Question 9.
The following disaster occurs in the coastal regions-
A. drought
B. volcano
C. landslide
D. tsunami
Answer:
D. tsunami

Question 10.
The following is one of the measures to control flood-
A. practice of dry farming
B. construction of deep wells
C. initiation of water conservation projects
D. controlling the grazing of cattle
Answer:
C. initiation of water conservation projects

Question 11.
The percentage of land in India that is prone to floods is –
A. 10%
B. 11%
C. 12%
D. 13%
Answer:
C. 12%

Question 12.
The International Day for Disaster Reduction IDDR. is observed on-
A. 13 October
B. 10 November
C. 5 September
D. 5 January
Answer:
A. 13 October

Question 13.
This is an informal term to describe a tsunami, with wave amplitude of several tens, hundreds, or possibly thousands of metres higher than usual tsunamis-
A. local tsunami
B. regional tsunami
C. distant tsunami
D. mega tsunami
Answer:
D. mega tsunami

Question 14.
Landslides occur more often in-……………
A. hills
B. deserts
C. forests
D. plains
Answer:
A. hills

Question 15.
Snowstorms are mostly observed in the-……………
A. equatorial region
B. tropical region
C. sub-tropical region
D. polar region
Answer:
D. polar region

Question 16.
The following is a landslide prone district in West Bengal-……………
A. Midnapore
B. Birbhum
C. Malda
D. Darjeeling
Answer:
D. Darjeeling

Question 17.
Central Flood Control Board was constituted in-……………
A. 1953
B. 1954
C. 1955
D. 1960
Answer:
B. 1954

Question 18.
A terrible blizzard hit the eastern side of the USA and Canada in-……………
A. 1777
B. 1888
C. 1920
D. 1992
Answer:
B. 1888

Question 19.
Avalanches occur in-……………
A. mountains
B. deserts
C. plateaus
D. coastal regions
Answer:
A. mountains

Question 20.
‘Tsunami’ is a/an-……………
A. Arabic term
B. Japanese term
C. French term
D. Russian term
Answer:
B. Japanese term

Question 21.
The following is an example of a climatic hazard-……………
A. volcano
B. flood
C. forest fire
D. tsunami
Answer:
B. flood

Question 22.
In Japan and China, whirlwinds are known as-………………..
A. Tornado
B. Typhoon
C. Hurricane
D. Willy-willy
Answer:
B. Typhoon

Fill in the blanks

1. A region is considered to be drought-prone if it receives an average annual rainfall less than …………….. % of its normal value.
Answer: 75

2. The centre of a cyclone is known as its ……………..
Answer: eye

3. ……………. scale is used to measure the magnitude of earthquakes.
Answer: Richter

4. The average speed at which grass-fires spread can be up to …………….
Answer: 22km/h

5. Forest fire is a …………….. hazard.
Answer: semi-natural

6. One of the deadliest snowstorms in history occurred in Iran in the year ……………..
Answer: 1972

7. ………… pressure prevails at the centre of a whirlwind.
Answer: Low

8. ………… is an example of a drought-prone district in West Bengal.
Answer: Purulia

9. ………… is an example of a landslide-prone district in West Bengal.
Answer: Darjeeling

10. The possibility of flash floods is …………….. in a circular river basin.
Answer: higher

11. Avalanches are more likely to occur on …………….. slopes.
Answer: convex

12. Irrigation facility is necessary in prone areas.
Answer: drought

13. Tropical cyclones originate over ……….
Answer: oceans

14. Students play an important role in ………. management.
Answer: disaster

15. Cyclone Aila hit West Bengal in the year……….
Answer: 2009

16. Phailin is a ………………
Answer: cyclone

17. Blizzard is a type of ……….
Answer: snowstorm

18. The Kedarnath temple was affected severely due to in ………. 2013.
Answer: flash flood

19. One of the most accepted weather conditions for hurricanes to develop is that the temperature of the ocean waters must be above……….
Answer: 26°C

20. The influence of cyclones can be felt more in the ………. region of southern West Bengal.
Answer: coastal

21. ………. droughts can develop quickly during a dry spell if absolutely no rain is observed and the soil does not have enough water to sustain crops.
Answer: Agricultural

22. The ………. of the disaster is a hazard.
Answer: cause

23. When the natural hazard occurs on a ………. scale, so much so, that it harms humans, it is known as natural disaster.
Answer: large

24. ………. are acute shortages of food that cause people to die of starvation.
Answer: Famines

25. About …………. % of the total land mass in India is prone to floods.
Answer: 12

26. The whirlwinds are known as ………. in Australia.
Answer: Willy-willy

27. Most of the tsunamis occur in the ………. coast.
Answer: Pacific

28. Blizzard is a destructive
Answer: snowstorm

29. ………. pollution occurs due to volcanic eruption.
Answer: Air

30. ………. is a flood-prone district in West Bengal.
Answer: Cooch Behar

State True or False

1. Plutonic earthquakes are deep focus earthquakes, the depth of disturbances being between 250km and 700km approximately.
Answer: True

2. The downward flow of magma is known as ‘plume’.
Answer: False

3. Not all hazards can be termed as disasters.
Answer: True

4. When a river flows in a straight direction, the possibility of flood decreases.
Answer: True

5. Whirlwinds are common in the hills.
Answer: False

6. Most avalanches occur on slopes with an angle of inclination between 35° and 45° approximately.
Answer: True

7. Tornado is a severe cyclone.
Answer: True

8. Avalanches most commonly occur on the leeward slopes of mountains.
Answer: True

9. Earthquakes are one of the main causes of tsunamis.
Answer: True

10. Snowstorms are one of the major natural disasters faced by the people of Sunderbans.
Answer: False

11. Remote sensing and GIS help in disaster management.
Answer: True

12. Fujiyama is a volcano in India.
Answer: False

13. Snowstorms reduce visibility sharply.
Answer: True

14. When floods occur, old alluvium accumulates on a floodplain.
Answer: False

15. Droughts are generally categorised into 5 classes.
Answer: False

16. Narcondam and Barren are two volcanoes in India.
Answer: True

17. Snowfall is a man-made disaster.
Answer: False

18. Ecosystems are affected enormously due to landslides.
Answer: True

19. Damages caused by disasters are much greater than those caused by hazards.
Answer: True

20. Tornado is a man-made hazard.
Answer: False

21. Acid rain does not cause any damage to the aquatic ecosystem.
Answer: False

22. Reckless deforestation can cause landslides in the hilly regions.
Answer: True

23. Seismograph is used to measure the intensity of the tsunamis.
Answer: False

24. Avalanches are more likely to occur on concave slopes.
Answer: False

25. For hurricanes to develop, the temperature of the ocean waters must be above 26°C
Answer: True

26. Blizzards are common in Antarctica.
Answer: True

27. Nadia is the most drought-prone district in West Bengal.
Answer: False

Match the columns

Column 1	Column II
1. Drought	A. Ministry of Home Affairs
2. Flood	B. Ministry of Agriculture
3. Chemical accidents	C. Department of Health and Family Welfare
4. Epidemic	D. Ministry of Water Resources

Answer:
1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C

Column 1	Column II
1. Landslide	A. Plains
2. River bank erosion	B. Forest regions
3. Forest fire	C. Polar regions
4. Snowstorm	D. Mountains

Answer:
1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C

Well structured WBBSE 9 Geography MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Weathering can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Weathering Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
Transportation of disintegrated rocks is known as ——-
A. mechanical weathering
B. chemical weathering
C. denudation
D. erosion
Answer:
D. erosion

Question 2.
The main process of mechanical weathering in a warm desert is——–
A. saline crystal formation
B. frost action
C. granular disintegration
D. block disintegration
Answer:
C. granular disintegration

Question 3.
Which component plays an important role in the oxidation process of the weathering of rocks?
A. H₂
B. O₂
C. N₂
D. CO₂
Answer:
B. O₂

Question 4.
The main component of chemical weathering is——–
A. water
B. sunlight
C. air stream
D. flora
Answer:
A. water

Question 5.
Chemical formula of humic acid-
A. C₁₈₇H₁₈₆ O₉ N₉S₁
B. C₁₀ H₂₀ O₁₀
C. C₁₂ H₁₀ O₁₀
D. C₅ H₆ O₇
Answer:
A. C₁₈₇H₁₈₆ O₉ N₉S₁

Question 6.
Limestone clad areas are prone to——–
A. carbonation
B. hydration
C. hydrolysis
D. oxidation
Answer:
A. carbonation

Question 7.
Snowfall prone areas experience——–
A. mechanical weathering
B. chemical weathering
C. biological weathering
D. mechanical and chemical weathering
Answer:
A. mechanical weathering

Question 8.
Which of the following is visible in homogeneous rocks?
A. block disintegration
B. exfoliation
C. granular disintegration
D. biological weathering
Answer:
B. exfoliation

Question 9.
The first stage of soil formation is——–
A. solum
B. regolith
C. batholith
D. monolith
Answer:
B. regolith

Question 10.
Conical rock formed due to frost action——–
A. talus or scree
B. erg
C. pediment
D. bajada
Answer:
A. talus or scree

Question 11.
Movement of weathered rock materials in hilly areas——–
A. mechanical weathering
B. chemical weathering
C. mass movement
D. denudation
Answer:
C. mass movement

Question 12.
Talus or scree clad areas are known as——–
A. felsenmeer
B. loess
C. pediment
D. basket of eggs relief
Answer:
A. felsenmeer

Question 13.
Rusting of rocks due to chemical weathering is known as——–
A. oxidation
B. carbonation
C. solution
D. hydrolysis
Answer:
A. oxidation

Question 14.
Terrace farming is prevalent in——–
A. hilly areas
B. deserts
C. plain areas
D. coastal areas
Answer:
A. hilly areas

Question 15.
Soil erosion in desert areas takes place——–
A. due to rivers
B. due to glaciers
C. due to air stream
D. due to human beings
Answer:
C. due to air stream

Question 16.
The process in which the rocks of the surface of the earth gets disintegrated——–
A. erosion
B. denudation
C. disintegration
D. mass movement
Answer:
C. disintegration

Question 17.
Areas which are prone to chemical weathering are——–
A. Tundra areas
B. Cool Temperate areas
C. Equatorial areas
D. Semi-arid areas
Answer:
C. Equatorial areas

Question 18.
Exfoliation occurs in-
A. basalt rocks
B. granite rocks
C. sandstone
D. all types of rocks
Answer:
B. granite rocks

Question 19.
The process of mechanical weathering which is most effective in high altitude areas or cold areas——–
A. colloid plucking
B. bolder cleaving
C. frost action
D. sheeting
Answer:
C. frost action

Question 20.
The kind of weathering that takes place in heterogeneous rocks——–
A. disintegration
B. boulder cleaving
C. exfoliation
D. granular disintegration
Answer:
D. granular disintegration

Question 21.
When water freezes into ice, its volume——–
A. decreases by 8%
B. increases by 9%
C. increases by 10%
D. decreases by 11%
Answer:
B. increases by 9%

Question 22.
Layer of soil formed due to weathering in limestone regions——–
A. terra rosa
B. talus
C. blocksped
D. pediment
Answer:
A. terra rosa

Question 23.
Heavy rainfall prone tropical areas witness——–
A. mechanical weathering
B. chemical weathering
C. biological weathering
D. none of the above
Answer:
B. chemical weathering

Question 24.
Result of mechanical weathering in rocks——–
A. physical change
B. chemical change
C. both physical and chemical change
D. no changes occur
Answer:
A. physical change

Question 25.
The process in which calcium carbonate transforms into calcium bicarbonate——–
A. oxidation
B. carbonation
C. hydrolysis
D. solution
Answer:
B. carbonation

Question 26.
Both mechanical and chemical weathering occurs more in——–
A. cool temperate areas
B. warm temperate areas
C. equatorial regions
D. desert regions
Answer:
B. warm temperate areas

Question 27.
A major factor of mechanical weathering——–
A. gravitational force
B. Oxygen
C. hardness of rocks
D. heat
Answer:
D. heat

Question 28.
The process of humus formation is——–
A. regolith
B. humification
C. mineralisation
D. alluviation
Answer:
B. humification

Question 29.
Karst landforms occurs due to which form of weathering?
A. oxidation
B. carbonation
C. hydrolysis
D. biological weathering
Answer:
B. carbonation

Question 30.
Cold regions experience——–
A. mechanical weathering
B. chemical weathering
C. biological weathering
D. bio-mechanical weathering
Answer:
A. mechanical weathering

Question 31.
Rocks formed due to frost action are known as——–
A. talus
B. pediment
C. loess
D. bajada
Answer:
A. talus

Question 32.
The kind of weathering which changes the shape of a rock is known as——–
A. biological weathering
B. mechanical weathering
C. bio-mechanical weathering
D. chemical weathering
Answer:
B. mechanical weathering

Question 33.
One of the man-made reasons of soil erosion is——–
A. water flow
B. farming
C. extension of root
D. digging holes in soil
Answer:
B. farming

Question 34.
The kind of weathering causing inselberg landform——–
A. exfoliation
B. carbonation
C. hydrolysis
D. oxidation
Answer:
A. exfoliation

Fill in the blanks

1. Rock disintegration takes place in type of weathering.
Answer: mechanical

2. Oxidation is a type of……………weathering.
Answer: chemical

3. Decomposition in …………… weathering.
Answer: chemical

4. Exfoliation is commonly found in …………… areas.
Answer: desert

5. When the underlying rock layer is exposed to the surface, the process is called ………….
Answer: Biotic

6. …………… weathering is caused by plants.
Answer: carbonation

7. Limestone is dissolved as a result of ………….
Answer: oxidation

8. Rocks containing iron forms rust as a result of ………….
Answer: mechanical

9. In areas of snowfall, …………… weathering largely occurs.
Answer: chemical

10. In tropical regions, …………… weathering is largely seen.
Answer: carbonic

11. Carbon dioxide mixed with water creates …………… acid.
Answer: carbonic

12. The constituents of rocks are not altered in case of …………… weathering.
Answer: mechanical

13. In cold climatic regions, …………… is the process of mechanical weathering.
Answer: ice disintegration

14. The layer of loose and unconsolidated materials lying over the bedrock is called ………….
Answer: regolith

15. In heterogeneous rocks, …………… takes place.
Answer: granular disintegration

16. Rocks change only in shape in case of …………… weathering.
Answer: mechanical

17. The most important effect of weathering is the creation of ………….
Answer: soil

18. …………… occurs before the erosion of the rock bed.
Answer: Weathering

19. Weathering does not occur in …………… areas.
Answer: permafrost

20. In limestone regions, process of solution creates …………… topography.
Answer: karst

21. …………… cultivation should be practised on hill slopes in order to prevent soil erosion.
Answer: Step

22. Mechanical weathering of salt crystals occur largely in ………….
Answer: sandstone

23. Deposition of …………… helps in the weathering of rock bed.
Answer: ground water

24. Weathering and erosion together are called ………….
Answer: denudation

25. …………. cause biotic weathering through agriculture.
Answer: Humans

26. Granular disintegration occurs on …………… rocks.
Answer: heterogeneous

27. When water changes into ice, its volume ………….
Answer: increases

28. Weathering is a process of ………….
Answer: slow

29. …………… force is the cause of mass wasting.
Answer: Gravitational

30. The erosion of soil by raindrops is a …………… cause.
Answer: natural

State True or False

1. Disintegration of rocks by weathering is called erosion.
Answer: False

2. Mechanical weathering is dominant in tropical climate.
Answer: False

3. Weathering helps in the storage of ground water in the rock bed.
Answer: True

4. The disintegrated layer of the rock bed as a result of weathering is called regolith.
Answer: True

5. Carbonic acid helps in oxidation.
Answer: False

6. Rock particles created by the disintegration of ice crystals is called scree.
Answer: True

7. Denudation is a result of weathering and erosion.
Answer: True

8. Chelation is a type of bio-chemical weathering.
Answer: True

9. Regolith is created in the primary stage of soil formation.
Answer: True

10. Solution is a process of mechanical weathering.
Answer: False

11. Rock beds rendered bare due to the process of denudation.
Answer: True

12. Rocks become smooth and circular as a result of exfoliation.
Answer: True

13. The other name weathering is rock disintegration.
Answer: False

14. An important influence of weathering is the formation of soil.
Answer: True

15. Rusting of rocks occurs due to the process of carbonation.
Answer: False

16. The characteristics of a rock remain unchanged in chemical weathering.
Answer: False

17. Atmosphere is the main component of weathering.
Answer: False

18. Weathering is a slow process.
Answer: True

19. Climate has great influence on the process of erosion.
Answer: True

20. Weathering helps in increasing soil fertility.
Answer: True

21. Rainfall that occurs as a result of season change helps in mechanical weathering.
Answer: True

Match the columns

Column 1	Column II
1. Exfoliation	A. Cold mountain region
2. Frost action	B. Tropical region
3. Hydrolysis	C. Limestone region
4. Carbonation	D. Hot desert area

Answer:
1 -D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C

Column 1	Column II
1. Disintegration of rocks	A. Erosion
2. Decomposition of rocks	B. Mechanical weathering
3. Exposure of rocks	C. Chemical weathering
4. Transportation of rocks	D. Denudation

Answer:
1 – B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A

Column 1	Column II
1. Mineral of tropical region	A. Oxidation
2. Rusting of rocks.	B. Bauxite
3. Primary stage of soil erosion	C. Mass wasting
4. Gravitational force	D. Regolith

Answer:
1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C

Crossword

Question 1.

Clues:
Down:
1. A homogeneous rock.
2. The gas required for oxidation process.
4. Weathering helps in its formation.
Across:
3. The process in which water combines with mineral rocks.
4. Type of weathering in which a single layer of rock breaks off from the stone.
Answer:
Down:
1. GRANITE
2. OXYGEN
4. SOIL
Across:
3. HYDRATION
4. SHEETING

Question 2.

Clues:
Down:
2. This type of weathering leads to formation of homogeneous rocks.
3 . Coneshaped deposit of rock fragments due to weathering
Across:
1. The process of breaking down of earth’s surface by climatic agents.
4. This type of weathering is common in limestone regions.
5. Organic component formed due to decomposition of plants.
Answer:
Down:
2. EXFOLIATION
3. TALUS
Across:
1. WEATHERING
4. CARBONATION
5. HUMUS

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 9 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 2 Movements of the Earth offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 9 Geography Chapter 2 Question Answer – Movements of the Earth

Very Short Questions and Answers : (1 mark for each question)

Question 1.
Which movement of the earth is responsible for causing days and nights?
Answer:
Rotational movement.

Question 2.
What is the path of the sun’s apparent annual movement called?
Answer:
Ecliptic.

Question 3.
In which part of the earth is the speed of rotation minimum?
Answer:
The Polar region.

Question 4.
On which day does the autumnal equinox occur?
Answer:
September 23.

Question 5.
On which day does winter solstice take place?
Answer:
December 22.

Question 6.
Which region of the earth experiences six months of night?
Answer:
The Polar region.

Question 7.
Who proved that “the earth rotates round the sun.”
Answer:
Galileo.

Question 8.
On which date does the Northern Hemisphere experience its longest day?
Answer:
June 21.

Question 9.
Where can we see Aurora Australis?
Answer:
South Pole.

Question 10.
During aphelion, how does the sun look in the Southern Hemisphere in winter compared to that in summer?
Answer:
Smaller.

Question 11.
What is the boundary line where the illuminated and the non-illuminated portions of the earth meet?
Answer:
The Circle of Illumination or Shadow Circle.

Question 12.
What is the direction of the earth’s rotation?
Answer:
West to East.

Question 13.
Who discovered gravitation?
Answer:
Sir Isaac Newton.

Question 14.
On which day is the earth closest to the sun?
Answer:
January 3.

Question 15.
Which place experiences 24 hours daytime on June 21 ?
Answer:
North Pole.

Question 16.
In which year did Sir Isaac Newton prove the movement of earth?
Answer:
1687.

Question 17.
What is the time taken by Jupiter to complete 1 rotation and 1 revolution?
Answer:
Jupiter completes one rotation in 9 hours and 50 minutes, while it completes one revolution in 12 years.

Question 18.
What shape has the earth assumed due to rotation?
Answer:
Geoid shape.

Question 19.
What would have been the span of time between tides if the earth would not have been rotating?
Answer:
An interval of 271 / 3 days.

Question 20.
What is the name of the wind which moves in a fixed direction, and during a fixed time of the year?
Answer:
Planetary winds.

Question 21.
Which phenomena is responsible for sunrise and sunset?
Answer:
Rotation of the earth.

Question 22.
Which stream of science deals with the study of the universe?
Answer:
Astronomy.

Question 23.
What is the meaning of Equinox?
Answer:
Equal.

Short Questions and Answers : (2 marks for each question)

Question 1.
What is latitude?
Answer:
The imaginary circular lines which run from west to east, on either side of the equator, on the earth’s surface are known as latitudes, or parallels of latitude. The equator is also one of the latitudes.

Question 2.
What is the earth’s annual movement known as?
Answer:
The earth moves in its elliptical orbit round the sun in 365 days. This movement is known as the annual movement of the earth or earth’s revolution. The revolution of the earth is responsible for change of seasons, and variation in the span of days and nights.

Question 3.
What is the rotation of the earth?
Answer:
The earth rotates on its axis, from west to east within a span of 24 hours. This is known as the rotation of the earth.

Question 4.
What is Solar day?
Answer:
The time difference between two middays (12pm) on a single longitude is known as Solar day. The span of one Solar day on earth is 24 hours.

Question 5.
What is a sidereal day?
Answer:
The time taken by earth to complete one rotation on its own axis, so that a distant star appears at the same position on a single longitude twice is known as sidereal day. One sidereal day takes 23 hours 56 minutes and 4 seconds.

Question 6.
What is Ferrel’s Law?
Answer:
In 1855, American scientist William Ferrel stated that sea waves and air gets deflected to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. This phenomena happens due to the rotation of the earth. This is known as Ferrel’s law.

Question 7.
What is Coriolis force?
Answer:
In 1835, French mathematician, Gaspard de Coriolis, proved that the rotation of the earth is responsible for the creation of a Centrifugal force. This force was later named as Coriolis force.

Question 8.
Where is the rotational speed of the earth slowest and where is it fastest?
Answer:
The speed of rotation of the earth is fastest in the equatorial region, whereas, it is the slowest at the poles.

Question 9.
Which place on earth has 6 months of daytime and 6 months of night?
Answer:
From March 21 to September 23 the North Polar regions experience 6 months of daytime, and the South Polar regions experience 6 months of night during this period. From September 23 to March 21, the opposite is noticed in both these areas.

Question 10.
Which place on earth experiences no change of seasons?
Answer:
The equatorial region sees no change of season all the year round. This region receives straight rays of the sun all the year round, and hence has a hot climate.

Question 11.
What is meant by the sun’s apparent northward movement?
Answer:
From December 22 to June 21 , the sun apparently moves northward, from Tropic of Capricorn (23 \(\frac{1}{2}\)° S) towards Tropic of Cancer (23 \(\frac{1}{2}\)° N). This is known as sun’s apparent Northward movement.

Question 12.
What is known as the sun’s apparent southward movement?
Answer:
From June 21 to December 22, the sun apparently moves southward from the Tropic of Cancer (23 \(\frac{1}{2}\)° N) towards the Tropic of Capricorn (23 \(\frac{1}{2}\)° S). This is known as the sun’s apparent southward movement.

Question 13.
What is the position of earth during Aphelion?
Answer:
The earth is farthest from the sun during Aphelion. This phenomena occurs on July 4. During this period the distance between the earth and the sun is approximately 152 million km.

Question 14.
What is the position of the earth during Perihelion?
Answer:
The earth is closest to the sun during Perihelion. This phenomena occurs on January 3. During this phenomena, the distance between earth and sun is approximately 147 million km.

Question 15.
What is dawn?
Answer:
Just before sunrise, the darkened part of the earth crosses the circle of illumination and begins to enter the lightened area. This is known as dawn.

Question 16.
What is the earth’s orbital plane?
Answer:
The plane along the earth’s orbit is known as the orbital plane. If the points on the elliptical orbit of earth are connected via a straight line to its diagonally opposite point, then this plane is obtained.

Question 17.
What is dusk?
Answer:
After sunset, the lightened part of the earth enters the darkened area, after crossing the circle of illumination. This is known as dusk.

Question 18.
What is season cycle?
Answer:
The coming of the four main seasons on earth (summer, monsoon, autumn and spring) in a cycle one after the other is known as season cycle.

Question 19.
What is Summer Solstice?
Answer:
On June 21, the rays of the sun fall vertically on the Tropic of Cancer (23 \(\frac{1}{2}\)° N), thus this day is known as the Summer Solstice. On this day, the days are longer and nights shorter in the Northern Hemisphere.

Question 20.
What is Winter Solstice?
Answer:
On December 22, the rays of the sun fall vertically on the Tropic of Capricorn (231° S), and thus this day is known as Winter Solstice. On this day the day are longer and nights shorter in the Southern Hemisphere.

Question 21.
What is Autumnal Equinox?
Answer:
On September 23, the earth’s position on its orbit is such that the rays of the sun fall directly on the equator. This is responsible for making the duration of days and nights equal in both the hemispheres. Due to the prevalence of autumn season in the Northern Hemisphere during this time, this day is called Autumnal Equinox.

Question 22.
What is Vernal Equinox?
Answer:
On March 21, the earth’s position on its orbit is such a way that the rays of the sun fall directly on the equator. This makes the duration of days and nights equal in both the hemispheres. Since it is spring season in the Northern Hemisphere during this period, this day is known as Vernal Equinox.

Question 23.
What is Aurora?
Answer:
When there is 6 months of darkness in the polar regions (north or south), sometimes streaks of light resembling rainbows are observed in the sky. These are known as Aurora.

Question 24.
What is Aurora Borealis?
Answer:
The streaks of light resembling rainbows, observed in the sky during the 6 months of darkness in the North Polar region (September 23-March 21) is known as Aurora Borealis.

Question 25.
What is Aurora Australis?
Answer:
The streaks of light resembling rainbows, which are observed in the sky during the 6 months of continued darkness in the South Polar region (March 21-September 23) is known as Aurora Australis.

Question 26.
What are the effects of the earth’s rotation?
Answer:

1. The occurrence of days and nights.
2. Change in direction of sea waves and air.
3. Creation of tides.
4. The occurrence of sunrise and sunset in a cyclic order.

Question 27.
What are the effects of the revolution of the earth?
Answer:

1. Change of years
2. change in duration of days and nights
3. change of seasons
4. change in position of the stars.

Question 28.
What is ecliptic?
Answer:
The path of the apparent annual movement of the sun is known as ecliptic. During the year, the sun’s rays move from falling directly on the Tropic of Cancer to the Tropic of Capricorn, and vice-versa.

Question 29.
What are the factors responsible for change of seasons?
Answer:

1. The earth’s revolution,
2. the tilted placement of the earth on its Axis,
3. the difference in angle of the rays of sun.

Question 30.
What is ‘Midnight’ sun? Where is it seen?
Answer:
When the sun is seen in the midnight sky it is known as ‘Midnight’ sun. Midnight sun is seen in areas of the North Polar region from March 21 to September 23.

Question 31.
What is solar year?
Answer:
While rotating on its Axis, the earth completes one revolution around the sun along in its orbit in 365 days, 5 hours, 48 minutes 46 seconds. This is known as solar year.

Question 32.
What is the ‘Midday’ sun?
Answer:
When the rays of the sun fall directly on a line of longitude, at some point on that longitude, the rays of the sun are vertical. This is known as ‘Midday’ sun of that location.

Question 33.
What is Shadow circle?
Answer:
Since the earth is round, one half or the earth receives sunlight and remains illuminated, while the other side does not get sunlight and remains dark. The imaginary line of longitude which is the dividing line between the illuminated and the darkened portions of the earth is known as Shadow circle or circle of illumination.

Question 34.
Even though the earth is rotating, why are we not falling down as a result of that rotation?
Answer:
The earth is constantly rotating from West to East. However, the gravitational pull of the earth attracts every object towards its centre. Hence we do not fall down due to the rotation of the earth.

Question 35.
Which planets rotate in a clockwise direction?
Answer:
Venus and Uranus rotate in a clockwise direction.

Short Questions and Answers : (3 marks for each question)

Question 1.
What do you mean by Coriolis force or Coriolis effect?
Answer:
Due to the rotation of the earth, winds and ocean currents on the surface of the earth do not flow in a straight line, but get slightly deflected. The force due to which winds or ocean currents are deflected is known as Coriolis force or Coriolis effect. This phenomenon has been named after the French mathematician Gaspard de Coriolis, who discovered it in 1835.

Question 2.
Why do winds and ocean currents deflect due to the the Coriolis force?
Answer:
The effect of the Coriolis force is less in the Polar regions as compared to the Equatorial region. The speed of earth’s rotation is also more in the Equatorial region and less at the Polar regions. Due to this difference in the rotational speed, winds in the equatorial region are faster than winds in the polar regions. However, the wind blowing from either side try to retain their original speed and thus they get deflected. Due to this, winds blowing from the equator towards the poles get deflected to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. Ocean currents are also deflected in the same way.

Question 3.
Discuss the features of the earth’s orbit.
Answer:
The fixed path in which the earth moves around the sun is known as the earth’s orbit.
Features of the earth’s orbit:

• It is elliptical in shape.
• Its circumference is about 960 million kilometre.
• The centres of the earth and the sun lie on the same plane in the orbit.
• The sun is located in one of the loci of the earth’s orbit.

Question 4.
What do you mean by the apparent daily motion of the sun?
Answer:
Since its origin, the earth rotates on its axis while revolving around the sun.Since we live on the earth, it seems to us that the earth is fixed, and the sun is moving east to west around it. In reality, as the earth rotates from west to east, the sun seems to move from east to west. This apparent movement of the sun around the earth is called its apparent daily motion.

Question 5.
Why does February have 29 days after every four years?
Answer:
The time taken by the earth to complete one revolution around the sun is 365 days 5 hours 48 minutes and 46 seconds. This is known as one solar year. However, for easier calculation, the time taken for one revolution is taken to be 365 days. The remaining 6 hours (5 hours 48 minutes and 46 seconds) is taken together to form one day every 4 years (6 × 4= 24 hours), and is added to the month of February. Therefore, after every four years, February has 29 days and the year has 366 days. These are known as leap years.

Question 6.
Discuss the importance of the inclination of the earth’s axis.
Answer:
The earth’s axis is inclined at an angle of 661° from the earth’s orbital plane. Due to this-

• duration of days and nights changes
• difference in temperature causes change in seasons
• the angle at which the sun’s rays fall on the earth are different at different places
• the Northern and Southern Hemispheres have opposite season pattern
• the sun appears bigger or smaller at times.

Question 7
What is the speed of the earth’s rotation on the different important lines of latitude?
Answer:
Speed of earth’s rotation on different important lines of latitude-

Question 8.
Why is the duration of winter less in the Northern Hemisphere?
Answer:
On January 3, the distance between the earth and the sun is minimum (about 147 million km ). This is known as Perihelion. During this phase, the speed of the earth’s revolution increases slightly, and thus the earth moves faster along its orbit. At this time, the Northern Hemisphere experiences winter season, while the Southern Hemisphere experiences summer. Thus, the duration of winter is less in the Northern Hemisphere.

Question 9.
What is Ferrel’s law?
Answer:
The Law: The speed of the earth’s rotation decreases as we move from the the equator towards the poles. This gives rise to Coriolis force, which causes all objects on the earth’s surface (wind, ocean currents) moving from the Northern Hemisphere to Southern Hemisphere and vice versa to deflect from their original path of motion.

• Effect: Winds and Ocean Currents deflect to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere.
• Name: American scientist William Ferrel established this law, 1855, thus it is known as Ferrel’s law.

Question 10.
Why is the earth’s rotational speed different in different places?
Answer:
The earth completes one rotation on its axis in 23 hours 56 minutes and 4 seconds. As the circumference of the earth is different at different lines of latitude, the rotational speed of the earth is different at different places. As the earth’s circumference is greatest at the equatorial region, the rotational speed is greatest at the equator (about 1670 km / hr ). From the equator to the poles, the circumference of the earth gradually decreases, and thus, the rotational speed of the earth decreases from the equator to the poles.

Question 11.
The shape of the earth is like an oblate spheroid – How does this testify the existence of the earth’s rotation?
Answer:
The rotation of the earth on its axis gives rise to centrifugal force. Due to this force, liquid and gaseous matter from the polar regions moved to the equatorial region, causing this region to bulge out. On the other hand, the rise of centripetal force in the polar ragions have caused them to flatten. Therefore, it can be concluded that the earth’s rotation is responsible for its oblate spheroid shape. As the rotational speed of planets like Jupiter and Saturn is much more than that of the earth, the poles of these planets are much more flattened as compared to the earth.

Question 12.
‘Life would not have been possible on the earth without rotation’. State three reasons in support of this statement.
Answer:
Three reasons in support of the above statement-
1. Without earth’s rotation, one side of the earth would have been burnt by the sun’s heat, and the other side would have frozen up, destroying any forms of life.
2. Only regions in the shadow circle would have little chances of sustaining life.
3. Without rotation, a balance in temperature would not have been possible, making survival of lifeforms impossible.

Therefore, one of the main reasons for the survival of life on earth is its rotation.

Write the differences between the following –

Question 1.
Vernal Equinox and Autumnal Equinox
Answer:
The differences between vernal equinox and autumnal equinox are as follows-

Points of difference	Vernal Equinox	Autumnal Equinox
1. Concept	Divides all latitudes equally, and duration of day and night is equal everywhere. This is known as the vernal equinox in Northern Hemisphere.	Divides all latitudes equally, and duration of day and night is equal everywhere. This is known as the autumnal equinox in the Southern Hemisphere. It occurs on September 23.
2. Date	It occurs on March 21.	It is spring in Southern Hemisphere, and autumn in Northern Hemisphere during autumnal equinox.
3. Season	It is spring in Northern Hemisphere, and autumn in Southern Hemisphere during vernal equinox.	Autumnal Equinox

Question 2.
Solar year and Sidereal year
Answer:
The differences between solar year and sidereal year are as follows-

Points of difference	Solar year	Sidereal year
1. Concept	It is calculated on the basis of average solar days.	It is calculated on the basis of average sidereal days.
2. Duration	Its duration is 365 days 5 hours 48 minutes 46 seconds.	Its duration is 365 days 6 hours 9 minutes 10 seconds.
3. Change in number of days	1 day is added to every fourth year in this case.	No change in number of days occurs in this case.

Question 3.
Aphelion and Perihelion
Answer:
The differences between aphelion and perihelion are as follows-

Points of difference	Aphelion	Perihelion
1. Definition	Average distance between sun and earth is the maximum ( 152 million km) during aphelion.	Average distance between sun and earth is the minimum (147 million km) during perihelion.
2. Date	It occurs on July 4.	It occurs on January 3.
3. Speed of Revolution	Speed of revolution decreases in this case.	Speed of revolution increases in this case.

Question 4.
Summer Solstice and Winter Solstice
Answer:
The differences between summer solstice and winter solstice are as follows-

Subject	Summer Solstice	Winter Solstice
1. Date	It occurs on June 21.	It occurs on December 22.
2. Duration of day and night	Days are longer and nights are shorter in Northern Hemisphere and opposite conditions prevail in the Southern Hemisphere during summer solstice.	Days are longer and nights are shorter in Southern Hemisphere and opposite conditions prevail in the Northern Hemisphere during winter solstice.
3. Season	Northern Hemisphere experiences summer, while Southern Hemisphere experiences winter during this time.	Northern Hemisphere experiences winter, while Southern Hemisphere experiences summer during this time.

Question 5.
Earth’s Axis and Orbit
Answer:
The differences between the earth’s axis and its orbit are as follows-

Points of difference	Axis	Orbit
1. Concept	It is the imaginary line joining the two poles of the earth.	It is the earth’s path of movement around the sun.
2. Length	The axis is about 12,714 km long.	The orbit is about 960 million km long.
3. Importance	It is related to the rotation of the earth.	It is related to the revolution of the earth.

Question 6.
Aurora Borealis and Aurora Australis
Answer:
The differences between Aurora Borealis and Aurora Australis are as follows-

Points of difference	Northern Lights	Southern Lights
1. Position	It is visible in the Arctic region in the Northern Hemisphere.	It is visible in the Antarctic region in the Southern Hemisphere.
2. Duration	It is seen from September 23 to March 21.	It is seen from March 21 to September 23.
3. Nomenclature	It is also known as Aurora Borealis.	It is also known as Aurora Australis.

Give reasons for the following –

Question 1.
Scientists carry out expeditions to Antarctica in December.
Answer:
Three reasons why scientists carry out expeditions in Antarctica are-
1. Longer days: The apparent southward movement of the sun in December makes days longer and nights shorter. Longer days make it easier to carry out experiments and research.
2. Increase in temperature: The Southern Hemisphere experiences summer in December. The temperature in the coastal regions of Antarctica rise above the freezing point, making it easier for scientists to cope with the weather.
3. Easier passage: Large chunks of ice in Antarctica melts in summer, thus allowing scientific explorers easier passage into the continent using ships.

Question 2.
We cannot feel the earth’s rotation.
Answer:
We cannot feel the rotation of the earth because of the following reasons-

1. We are moving at a speed equal to the speed of the rotation of the earth. Thus it is not possible for us to feel the earth’s rotation.
2. The gravitational force of the earth pulls all objects on the earth’s surface towards its centre. Due to this force, we are not flown off the surface of the earth in spite of its rotation.
3. We are so small compared to the size of the earth, that it is not possible for us to sense the earth’s rotation.

Question 3.
Season changes are not felt in the equatorial region.
Answer:
Season changes are not felt in the equatorial region, i.e., the region around the equator (0°. latitude), due to the following reasons-
1. The circle of illumination intersects the equator at right angles; thus, length of days and nights are equal throughout the year in this region.
2. The rays of the sun fall vertically on the equator almost throughout the year. Hence it remains warm all the year round.
3. The equatorial region experiences convectional rainfall for most of the year.

Question 4.
New Zealand celebrates Christmas in summer.
Answer:
As the earth revolves around the sun, during November to January, the Southern Hemisphere remains tilted towards the sun, while the Northern Hemisphere remains away form the sun. Due to this, during these three months, the Southern Hemisphere experiences summer. Thus, December 25 , i.e., Christmas, is celebrated during summer in New Zealand, which lies in the Southern Hemisphere.

Question 5.
Temperature decreases from the equator towards the poles.
Answer:
The rays of the sun do not fall equally on all parts of the earth due to various reasons – the shape of the earth, its rotation, etc.
Thus, the sun’s rays fall vertically on the equatorial region, spreading over a smaller area, and are slanted at the poles, spreading over a larger region. Besides, as the rays have to travel over a longer distance in order to reach the polar regions, they lose much of their heat in the process. Hence, temperature gradually decrease as we move from the equator to the poles.

Long Questions and Answers : (5 marks for each question)

Question 1
How can we prove that the earth has diurnal motion?
Answer:
The movement of the earth on its axis from west to east in an anti-clockwise motion within a duration of 24 hours is known as rotation of the earth or earth’s diurnal motion. The fact that the earth has diurnal motion can be proven by the following points –

1. Earth is shaped like an oblate sphere: When a circular object rotates constantly on its axis, its centre bulges outwards, while the top and the bottom ends get flattened. The same is the case of earth. The earth is bulging at the equator and is flattened at the poles.

2. Occurrence of day and night in a cyclic pattern: Due to the fact that earth rotates on its axis within a span of 24 hours, places on earth experience days and nights in a cyclic pattern. If the earth had not been rotating, the side facing the sun would have eternal day while the opposite side would have eternal night.

3. Observing a stone falling from a certain height: When a stone is dropped from a certain height, it does not fall vertically in a straight line. Instead it shifts somewhat to the east. This proves that the earth rotates from the west to the east.

Figure 2.4: A stone dropped from above deflects slightly to the east due to the rotation of the earth

4. Pictures taken from artificial satellites: Several man made satellites sent to outer space have captured pictures of the earth, which are proof of the fact that the earth is rotating on its axis.

5. Rotation of the other planets on their axes: The other planets of the solar system like Venus, Mars, Jupiter and others rotate on their respective axes. Since earth is also a planet of the same solar system, it is therefore deduced that the earth too rotates on its axis.

6. Change in direction of air and sea waves: The direction of sea waves and air does not move straight in either hemisphere from the high pressure belt to low pressure belts. Instead it shifts to the left in the Southern Hemisphere and to the right in the Northern Hemisphere. This change in direction occurs due to the rotation of the earth.

7. Regular occurrence of tides: Tides occur on earth due to the gravitational pull of the moon. If the earth would not have been rotating any place on the earth would have experienced near tidal bulge once in every 27 days. It is only because of earth’s rotation that near tidal bulge occurs on a daily basis.

8. Foucault’s experiment: French scientist Foucault (1851) did an experiment with a pendulum and proved that the earth is rotating.

Question 2
What are the results of the diurnal motion of the earth?
Answer:
The rotation of the earth on its axis in 23 hours 56 minutes 4 seconds is called the diurnal motion of the earth or rotation of the earth. This movement is an anti-clockwise movement. The results of this diurnal motion are-

1. Cyclic occurrence of days and nights: The earth is round in shape and has no light of its own. The rays of the sun are the only source of heat and light for the earth. Therefore during the rotation of the earth, one half of the earth receives the rays of the sun and it is daytime in that area, while the region which remains in darkness has night.

2. Sunrise and sunset: Due to the fact that the earth rotates from west to east, the sun rises in the east and sets in the west.

3. Calculation of time: One complete rotation of the earth takes almost 24 hours or 1 complete day. Each hour is divided into 60 minutes and each second into 60 seconds for easier calculation of time.

4. Change in direction of sea waves and air movement: From the equator to the poles, the area of the earth gradually decreases, hence its speed of rotation also decreases as we proceed towards the poles. This causes air to get deflected near the poles. The same happens in case of sea waves.

5. Creation of tides: As a result of the gravity, both the sun and the moon exert gravitational force over the earth. However, since the moon is closer to the earth than the sun, it exerts more gravitational force on the earth than the sun. Due to the rotation of the earth, the side facing the moon experiences near tidal bulge, while the side opposite to the moon experiences far tidal bulge. The sides in the middle on the other hand experience low tide.

6. Existence of flora and fauna: If the earth would not have been rotating, one part of the earth would have always been away from the sun. This side would not receive any light or heat. Therefore, nothing would grow on this side of the earth. On the other hand the side facing the sun would get an abundance of heat and light, again making it impossible for life to sustain. The rotation of the earth is responsible for creation of day and night and equal distribution of heat and light, thus making earth a planet fit for habitation.

Question 3
What proof do we have about the revolution of the earth?
Answer:
The movement of the earth on an elliptical orbit around the sun, while rotating on its own axis is known as the revolution of the earth. The proof of this revolution of earth are-

1. Change in position of star: There is a slight shift in the position of the stars everyday. After a few days, the older stars disappear from the sky and a new set of stars appear. The older set of stars gradually show up in the sky after a year. This proves that the earth revolves around the sun, and gradually comes back to the position it started from.

2. Change in the position of sunrise and sunset: Due to the earth’s revolution, an apparent annual movement of the sun is noticed. The sun rises exactly in the east and sets in the west from March 21 and September 23. On the other days of the year, the sun rises and sets with a slightly northward and southward shift. If the earth had not been revolving, the sun would have been rising and setting exactly in the east and the west for the entire year.

3. Change of seasons and the duration of days and nights: Due to the revolution of the earth, there is change of seasons on earth. The duration of days and nights also varies round the year due to the same reason.

4. Observing the revolution of the other planets: With the help of powerful telescopes scientists have observed that the other planets like Venus, Mars, Jupiter and others revolve around the sun. As the earth is a planet of the same solar system as the rest, therefore the earth is also revolving round the sun.

5. Pictures taken from satellites: The pictures taken by satellites prove that the earth is revolves round the sun.

Question 4
What are the results of the earth’s annual movement or revolution?
Answer:
Revolution of the earth is the movement of the earth around the sun, while rotating on its axis, from west to east in an anti-clockwise pattern within a span of 365 days and 6 hours. The results of the revolution of the earth are-

1. Change in the duration of days and nights: The earth is inclined on its axis at an angle of 661 / 2°. As a result of this inclination, the rays of the sun are sometimes vertical on the Tropic of Capricorn in the Northern Hemisphere, and sometimes on the Tropic of Cancer in the Southern Hemisphere. This causes changes in the duration of days and nights in both hemispheres.

2. Change of Seasons: The distance of the earth from the sun changes during the revolution of the earth. Since the earth is inclined at an angle of 661° and is somewhat circular in shape, the rays of the sun do not fall in the same, manner on all the parts of the earth. Some parts receive direct rays of the sun, while the rest may receive inclined rays of the sun. This is responsible for the variation in heat received by the places. This difference in heat distribution causes difference of seasons in the regions. For example-

Timespan of revolution	Northern Hemisphere	Southern Hemisphere
1 and 1 / 2 months preceding and following June 21	Summer	Winter
1 and 1 / 2 months preceding and following September 23	Autumn	Spring
1 and 1 / 2 months preceding and following December 22	Winter	Summer
1 and 1 / 2 months preceding and following March 21	Spring	Autumn

3. Apparent annual movement of the sun: The sun rises exactly in the east and sets exactly in the west on March 21 and September 23. On the other days the sun rises shifted to the north or the south. This northward or southward movement of the sun is known as the apparent annual movement of the sun.

4. Change in position of stars: If noticed closely, the star in the night sky shift their position from east to west. After this shift for a few days, the stars gradually disappear from the sky and a new set of stars appear. After a year, the same stars are again seen in the sky.

Question 5
What are reasons for season change on earth?
Answer:
The various regions of the earth do not receive equal amount of sunlight throughout the year. Thus when one place experiences summer another might experience winter, a year is divided into seasons on the basis of this variation. Seasonal changes mark the passing of a year. The reasons that lead to seasonal changes are-

1. Revolution of the Earth: The earth rotates upon its own axis in particular path and in a particular direction (anti-clockwise). The earth also revolves around the sun in a particular path, taking a particular amount of time. Variations in the amount of sunlight received amongst the various regions of the earth is due to this reason.

2. Position of the earth at 661° angle on its Axis: The earth is inclined at an angle of 661° on its axis. This is one of the causes behind the change in duration of days and nights. This creates a difference in temperature. For example, if the days are longer and nights shorter, then the total heat absorbed by the earth during the day cannot be radiated out. Therefore, increasing the warmth in the respective area.

3. Rotation of the earth: The earth rotates on its axis and thereby brings days and nights. The rotation of the earth is also responsible for causing changes in the duration of days and nights. Thus rotation is responsible for both temperature variations as well as change of seasons.

4. Geoid shape of the earth: The earth is not perfectly round in shape, it is geoid in shape. This is the reason for the rays of the sun falling directly on some areas and tangentially on others. The direct rays of the sun heat up the earth faster and more than the tangent rays of the sun thereby creating a variation in temperature.

Question 6
Give an idea about Perihelion and Aphelion.
Answer:
Perihelion: The earth is closest to the sun on January 3. The distance between the earth and the sun is approximately 147 million km. This position of the earth from the sun, on its orbit is called Perihelion.

Result:

1. The distance between the sun and the earth is reduced during this position.
2. The sun appears larger in the Northern Hemisphere due to this.
3. The rotation speed of the earth increases during this position.

Aphelion: The distance between the earth and the sun is maximum on July 4 . The distance is approximately 152 million km. This position of the earth from the sun is called Aphelion.
Result:

1. The distance between the sun and the earth increase during this position.
2. Due to Aphelion, the sun appear to be smaller in the Southern Hemisphere, during summers.
3. The rotation speed of the earth decreases slightly during Aphelion.

Question 7
How do days and nights occur? Discuss the different phases of day and night on earth. [2 + 3]
Answer:
Occurrence of days and nights: The earth rotates west to east on its axis. During rotation, the half of the earth that faces the sun has day, and the half that remains away form the sun has night.
Different phases of day and night: The different phases of day and night are-1. morning and evening, 2. dawn and dusk, 3. midday and midnight.

1. Morning and evening: Due to the rotation of the earth, when a particular region crosses the circle of illumination and faces the sun, it has morning; and the region opposite to this point, which moves away from the sun, has evening.

2. Dawn and dusk: Just before sunrise, the dust particles in the atmosphere reflect the sun’s rays and a diffused light spreads over the eastern sky. This time period is known as dawn. Again, just after sunset, the dust particles in the atmosphere reflect the sun’s rays. As a result, a diffused light spreads over the western sky. This time period is known as dusk.

3. Midday and midnight: When the sun is overhead a place, this place is said to have midday; and the place that lies on the opposite side of this point is said to have midnight.

Question 8
Why does the duration of days and nights change?
Answer:
March 21 and September 23 are the two days apart from which the duration of days and nights on the earth vary. This is because-(1) The revolution of the earth and (2) the position of the earth on its axis along its orbital plane, (3) the geiod shape of the earth, (4) earth’s revolution, (5) elliptical orbit of the earth, (6) the position of the earth’s poles towards the North Star, (7) the sun’s apparent daily and annual movement etc. The earth stands in several different positions in its orbit on different periods of the year. The several reasons for the change in duration of days and nights are given below-
1. During Summer Solstice: On June 21 the position of the earth is such that the Northern Hemisphere is inclined towards the sun and the Tropic of Cancer receives its direct rays. Hence, on this day the Northern Hemisphere experiences the longest day and the shortest night. The Southern Hemisphere on the other hand experiences the complete opposite phenomena.

2. After Summer Solstice: After June 21, the position of the earth gradually changes and the Southern Hemisphere gradually starts shifting towards the sun. The rays of the sun fall directly on the Southern Hemisphere and thus the days become longer and the nights shorter there, while it is the opposite in the Northern Hemisphere.

3. During Autumnal Equinox: On September 23, the position of the earth on its orbit is such that both the hemispheres are equidistant from the sun. Hence days and nights are of equal duration in both hemispheres.

4. After Autumnal Equinox: After the Autumnal Equinox (September 23), the Southern Hemisphere comes even closer to the sun while the Northern Hemisphere shifts further away from it. The duration of day become longer and nights shorter in the Southern Hemisphere, and it is just the opposite in the Northern Hemisphere.

5. During Winter Solstice: On December 22, the sun rays fall directly on the Tropic of Capricorn. This is the longest day of the Southern Hemisphere, and it is just the opposite in the Northern Hemisphere.

6. After Winter Solstice: After December 22, the Southern Hemisphere begins shifting away from the sun, while the Northern Hemisphere begins moving toward the sun. This causes the shorter days and longer nights in the Southern Hemisphere.

7. During Vernal Equinox: On March 21 the position of the earth on its orbit is such that the both the Northern and the Southern Hemispheres are equidistant from the sun. Thus, duration of days and nights are equal.

8. After Vernal Equinox: The Northern hemisphere gradually begins shifting towards the sun, while the Southern Hemisphere shifts away from the sun. This makes nights shorter and days longer in the Northern Hemisphere, and it is just the opposite in the Southern Hemisphere.

The lengths of days and nights according to seasons and dates in the Northern and Southern Hemispheres-

Question 9
Why do winds and ocean currents get deflected?
Answer:
Planetary winds and ocean currents get deflected due to the earth’s rotation. According to William Ferrel’s (American scientist) law, moving objects on the earth’s surface, such as winds and ocean currents, get deflected to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. A detailed explanation of this phenomenon is given below. The circumference of the earth decreases gradually from the equator to the poles.

The speed of the earth’s rotation is also the maximum at the equator, and decreases gradually towards the poles.Therefore, when winds blow southwards from any region in the Northern Hemisphere towards the equator, its velocity is less in comparison to that in the equatorial region. However, as it tries to maintain its original velocity, it deviates from its path of flow and deflects to the right. Due to this reason, winds blowing from the equator towards the north also get deflected to their right.

Similarly, winds blowing northwards or southwards in the Southern Hemisphere get deflected to their left. For example, Trade Winds blowing towards the Equatorial Doldrums in the Northern Hemisphere deflect to the right and are known as Northeast Trade Winds, and deflect to the left in the Southern Hemisphere and are known as Southeast Trade Winds.
Ocean currents too get deflected in the Northern and Southern Hemispheres due to the same reason.

Question 10.
What do you mean by ‘Land of Midnight Sun’? What is solar path or ecliptic? [2 + 3]
Answer:
‘Land of Midnight Sun’: When the Arctic region has day for about six months at a stretch from March 21 to September 23, the sun can be seen even at night from Hammerfest, located in the northern part of Norway (70°. North latitude). Thus Hammerfest is known as the ‘Land of Midnight Sun’.

Solar path or ecliptic: The path followed by the sun during its apparent movement around the earth throughout the year is known as the solar path or ecliptic. This apparent movement of the sun takes place between the Tropic of Cancer in the north and the Tropic of Capricorn in the south. From June 21 to December 22 , the sun gradually shifts to the south. This is known as the apparent southward movement of the sun.

On June 21 , the sun is vertically overhead the Tropic of Cancer, on September 23 and March 21 , it remains vertically overhead the Equator, and on December 22, the sun is vertically overhead the Tropic of Capricorn. From December 22 to June 21 , the sun gradually shifts to the north. This is known as the apparent northward movement of the sun. This path through which the sun moves throughout the year is known as solar path or ecliptic.

Question 11
How did scientist Leon Foucault prove that the earth rotates? What is a leap year? [2 + 3]
Answer:
Foucault’s experiment: In 1851, French scientist Foucault carried out an experiment by fixing a pin beneath a pendulum bob, and suspending it from Pantheon in Paris with a 67 m long wire, over some sand. He noticed that though the pendulum was oscillating from north to south in a fixed path, the markings on the sand were gradually moving from west to east.

This proved that the earth rotates from west to east, otherwise the markings on the sand would have been on the same spot each time.

If you take a look at the picture above, you will notice that the pin will move from A to A’ first, then from B to B’, then C to C’, then D to D’, then E to E’, and exactly after 24 hours, it will return to A-A’. If all the points are joined, you will find that they form an arc. This phenomenon occurs due to the rotation of the earth.

Leap year: The time taken by the earth to complete one revolution around the sun is 365 days 5 hours 48 minutes and 46 seconds. This is known as one solar year. However, for easier calculation, the time taken for one revolution is taken to be 365 days. The remaining 6 hours (5 hours 48 minutes and 46 seconds) is taken together to form one day every 4 years (6 × 4 = 24 hours), and is added to the month of February. Therefore, after every four years, February has 29 days and the year has 366 days. This is known as a leap year. For example, the years 2000, 2004, 2008, 2012, 2016, etc. are leap years. If the digits constituting the year can be divided by 4, it is a leap year.

Question 12
What do you mean by seasonal cycle? Explain in brief. [1 + 4]
Answer:
Seasonal cycle: The apparent northward and southward movement of the sun, and variation in the length of days and nights are caused by the revolution of the earth. This creates a difference in temperature in different places over the earth which, in turn, affects the weather and climate of that region. This is known as change in season. There are four main seasons on the earth-summer, autumn, winter and spring. This is known as seasonal cycle.
Explanation:
1. During one and a half months preceding and following June 21, the Northern Hemisphere remains tilted towards the sun, while the Southern Hemisphere remains away from the sun. The Northern Hemisphere receives almost vertical rays of the sun, while the Southern Hemisphere receives slanting rays. Hence the Northern Hemisphere experiences summer and the Southern Hemisphere experiences winter.

2. After July, as the earth moves around its orbit, the amount of sun’s rays received by the Northern Hemisphere decreases while the amount received increases in the Southern Hemisphere. Due to this, during one and a half months preceding and following September 23, the Northern Hemisphere experiences autumn, and the Southern Hemisphere experiences spring.

3. During one and a half months preceding and following December 22, the Southern Hemisphere remains tilted towards the sun, while the Northern Hemisphere remains away from the sun. The Southern Hemisphere receives almost vertical rays of the sun, while the Northern Hemisphere receives slanting rays. Hence, from November to January, the Southern Hemisphere experiences summer and the Northern Hemisphere experiences winter.

4. After January, as the earth moves around its orbit, the amount of sun’s rays received by the Southern Hemisphere decreases while the amount received increases in the Northern Hemisphere. Due to this, during one and a half months preceding and following March 21, the Northern Hemisphere experiences spring, and the Southern Hemisphere experiences autumn.

Two regions on the earth’s surface do not experience change in seasons:
1. The equatorial region receives vertical rays of the sun throughout the year, thus it always experiences summer.
2. The North and South Poles receive slanting rays of the sun throughout the year, thus these regions always experience winter.

Well structured WBBSE 9 Geography MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Geomorphic Processes and Landforms of the Earth can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Geomorphic Processes and Landforms of the Earth Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
An example of an ancient mountain range is the……………..
A. Rockies
B. Alps
C. Aravallis
D. Himalayas
Answer:
C. Aravallis

Question 2.
An example of a block mountain is the……………..
A. Himalayas
B. Satpuras
C. Vesuvius
D. Rockies
Answer:
B. Satpuras

Question 3.
An example of a volcanic mountain is the……………..
A. Fujiyama
B. Satpuras
C. Eastern Ghats
D. Andes
Answer:
A. Fujiyama

Question 4.
A shallow and narrow seabed is known as……………..
A. geosyncline
B. continental shelf
C. continental slope
D. continental drift
Answer:
A. geosyncline

Question 5.
An example of rift valley in India is……………..
A. Ganges valley
B. Narmada valley
C. Indus valley
D. Kaveri valley
Answer:
B. Narmada valley

Question 6.
‘Roof of the World’ refers to the……………..
A. Pamir Plateau
B. Tibetan Plateau
C. Arabian Plateau
D. Ladakh Plateau
Answer:
A. Pamir Plateau

Question 7.
The largest plateau in the world is the……………..
A. Tibetan Plateau
B. Pamir Plateau
C. Deccan Plateau
D. Meghalaya Plateau
Answer:
A. Tibetan Plateau

Question 8.
The average elevation/altitude of a plateau is at least……………..
A. 200 metre
B. 300 metre
C. 400 metre
D. 500 metre
Answer:
B. 300 metre

Question 9.
The Hwang Ho river basin is an………………
A. uplifted plain
B. subdued plain
C. loess plain
D. eroded plain
Answer:
C. loess plain

Question 10.
The folding of rock beds leads to the formation of……………..
A. fold mountains
B. block mountains
C. volcanic mountains
D. depositional/aggradational mountains
Answer:
A. fold mountains

Question 11.
The highest mountain peak in India is……………..
A. Mt. Everest
B. Mt. Godwin Austen or K₂
C. Mt. Kangchenjunga
D. Mt. Phalut
Answer:
B. Mt. Godwin Austen or K₂

Question 12.
Another name for volcanic mountain is……………..
A. degraded/erosional mountain
B. fold mountain
C. aggraded/depositional mountain
D. residual mountain
Answer:
C. aggraded/depositional mountain

Question 13.
An example of a lava plateau in India is……………..
A. Ladakh Plateau
B. Chota Nagpur Plateau
C. Deccan Plateau
D. Meghalaya Plateau
Answer:
C. Deccan Plateau

Question 14.
Germany’s Black Forest is actually a……………..
A. forest
B. block mountain
C. black soil region
D. cold desert
Answer:
B. block mountain

Question 15.
Everest is located in……………..
A. Nepal
B. Bhutan
C. India
D. China
Answer:
A. Nepal

Question 16.
A plateau encircled by mountains is the……………..
A. Tibetan Plateau
B. Brazilian Plateau
C. Chota Nagpur Plateau
D. Deccan Plateau
Answer:
A. Tibetan Plateau

Question 17.
A loess plain is formed by……………..
A. action of rivers
B. wind action
C. glacial action
D. action of sea waves
Answer:
B. wind action

Question 18.
An example of a dissected plateau is the……………..
A. Chota Nagpur Plateau
B. Pamir Plateau
C. Ladakh Plateau
D. Brazilian Plateau
Answer:
A. Chota Nagpur Plateau

Question 19.
The main propounder of the Plate Tectonic Theory is……………..
A. McKenzie
B. Pichon
C. Wilson
D. Darwin
Answer:
B. Pichon

Question 20.
Plate margins are usually of……………..
A. 1 type
B. 2 types
C. 3 types
D. 4 types
Answer:
C. 3 types

Question 21.
The longest fold mountain range in the world is the……………..
A. Himalayas
B. Rockies
C. Alps
D. Andes
Answer:
D. Andes

Question 22.
Converging plate movements result in the formation of……………..
A. block mountains
B. fold mountains
C erosional or residual mountains
D. plains
Answer:
B. fold mountains

Question 23.
A fold mountain located in India is the……………..
A. Western Ghats
B. Eastern Ghats
C. Satpuras range
D. Himalayan range
Answer:
D. Himalayan range

Question 24.
An erosional/residual mountain range in India is the……………..
A. Himalayas
B. Aravallis
C. Satpuras
D. Andes
Answer:
B. Aravallis

Question 25.
A volcanic mountain in India is the……………..
A. Barren Island
B. Vindhyas
C. Nanga Parbat
D. Mauna Loa
Answer:
A. Barren Island

Question 26.
Mt. Fujiyama in Japan is an………………
A. extinct volcano
B. active volcano
C. dormant volcano
D. quasi/half extinct volcano
Answer:
C. dormant volcano

Question 27.
An example of an extinct volcano is ……………..
A. Stromboli
B. Fujiyama
C. Mt. Popa
D. Mt. Pelee
Answer:
C. Mt. Popa

Question 28.
Meghalaya Plateau is an………………
A. dissected plateau
B. plateau formed by lava
C. intermontane enclosed by mountains. plateau
D. plateau formed by faults
Answer:
A. dissected plateau

Question 29.
The highest volcano in the world is……………..
A. Fujiyama
B. Vesuvius
C. Krakatoa
D. Mauna Loa
Answer:
D. Mauna Loa

Question 30.
Diverging plate movements result in the formation of……………..
A. fold mountains
B. block mountains
C. volcanic mountains
D. erosional residual mountains
Answer:
C. volcanic mountains

Question 31.
A river which flows through a rift valley is the……………..
A. Seine
B. Rhine
C. Vistula
D. Godavari
Answer:
B. Rhine

Question 32.
The following was present at the same location of the Himalayas prior to its formation……………..
A. Indian Ocean
B. Bay of Bengal
C. Tethys Sea
D. Pacific Ocean
Answer:
C. Tethys Sea

Question 33.
The Malwa Plains of Gujarat is an………………
A. lava plain
B. erosional plain
C. flood silt. plain
D. desert plain
Answer:
A. lava plain

Question 34.
The following is known as a ‘tableland’……………..
A. hill
B. plateau
C. mountain
D. plain
Answer:
B. plateau

Question 35.
An example of an uplifted plain is……………..
A. Vindhya Plain
B. Eastern Coastal Plains of India
C. Plain of Turan
D. none of these
Answer:
B. Eastern Coastal Plains of India

Question 36.
Loess plain is a type of ……………..
A. erosional plain
B. depositional plain
C. tectonic plain
D. none of these
Answer:
B. depositional plain

Question 37.
One of the following rivers flows through a rift valley in India……………..
A. Mahanadi
B. Saraswati
C. Narmada
D. Ganges
Answer:
C. Narmada

Question 38.
The Barren Island in India is an………………
A. quasi……………..extinct volcano
B. dormant volcano
C. extinct volcano
D. active volcano
Answer:
D. active volcano

Question 39.
The Rajmahal Hills in Jharkhand is an………………
A. block mountain
B. erosional mountain
C. fold mountain
D. volcanic mountain
Answer:
B. erosional mountain

Question 40.
An example of lava plateau in India is……………..
A. Deccan Trap
B. Chota Nagpur Plateau
C. Meghalaya Plateau
D. Ladakh Plateau
Answer:
A. Deccan Trap

Question 41.
Rivers are responsible for the change of landforms in……………..
A. glacial regions
B. wet and humid areas below the snowline
C. desert areas
D. none of these
Answer:
A. glacial regions

Question 42.
Change in the structure of landforms requires……………..
A. geotectonic activity
B. denudation
C. geotectonic activity and denudation
D. none of these
Answer:
C. geotectonic activity and denudation

Question 43.
Large expanses of flood plains are seen in……………..
A. Godavari river basin
B. Narmada river basin
C. Tapti river basin
D. Ganges river basin
Answer:
D. Ganges river basin

Question 44.
Alfred Wegener propounded the theory of Continental Drift in……………..
A. 1914
B. 1986
C. 1922
D. 1912
Answer:
D. 1912

Question 45.
An example of a cone shaped volcanic mountain is……………..
A. Krafla island
B. Mauna Loa in Hawaii
C. Paricutin in Mexico
D. Fujiyama in Japan
Answer:
C. Paricutin in Mexico

Question 46.
Most of world’s volcanoes are located in the……………..
A. Pacific Ocean region
B. Atlantic Ocean region
C. Indian Ocean region
D. Antarctic Ocean region
Answer:
A. Pacific Ocean region

Question 47.
The density of a continental plate per cubic centimetre is……………..
A. 2.70 grams
B. 2.90 grams
C. 2.60 grams
D. 3.10 grams
Answer:
A. 2.70 grams

Question 48.
The ‘Valley of Thousand Smokes’ is……………..
A. Mt. Mckenzie
B. Mt. Katmai
C. Mt. Popa
D. Mt. Stromboli
Answer:
B. Mt. Katmai

Question 49.
The world’s tallest volcanic mountain is……………..
A. Mt. Fujiyama
B. Mt. Cotopaxi
C. Ojos Del Salado
D. Mt. Helmes
Answer:
C. Ojos Del Salado

Question 50.
The mountain which has been formed as a result of the downward movement of the Nazca Plate below South America is the……………..
A. Fujiyama
B. Rockies
C. Zagros
D. Andes
Answer:
D. Andes

Question 51.
The expansion of Pangaea started about……………..
A. 20 million years ago
B. 50 million years ago
C. 62 million years ago
D. 13 million years ago
Answer:
A. 20 million years ago

Question 52.
The length of the Great Rift Valley is about……………..
A. 5,800 km
B. 5,670 km
C. 6,000 km
D. 3,475 km
Answer:
C. 6,000 km

Question 53.
A subdued plain formed as a result of tectonic activity is the……………..
A. Deccan Trap
B. Turan Lowland
C. Mississippi Basin
D. Siberian Shield
Answer:
B. Turan Lowland

Question 54.
Moraines or Moraine Plains are seen in……………..
A. karst regions
B. glacial regions
C. equatorial region
D. hot desert regions
Answer:
B. glacial regions

Question 55.
The plateau located between Zagros and Elburz mountains is……………..
A. Ladakh
B. Iran
C. Yukon
D. Ecuador
Answer:
B. Iran

Question 56.
Geotectonic activity takes place in……………..
A. lithosphere
B. thermosphere
C. mesosphere
D. asthenosphere
Answer:
D. asthenosphere

Question 57.
Loess plain is found in……………..
A. China
B. Japan
C. India
D. Bangladesh
Answer:
A. China

Question 58.
The meeting point of mountain ranges is called……………..
A. mountain range
B. mountain peak
C. mountain knot
D. None of these
Answer:
C. mountain knot

Question 59.
Natural levees are formed as a result of……………..
A. riverine erosion
B. glacial erosion
C. wind erosion
D. river deposition
Answer:
D. river deposition

Question 60.
‘Tail’ is formed as a result of……………..
A. depositional work of rivers
B. deposition of mud and pebbles by a glacier
C. sand deposition in coastal areas
D. wind erosion
Answer:
B. deposition of mud and pebbles by a glacier

Question 61.
‘Pediments’ are formed as a result of……………..
A. erosion by glacier
B. riverine erosion
C. erosion by sea waves
D. wind erosion
Answer:
D. wind erosion

Question 62.
The ‘Ring of Fire’ is located in the……………..
A. Pacific Ocean
B. Indian Ocean
C. Atlantic Ocean
D. Antarctic Ocean
Answer:
A. Pacific Ocean

Fill in the blanks

1. Fault which is created along or a line on the earth’s crust is called ……………..
Answer: fault line

2. A hill formed of hard rock in a peneplain is called …………….
Answer: monadnock

3. Mt. Vesuvius is a(n) …………….volcano.
Answer: live/active

4. Plains have a ……………. population density.
Answer: high

5. Fujiyama is a ……………. crater type of volcano.
Answer: multiple

6. Most of the world’s volcanoes are located in the ‘ ……………. Ring of Fire’.
Answer: Pacific

7. Fossils are mostly found in the rocks of ……………. mountains.
Answer: fold

8. A dissected plateau is formed as result of…………….
Answer: erosion

9. Another name for plateau is…………….
Answer: tableland

10. ……………. occupy the maximum part of the earth’s total area of land.
Answer: Plains

11. The highest plateau in India is …………….
Answer: Ladakh

12. An erosional mountain in India is …………….
Answer: Aravallis

13. The Himalayas have been formed in the ……………. geosyncline.
Answer: Tethys

14. The Turan Lowland is an example of ……………. plain.
Answer: subdued

15. Folds are seen only in ……………. mountains.
Answer: fold

16. The Eastern Ghats are an example of ……………. mountain.
Answer: erosional

17. The Siberian Shield of Russia is a ……………. plateau.
Answer: continental

18. Paricutin in Mexico is a ……………. type of volcano.
Answer: conical

19. Krafla in Iceland is a ……………. type of volcano.
Answer: crater

20. Epeirogenic movement is a type of ……………. movement.
Answer: vertical

21. The density of an oceanic plate is ……………. gm cubic cm.
Answer: 2.90

22. The largest intermontane plateau in the world is …………….
Answer: Tibetan Plateau

23. The world’s most ancient erosional fold mountain is the …………….
Answer: Appalachian mountain

24. The Nile basin is an example of ……………. plain.
Answer: silt

25. The altitude of the Tibetan Plateau is …………….
Answer: 4,500 metre

26. Fossils are found only in …………….rocks.
Answer: sedimentary

27. The Deccan Plateau in south India is made up of ……………. rocks.
Answer: igneous

State True or False

1. The Appalachians in the United Sates of America is a range of fold mountains.
Answer: True

2. The Rhine valley is an example of a rift valley.
Answer: True

3. The Deccan Plateau is an example of an intermontane plateau.
Answer: False

4. The Alps in Europe are a range of ancient fold mountains.
Answer: False

5. Fossils are found in fold mountains.
Answer: True

6. The Andes is a volcanic mountain range.
Answer:

7. Rift valleys are formed as a result of faults.
Answer: True

8. Hills are lower in altitude than mountains.
Answer: True

9. Rajmahal is an example of a mountain.
Answer: True

10. Folded regions are prone to earthquakes.
Answer: True

11. The cavity through which volcanic eruption occurs is called a crater.
Answer: True

12. The lower part of a fold mountain is called syncline.
Answer: True

13. Block mountains are more prone to volcanicity.
Answer: False

14. The Vesuvius mountain is in Japan.
Answer: False

15. The Black Forest in Germany is a block mountain.
Answer: True

16. The Barren Island in India is an active volcano.
Answer: True

17. Ladakh Plateau is an intermontane plateau.
Answer: True

18. The plateau of Tibet is a lava plateau.
Answer: False

19. Plate tectonic activity plays a major role in the formation of flood plains.
Answer: False

20. The Eastern Ghats is a block mountain.
Answer: False

21. Loess plain is found along the Hwang Ho river basin in China.
Answer: True

22. Orogenic activity occurs parallel to tangential point of the earth.
Answer: True

23. The Himalayan mountains have their origin in the Armenian mountain knot.
Answer: False

24. The Great Rift Valley is located in the Pacific Ocean.
Answer: False

25. The Alps have been formed as a result of collision between Eurasian and African plates.
Answer: True

26. The Hercynian mountains of North America is a part of an ancient fold mountain.
Answer: True

27. The Tibetan Plateau is a dissected plateau.
Answer: False

28. Pediments are formed in arid regions.
Answer: True

29. The plateaus have an average elevation of 300 metre above sea level.
Answer: True

30. Epeirogenic movement takes place parallel to the tangential point of the earth.
Answer: False

31. The plates in the earth’s crust are in a stable/stationary position.
Answer: False

32. A delta plain is formed by deposition of fine silt.
Answer: True

33. Rift valleys are formed in all mountainous regions.
Answer: False

Match the columns

Column 1	Column II
1. Fold mountain	A. Vesuvius
2. Block mountain	B. Rockies
3. Volcanic mountain	C. Aravallis
4. Erosional/ Residual mountain	D. Satpuras

Answer:
1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C

Column I	Column II
1. Continental plateau	A. Plateau of Tibet
2. Intermontane plateau	B. Plateau of Brazil
3. Erosional plateau	C. Deccan Plateau
4. Lava plateau	D. Chota Nagpur Plateau

Answer:
1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C

Column I	Column II
1. Flood plain	A. Turan Lowland
2. Subdued plain	b. Parts of Chota Nagpur Plateau
3. Peneplain	Hwang Ho river basin
4. Loess plain	Ganges Plains

Answer:
1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C

Crossword

Question 1.

Clues:
Down:
1. The Himalayas originated in this geosyncline.
2. The oldest fold mountain range in India.
3. This process leads to the formation of dissected plateaus.
Across:
4. The highest plateau in India.
5. The oldest fold mountain range in North America.
Answer:
Down:
1. TETHYS
2. ARAVALLI
3. EROSION
Across:
4. LADAKH
5. APPALACHIAN

Question 2.

Clues:
Down:
1. An active volcano in Tokyo.
3. Most of the volcanoes are located in the belt of this ocean.
Across:
2. Mt. Everest is located here.
4. This is the world’s largest plateau.
5. This is an example of a block mountain in India.
Answer:
Down:
1. FUJIYAMA
3. PACIFIC
Across:
2. NEPAL
4. TIBETAN
5. SATPURA

Well structured WBBSE 9 Geography MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Determination of Location of a Place on the Earth’s Surface can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Determination of Location of a Place on the Earth’s Surface Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
The highest value of a latitude can be-……………….
A. 90°
B. 100°
C. 175°
D. 180°
Answer:
A. 90°

Question 2.
The total number of latitudes that are drawn at an interval of 1 to the north and south of the equator are-………….
A. 89
B. 90
C. 91
D. 180
Answer:
D. 180

Question 3.
The angular measurement of the Arctic Circle is-………….
A. 60° N
B. 60° S
C. 66° 30’ N
D. 66° 30s
Answer:
C. 66° 30’ N

Question 4.
The time difference between Kolkata and Greenwich is-………….
A. 5 hrs
B. 5 hrs 30 mins
C. 6 hrs
D. 6 hrs 30 mins
Answer:
B. 5 hrs 30 mins

Question 5.
The time difference between Kolkata and Dhaka is -………….
A. 20 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 40 minutes
D. 50 minutes
Answer:
B. 30 minutes

Question 6.
The antipode of the 180 longitude is located at-………….
A. 180 E
B. 180 W
C. 0
D. 90 E
Answer:
C. 0

Question 7.
For every 1 difference in longitude, there is a time difference of-………….
A. 4 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 6 minutes
D. 10 minutes
Answer:
A. 4 minutes

Question 8.
The standard time of India is calculated on the basis of this longitude-………….
A. 80 E
B. 82 E
C. 82 30’E
D. 88 30’E
Answer:
C. 82 30’E

Question 9.
The angle of elevation of the Pole Star at the North Pole is-………….
A. 0
B. 90
C. 60
D. 180
Answer:
B. 90

Question 10.
The time difference between a place and its antipode is -………….
A. 6 hours
B. 10 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 24 hours
Answer:
C. 12 hours

Question 11.
The difference in local time between Kolkata and Allahabad is-………….
A. 20 minutes
B. 22 minutes
C. 24 minutes
D. 26 minutes
Answer:
C. 24 minutes

Question 12.
The linear distance between two lines of longitude at an interval of 1 at the equator measures to-………….
A. 110.3 km
B. 111.3 km
C. 113.3 km
D. 114.3 km
Answer:
B. 111.3 km

Question 13.
The highest value of a longitude can be-………….
A. 90
B. 100
C. 180
D. 360
Answer:
C. 180

Question 14.
The parallel that runs almost through the middle of West Bengal is -………….
A. Equator
B. Tropic of Cancer
C. Tropic of Capricorn
D. Arctic Circle
Answer:
B. Tropic of Cancer

Question 15.
The first person to use latitude and longitude to determine the location of a place was-………….
A. Plato
B. Ptolemy
C. Eratosthenes
D. Aristotle
Answer:
C. Eratosthenes

Question 16.
The angular value of the Prime Meridian is-………….
A. 0
B. 231
C. 661
D. 90
Answer:
A. 0

Question 17.
The number of time zones in the USA-………….
A. 11
B. 9
C. 15
D. 10
Answer:
B. 9

Question 18.
The South Pole is determined by a constellation of stars known as-………….
A. Pole Star
B. Morning Star
C. Orion
D. Hadley’s Octans
Answer:
D. Hadley’s Octans

Question 19.
The angular distance of a place, north or south of the equator, usually measured in degrees is known as-………….
A. longitude
B. antipode
C. latitude
D. axis
Answer:
C. latitude

Question 20.
The minimum value of a latitude can be-………….
A. 90
B. 0
C. 45
D. 66 1/2°
Answer:
B. 0

Question 21.
The instrument used to determine time at Greenwich is called the-………….
A. chronometer
B. anemometer
C. sextant
D. thermometer
Answer:
A. chronometer

Question 22.
The northernmost latitudinal extent of india is-………….
A. 36 06’N
B. 97 25’N
C. 37 06’N
D. 67 00’N
Answer:
C. 37 06’N

Question 23.
The angle at which the International Date Line deviates near the Aleutian Islands is-………….
A. 11 E
B. 11 W
C. 7 E
D. 7 W
Answer:
D. 7 W

Question 24.
The total number of parallels of latitude drawn at 1 interval across the globe is-………….
A. 180
B. 177
C. 178
D. 181
Answer:
D. 181

Question 25.
The difference in latitude between the Antarctic Circle and Tropic of Capricorn is-………….
A. 33
B. 43
C. 23
D. 66
Answer:
B. 43

Question 26.
The linear distance between two subequent parallels at an interval of 1 is -………….
A. 127 km
B. 111.3 km
C. 161 km
D. 164.2 km
Answer:
B. 111.3 km

Question 27.
The angle of elevation of the Pole Star at the Tropic of Cancer is -………….
A. 0
B. 231
C. 6612
D. 90
Answer:
B. 231

Question 28.
The heavenly body that helps to determine latitude in Australia at night is the-………….
A. Moon
B. Pole Star
C. Hadley’s Octans
D. Evening Star
Answer:
C. Hadley’s Octans

Question 29.
Any place that is located to the north of the equator is designated as the-………….
A. High latitudes
B. North latitudes
C. Mid-latitudes
D. Low latitudes
Answer:
B. North latitudes

Question 30.
The most important line joining the North Pole and the South Pole is the-………….
A. Equator
B. Tropic of Cancer
C. Polar Circle
D. Prime Meridian
Answer:
D. Prime Meridian

Question 31.
The line that joins all the places with the same latitudinal degree is known as the-………….
A. Meridian
B. Prime Meridian
C. Parallel
D. Equator
Answer:
C. Parallel

Question 32.
The angular distance of a place north or south of the equator is known as-………….
A. longitude
B. latitude
C. antipode
D. location
Answer:
B. latitude

Question 33.
The antipode of 45 N is located at-………….
A. 180
B. 0
C. 45 S
D. 45 W
Answer:
C. 45 S

Question 34.
At the equator, the Pole Star can be seen in the-………….
A. horizon
B. vertically overhead
C. eastern sky
D. western sky
Answer:
A. horizon

Question 35.
The latitude at which the diurnal range of temperature is the lowest is -………….
A. Equator
B. Tropic of Cancer
C. Tropic of Capricorn
D. South Pole
Answer:
A. Equator

Question 36.
The line in the Southern Hemisphere that marks the point till which vertical sunrays reach lies on-………….
A. Equator
B. Tropic of Cancer
C. Tropic of Capricorn
D. Antarctic Circle
Answer:
C. Tropic of Capricorn

Question 37.
The line that helps to determine the longitude of a place is -………….
A. Prime Meridian
B. 180 meridian
C. Equator
D. None of the above
Answer:
A. Prime Meridian

Fill in the blanks

1. The lines of ………… run in an east-west direction.
Answer: latitude

2. The Tropic of Cancer is the circle marking the latitude …………
Answer: 23 1/2° N

3. The only great circle among the parallels of latitude is the …………
Answer: equator

4. The International Date Line coincides with the…………
Answer: 180° longitude

5. The location of any place on the surface of the earth can be determined by the intersection point of the ………… and the …………of that place.
Answer: latitude; longitude

6. With every 15° longitudinal difference, there is a time difference of …………minutes.
Answer: 60

7. ………… is also referred to as the International Meridian.
Answer: Prime Meridian

8. The lines of longitude run in a ………… direction.
Answer: north-south

9. The lines of latitude are also known as the …………
Answer: parallels

10. The expanse between the 90° and the 66 1/2° latitudes in both the hemispheres are known as …………
Answer: frigid zone

11. The number of time zones that Russia is divided into is …………
Answer: 11

12. The heavenly body that helps to determine latitude in the North Pole is the…………
Answer: Pole Star

13. As the angular distance of a place, north or south of the equator increases, the circumference of the latitude…………
Answer: decreases

14. ………… is referred to as the Standard Meridian of India.
Answer: 82°30’E

15. ………… divides the earth into two equal halves.
Answer: Equator

16. The latitudes are ………… in shape.
Answer: circular

17. The longitudes are ………… in shape.
Answer: semicircular

18. The latitudes between equator and 30° in both the hemispheres are known as………………….. latitudes.
Answer: low

19. The standard time at any place of the world is determined with reference to the …………………..time.
Answer: Greenwich Mean Time

20. All the …………………..are equal in length.
Answer: longitudes

21. A time difference of 4 minutes is observed for a longitudinal difference of ……………..
Answer: 1°

22. The longitudinal extent of India is …………..
Answer: 29°18′

23. The angular value of the Prime Meridian is …………………..
Answer: 0°

24. The longitudinal difference between 90°W and 5°E is …………………..
Answer: 95°

25. The standard meridian of the westernmost time zones of the USA lies on …………………..
Answer: 120°W

26. The antipode of the 180° longitude lies on …………………..
Answer: 0° (Prime Meridian)

27. The line from which a new date starts in both eastern and western hemispheres is the …………………..
Answer: International Date Line

28. The instrument used to calculate the latitude of any place is the…………………..
Answer: sextant

State True or False

1. When it is 7 am in Kolkata, it is 12 midnight at its antipode.
Answer: False

2. The International Date Line is not a straight line.
Answer: True

3. The equator is an example of a great circle.
Answer: True

4. The angle of elevation of the Pole Star in the Southern Hemisphere is 90.
Answer: False

5. The local time of a place is calculated with the help of its latitude.
Answer: False

6. The 0° longitude is known as the Prime Meridian.
Answer: True

7. A time difference of 24 hours is experienced with 180ºof longitudinal difference.
Answer: False

8. When it is daytime at a place, its antipode experiences night.
Answer: True

9. Chronometer is used to measure the latitude of a place.
Answer: False

10. The 66° N latitude is also known as the Antarctic Circle.
Answer: False

11. All the lines of latitude intersect the lines of longitude horizontally.
Answer: False

12. The antipodal position of a place located on the Prime Meridian will be on 180° longitude.
Answer: True

13. The angular distance of a place north or south of the equator is the same for all the places located on the same latitude.
Answer: True

14. The International Date Line is drawn along the water bodies only.
Answer: True

15. In the Eastern Hemisphere, units of time are added, with the increase in longitude.
Answer: True

16. Local time is calculated on the basis of the highest position of the sun on a particular meridian.
Answer: True

17. The climatic characteristics change with change in longitude.
Answer: False

18. On March 21, all the places on the earth experience 12 hours of day and 12 hours of night.
Answer: True

19. The angle of elevation of the Pole Star is measured to be 90° from any place in the Northern Hemisphere.
Answer: False

20. Hadley’s Octant is used to determine direction in the Southern Hemisphere.
Answer: True

21. The Prime Meridian is also known as the Greenwich Meridian.
Answer: True

22. As one crosses the International Date Line and enters the Western Hemisphere, time is calculated behind by 1 hour.
Answer: False

23. The time difference between a place and its antipode is 24 hour.
Answer: False

24. The equator passes through Brazil.
Answer: True

25. Canada has 5 standard meridians.
Answer: False

26. When the sun is at its highest elevation on a particular meridian, it is considered to be 12noon at that place.
Answer: True

27. The longitudinal difference between two places in the same hemisphere is calculated by adding up their longitudinal values.
Answer: False

28. 6° 45’S is the southernmost latitude of India.
Answer: False

29. In the Western Hemisphere, time decreases with increase in longitude.
Answer: True

30. Time in India is behind Greenwich Mean Time.
Answer: False

31. The local time of Delhi is considered the standard time for India.
Answer: False

32. The International Date Line passes through the Strait of Malacca.
Answer: False

33. The climatic characteristics of various places lying on the same latitude are alike.
Answer: True

34. Longitudes are also known as meridians.
Answer: True

Match the columns

Column I	Column II
1. Effect of rotation	a. Seasonal change
2. Effect of revolution	b. Evening
3. Before sunrise	c. Day and night
4. After sunrise	d. Dawn

Answer:
1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

Column 1	Column II
1. International Date Line	90° S
2. Great Circle	2. 180°
3. The latitude of the equator	3. Equator
4. South Pole	4. 0°

Answer:
1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A

Column 1	Column II
1. Brazil	a. Tropic of Cancer
2. Saudi Arabia	b. Tropic of Capricorn
3. Canada	c. Equator
4. Australia	d. Arctic Circle

Answer:
1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

Crossword

Question 1.

Answer:
Clues:
Down:
1 . The line of latitude that is the Great Circle.
3. The line of longitude that passes across the North and South Poles.
Across:
2. The geographic coordinate that specifies the north south position of a location on the earth’s surface.
4. Latitudes are in this position with each other.
5 . The geographic coordinate that specifies the west-east position of a location on the earth’s surface.
Answer:
Down:
1. EQUATOR
3. MERIDIAN
Across:
2. LATITUDE
4. PARALLEL
5. LONGITUDE

Question 2.

Answer:
Clues:
Down:
1. The equator divides the earth into two
2. The northern and southernmost points on the earth’s surface.
Across:
3. The rectangular zones between latitudes and longitudes.
4. The region between the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn.
5. Time all over the world is calculated with respect to the local time at this place.
Answer:
Down:
1. HEMISPHERES
2. POLES
Across:
3. GRATICULE
4. TROPICS
5. GREENWICH