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Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 3.5 Excretion can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Excretion Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
One objective of excretion is –
(A) Disposal of metabolic waste matters
(B) Disposal of excess water
(C) Disposal of unwanted salts
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 2.
Plants dispose their excretory matters by –
(A) Shedding leaves
(B) Shedding fruits
(C) Exfoliation of bark
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 3.
‘Dhuna’ is a , secreted from sal tree.
(A) Gum
(B) Resin
(C) Alkaloid
(D) Olio resin
Answer:
(B) Resin

Question 4.
Camphor is a –
(A) Gum
(B) Resin
(C) Alkaloid
(D) Olio resin
Answer:
(A) Gum

Question 5.
A latex producing plant is –
(A) Pine
(B) Calotropis
(C) Mango
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Answer:
(D) Both (B) and (C)

Question 6.
Papain is secreted from –
(A) Pea
(B) Papaya
(C) Pumpkin
(D) Potato
Answer:
(B) Papaya

Question 7.
Rauvolfia is the source of-
(A) Quinine
(B) Reserpine
(C) Morphine
(D) Tannin
Answer:
(B) Reserpine

Question 8.
A non-nitrogenous plant excretory matter is –
(A) Reserpine
(B) Caffeine
(C) Daturine
(D) Tannin
Answer:
(D) Tannin

Question 9.
A nitrogenous plant excretory product is-
(A) Latex
(B) Tannin
(C) Resin
(D) Theine
Answer:
(D) Theine

Question 10.
Which is used as a strong pain kilier?
(A) Daturine
(B) Quinine
(C) Tannin
(D) Morphine
Answer:
(D) Morphine

Question 11.
Which of the following is used as a nerve soother and blood pressure regulator?
(A) Reserpine
(B) Morphine
(C) Caffeine
(D) Tannin
Answer:
(A) Reserpine

Question 12.
Excretory organ of unicellular organism is-
(A) Lysosome
(B) Contractile vacuole
(C) Endoplasmic reticula
(D) Golgi body
Answer:
(B) Contractile vacuole

Question 13.
Flame cells are seen in-
(A) Tapeworm
(B) Earthworm
(C) Round worm
(D) Caterpillar
Answer:
(A) Tapeworm

Question 14.
Nephridia open outside the body through-
(A) Nephrostome
(B) Nephridiopore
(C) Excretory pore
(D) Anus
Answer:
(B) Nephridiopore

Question 15.
Malpighian tubule is associated with the excretory system of-
(A) Tapeworms
(B) Earthworms
(C) Insects
(D) Starfishes
Answer:
(C) Insects

Question 16.
Outer covering of human kidney is popularly known as –
(A) Pericardium
(B) Pleura
(C) Renal cortex
(D) Capsule
Answer:
(D) Capsule

Question 17.
Uretar comes out from-
(A) Pelvis
(B) Renal cortex
(C) Renal medulla
(D) Major calyces
Answer:
(A) Pelvis

Question 18.
An example of uricotelic organism is –
(A) Human
(B) Monkey
(C) Bird
(D) Amoeba
Answer:
(C) Bird

Question 19.
Malpighian corpuscle is composed of-
(A) Afferent and efferent arteriole
(B) Bowman’s capsule and efferent arteriole
(C) Glomerular filtrate
(D) None of these
Answer:
(D) None of these

Question 20.
Transfer of excretory matters from blood to the nephron occurs at-
(A) Bowman’s capsule
(B) Glomerulus
(C) Malpighian corpuscle
(D) Malpighian tubule
Answer:
(C) Malpighian corpuscle

Question 21.
The major site for water absorption in nephron is-
(A) Malpighian corpuscle
(B) Proximal convoluted tubule
(C) Loop of Henle
(D) Distal convoluted tubule
Answer:
(C) Loop of Henle

Question 22.
The component present in glomeruiar filtrate but absent in normal urine, is-
(A) Blood
(B) Protein
(C) Ammonia
(D) Creatinine
Answer:
(B) Protein

Question 23.
Ketone body is an excretory product produced during metabolism of-
(A) Amino acid
(B) Monosaccharide
(C) Fat
(D) Proteins
Answer:
(C) Fat

Question 24.
is excreted through the lungs.
(A) Amino acids
(B) CO₂
(C) Acetone
(D) Uric acid
Answer:
(B) CO₂

Fill in the blanks :

1. A flavour adding plant product, asafoetida is a _____.
2. A latex, named _____ is used as a digestive enzyme.
3. Amino acids are reabsorbed in the _____ tubule of nephron.
4. Creatine and _____ are secreted in the distal convoluted tubule.
5. _____ is the largest excretory organ of the human body.
6. The proximal end of nephron consists of _____.
7. _____ is the structural and functional unit of the kidneys.
8. _____ is the plant excretory product present in apples.
9. In animals, urea is produced as an end product of _____ metabolism.
10. The base of urethra is equipped with _______ muscles, which help to hold the urine inside urinary bladder.

Answer:

1. Resin
2. Papain
3. Proximal convoluted
4. Creatinine
5. Skin
6. Bowman’s capsule
7. Nephron
8. Malic Acid
9. Protein
10. Sphincter

State true or false :

1. Resin of pine is used as a fixative of lime based paints.
2. Alkaloids are soluble in water but insoluble in ethyl alcohol.
3. Coffee is obtained from seeds of Coffea arabica plant.
4. Paramoecium carries out excretion by forming contractile vacuoles.
5. The concave face of the kidney is called pelvis.
6. The afferent renal arteriole comes out of the Bowman’s capsule.
7. Creatine and creatinine are secreted from the proximal convoluted tubule.
8. A nephron has 2 parts-malpighian tubule and renal tubule.
9. In cockroach, malpighian tubules absorb nitrogenous waste matters from haemolymph.
10. In liver fluke, the entire excretory matter is disposed finally through excretory pore.
11. Nephridium is the excretory organ of annelids.
12. Human skin has no function in excretion.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. True
6. False
7. False
8. False
9. True
10. True
11. True
12. False

Match the columns :

Question 1.

Left column	Right column
1. Contractile vacuole	A. Dog
2. Flame cell	B. Amoeba
3. Nephridia	C. Butterfly
4. Malpighian tubule	D. Tapeworm
	E. Leech

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Contractile vacuole	B. Amoeba
2. Flame cell	D. Tapeworm
3. Nephridia	E. Leech
4. Malpighian tubule	C. Butterfly

Question 2.

Left column	Right column
1. Reserpine	A. Cinchona officinalis
2. Morphine	B. Rauvolfia serpentina
3. Quinine	C. Camellia sinensis
4. Caffeine	D. Papever somniferum
	E. Coffea arabica

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Reserpine	B. Rauvolfia serpentina
2. Morphine	D. Papever somniferum
3. Quinine	A. Cinchona officinalis
4. Caffeine	E. Coffea arabica

Question 3.

Left column	Right column
1. Heart	A. Capsule
2. Muscle	B. Pleura
3. Lungs	C. Pericardium
4. Kidney	D. Meninges
	E. Perimysium

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Heart	C. Pericardium
2. Muscle	E. Perimysium
3. Lungs	B. Pleura
4. Kidney	A. Capsule

Question 4.

Left column	Right column
1. Lungs	A. Ventricles
2. Kidney	B. Villi
3. Nerves	C. Alveoli
4. Small intestine	D. Nephron
	E. Neuron

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Lungs	C. Alveoli
2. Kidney	D. Nephron
3. Nerves	E. Neuron
4. Small intestine	B. Villi

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 4.1 Immunity and Human Diseases can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Immunity and Human Diseases Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
The word ‘immunis’ means-
(A) Exempt
(B) Recovery
(C) Health
(D) Hygiene
Answer:
(A) Exempt

Question 2.
Which of the following is involved in immunity?
(A) Lymphocyte cells
(B) Plasma proteins
(C) Lymph and lymph gland
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 3.
Chemically antigen is a-
(A) Polysaccharide
(B) Lipoprotein
(C) Glycoprotein
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 4.
Soil dwelling bacterium that enters into the body through broken skin or wound is-
(A) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
(B) Clostridium tetani
(C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(D) All of these
Answer:
(B) Clostridium tetani

Question 5.
Which of the following is not an immunological response?
(A) Formation of antibody in response to antigen
(B) Monocytes killing germs by phagocytosis
(C) Antibody formation by vaccination
(D) Killing germs by antibiotic
Answer:
(D) Killing germs by antibiotic

Question 6.
Protection of body against common cold is –
(A) Innate immunity
(B) Acquired passive immunity
(C) Acquired active immunity
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Innate immunity

Question 7.
Immunity against chicken pox that is developed by a person after first infection from the same disease is –
(A) Innate immunity
(B) Active acquired immunity
(C) Passive acquired immunity
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Active acquired immunity

Question 8.
In B-cells ‘B’ indicates-
(A) B blood group
(B) B-agglutinogen
(C) Beta antibody
(D) Bursa fabricius
Answer:
(D) Bursa fabricius

Question 9.
Cell-mediated response involves-
(A) Helper T-cells
(B) Plasma Cells
(C) Antibodies
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Helper T-cells

Question 10.
T-cells mature in-
(A) Bone marrow
(B) Blood
(C) Thymus gland
(D) Kidney
Answer:
(C) Thymus gland

Question 11.
Humoral response is related to-
(A) T_s-cells
(B) T_c-cells
(C) Antibodies
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Antibodies

Question 12.
Helper T-cells activate-
(A) Phagocytic macrophage
(B) Killer T-cells
(C) B-cells
(D) Both (b) & (c)
Answer:
(D) Both (b) & (c)

Question 13.
Which cells produce specific antibody to inactivate antigens?
(A) T-lymphocytes
(B) RBC
(C) Plasma cells
(D) Macrophages
Answer:
(C) Plasma cells

Question 14.
Active immunity develops within the body by-
(A) Inflow of antibodies from mother’s blood to foetal blood through placental circulation
(B) Blood transfusion
(C) Primary infection of any antigenic pathogen
(D) Direct injection of antibodies into the body
Answer:
(C) Primary infection of any antigenic pathogen

Question 15.
Passive immunity develops within the body by-
(A) Direct injection of any attenuated germ
(B) Inflow of antibodies from mother to foetus through placental circulation
(C) Injection of a toxin, extracted from antigenic pathogen
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Inflow of antibodies from mother to foetus through placental circulation

Question 16.
Formation of antibody depends directly upon-
(A) Cytotoxic T-cells
(B) Helper T-cells
(C) Monocytes
(D) Plasma cells
Answer:
(D) Plasma cells

Question 17.
Memory cells, involved in immune response are formed by-
(A) Neutrophils
(B) Basophils
(C) Monocytes
(D) Lymphocytes
Answer:
(D) Lymphocytes

Question 18.
Memory cells are stored in-
(A) Brain
(B) Liver
(C) Spleen
(D) Kidney
Answer:
(C) Spleen

Question 19.
Cytotoxic T-cells kill-
(A) Healthy body cells
(B) Infected body cells
(C) Macrophages
(D) All of these
Answer:
(B) Infected body cells

Question 20.
An antiviral substance produced within a virus-infected cell to prevent proliferation and spreading of virus is-
(A) Antigen
(B) Antibody
(C) Interferon
(D) Toxin
Answer:
(C) Interferon

Question 21.
Vaccine against small pox was first successfully applied by-
(A) Pasteur
(B) Koch
(C) Fleming
(D) Jenner
Answer:
(D) Jenner

Question 22.
Who is known as the father of immunology?
(A) Louis Pasteur
(B) Edward Jenner
(C) Alexander Fleming
(D) Robert Koch
Answer:
(B) Edward Jenner

Question 23.
Louis Pasteur was famous for-
(A) Invention of chicken pox vaccine
(B) Invention of rabies vaccine
(C) Invention of vaccination process
(D) Invention of immunization technique
Answer:
(B) Invention of rabies vaccine

Question 24.
The names of Sara Nelmes and James Phipps are related to-
(A) Small pox vaccine
(B) Chicken pox vaccine
(C) Cow pox vaccine
(D) Cholera vaccine
Answer:
(A) Small pox vaccine

Question 25.
The main immunoglobulin present in blood plasma is –
(A) IgA
(B) IgG
(C) IgM
(D) IgD
Answer:
(B) IgG

Question 26.
The immunoglobulin, which reaches the body of neonates through colostrum is-
(A) IgA
(B) IgG
(C) IgM
(C) IgD
Answer:
(A) IgA

Question 27.
Which of the following is present on the cell membrane of mast cells and B-lymphocytes?
(A) IgE
(B) IgG
(C) IgM
(D) IgA
Answer:
(A) IgE

Question 28.
Select the correct option from the following-
(A) An IgG molecule has two antigen binding sites and one heavy and one light chain
(B) IgG molecule is composed of two light and two heavy chains
(C) An antigen-binding site of IgG is made up of two light chains
(D) An antigen-binding site of IgG is composed of two heavy chains
Answer:
(B) IgG molecule is composed of two light and two heavy chains

Question 29.
A disease, that has been completely eradicated by vaccination is –
(A) Diphtheria
(B) Small pox
(C) Chicken pox
(D) Polio
Answer:
(B) Small pox

Question 30.
Toxoid vaccine is applied to immunize the body against-
(A) Small pox
(B) Hepatitis B
(C) Diphtheria
(D) Cholera
Answer:
(C) Diphtheria

Question 31.
In attenuated vaccine-
(A) Dead germs are used
(B) Living but inactive germs are used
(C) Toxins from the germs are used
(D) Combination of bacteria and viruses are used
Answer:
(B) Living but inactive germs are used

Question 32.
Killed germs are used to immunise against-
(A) Tetanus
(B) Plague
(C) Diphtheria
(D) All of these
Answer:
(B) Plague

Question 33.
DPT is a-
(A) Attenuated vaccine
(B) Inactive vaccine
(C) Toxoid
(D) Combination vaccine
Answer:
(D) Combination vaccine

Question 34.
Smail pox was deciared officially as an eradicated disease by WHO in the year-
(A) 1977
(B) 1978
(C) 1796
(D) 1980
Answer:
(D) 1980

Question 35.
DPT vaccine immunises babies against –
(A) Diarrhoea, Polio and Typhoid
(B) Diphtheria, Pertussis and Typhoid
(C) Diphtheria, Pertussis and Tuberculosis
(D) Diphtheria, Pertussis and Tetanus
Answer:
(D) Diphtheria, Pertussis and Tetanus

Question 36.
BCG vaccine is applied to immunise babies against-
(A) Polio
(B) Whooping cough
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Cholera
Answer:
(C) Tuberculosis

Question 37.
Spienomegaly or enlargement of spleen is a common symptom of-
(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Malaria
(C) Hepatitis B
(D) Dengue
Answer:
(B) Malaria

Question 38.
Washing hand before taking food can prevent-
(A) Diarrhoea
(B) Dysentery
(C) Polio
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 39.
Orally administrable vaccine-
(A) Salk polio vaccine
(B) Sabin polio vaccine
(C) Cholera vaccine
(D) Rubella vaccine
Answer:
(B) Sabin polio vaccine

Question 40.
Which one of the following is not related to phagocytosis process-
(A) Macrophages
(B) Lymphocytes
(C) Neutrophils
(D) Monocytes
Answer:
(B) Lymphocytes

Question 41.
Effectiveness of a vaccine is retained within the body by-
(A) Helper T-cells
(B) Macrophage cells
(C) Memory T and B-cells
(D) All lymphocytes
Answer:
(C) Memory T and B-cells

Question 42.
Diarrhoea may be caused by-
(A) Entamoeba
(B) Shigella
(C) Salmonella
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 43.
Which of the following diseases may be caused by protozoa, bacteria and even virus?
(A) Cholera
(B) Diphtheria
(C) Pneumonia
(D) Diarrhoea
Answer:
(D) Diarrhoea

Question 44.
Prolonged diarrhoea results into-
(A) Severe respiratory distress
(B) Dehydration of the body
(C) Very high fever
(D) Severe headache
Answer:
(B) Dehydration of the body

Question 45.
The organism acting as a vector for diarrhoea causing pathogen is –
(A) House Fly
(B) Cockroach
(C) Both
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Both

Question 46.
Feeling of extreme chill followed by very high fever is the symptom of –
(A) Pneumonia
(B) Diphtheria
(C) Malaria
(D) Dengue
Answer:
(C) Malaria

Question 47.
Plasmodium, the pathogen of malaria is a type of-
(A) Bacteria
(B) Virus
(C) Fungus
(D) Protozoa
Answer:
(D) Protozoa

Question 48.
Vector of malarial pathogen is-
(A) Female Anopheles mosquito
(B) Male Anopheles mosquito
(C) Female Culex mosquito
(D) Female Aedes mosquito
Answer:
(A) Female Anopheles mosquito

Question 49.
Inflamed tonsil with white sheath over it indicates –
(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Pneumonia
(C) Diphtheria
(D) All of these
Answer:
(C) Diphtheria

Question 50.
Diphtheria is caused by-
(A) Mycobacterium
(B) Corynebacterium
(C) Streptococcus
(D) Plasmodium
Answer:
(B) Corynebacterium

Question 51.
Respiratory droplets may cause infections like-
(A) Malaria, Cholera and Diarrhoea
(B) Diphtheria, Tuberculosis and Tetanus
(C) Tuberculosis, Diphtheria and Pneumonia
(D) Tuberculosis, Dengue and Diphtheria
Answer:
(C) Tuberculosis, Diphtheria and Pneumonia

Question 52.
Lock Jaw disease is caused by the infection of –
(A) Dengue virus
(B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
(C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(D) Clostridium tetani
Answer:
(D) Clostridium tetani

Question 53.
Lungs are affected in-
(A) Tuberculosis and diarrhoea
(B) Pneumonia and tuberculosis
(C) Tuberculosis and dengue
(D) All of these
Answer:
(B) Pneumonia and tuberculosis

Question 54.
Prolonged dry cough with quick loss of weight is a common indication of-
(A) Diphtheria
(B) Dengue
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Pneumonia
Answer:
(C) Tuberculosis

Question 55.
Severe joint pain with high fever and occasional rash on the back and shoulder are the common symptoms of-
(A) Malaria
(B) Chicken pox
(C) Pneumonia
(D) Dengue
Answer:
(D) Dengue

Question 56.
Transmission of which of the following diseases is caused by contaminated blood transfusion?
(A) Malaria, Tuberculosis and AIDS
(B) Malaria, Hepatitis B and AIDS
(C) Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B and AIDS
(D) AIDS only
Answer:
(B) Malaria, Hepatitis B and AIDS

Question 57.
Transmission of which of the following diseases are caused by contaminated food and water?
(A) Diarrhoea
(B) Diarrhoea and Hepatitis A
(C) Hepatitis A and Hepatitis B
(D) Hepatitis B only
Answer:
(B) Diarrhoea and Hepatitis A

Question 58.
Small pox vaccination as well as foundation of immunology has been laid down by-
(A) Robert Koch
(B) Louis Pasteur
(C) Edward Jenner
(D) Ronald Ross
Answer:
(C) Edward Jenner

Question 59.
Flavivirus causes-
(A) Dengue
(B) Hepatitis B
(C) AIDS
(D) Viral diarrhoea
Answer:
(A) Dengue

Question 60.
Which of these diseases may be transmitted sexually?
(A) AIDS and Hepatitis B
(B) Hepatitis A and AIDS
(C) Tuberculosis and Hepatitis B
(D) Hepatitis B, Hepatitis A and AIDS
Answer:
(A) AIDS and Hepatitis B

Question 61.
Which of the following set of diseases are of viral origin?
(A) Hepatitis B, Hepatitis A, Dengue and AIDS
(B) Dengue, Malaria and AIDS
(C) Tuberculosis and Pneumonia
(D) Hepatitis B, Hepatitis A, Tetanus and AIDS
Answer:
(A) Hepatitis B, Hepatitis A, Dengue and AIDS

Question 62.
Which cell of human body is damaged by HIV?
(A) Lymphocyte
(B) Eosinophil
(C) Macrophage
(D) Red blood cell
Answer:
(A) Lymphocyte

Question 63.
Vector of dengue virus is –
(A) Female Anopheles mosquito
(B) Male Anopheles mosquito
(C) Female Culex mosquito
(D) Female Aedes mosquito
Answer:
(D) Female Aedes mosquito

Question 64.
Which pathogen is not spread through blood?
(A) Hepatitis A
(B) Hepatitis B
(C) Malarial parasite
(D) HIV
Answer:
(A) Hepatitis A

Question 65.
ORS treatment protects a diarrhoea patient from-
(A) Abdominal pain
(B) Muscular cramp
(C) Thirst
(D) Dehydration
Answer:
(D) Dehydration

Question 66.
Personal level of washing includes-
(A) Brushing teeth
(B) Bathing
(C) Cleaning hands before taking food
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 67.
Which is treated as family level of washing?
(A) Bathing
(B) Cleaning toilet
(C) Cleaning hands
(D) All of these
Answer:
(B) Cleaning toilet

Question 68.
Social level of washing includes-
(A) Washing the door-step of your house
(B) Washing the water reservoir of your house
(C) Washing the toilets of rail station premises
(D) All of these
Answer:
(C) Washing the toilets of rail station premises

Question 69.
A disinfectant used for personal washing is –
(A) Bleaching powder
(B) Phenyl
(C) Hand sanitiser
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Hand sanitiser

Question 70.
A common but very effective disinfectant for cut wound is –
(A) Soap
(B) Ethyl alcohol
(C) Methyl alcohol
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 71.
Consuming a ripe tomato by plucking it directly from the plant of a field is harmful, as it may carry-
(A) Eggs of parasitic worms
(B) Remnants of pesticides
(C) Dirt and mud
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 72.
Which organisation has developed a global strategy to lift the standard of health of school children?
(A) UNICEF
(B) UNO
(C) WHO
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) UNICEF

Fill in the blanks :

1. Plasma cells produce specific antibodies to inactivate _____.
2. Tetanus vaccine is prepared by inactivated _____ from Clostridium tetani.
3. In ‘ T ‘ cells, ‘T ‘ indicate _____.
4. Two types of B cells are plasma cells and _____ cells.
5. The ability of body to resist harmful effect of pathogens is known as _____.
6. ‘WASH’ programme was developed by _____.
7. Small pox vaccine is a _____ vaccine.
8. _____ cells destroy T_C cells and T_H Cells.
9. Memory cells stay in _____ glands.
10. Acquired _____ immunity develops naturally due to the introduction of antigens.
11. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a pathogenic _____.
12. Thymus gland is a _____ lymphoid organ.

Answer:

1. Antigens
2. Toxin
3. Thymus
4. Memory
5. Immunity
6. UNICEF
7. Heterotypic
8. Suppressor
9. Lymph
10. Active
11. Bacterium
12. Primary

State true or false :

1. Vaccine against Hepatitis $B$ is an example of subunit vaccine.
2. Toxic chemicals like snake venom can act as antigens.
3. Stiffness of muscles with severe pain is a symptom of diarrhoea.
4. Tuberculosis is a virus borne disease.
5. Female Aedes aegypti mosquito carries Flavivirus from a diseased person to a healthy individual.
6. Antigens mainly include proteins.
7. IgM is a pentamer.
8. IgA is present in tears.
9. AIDS is transmitted through drinking water.
10. Yellowing of skin and eye is a symptom of pneumonia.
11. Vaccination develops artificial active immunity.
12. Epitope is a part of antibody.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. True
8. True
9. False
10. False
11. True
12. False

Match the columns :

Question 1.

Left column	Right column
1. Vaccine of plague	A. Heterotypic vaccine
2. Vaccine of mumps	B. Subunit vaccine
3. Vaccine of small pox	C. Attenuated vaccine
4. Vaccine of hepatitis B	D. Killed vaccine
	E. Conjugate Vaccine

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Vaccine of plague	D. Killed vaccine
2. Vaccine of mumps	C. Attenuated vaccine
3. Vaccine of small pox	A. Heterotypic vaccine
4. Vaccine of hepatitis B	B. Subunit vaccine

Question 2.

Left column	Right column
1. Cause of diarrhoea	A. Retro virus
2. Cause of malaria	B. Flavivirus
3. Cause of AIDS	C. E.coli
4. Cause of Dengue	D. Plasmodium vivax
	E. Rotavirus

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Cause of diarrhoea	E. Rotavirus
2. Cause of malaria	D. Plasmodium vivax
3. Cause of AIDS	A. Retro virus
4. Cause of Dengue	B. Flavivirus

Question 3.

Left column	Right column
1. T-cell	A. Part of antigen
2. Plasma cells	B. Cell-mediated immunity
3. Interferon	C. Part of antibody
4. Epitope	D. Viral infection
	E. Humoral immunity

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. T-cell	B. Cell-mediated immunity
2. Plasma cells	E. Humoral immunity
3. Interferon	D. Viral infection
4. Epitope	A. Part of antigen

Question 4.

Left column	Right column
1. lgA	A. Pentamer
2. lgE	B. Allergic reaction
3. lgM	C. Dimer
4. lgG	D. Placenta
	E. Trimer

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. lgA	D. Placenta
2. lgE	B. Allergic reaction
3. lgM	A. Pentamer
4. lgG	D. Placenta

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 1.3D Classification of Kingdom Animalia can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Classification of Kingdom Animalia Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
Multicellular animals without true tissues, belong to phylum-……………
A. Cnidaria
B. Porifera
C. Ctenophora
D. Protozoa
Answer:
B. Porifera

Question 2.
Which of the following phyla has numerous pores over its body to allow water to come inside?
A. Echinodermata
B. Mollusca
C. Porifera
D. Cnidaria
Answer:
C. Porifera

Question 3.
Which of the following features is absent in non-chordates?
A. Metameric segmentation
B. Bilateral symmetry
C. Axial skeleton
D. All of these
Answer:
C. Axial skeleton

Question 4.
The animals which perform excretion by numerous nephridia, belong to phylum-……………
A. Echinodermata
B. Arthropoda
C. Annelida
D. Porifera
Answer:
C. Annelida

Question 5.
Marine animals which performs locomotion with the help of eight meridional cilliary plates, belong to phylum-……………
A. Cnidaria
B. Ctenophora
C. Mollusca
D. Echinodermata
Answer:
B. Ctenophora

Question 6.
Which of the following animals has a single body cavity?
A. Cnidaria
B. Ctenophora
C. Both A. and B.
D. None of these
Answer:
C. Both A. and B.

Question 7.
The tiny pores through which water enters into the body of poriferans, are called-……………
A. Stomodeum
B. Osculum
C. Ostia
D. Proctodeum
Answer:
C. Ostia

Question 8.
Flower vase-like body with a single opening at the top is seen in-……………
A. Starfish
B. Hydra
C. Snail
D. Crab
Answer:
B. Hydra

Question 9.
Body is covered with thick chitinous exoskeleton in-……………
A. Arthropoda
B. Mollusca
C. Porifera
D. Annelida
Answer:
A. Arthropoda

Question 10.
The group of animals possessing stinging cells on the body surface, belong to phylum-……………
A. Echinodermata
B. Cnidaria
C. Ctenophora
D. Arthropoda
Answer:
B. Cnidaria

Question 11.
Placoid scale is seen in-……………
A. Rohu fish
B. Dolphins
C. Whales
D. Sharks
Answer:
D. Sharks

Question 12.
Unevenly divided tail fin is seen in-……………
A. Shark
B. Rohu fish
C. Cat fish
D. Whale
Answer:
A. Shark

Question 13.
Which of the following is never seen in fresh water bodies?
A. Poriferans
B. Echinoderms
C. Molluscs
D. Cnidarians
Answer:
B. Echinoderms

Question 14.
Which of the following is not a chordate?
A. Balanoglossus
B. Ascidia
C. Branchiostoma
D. Myxine
Answer:
A. Balanoglossus

Question 15.
Flame cells, nephridia and green glands are the excretory organs of-……………
A. Earthworm, cockroach and tape worm respectively
B. Tape worm, earthworm and prawn respectively
C. Prawn, butterfly and snail respectively
D. Starfish, jelly fish and prawn respectively
Answer:
B. Tape worm, earthworm and prawn respectively

Question 16.
Swim bladder is typically seen in-……………
A. Bony fishes
B. Cartilaginous fishes
C. Seals
D. Dolphins
Answer:
A. Bony fishes

Question 17.
Which of the following is an amphibian feature?
A. Naked glandular skin
B. Three-chambered heart
C. Aquatic larva
D. All of these
Answer:
D. All of these

Question 18.
Reptiles have-……………
A. Epidermal scales
B. Dermal scales
C. Glandular skin
D. None of these
Answer:
A. Epidermal scales

Question 19.
Beaks are the modification of-……………
A. Cranium
B. Teeth
C. Jaws
D. Tongue
Answer:
C. Jaws

Question 20.
Body hair, sweat glands and sebaceous glands are seen in that class of animals, which possess-……………
A. External pinnae
B. Muscular foot
C. Clawed digits
D. Beaks
Answer:
A. External pinnae

Question 21.
Radula is the-……………
A. Feeding organ of snails
B. Biting organ of starfishes
C. Swimming organ of squids
D. Feeding organ of insects
Answer:
A. Feeding organ of snails

Question 22.
Clawed digits are seen amongst-……………
A. Amphibia, reptilia and aves
B. Reptilia, aves and mammatia
C. Mammalia, amphibia and aves
D. Mammalia and aves only
Answer:
B. Reptilia, aves and mammatia

Question 23.
Water-vascular system is present in-……………
A. Cnidaria, Ctenophora and Porifera
B. Cnidaria, Ctenophora, Porifera and Echinodermata
C. Porifera and Echinodermata
D. Echinodermata only
Answer:
D. Echinodermata only

Question 24.
Larval stage has more advanced features in comparison to adults in members of-……………
A. Vertebrata
B. Urochordata
C. Cephalochordata
D. Hemichordata
Answer:
B. Urochordata

Question 25.
The richest animal phylum with respect to the number of species is-……………
A. Protozoa
B. Chordata
C. Mollusca
D. Arthropoda
Answer:
D. Arthropoda

Fill in the blanks:

1. Members of the phylum ……………. do not possess any of the three germ layers.
2. Poriferans release water from the body through a large opening called …………….
3. Members of the phylum ……………. perform locomotion by the help of soft muscular foot.
4. Choanocyte cells are seen in …………….
5 The visceral mass of Mollusca remains covered with …………….
6 Hydra and sea anemone belong to the phylum …………….
7 Single nostril is seen in the members of superclass …………….
Answer:
1. Porifera
2. Osculum
3. Mollusca
4. Porifera
5. Mantle
6. Cnidaria
7. Agnatha

State True or False

1. Insects possess three pairs of joint limbs. — True
2. Mammalian heart is four-chambered. — True
3. Frog is a warm-blooded animal. — False
4. In birds, the forelimbs are modified into wings. — True
5. Members of the class Chondricthyes are all bony fishes. — False
6. Presence of notochord is a characteristic feature of the phylum Echinodermata. — False

Match the columns

Left column	Right column
1. Sycon sp.	A. Annelida
2, Hormifora sp.	B. Porifera
3. Hirudinaria sp.	0. Ctenophora
4. Duttaphrynus sp.	D, Urochordata
	E. Amphibia

Answer:
1-B; 2-C; 3-A; 4-E

Left column	Right column
1. Placoid scale	A. Amphibia
2. External pinnae	B. Aves
3. Homocercal tail fin	C. Mammalia
4. Cloacal aperture	B. Osteichthyes
	E. Chondricthyes

Answer:
1-E; 2-C; 3-D; 4-A

Left column	Right column
1. Porifera	A. Comb-plate
2. Cnidaria	B. Retrogressive metamorphosis
3. Ctenophora	C. Choanocyte
4. Urochordata	0. Nephridium
	E. Nematocyst.

Answer:
1-C: 2-E; 3-A; 4-B

Left column	Right column
1. Diploblastic	A. Echinodermata
2. Radially symmetric	B. Cnidaria
3. Pseudocoe-lomate	C. Porifera
4. lawless	B. Nemathelminthes
	E. Agnatha

Answer:
1-B; 2-A; 3-D; 4-E

 

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 1.3C Classification of Kingdom Plantae can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Classification of Kingdom Plantae Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
Non-flowering photosynthetic plants belong to-………….
A. Pteridophyta
B. Fungi
C. Angiospermea
D. Gymnospermea
Answer:
A. Pteridophyta

Question 2.
The bryophyte, having thallus-like body is-………….
A. Moss
B. Liverwort
C. Hornwort
D. All of these
Answer:
D. All of these

Question 3.
Caulid is a part of moss, which is somewhat similar to-………….
A. Root
B. Stem
C. Leaf
D. Flower
Answer:
B. Stem

Question 4.
Among the following, seed of has two cotyledons…………..
A. Coconut
B. Wheat
C. Palm
D. Mango
Answer:
D. Mango

Question 5.
Phyllid is somewhat similar to-………….
A. Root
B. Stem
C. Leaf
D. Thallus
Answer:
C. Leaf

Question 6.
Which of the following is a higher non-flowering plant?
A. Fungus
B. Algae
C. Fern
D. Pine
Answer:
C. Fern

Question 7.
Which of the following is a lower non-flowering plant?
A. Pine
B. Moss
C. Fern
D. None of these
Answer:
B. Moss

Question 8.
Among the following, parallel venation is observed in-………….
A. Palm leaves
B. Rose leaves
C. Pine leaves
D. Mango leaves
Answer:
A. Palm leaves

Question 9.
Reticulate venation is seen in-…………
A. Bamboo leaf
B. Palm leaf
C. Banana leaf
D. Cucumber leaf
Answer:
D. Cucumber leaf

Question 10.
Which of the following pairs denotes gymnosperms?
A. Cycas and palm
B. Pinus and coconut
C. Coconut and date palm
D. Pinus and Cycas
Answer:
D. Pinus and Cycas

Question 11.
Seeds without fruit is seen in-………….
A. Pea plant
B. Apple tree
C. Pine tree
D. Coconut tree
Answer:
C. Pine tree

Question 12.
Which of the following pairs develop fruits?
A. China rose and paddy
B. Pinus and Dryopteris
C. Cycas and Ephedra
D. All of these
Answer:
A. China rose and paddy

Question 13.
Both gametophytic and sporophytic phases are independently seen in-………….
A. Gymnosperms
B. Ferns
C. Angiosperms
D. None of these
Answer:
B. Ferns

Question 14.
Dryopteris is an example of-………….
A. Moss
B. Fern
C. Coniferous plant
D. Monocotyledonous plant
Answer:
B. Fern

Question 15.
Coenocytic hypha means-………….
A. Septate hypha with one nucleus
B. Septate hypha with multiple nuclei
C. Aseptate hypha with one nucleus
D. Aseptate hypha with multiple nuclei
Answer:
D. Aseptate hypha with multiple nuclei

Question 16.
Which of the following is not an insectivorous plant?
A. Pitcher plant
B. Bladderwort
C. Stonewort
D. Sundew
Answer:
C. Stonewort

Question 17.
The division of plants with maximum number of species is-………….
A. Algae
B. Ferns
C. Gymnosperms
D. Angiosperms
Answer:
D. Angiosperms

Question 18.
The symbiotic association of an aiga and a fungus is called-………….
A. Mycorrhiza
B. Lichen
C. Haustoria
D. None of these
Answer:
B. Lichen

Fill in the blanks:

1. The body of thallophyta is called …………….
2. fossil. is a good example of a living plant …………….
3. ……………. are called photosynthetic thallophyta.
4. The leaf-like parts of a moss is called …………….
5. Gnetum is an example of …………….
6. Monocotyledonous plants possess roots.
7. In ……………., endosperm tissue develops before fertilisation.
8. Plant body of moss is …………….
Answer:
1. Thallus
2. Ginkgo biloba
3. Algae
4. Phyllid
5. Gymnosperm
6. Adventitious
7. Gymnosperms
8. Gametophytic

State True or False

1. The stem-like structure of a moss is called rhizoid. — False
2. Fern is an example of non-flowering tracheophyte. — True
3. Nostoc is a cyanobacteria. — True
4. Dicots show parallel venation. — False
5. In angiosperms, endosperm is formed after fertilisation. — True
6. Phanerogams do not produce seeds. — False

Match the columns

Left column	Right column
1. Agaricus	A. Gymnosperm
2. Dryopteris	B. Clubmoss
3. Pinus	C. Coenocyte
4. Lycopodium	D. Pileus
	E. Ramenta

Answer:
1-D: 2-E; 3-A; 4-B

Left column	Right column
1. Bryophyta	A. Cycas
2. Thallophyta	B. Mango
3. Gymnosperm	C. Riccia
4. Angiosperm	D. Pteris
	E. Spirogyra

Answer:
1-C; 2-E; 3-A: 4-B

 

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 4.2 Microbes in Human Welfare can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Microbes in Human Welfare Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Microbes are-
(A) Virus
(B) Bacteria
(C) Protozoa
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 2.
The term ‘microbe’ was coined by-
(A) Robert Hook
(B) Sedillot
(C) Robert Brown
(D) Leeuwenhoek
Answer:
(B) Sedillot

Question 3.
Azolla maintains symbiotic association with-
(A) Azotobacter
(B) Clostridium
(C) Nostoc
(D) Anabaena
Answer:
(D) Anabaena

Question 4.
Which is not a bio-fertiliser?
(A) Rhizobium
(B) Azolla
(C) Agaricus
(D) Azotobacter
Answer:
(C) Agaricus

Question 5.
Some cyanobacteria are used as bio-fertiliser because-
(A) They are capable of trapping free O₂ more than other plants
(B) They can solubilise phosphorus
(C) They can trap atmospheric nitrogen
(D) They help the soil to retain more water
Answer:
(C) They can trap atmospheric nitrogen

Question 6.
‘Bt’ for Bt-cotton stands for-
(A) Biologically transformed
(B) Biotechnology
(C) Bacillus thuringiensis
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Bacillus thuringiensis

Question 7.
Mycorrhiza is an-
(A) Association of fungi and algae
(B) Association of fungi and flowering plants
(C) Association of fungi and bacteria
(D) Association of algae and vascular plants
Answer:
(B) Association of fungi and flowering plants

Question 8.
Cyanobacteria are-
(A) Chemosynthetic bacteria
(B) Photosynthetic prokaryotic microorganism
(C) Non-photosynthetic nitrogen-fixing prokaryotic microorganism
(D) Nitrogen-fixing protozoa
Answer:
(B) Photosynthetic prokaryotic microorganism

Question 9.
A soil-dwelling nitrogen-fixing bacterium is-
(A) Anabaena
(B) Salmonella
(C) Clostridium
(D) Lactobacillus
Answer:
(C) Clostridium

Question 10.
Which of the following microorganisms can kill insect pests?
(A) Bacillus thuringiensis
(B) Leptomonas
(C) Nosema locustae
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 11.
The virus used in bio-control of insect pests is-
(A) Phage virus
(B) Rubella virus
(C) Nuclear Polyhedrosis virus
(D) Lipovirus
Answer:
(C) Nuclear Polyhedrosis virus

Question 12.
An anaerobic nitrogen-fixing non-symbiotic bacterium-
(A) Azotobacter
(B) Clostridium
(C) Rhizobium
(D) Azospirillum
Answer:
(B) Clostridium

Question 13.
VAM is a/an-
(A) Ectomycorrhiza
(B) Ectendomycorrhiza
(C) Endomycorrhiza
(D) Cyanobacterium
Answer:
(C) Endomycorrhiza

Question 14.
Granulosis virus and NPV are similar as both act as-
(A) Antibacterial substance
(B) Bio-control agents
(C) Bio-fertilisers
(D) Disease causing agent for human
Answer:
(B) Bio-control agents

Question 15.
Bacteria used for controlling Japanese beetle-
(A) Bacillus thuringiensis
(B) Bacillus popilae
(C) Bacillus subtilis
(D) Rhizobium fascioli
Answer:
(B) Bacillus popilae

Question 16.
Spodopterin, a bio-control agent for insect pest is composed of-
(A) Virus
(B) Bacteria
(C) Protozoa
(D) Fungus
Answer:
(D) Fungus

Question 17.
Example of cyanobacteria is-
(A) Anabaena
(B) Gleocapsa
(C) Oscillatoria
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 18.
Mycorrhizae fungi develop in symbiotic association with-
(A) Root system of pine
(B) Leaf of fern
(C) Green algae
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Root system of pine

Question 19.
Application of Azolla in paddy fialds are popularly practiced in-
(A) European countries
(B) South American states
(C) Southeast Asian countries
(D) All of these
Answer:
(C) Southeast Asian countries

Question 20.
Mycorrhiza is used as a bio-fertiliser because it-
(A) Can remove harmful heavy metals from soil
(B) Can absorb water
(C) Can help in”mineral absorption
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 21.
An antibiotic producing fungus is-
(A) Aspergillus
(B) Agaricus
(C) Penicillium
(D) Saccharomyces
Answer:
(C) Penicillium

Question 22.
Nitrifying bacteria are-
(A) Parasitic bacteria
(B) Chemosynthetic bacteria
(C) Autotrophic bacteria
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Chemosynthetic bacteria

Question 23.
Bacteria which are capable of trapping atmospheric nitrogen are-
(A) Putrefying bacteria
(B) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria
(C) Denitrifying bacteria
(D) Nitrifying bacteria
Answer:
(B) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria

Question 24.
The bacterium, mostly used in the experiments of biotechnology is-
(A) Rhizobium
(B) Streptomyces
(C) Salmonella
(D) E.coli
Answer:
(D) E.coli

Question 25.
Rhizobium is a-
(A) Free-living, nitrogen-fixing bacteria
(B) Symbiotic, nitrogen-fixing bacteria
(C) Cyanobacteria
(D) Denitrifying bacteria
Answer:
(B) Symbiotic, nitrogen-fixing bacteria

Question 26.
Application of Azolla in paddy field increases in soil.
(A) Phosphorus
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Sulphur
(D) Potassium
Answer:
(B) Nitrogen

Question 27.
Nostoc is a-
(A) Nitrogen-fixing protozoa
(B) Nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria
(C) Symbiotic fungus
(D) Green algae
Answer:
(B) Nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria

Question 28.
Which of the following organisms is not used as bio-fertiliser?
(A) Rhizobium
(B) Lichen
(C) Azotobacter
(D) Azolla
Answer:
(B) Lichen

Question 29.
insoluble phosphate of soil is transformed into soluble phosphate by-
(A) Azolla
(B) Nostoc
(C) Rhizobium
(D) Pseudmonas putida
Answer:
(D) Pseudmonas putida

Question 30.
Sweet pea plant can grow in infertile land because of-
(A) Azotobacter
(B) Clostridium
(C) Rhizobium
(D) Anabaena
Answer:
(C) Rhizobium

Question 31.
The microbe which does not have any role as bio-fertiliser is-
(A) Bacteria
(B) Cyanobacteria
(C) Fungus
(D) Protozoa
Answer:
(D) Protozoa

Question 32.
Cyanobacterial colony is formed in-
(A) Equisitum
(B) Cycas
(C) Psilotum
(D) Pinus
Answer:
(B) Cycas

Question 33.
A fungal bio-control agent is-
(A) Nosema
(B) Beauveria bassiana
(C) Popilla japonica
(D) Mattesia grandis
Answer:
(B) Beauveria bassiana

Fill in the blanks :

1 Bacillus thuringiensis produces a poison called _____.
2 Rhizobium is present in the _____ nodules of leguminous plants.
3 Mycorrhiza exhibits the phenomenon of _____.
4. Beauveria bassiana is a fungus, which controls _____ pest population effectively.
5. Mycorrhizal _____ absorb nutrients from soil very efficiently.
6. _____ is a protozoan microbe which effectively controls cotton ball weevils.
7. Anabaena is present in the _____ cavities of Azolla.
Answer:
1. Bt-toxin
2. Root
3. Symbiosis
4. Insect
5. Hyphae
6. Mettasia grandis
7. Leaf

State true or false :

1. Nosema locustae is a bacterium, which is used to control harmful grasshoppers.
2. Examples of aerobic nitrogen-fixing bacteria are Azomonas, Azospirillum.
3. Scientists have introduced genetic materials of Bacillus thuringiensis bacterium in corn and cotton plants.
4. Caudovirales is a fungus, which can control pests.
5. Except paddy field, cyanobacterial colony is formed in Cycas.
6. Viruses are also used as bio-control agents to kill insect pests.
Answer:
1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True
6. True

Match the columns :

Question 1.

Left column	Right column
1. Rhizobium	A. Soil living aerobic bacteria
2. Azospirillum	B. Anaerobic bacteria
3. Clostridium	C. Cyanobacteria
4. Aulosira	D. Retorvirus
	E. Symbiotic bacteria

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Rhizobium	E. Symbiotic bacteria
2. Azospirillum	A. Soil living aerobic bacteria
3. Clostridium	B. Anaerobic bacteria
4. Aulosira	C. Cyanobacteria

Question 2.

Left column	Right column
1. Caudovirales	A. Bio-fertiliser
2. Rotavirus	B. Hepatitis-A
3. Azolla	C. Bio-control agent
4. HAV	D. Diarrhoea
	E. AIDS

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Caudovirales	C. Bio-control agent
2. Rotavirus	D. Diarrhoea
3. Azolla	A. Bio-fertiliser
4. HAV	B. Hepatitis-A

Question 3.

Left column	Right column
1. Algae	A. Plasmodium
2. Virus	B. NPV
3. Bacteria	C. Azolla
4. Protozoa	D. Clostridium
	E. Glomus

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Algae	C. Azolla
2. Virus	B. NPV
3. Bacteria	D. Clostridium
4. Protozoa	A. Plasmodium

Question 4.

Left column	Right column
1. Leguminous plant	A. Amanita
2. Mycorrhiza	B. Protozoa
3. Malaria causing agent	C. Virus
4. Dengue causing agent	D. Caudovirales
	E. Rhizobium

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Leguminous plant	E. Rhizobium
2. Mycorrhiza	A. Amanita
3. Malaria causing agent	B. Protozoa
4. Dengue causing agent	C. Virus

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 1.3B Five Kingdoms of Life can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Five Kingdoms of Life Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
Nuclear membrane and nucleolus is absent in- ………………
A. Kingdom Monera
B. Kingdom Protista
C. Kingdom Plantae
D. None of these
Answer:
A. Kingdom Monera

Question 2.
Cell wall is absent in-………………
A. Kingdom Monera
B. Kingdom Animalia
C. Kingdom Plantae
D. None of these
Answer:
B. Kingdom Animalia

Question 3.
Almost all members of this kingdom are capable of synthesising their own food. This kingdom is-………………
A. Kingdom Protista
B. Kingdom Fungi
C. Kingdom Monera
D. Kingdom Plantae
Answer:
D. Kingdom Plantae

Question 4.
According to five kingdom classification, dinoflagellates belong to the kingdom-………………
A. Monera
B. Fungi
C. Protista
D. Plantae
Answer:
C. Protista

Question 5.
Cell wall is rich in chitin in the members of-………………
A. Kingdom Plantae
B. Kingdom Fungi
C. Kingdom Protista
D. Kingdom Monera
Answer:
B. Kingdom Fungi

Question 6.
Spirogyra is a filamentous-………………
A. Alga
B. Fungus
C. Plant
D. Worm
Answer:
A. Alga

Question 7.
Mucor is a-………………
A. Unicellular fungus
B. Multicellular alga
C. Multicellular fungus
D. Unicellular alga
Answer:
C. Multicellular fungus

Question 8.
Penicillium share same kingdom with-………………
A. Spirogyra
B. Bacteria
C. Mucor
D. Volvox
Answer:
C. Mucor

Question 9.
Whittaker inciuded Chlamydomonas under kingdom-………………
A. Fungi
B. Protista
C. Plantae
D. Animalia
Answer:
C. Plantae

Question 10.
Cyanobacteria can perform photosynthesis, still Whittaker placed it under kingdom-………………
A. Monera
B. Protista
C. Plantae
D. Fungi
Answer:
A. Monera

Question 11.
Members of this kingdom have their cell wall made up of polysaccharides and amino acids. This kingdom is-………………
A. Monera
B. Plantae
C. Protista
D. Fungi
Answer:
A. Monera

Question 12.
Saprophytic or parasitic mode of nutrition is seen in the members of kingdom-………………
A. Fungi
B. Protista
C. Plantae
D. Animalia
Answer:
A. Fungi

Question 13.
Multicellular heterotrophic organisms without cell wall, come under kingdom-………………
A. Protista
B. Plantae
C. Fungi
D. Animalia
Answer:
D. Animalia

Question 14.
Non-photosynthetic multicellular organisms with cell wall belong to kingdom-………………
A. Animalia
B. Plantae
C. Fungi
D. None of these
Answer:
C. Fungi

Fill in the blanks:

1. The five kingdom classification of living world was proposed by scientist ………………..
2. Unicellular eukaryotic animals are included under kingdom ………………..
3. Penicillium belongs to the kingdom …………….
4. Prokaryotic cells belong to kingdom …………….
5. Kingdom possess the highest level of biodiversity……………..
6. Euglena has been placed under kingdom ……………. according to five kingdom classification.
7. The concept of two kingdom classification was introduced in the year …………….
8. Mycoplasma is placed under the kingdom …………….
Answer:
1. Whittaker
2. Protista
3. Fungi
4. Monera
5. Animalia
6. Protista
7. 1758
8. Monera

State True or False

1. Two kingdom classification was proposed by Zimmerman. — False
2. Diatoms belong to the kingdom Protista. — True
3. The symbiotic relationship between a fungus and an alga is known as lichen. — True
4. Cyanobacteria belong to kingdom Protista. — False
5. Paramoecium belongs to the kingdom Monera. — False
6. Mycelium is seen in fungus. — True

Match the columns

Left column	Right column
1. Amoeba	A. Cyanobacteria
2. Euglena	B. Pseudopodia
3. Rhizopus	C. Mushroom
4. Nostoc	D. Flagella
	E. Mycelium

Answer:
1-8; 2-B; 3-E; 4-A

Left column	Right column
1. Sidney Fox	A. Systema Naturae
2. John Ray	B. Father of Botany
3. Carolus Linnaeus	C. Microsphere
4. Charles Darwin	D. Concept of species
	E. Natural selection

Answer:
1-C: 2-D: 3-A: 4-E

Left column	Right column
1. Paramoecium	A. Animalia
2. Penicillium	B. Protista
3. Bear	C. Monera
4. Bacteria	D. Fungi
	E. Plantae

Answer:
1-D; 2-A; 3-E; 4-B

Left column	Right column
1. Green plants	A. Decomposers
2. Fungi	B. Parasite
3. Animals	C. Scavenger
4. Mosquito	0. Autotrophs
	E. Consumers

Answer:
1-D; 2-A; 3-E; 4-B

 

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 5.1 Ecology and Ecological Organisations can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Ecology and Ecological Organisations Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Branch of science dealing with the interrelation of a species and its environment is-
(A) Autecology
(B) Synecology
(C) Community biology
(D) Population biology
Answer:
(A) Autecology

Question 2.
Synecology deals with –
(A) A single individual
(B) A population
(C) A community
(D) Different ecosystems
Answer:
(C) A community

Question 3.
At which level of ecology would you explain the event of change in body colour of an animal with the change in intensity of light?
(A) Individual level
(B) Population level
(C) Community level
(D) Ecosystem level
Answer:
(A) Individual level

Question 4.
Synthesis of chlorophyll in green plants is controlled by-
(A) Relative humidity
(B) Atmospheric pressure
(C) Temperature
(D) Light
Answer:
(D) Light

Question 5.
The similarity amongst chlorophyll production, transpiration rate and opening of stomata is that-
(A) All are involved in growth of plants
(B) All are light dependent events
(C) All increase weight of plant body
(D) All decrease weight of plant body
Answer:
(B) All are light dependent events

Question 6.
All the plants and animals together of a particular area are called-
(A) Ecotone
(B) Biome
(C) Biota
(D) Echod
Answer:
(C) Biota

Question 7.
Absorption of water by plants is related to-
(A) Water content of soil
(B) Chlorophyll concentration
(C) Plant height
(D) Starch content of cells
Answer:
(A) Water content of soil

Question 8.
Xerophytes have-
(A) Thick cuticle cover
(B) Less stomata
(C) Thick stem hair
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 9.
Zooplanktons come to the surface in day light and go to the bottom at night, this is–
(A) Circadian rhythm
(B) Diurnal rhythm
(C) Photoperiodism
(D) Phototactic movement
Answer:
(A) Circadian rhythm

Question 10.
Heliophytes are adapted to-
(A) Saline soil
(B) Saline water
(C) Bright sunlight
(D) Low sunlight
Answer:
(C) Bright sunlight

Question 11.
Population interaction is discussed under-
(A) Population level
(B) Community level
(C) Ecosystem level
(D) Individual level
Answer:
(B) Community level

Question 12.
Rate of metabolism increases in-
(A) Low temperature
(B) Higher temperature
(C) Low humidity
(D) High CO₂
Answer:
(C) Low humidity

Question 13.
A growing population shows-
(A) Low natality
(B) High mortality
(C) Low natality and emigration
(D) Low mortality and immigration
Answer:
(D) Low mortality and immigration

Question 14.
‘S’ shaped growth curve is seen in-
(A) Newly built ant population
(B) Stable human population
(C) Honeybee population
(D) Wasp population
Answer:
(B) Stable human population

Question 15.
High natality and immigration-
(A) Increase population size
(B) Decrease population size
(C) Do not change population size
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Increase population size

Question 16.
If B = Birth rate, N = Total number of individuals in a population and nb = Number of live birth, the equation for birth rate will be-
(A) N = nb / B
(B) B = nb / N
(C) B = N*nb
(D) B = N / nb
Answer:
(B) B = nb / N

Question 17.
Size of population remains unchanged if-
(A) Emigration = Immigration
(B) Natality > Mortality
(C) Immigration ≠ Emigration
(D) All of these
Answer:
(A) Emigration = Immigration

Question 18.
Population size decreases with-
(A) Emigration
(B) Immigration
(C) Low mortality
(D) High natality
Answer:
(A) Emigration

Question 19.
A positive inter-specific interaction is-
(A) Mutualism
(B) Parasitism
(C) Predation
(D) Cannibalism
Answer:
(A) Mutualism

Question 20.
Population size does not depend upon-
(A) Migration
(B) Natality
(C) Emigration
(D) Species interaction
Answer:
(D) Species interaction

Question 21.
High rate of predation results in-
(A) Decline in primary consumer
(B) Increase in primary consumer
(C) Decrease in higher level of consumer
(D) Decline in producer
Answer:
(A) Decline in primary consumer

Question 22.
In which of the following interactions, involved members keep very close contact?
(A) Competition
(B) Parasitism
(C) Predation
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Parasitism

Question 23.
What is ‘ + +’ interaction?
(A) Autotrophism
(B) Parasitism
(C) Symbiosis
(D) Predation
Answer:
(C) Symbiosis

Question 24.
Which of the following is a topographic factor of ecosystem?
(A) Brightness of light
(B) Wind speed
(C) Slope of hills
(D) Waves of sea
Answer:
(C) Slope of hills

Question 25.
Animals that maintain constant body temperature in any environment are called-
(A) Poikilothermic animals
(B) Homeothermic animals
(C) Eurythermal animals
(D) Stenothermal animals
Answer:
(B) Homeothermic animals

Question 26.
Example of stenothermal animals is-
(A) Birds
(B) Toads
(C) Ants
(D) Fishes
Answer:
(D) Fishes

Question 27.
Which of the following is an example of obligate parasite?
(A) Round worm
(B) Mosquito
(C) Louse
(D) Ticks
Answer:
(A) Round worm

Question 28.
Which of the following is not an abiotic factor?
(A) Water
(B) Soil
(C) Plants
(D) Air
Answer:
(C) Plants

Question 29.
Global ‘sink’ for CO₂ is-
(A) Tropical rain forest
(B) Mangrove
(C) Ocean
(D) Coral reef
Answer:
(C) Ocean

Question 30.
Which ecosystem has the highest primary productivity?
(A) Pond
(B) Ocean
(C) Desert
(D) Forest
Answer:
(B) Ocean

Question 31.
The most recently discovered ecosystem is-
(A) Vent*
(B) Crater
(C) Floating iceberg
(D) Coral reef
Answer:
(A) Vent*

Question 32.
Niche of a species is-
(A) Place of living
(B) Specific function
(C) Habitat and specific function
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Habitat and specific function

Question 33.
Which one of the following is mismatched?
(A) Deciduous forest : Shorea robusta
(B) Evergreen forest: Pinus roxburghii
(C) Xeric forest : Musa paradisica
(D) Mangrove forest : Barringtonia acutangula
Answer:
(C) Xeric forest : Musa paradisica

Question 34.
Insectivorous plants are-
(A) Organotrophs
(B) Autotrophs
(C) Heterotrophs
(D) Partial heterotrophs
Answer:
(D) Partial heterotrophs

Question 35.
Which of the following levels is not studied in synecology?
(A) Individual level
(B) Population level
(C) Community level
(D) Ecological level
Answer:
(A) Individual level

Question 36.
In ecology, interaction and organization among different organisms is studied in steps.
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer:
(C) 4

Question 37.
Which of the following is a long day plant?
(A) Pea
(B) Cosmos
(C) Strawberry
(D) Dahlia
Answer:
(A) Pea

Question 38.
Which of the following is a short day plant?
(A) Pea
(B) Dahlia
(C) Clover
(D) Radish
Answer:
(B) Dahlia

Question 39.
Chlorophyll synthesis in plants is regulated by-
(A) Humidity
(B) Wind
(C) Temperature
(D) Light
Answer:
(D) Light

Question 40.
Melanin formation in human skin is regulated by-
(A) Humidity
(B) Light
(C) Temperature
(D) Pressure
Answer:
(B) Light

Question 41.
Migration of salmon, eel fish is regulated by-
(A) Water
(B) Humidity
(C) Temperature
(D) Light
Answer:
(C) Temperature

Question 42.
Temperature affects the size of an organism. This is known as-
(A) Bergmann’s rule
(B) Gloger’s rule
(C) Allen’s rule
(D) Lindeman law
Answer:
(A) Bergmann’s rule

Question 43.
Higher humidity makes the body colour of animals darker. This is known as-
(A) Bergmann’s rule
(B) Gloger’s rule
(C) Allen’s rule
(D) Lindeman law
Answer:
(B) Gloger’s rule

Question 44.
Animals of polar region have smaller pina, tail and limbs. This is known as-
(A) Bergmann’s rule
(B) Gloger’s rule
(C) Allen’s rule
(D) Lindeman law
Answer:
(C) Allen’s rule

Question 45.
The physiological reaction of organisms depending upon the length of day or night, is called-
(A) Photosynthesis
(B) Photoperiodism
(C) Photorespiration
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Photoperiodism

Question 46.
The act of leaving one’s native place permanently with the intent to reside somewhere else, is called-
(A) Adaptation
(B) Immigration
(C) Emigration
(D) Extinction
Answer:
(C) Emigration

Question 47.
Example of ‘+0’ interaction is-
(A) Autotrophism
(B) Mutualism
(C) Parasitism
(D) Commensalism
Answer:
(D) Commensalism

Question 48.
All the plant species of an ecosystem is collectively known as –
(A) Flora
(B) Fauna
(C) Biome
(D) Biomass
Answer:
(A) Flora

Question 49.
All the animal species of an ecosystem is collectively known as –
(A) Flora
(B) Fauna
(C) Biome
(D) Biomass
Answer:
(B) Fauna

Question 50.
In an ecosystem, energy flow is always-
(A) Unidirectional
(B) Bidirectional
(C) Tridirectional
(D) Multidirectional
Answer:
(A) Unidirectional

Question 51.
Number of trophic levels in a food chain ranges from-
(A) 14-16
(B) 11-13
(C) 7-10
(D) 3-5
Answer:
(D) 3-5

Question 52.
The percentage (%) of energy that flows to next tropic level in a food chain is-
(A) 100 %
(B) 10 %
(C) 20 %
(D) 90 %
Answer:
(B) 10 %

Question 53.
Lindeman law of energy flow through different trophic levels in an ecosystem is also known as-
(A) 5 % law
(B) 7 % law
(C) 10 % law
(D) 15 % law
Answer:
(C) 10 % law

Question 54.
Which of the following is a grazing food chain?
(A) Organic matter → Earthworm → Bacteria
(B) Plant → Human → Worm
(C) Decaying organic matter → Zooplankton → Small fish → Large fish
(D) Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk
Answer:
(D) Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk

Question 55.
Actively swimming aquatic organisms in a water body are called-
(A) Necton
(B) Benthos
(C) Plankton
(D) Neuston
Answer:
(A) Necton

Question 56.
Primary source of energy in an ecosystem is-
(A) Water
(B) Soil
(c) Air
(D) Sunlight
Answer:
(D) Sunlight

Question 57.
Food chain was scientifically described in 1966 by scientist-
(A) Tansley
(B) Lindeman
(C) Odum
(D) Haeckel
Answer:
(C) Odum

Question 58.
The community of organisms, that reside on or near the sea-bed is called-
(A) Necton
(B) Plankton
(C) Benthos
(D) Neuston
Answer:
(C) Benthos

Question 59.
The largest consumer population of marine ecosystem belongs to-
(A) Primary consumer
(B) Secondary consumer
(C) Tertiary consumer
(D) Topmost level of consumers
Answer:
(A) Primary consumer

Question 60.
Photoperiodism is a-
(A) Biochemical process
(B) Bio-physical process
(C) Physiological process
(D) All of these
Answer:
(C) Physiological process

Question 61.
Man is-
(A) Autotroph
(B) Omnivorous
(C) Carnivorous
(D) Herbivorous
Answer:
(B) Omnivorous

Question 62.
If different trophic levels are piled one upon another, we shall get-
(A) Food chain
(B) Food web
(C) Food pyramid
(D) Energy pyramid
Answer:
(C) Food pyramid

Question 63.
Which of the following is a component of macronutrient cycle?
(A) Na
(B) Mn
(C) Cu
(D) O₂
Answer:
(D) O₂

Question 64.
Which of the following is a component of micronutrient cycle?
(A) Cu
(B) C
(C) H₂
(D) O₂
Answer:
(A) Cu

Question 65.
Inhabitance of Anabaena in the leaf tissue of Azolla is an example of-
(A) Competition
(B) Predation
(C) Symbiosis
(D) Commensalism
Answer:
(C) Symbiosis

Question 66.
In an inter-specific relation, one of the two species is benefited but another one is neither benefited nor harmed. This interaction is called-
(A) Symbiosis
(B) Mutualism
(C) Commensalism
(D) Parasitism
Answer:
(C) Commensalism

Question 67.
Certain bacteria break organic molecules and return elementary components to nature. These bacteria are treated as-
(A) Decomposers
(B) Putrifying bacteria
(C) Transducers
(D) Transformers
Answer:
(D) Transformers

Question 68.
Unit of a population is-
(A) A community
(B) An animal species
(C) A plant species
(D) An individual of a species
Answer:
(D) An individual of a species

Question 69.
Unit of a community is-
(A) An individual of a species
(B) A plant species
(C) An animal species
(D) Population
Answer:
(D) Population

Question 70.
The largest population in an ecosystem is seen amongst-
(A) Decomposers
(B) Producers
(C) Primary consumers
(D) Secondary consumers
Answer:
(B) Producers

Fill in the blanks :

1. Group of organisms of same species is known as ______.
2. ______ rhythm is the daily rhythm of activities which is controlled by light.
3. Animal living in desert regions have few ______ glands.
4. Decomposers show ______ nutrition.
5. Inflow of bulk of animals into a population is called ______.
6. Interaction between flowers and insects is known as ______.
7. In predation, the animal which kills other animal to consume it, is called ______.
8. The step of food chain is called ______ level.
9. Energy flow is ______ -directional.
10. Birds of temperate region have ______ wings than that of tropical regions.
11. Organisms that break down organic molecules and return elementary components to nature, are called ______.
12. There are ______ types of food chain in an ecosystem.
13. Carbon cycle is a type of ______ cycle.
14. The sum total of the solar energy trapped by all producers is called ______ primary production.
15. Cyclical pool of carbon cycle involves the atmosphere and the ______.

Answer:

1. Population
2. Circadian
3. Sweat
4. Saprophytic
5. Immigration
6. Mutualism
7. Predator
8. Trophic
9. Uni Answers
10. Narrower
11. Transformers
12. Three
13. Nutrient
14. Gross
15. Seawater

State true or false :

1. Population is a bigger unit than community.
2. Light enhances the pigmentation of skin.
3. Poikilotherms can maintain constant body temperature.
4. Population size remains constant if birth rate is lower than death rate.
5. Migration is of two types.
6. Lichen is a type of obligatory mutualism.
7. Predation normally is an intraspecific interaction.
8. Parasitism is a negative-positive association.
9. Tapeworm is an ectoparasite.
10. Organic matters like protein, fat are biotic factors of an ecosystem.
11. Tertiary consumers are considered as decomposers.
12. Different food chains interconnect to form food web.
13. Only 0.02 % of the total energy, that comes to the earth from the sun, can be trapped.
14. Carbon bed of the lithosphere acts as reservoir pool for carbon.
15. Chemosynthetic micro-organisms are heterotrophs.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. False
8. True
9. False
10. False
11. False
12. True
13. True
14. True
15. False

Match the columns :

Question 1.

Left column	Right column
1. Short day plant	A. Rafflesia
2. Long day plant	B. Agaricus, Mucor
3. Day neutral plant	C. Dahlia, sugarcane
4. Heterotrophic plant	D. Pea, radish
	E. Tomato, cucumber

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Short day plant	C. Dahlia, sugarcane
2. Long day plant	D. Pea, radish
3. Day neutral plant	E. Tomato, cucumber
4. Heterotrophic plant	A. Rafflesia

Question 2.

Left column	Right column
1. Consumer	A. Tapeworm
2. Detritivore	B. Green plant
3. Producer	C. Human
4. Parasite	D. Earthworm
	E. Decaying leaves

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Consumer	C. Human
2. Detritivore	D. Earthworm
3. Producer	B. Green plant
4. Parasite	A. Tapeworm

Question 3.

Left column	Right column
1. Facultative mutualism	A. Orchid and mango tree
2. Symbiosis	B. Bug and human
3. Commensalism	C. Lichen
4. Predation	D. Insects and flowers
	E. Tiger and deer

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Facultative mutualism	D. Insects and flowers
2. Symbiosis	C. Lichen
3. Commensalism	A. Orchid and mango tree
4. Predation	E. Tiger and deer

Question 4.

Left column	Right column
1. Transducers	A. Bed bug
2. Ectoparasite	B. Green plants
3. Transformers	C. Plasmodium vivax
4. Endoparasite	D. Bacteria
	E. Lichen

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Transducers	B. Green plants
2. Ectoparasite	A. Bed bug
3. Transformers	D. Bacteria
4. Endoparasite	C. Plasmodium vivax

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 1.3A Classification of Diversity of Life: Taxonomy can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Classification of Diversity of Life: Taxonomy Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
The term ‘taxonomy’ was coined by-………………
A. John Ray
B. Linnaeus
C. Theophrastus
D. Augustin de Candolle
Answer:
D. Augustin de Candolle

Question 2.
Who is known as the ‘father of zoology’?
A. Aristotle
B. Theophrastus
C. Hippocrates
D. John Ray
Answer:
A. Aristotle

Question 3.
Who is known as the ‘father of taxonomy’?
A. Aristotle
B. Theophrastus
C. Augustin de Candolle
D. Linnaeus
Answer:
D. Linnaeus

Question 4.
Systematics is-………………
A. Nomenclature
B. Identification
C. Classification
D. All of these
Answer:
A. Nomenclature

Question 5.
The correct sequence of Linnaean hierarchy is-………………
A. Class-Phylum-Order-Family-Genus-Species
B. Phylum-Order-Class-Family-Genus-Species
C. Division-Class-Family-Order-Genus-Species
D. Division-Class-Order-Family-Genus-Species
Answer:
A. Class-Phylum-Order-Family-Genus-Species

Question 6.
‘Species’ was treated as a unit of classification by-………………
A. John Ray
B. Linnaeus
C. Huxley
D. Augustin de Candolle
Answer:
A. John Ray

Question 7.
Which of the following are categories of taxonomic hierarchy?
A. Family
B. Order
C. Genus
D. All of these
Answer:
D. All of these

Question 8.
Hierarchy in classification was proposed by-………………
A. Simpson
B. Linnaeus
C. Mayer
D. Hutchinson
Answer:
B. Linnaeus

Question 9.
Which of the following is a taxonomic rank?
A. Mammalia
B. Animalia
C. Class
D. Plantae
Answer:
C. Class

Question 10.
Number of taxa in taxonomic hierarchy is-………………
A. 27
B. 7
C. 17
D. 9
Answer:
B. 7

Question 11.
Full form of ICBN is-………………
A. International Classification of Biological Nomenclature
B. International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
C. International Code of Biological Nomenclature
D. International Class of Biological Nomenclature
Answer:
B. International Code of Botanical Nomenclature

Question 12.
The first and second word in a binomial nomenclature respectively indicates-………………
A. Genus and species
B. Species and genus
C. Family and genus
D. Family and species
Answer:
A. Genus and species

Question 13.
Scientific names of paddy plant and pea plant respectively are-………………
A. Pisum sativum and Oryza sativa
B. Oryza sativa and Plsum sativum
C. Triticum aestivum and Pisum sativum
D. Zea mays and Pisum sativum
Answer:
B. Oryza sativa and Plsum sativum

Question 14.
Which of the following covers highest number of organisms?
A. Species
B. Family
C. Class
D. Phylum
Answer:
D. Phylum

Question 15.
The scientific name of human should be correctly printed as-………………
A. Homo sapiens
B. Homosapiens sapiens
C. Homo Sapiens Sapiens
D. Homo sapiens sapiens
Answer:
D. Homo sapiens sapiens

Question 16.
Which of the following is not in a correct hierarchical order?
A. Class-Order-Family
B. Family-Order-Class
C. Order-Family-Genus
D. Phylum-Class-Order
Answer:
B. Family-Order-Class

Question 17.
Binomial nomenclature is-………………
A. A scientific name comprising of a generic and a specific epithet
B. A Latin name
C. Scientific name given to a plant
D. One name given by two different scientists
Answer:
A. A scientific name comprising of a generic and a specific epithet

Question 18.
Binomial nomenclature was first published in the book-………………
A. Systema Naturae
B. Genera Plantarum
C. Species Plantarum
D. The Plants
Answer:
C. Species Plantarum

Question 19.
Scientific name of India’s national bird is-………………
A. Passer domesticus
B. Corvus splendens
C. Pavo cristatus
D. Columba livia
Answer:
C. Pavo cristatus

Question 20.
Naturally interbreeding animals belong to the same-………………
A. Family
B. Class
C. Genus
D. Species
Answer:
D. Species

Question 21.
The author of the book ‘Systema Naturae’ is-…………………
A. Aristotle
B. John Ray
C. Linnaeus
D. Theophrastus
Answer:
C. Linnaeus

Fill in the blanks:

1. ……………. is known as the ‘father of botany’.
2. The smallest unit of classification is ……………
3. The concept of ‘binomial nomenclature’ was proposed by ……………..
4. A family comprises of related ……………..
5. The theoretical study of classification is known as ……………..
6. ICBN is the set of rules and recommendations used for naming ……………..
7. The highest rank of taxonomic hierarchy is called ……………..
Answer:
1. Theophrastus
3. Linnaeus
5. Taxonomy
7. Kingdom
2. Species
4. Genera
6. Plants

State True or False

1. Human beings belong to the kingdom Animalia. — True
2. The book ‘Species Plantarum’ was written by Augustin de Candolle. — False
3. Panthera tigris is the scientific name of India’s national animal. — True
4. Order is a category in Linnaean hierarchy. — True
5. Linnaean hierarchy consisted of 10 categories. — False
6. The category ‘division’ is used during the classification of plants. — True

Match the columns

Left column	Right column
1. Peacock	A. Panthera leo
2. Lion	B. Pavo cristatus
3. Mango	C. Pisum sativum
4. Pea	D. Mangifera indica
	E. Homo sapiens

Answer:
1-B; 2-A; 3-D; 4-C

Left column	Right column
1. Kingdom	A. Dicotyledoneae
2. Division	B. Mangifera
3. Class	C. Angiospermae
4. Genus	B. Sapindales
	E. Piantae

Answer:
1-E; 2-C; 3-A; 4-B

Left column	Right column
1. Cyanogen theory	A. Lamarck
2. Systematics	B. de Candolle
3. Taxonomy	C. Pfluger
4. Biology	B. Oparin
	E. Linnaeus

Answer:
1-С; 2-Е; 3-B; 4-A

Left column	Right column
1, Concept of species	A. Bentham and Hooker
2. Binomial nomenclature	B. Ernst Mayr
3. Modern definition of species	C. John Ray
4. Genera Plantarum	D. Linnaeus
	E. Darwin

Answer:
1-C; 2-D; 3-B; 4-A

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 1.2 Biology and its Branches can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Biology and its Branches Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
The branch of science that deals with the study of structures and life processes of living forms is called-………….
A. Psychology
B. Geology
C. Biology
D. Chemistry
Answer:
C. Biology

Question 2.
The Greek word ‘Bios’ means-………….
A. Life
B. Organism
C. Organic
D. Microbes
Answer:
A. Life

Question 3.
Among the following, the oldest branch of biology is-………….
A. Cytology
B. Taxonomy
C. Histology
D. Ecology
Answer:
B. Taxonomy

Question 4.
Astrobiology or exobiology is a science which is developed by the combination of-………….
A. Biology and electronics
B. Biology and space science
C. Biology and astrology
D. Biology and computer science
Answer:
B. Biology and space science

Question 5.
The branch of biology that deals with the study of different types of tissues is -………….
A. Histology
B. Pathology
C. Ethology
D. Ecology
Answer:
A. Histology

Question 6.
The branch of biology that deals with the study of interactions between living organisms and the environment is-………….
A. Pathology
B. Ethology
C. Ecology
D. Embryology
Answer:
C. Ecology

Question 7.
The branch of science that deals with the study of different diseases and their causes is-………….
A. Ethology
B. Anatomy
C. Pathology
D. Physiology
Answer:
C. Pathology

Question 8.
The study of structure and development of embryo, is known as-………….
A. Palaeontology
B. Ecology
C. Physiology
D. None of these
Answer:
D. None of these

Question 9.
Physiology is the study of-………….
A. Different functional activities and life processes of an organism
B. Physical ability of an organism
C. Physical structure of an organism
D. Genes and its behaviour
Answer:
A. Different functional activities and life processes of an organism

Question 10.
Palaeontology is the study of-………….
A. Fossils
B. Embryos
C. Primitive plants
D. Primitive animals
Answer:
A. Fossils

Question 11.
The study of those animals, which cause harm to other organisms by drawing nutrients from them, is known as-………….
A. Cytology
B. Parasitology
C. Palaeontology
D. Entomology
Answer:
B. Parasitology

Question 12.
The term ‘biology’ was coined by-………….
A. Lamarck
B. Oparin
C. Linnaeus
D. Huxley
Answer:
A. Lamarck

Question 13.
The branch of classical biology that deals with the study of different forms of life, their classification and naming, is known as-………….
A. Genetics
B. Cytology
C. Histology
D. Taxonomy
Answer:
D. Taxonomy

Question 14.
The branch of biology that deals with the study of plants, is called-………….
A. Zoology
B. Botany
C. Agriculture
D. Horticulture
Answer:
B. Botany

Question 15.
Zoology is the study of-………….
A. Zoos
B. Birds
C. Mammals
D. Animals
Answer:
D. Animals

Question 16.
Biometry is a branch of science, which is developed by the combination of biology, mathematics and-………….
A. Trigonometry
B. Geometry
C. Statistics
D. Electronics
Answer:
C. Statistics

Question 17.
The branch of biology developed by the combination of biology and electronics is-………….
A. Bionics
B. Biometry
C. Cybernetics
D. Biophysics
Answer:
A. Bionics

Question 18.
The branch of biology that deals with the study of different aspects of cell, is known as-………….
A. Histology
B. Cytology
C. Physiology
D. Psychology
Answer:
B. Cytology

Question 19.
Study of humankind under the light of geography, sociology and palaeontology, is known as-………….
A. Geology
B. Anthropology
C. Human physiology
D. Human anatomy
Answer:
B. Anthropology

Question 20.
Study of physiology of organisms in outer space, is known as-………….
A. Exobiology
B. Space science
C. Astronomy
D. Astrology
Answer:
A. Exobiology

Question 21.
Immunology is the branch of science that deals with-………….
A. Body’s own defence against infection
B. Action of hormone in the body
C. Action of medicines in the body
D. Action of toxins in the body
Answer:
A. Body’s own defence against infection

Question 22.
Oceanography is an inter-disciplinary science, that mainly deals with-…………..
A. Coastal geography and phycology
B. Marine science and robotics
C. Oceanic geology and marine biology
D. Aquatic biology and meteorology
Answer:
C. Oceanic geology and marine biology

Fill in the blanks:

1. Study of fungi is known as ………………
2. Ethology is the study of ……………… of organisms.
3. ………………deals with the study of crude drugs.
4. The scientific study of production of flowers and ornamental plants is known as……………….
5. The knowledge of is ……………. utilised to make different instruments like endoscope, microscope, etc.
6. Palaeontology is the science which is formed by the combination of biology and …………….
Answer:
1. Mycology
2. Behaviour
3. Pharmacognosy
4. Floriculture
5. Bionics
6. Geology

State True or False

1. Taxonomy is the oldest branch of biology. — True
2. Bio informatics is the branch of science which is a combination of biology and electronics. — False
3. Sericulture is a branch of applied biology. — True
4. Knowledge of microbiology is important for the production of antibiotics. — True
5. Knowledge of biology can be utilized to control population explotion. — True
6. Study of human behaviour is called thanatology. — False

Match the columns

Left column	Right column
1. Apiculture	A. Oysters
2. Pisciculture	B. Honeybees
3. Sericulture	C. Birds
4. Pearl culture	D. Fishes
	E. Silkworms

Answer:
1-B; 2-D; 3-E; 4-A

Left column	Right column
1. Anthropology	A. Study of genes
2. Cytology	B. Study of humankind
3. Genetics	C. Study of fossils
4. Palaeontology	D. Study of cells
	E. Study of embryo

Answer:
1-B; 2-D; 3-A; 4-C

Left column	Right column
1. Study of biomolecules	A. Naked gene
2. Response to stimuli	B. Microbiology
3. Study of microorganisms	C. Mimosa pudica
3. Study of microorganisms	C. Mimosa pudica

Answer:
1-E; 2-C; 3-B; 4-D

Well structured WBBSE Class 9 Life Science MCQ Questions Chapter 5.2 Natural Resources and its Sustainable Use can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Natural Resources and its Sustainable Use Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
The concept, which supports that conservation of environment and development of economy must go on parallely, is called-
(A) Human development
(B) Sustainable development
(C) Industrial development
(D) Unidirectional development
Answer:
(B) Sustainable development

Question 2.
A natural resource, which may be replenished is-
(A) Coal
(B) Forest
(C) Petroleum
(D) Natural gas
Answer:
(B) Forest

Question 3.
A non-renewabie natural resource is-
(A) Coal
(B) Solar energy
(C) Water
(D) Wood
Answer:
(A) Coal

Question 4.
Trees of a forest continuously provide us-
(A) Furniture
(B) Oxygen
(C) Coal
(D) Wood
Answer:
(B) Oxygen

Question 5.
Most of the members of a forest are-
(A) Producers
(B) Decomposers
(C) Primary Consumers
(D) Secondary consumers
Answer:
(A) Producers

Question 6.
A forest cannot be used for-
(A) Pisciculture
(B) Apiculture
(C) Harvesting medicinal plants
(D) Ecotourism
Answer:
(A) Pisciculture

Question 7.
Which is not a cause of deforestation?
(A) Expansion of cultivation
(B) Forest fire
(C) Flood
(D) Industrial development
Answer:
(C) Flood

Question 8.
Sudden deforestation in an area may be due to-
(A) Expansion of cultivation
(B) Industrial expansion
(C) Laying railway track
(D) Forest fire
Answer:
(D) Forest fire

Question 9.
Production of prawn is a practice of-
(A) Epiculture
(B) Horticulture
(C) Pisciculture
(D) Lac culture
Answer:
(C) Pisciculture

Question 10.
A conventional source of energy is-
(A) Sunlight
(B) Petroleum
(C) Wind
(D) All of these
Answer:
(B) Petroleum

Question 11.
A non-conventional source of energy is-
(A) Coal
(B) Natural gas
(C) Petroleum
(D) Wind
Answer:
(D) Wind

Question 12.
Which of the following has a role in food production?
(A) Lac culture
(B) Agriculture
(C) Pearl culture
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Lac culture

Question 13.
Which part of forest trees prevents soil erosion?
(A) Shoot
(B) Root
(C) Root and shoot
(D) Stem
Answer:
(B) Root

Question 14.
Coal is used mostly in-
(A) Cooking
(B) Running rail engine
(C) Steel industry
(D) Thermal power plants
Answer:
(D) Thermal power plants

Question 15.
A renewable natural resource is-
(A) Livestock
(B) Natural gas
(C) Petroleum
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Livestock

Question 16.
Deforestation causes-
(A) Soil erosion
(B) Global warming
(C) Drought
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 17.
The method of water conservation is-
(A) Plantation
(B) Rain water harvesting
(C) Digging water pits
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 18.
Source of Vitamin C and amino acid is-
(A) Sago
(B) Yam bean
(C) Moringa oleifera
(D) Gum arabic
Answer:
(C) Moringa oleifera

Question 19.
Which appliance does help in conservation of energy?
(A) Refrigerator
(B) Solar water heater
(C) Computer
(D) Air purifier
Answer:
(B) Solar water heater

Question 20.
One of the non-human causes of deforestation is-
(A) Expansion of grazing land
(B) Expansion of cultivating land
(C) Industrial expansion
(D) Forest fire
Answer:
(D) Forest fire

Question 21.
Main problem for Indian rivers is-
(A) Water scarcity
(B) Silting
(C) Low water current
(D) Pollution
Answer:
(D) Pollution

Question 22.
The World summit on ‘Fight against hunger’, organised by United Nation’s Food and Agriculture Organisation was held in Rome in-
(A) 1996
(B) 1999
(C) 2003
(D) 2006
Answer:
(A) 1996

Question 23.
Pisciculture deals with-
(A) Culture of mushroom
(B) Culture of poultry birds
(C) Culture of prawn
(D) Culture of fish
Answer:
(D) Culture of fish

Question 24.
Source of fruits and vegetables is-
(A) Horticulture
(B) Floriculture
(C) Apiculture
(D) Pisciculture
Answer:
(A) Horticulture

Question 25.
Most modern concept of environmental development is-
(A) Urbanization
(B) Sustainable development
(C) Control of industrialisation
(D) Deforestation
Answer:
(B) Sustainable development

Question 26.
Social development, economical development and ecological development are the three basic steps of-
(A) Human development
(B) Industrial development
(C) Sustainable development
(D) Unidirectional development
Answer:
(C) Sustainable development

Question 27.
Most of the forests in India are of type.
(A) Deciduous
(B) Evergreen
(C) Coniferous
(D) Mangrove
Answer:
(A) Deciduous

Question 28.
The type of forest, which has most economic utility is-
(A) Deciduous
(B) Evergreen
(C) Coniferous
(D) Mangrove
Answer:
(C) Coniferous

Question 29.
Which of the following does not occur due to forestation?
(A) Water cycle regulation
(B) Acid rain
(C) Flood control
(D) Climate regulation
Answer:
(B) Acid rain

Question 30.
Which of the following is a cause of deforestation?
(A) Excess agriculture
(B) Excess industry
(C) Urbanisation
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 31.
Which of the following should be done before cutting a tree?
(A) At least three similar trees should be planted
(B) Appoint skilled workers for cutting trees
(C) Marking other trees to be cut
(D) Plan to sell those cut trees
Answer:
(A) At least three similar trees should be planted

Question 32.
Which of the following is not a function of forest?
(A) Maintaining O₂ – CO₂ balance
(B) Reduction of soil erosion
(C) Reduction of rainfall
(D) Food and wood production
Answer:
(C) Reduction of rainfall

Question 33.
The combined mass of water found in all water bodies on earth, is called-
(A) Atmosphere
(B) Hydrosphere
(C) Lithosphere
(D) Biosphere
Answer:
(B) Hydrosphere

Question 34.
Which of the following should not be present in drinking water?
(A) Magnesium
(B) Soluble CO₂
(C) Sodium salt
(D) Harmful bacteria
Answer:
(D) Harmful bacteria

Question 35.
Which of the following step should be taken for reducing wastage of water?
(A) Store water at the earliest
(B) Stop unnecessary use of water
(C) Prevent water pollution
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 36.
Rain water is not always safe for household purpose because of-
(A) Absence of mineral salts
(B) Presence of organic acid
(C) Presence of few protozoa
(D) Presence of inorganic acid
Answer:
(D) Presence of inorganic acid

Question 37.
Use of which of the following reduces use of fossil fuels?
(A) Solar car
(B) Microwave oven
(C) Biofuels
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 38.
Pearl culture is a type of-
(A) Tissue culture
(B) Apiculture
(C) Horticulture
(D) Mariculture
Answer:
(D) Mariculture

Question 39.
Growing and cultivation of trees is termed as –
(A) Silviculture
(B) Horticulture
(C) Tissue culture
(D) Floriculture
Answer:
(A) Silviculture

Question 40.
Example of an alternative food source is-
(A) Rice
(B) Pulse
(C) Meat
(D) Single cell protein
Answer:
(D) Single cell protein

Question 41.
Which of the following is not associated with food production?
(A) Horticulture
(B) Agriculture
(C) Pisciculture
(D) Pearl culture
Answer:
(D) Pearl culture

Question 42.
An example of fossil fuel is-
(A) Wood
(B) Coal
(C) Uranium
(D) Both (A) (B)
Answer:
(B) Coal

Question 43.
In which of the following countries, utilization of energy is not increasing any more?
(A) America
(B) India
(C) Bangladesh
(D) China
Answer:
(A) America

Question 44.
Which of the following is a cause of food crisis?
(A) Change in climate
(B) Natural calamities
(C) Population explosion
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Fill in the blanks :

1. The litter on the forest floor, is partly decomposed to form sticky _____.
2. _____ is used to prepare chewing gum.
3. _____ is the main economically important product of forest.
4. Rain water has a slightly _____ pH.
5. Sago is extracted from _____ trees.
6. Coal, petroleum, natural gas are the conventional sources for _____ power.
7. _____ by trees increases humidity of air.
8. _____ is the conventional source for hydel power.

Answer:

1. Humus
2. Gum arabic
3. Timber
4. Acidic
5. Palm
6. Thermal
7. Transpiration
8. Water

State true or false :

1. Ecotourism is a productive aspect of forest, from which government earns huge amount of money.
2. Due to deforestation, concentration of greenhouse gases increases in the atmosphere.
3. Fossil fuels are renewable sources of energy.
4. Rain water is generally free from germs and contaminants.
5. Sago is a protein-rich matter.
6. Rain water harvesting is practiced in areas with excessive suspended particulate matters in air.
7. Afforestation helps to reduce soil erosion.
8. Fossil fuels include coal and natural gas only.
9. Coal, natural gas, firewood are examples of non-conventional energy sources.
10. Forestation along the slope of watershed reduces the deposition silt in riverbed.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. False
6. False
7. True
8. False
9. False
10. True

Match the columns :

Question 1.

Left column	Right column
1. Local use of forest	A. Flood and drought
2. Cause of deforestation	B. Ecotourism
3. Result of deforestation	C. Honey, timber
4. Productive use of forest	D. Rain water harvesting
	E. Urbanisation

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Local use of forest	C. Honey, timber
2. Cause of deforestation	E. Urbanisation
3. Result of deforestation	A. Flood and drought
4. Productive use of forest	B. Ecotourism

Question 2.

Left column	Right column
1. Non conventional energy sourc	A. Vegetables, spices
2. Poultry	B. Yam bean, sago
3. Horticulture	C. Eggs, meat
4. Alternative food source	D. Coal, kerosene oil
	E. Geothermal energy

Answer:

Left column	Right column
1. Non conventional energy sourc	E. Geothermal energy
2. Poultry	C. Eggs, meat
3. Horticulture	A. Vegetables, spices
4. Alternative food source	B. Yam bean, sago