WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth: Water-Land-Air

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 6 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth: Water-Land-Air offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Chapter 5 Question Answer – Realms of the Earth: Water-Land-Air

Objective Type Questions [1 mark each]

Question 1.
Which layer of atmosphere protects us from the harmful ultra-violet rays of the Sun?
Answer:
Ozone layer

Question 2.
What is the upper limit of the atmosphere?
Answer:
Exosphere

Question 3.
What is the percentage of oxygen gas present in the atmosphere?
Answer:
21 %

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth: Water-Land-Air

Question 4.
What name is given to zone of living things?
Answer:
Biosphere

Question 5.
Which hemisphere is called water hemisphere?
Answer:
Southern Hemisphere

Question 6.
Which is the largest ocean?
Answer:
Pacific Ocean

Question 7.
Which is the main source of water on earth?
Answer:
Ocean

Question 8.
What do you mean by Hydrosphere?
Answer:
Sphere of water.

Write short notes on : [2 marks each]

Question 1.
Pangaea.
Answer:
500 million years ago, the world map was not as it is today. There was one huge integrated landmass or mothercontinent called the Pangaea.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth: Water-Land-Air

Question 2.
Continent.
Answer:
Landmasses of large extent are called the continent. There are seven continents of the earth. These are Asia, Africa, Europe, North America, South America, Australia and Antarctica.

Question 3.
Panthalassa
Answer:
The Pangaea was surrounded by the gigantic water body or Super Ocean called the Panthalassa.

Question 4.
Ozonesphere.
Answer:
This is a zone of ozone gas. It absorbs ultra-violet rays of the Sun. It has high temperature. Due to excessive use of chemicals and carbons, the ozone layer is being depleted.

Question 5.
Why is life possible on the earth?
Answer:
The earth is a unique planet. It has plenty of water. The earth has air. Oxygen and Nitrogen gases support life. All kinds of life depend upon water and air. First life on earth evolved in the water.

Question 6.
Why is the Biosphere important for living organism?
Answer:
Life exists in Biosphere. All the living organisms are interlinked for their survival. It consists of plants and animals. In this sphere of life, lithosphere, atmosphere and hydrosphere meet.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth: Water-Land-Air

Question 7.
How are oceans useful to us ?
Answer:

  • Oceans modify land temperature.
  • Oceans are source of water vapour that causes rainfall.
  • Oceans are means of transport.

Question 8.
What is isthmus ?
Answer:
An isthmus is a narrow strip of land joining two large landmasses or separating two large water bodies.

Question 9.
What is Gulf ?
Answer:
A deep inlet of the sea almost surrounded by land with a narrow mouth is called a gulf.

Question 10.
What is Bay ?
Answer:
A bay is wide covering indentation in a coastline.

Question 11.
What is strait?
Answer:
A strait is a narrow passage of water that connects two large navigable bodies of water.

Answer the following questions briefly : [2 marks each]

Question 1.
What do you mean by the term global warming ?
Answer:
The burning of fossil fuels (coal, gas, petroleum) the cultivation of soil, large scale industrialisation, rapid means of transport and deforestation has raised the average temperature of the earth by 0.5° C.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth: Water-Land-Air

Question 2.
Why is the earth considered a unique planet?
Answer:
Our earth is considered a unique planet in the Solar System because this is the only planet where life is possible. The environmental conditions are favourable for the origin of life.

Question 3.
Define environment.
Answer:
surroundings of a place. The environment includes land, water and air and living objects like plants, animals and humAnswer: Both living and non-living objects are dependent on one another. Our environment

Identify the correct answers : [1 Mark each]

Question 1.
The earth comprises
(a) One realm
(b) Two realms
(c) Three realms
(d) Four realms
Answer:
(d) Four realms

Question 2.
The domain of the earth consisting of solid rocks is
(a) The Atmosphere
(b) The Hydrosphere
(c) The Lithosphere
(d) The Biosphere
Answer:
(c) The Lithosphere

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth: Water-Land-Air

Question 3.
The landmasses form about of the earth’s surface.
(a) 20 %
(b) 30 %
(c) 40 %
(d) 50 %
Answer:
(b) 30 %

Question 4.
The smallest continent of the world is
(a) Australia
(b) Antarctica
(c) Europe
(d) South America
Answer:
(a) Australia

Question 5.
Which is the largest continent?
(a) Africa
(b) Asia
(c) Australia
(d) Antarctica
Answer:
(b) Asia

Question 6.
The two most abundant gases in the atomosphere are
(a) Oxygen and Carbondi oxide
(b) Water vapour and Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrogen and Water vapour
(d) Nitrogen and Oxygen.
Answer:
(d) Nitrogen and Oxygen.

Question 7.
The lowermost layer of atmosphere is the
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Exosphere
(c) Troposphere
(d) Mesosphere.
Answer:
(c) Troposphere

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth: Water-Land-Air

Question 8.
What is the percentage of Nitrogen gas present in atmosphere ?
(a) 18 %
(b) 38 %
(c) 58 %
(d) 78 %
Answer:
(d) 78 %

Question 9.
Atmosperic disturbances are found in
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Mesosphere
(c) Troposphere
(d) Lithosphere
Answer:
(c) Troposphere

Question 10.
Largest ocean is
(a) Atlantic Ocean
(b) Pacific Ocean
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) Arctic Ocean
Answer:
(b) Pacific Ocean

Fill in the blanks with correct words : 1 mark each.

1. The surface of the earth surrounded by a blanket of air is called ____.
Answer:
Atmosphere

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth: Water-Land-Air

2. Heights and depths of the landmasses are measured from the ____.
Answer:
Sea level

3. The big landmasses are called ____.
Answer:
continent

4. _____ is the largest continent.
Answer:
Asia

5. No permanent human settlement is on the continent of ____.
Answer:
Antarctica

6. ____ is the smallest continent.
Answer:
Australia or Oceania

7. The narrow zone of contact between the land, water and air is the ____.
Answer:
Biophere

8. The deepest point on the earth is ____ in the Pacific Ocean.
Answer:
Mariana Trench

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth: Water-Land-Air

9. The sphere of living things is called ____.
Answer:
Biosphere.

If the sentence is true, write ‘T’ and if false write ‘F’ against the following 1 mark each

1. Europe is the smallest continent.
Answer:
False

2. Oceans cover about 50 % of the earth’s surface.
Answer:
False

3. Nitrogen is the most abundant gas in the atmosphere.
Answer:
True

4. Africa is the second largest continent.
Answer:
True

5. The combined landmass of Asia and Europe is called Eurasia.
Answer:
True

6. The Arctic Ocean lies to the south.
Answer:
False

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth: Water-Land-Air

7. The Arctic Ocean in the North Polar Region is the smallest ocean.
Answer:
True

Realms of the Earth: Water-Land-Air Class 6 WBBSE Notes

Unique Planet: Our Earth is considered a unique planet in the Solar System because this is the only planet where life is possible. The environmental conditions are favourable for the origin of life.
Lithosphere: The solid layer of the earth’s surface is called lithosphere.
Hydrosphere: The surface of the earth that consists of water is known as Hydrosphere.
Atmosphere : The surface of the earth surrounded by a blanket of air is called the atmosphere.
Biosphere : The narrow zone of contact between atmosphere, hydrosphere and lithosphere results in the life which is called the Biosphere.

Introduction :

In this chapter you will study about the realms of the Earth, that is, the liquid hydrosphere (water), the solid lithosphere (land) and the gaseous atmosphere (air).

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth Water-Land-Air 1

This will help to understand how the three spheres have together given rise to the Biosphere-the realms of living organisms and made the Earth a unique planet. Earth is the only planet of the solar system that supports life.

Our environment consists of these four realms or parts. The surface of the land consists of rocks and soils. This part of the environment is called the Lithosphere, meaning a layer of rocks. You know that oceans cover much larger area of the earth’s surface than landmasses. Water also occurs on the land and in the atmosphere as water vapour. This realm of water is called the Hydrosphere. There is an envelope of air around the Earth. This is called the Atmosphere. All forms of life occur in the narrow zones of containing various forms of life is called Biosphere. Though there are four realms in our environment, they are all interdependent on one another.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth: Water-Land-Air

hydrosphere : Realm of water: The earth is commonly known as the blue planet. More than 71 per cent of its is covered with water and 29 per cent is covered with land. Hydrosphere consists of water in all its forms. The water cycle describes the continuous movement of water on, above and below the surface of the Earth. Water goes through changes of state and is converted to cloud, rain, ice or snow as it travels constantly from the air to the surface of the earth and back. This cyclic movement of water through the phases of nature is called the water cycle or the Hydrological cycle. As running water in oceans and rivers and in lakes, ice in glaciers, underground water and the water vapour in atmosphere, all comprise the hydrosphere.

More than 97 % of the Earth’s water is found in the oceans and is too salty for human use. A large portion of the rest of the water is in the form of ice sheets and glaciers or under the ground and a very small percentage is available as fresh water for human use. Hence, despite being a ‘blue planet’ we face a shortage of water!! Hydrosphere consists of oceans, seas, bays, gulfs and lakes.

Oceans : The oceans have a greater extent of water in the southern hemisphere than in the northern hemisphere. There are five oceans. These are the Pacific Ocean, the Atlantic Ocean, the Indian Ocean, the Arctic Ocean and the Antarctic Ocean.

The Pacific Ocean: It is the deepest ocean and the largest ocean. It covers nearly one-third of the Earth’s surface. In fact, it is so big that all the continents could easily fit into it.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth Water-Land-Air 2

The explorer Ferdinand Magellan named the ocean ‘Pacific’ meaning calm or tranquil. The International Date Line passes through the Pacific Ocean. The deepest part of the earth, the Mariana Trench, lies under this ocean. This ocean is bounded on the west by Asia and Australia and on the east by North and South Americas.

The Atlantic Ocean : It is the second largest ocean, about half the size of the Pacific Ocean and it is ‘S ‘ shaped. It is flanked by the North and South America on the Western side, and Europe and Africa on the eastern side. Some of the world’s best seaports (e.g., London, New York, Montreal) are along the Atlantic coast.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth: Water-Land-Air

The Indian Ocean : The Indian Ocean is the only ocean named after a country. It is bordered by Africa on the west, Asia on the north and Australia in the east.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth Water-Land-Air 3

The Arctic Ocean : It is the smallest ocean and lies within the Arctic Circle. It extends into the Atlantic Ocean and the Bering Strait connects it with the Pacific Ocean.

Seas : The world’s largest seas include the South China Sea, the Caribbean Sea, the Mediterranean Sea and the Bering Sea. The Earth appears bright, blue from the space as three fourths of its surface is covered with water. This is why Earth is called the ‘Blue planet’. Around 3.5 billion years ago the first life on Earth was originated in water. 97 % of all the water on earth is in the oceans. The remaining 3 % is distributed in rivers, lakes, glaciers and underground water reserves.

Lithosphere : Realm of Earth consisting of rocks.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth Water-Land-Air 4

The word ‘Lithos’ means ‘stone’. The solid portion of the earth on which we live is called the Lithosphere. It comprises the rocks of the earth’s crust and the thin layers of soil that contain nutrient elements which sustain organisms.

There are two main divisions of the Earth’s surface. The large landmasses are called the continents and the huge water bodies are known as the ocean basins. All oceans of the world are connected with one another. Are all the landmasses connected with one another?

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth: Water-Land-Air

The level of seawater remains the same everywhere. Elevation of land is measured from the level of the sea, which is taken as zero. The highest mountain peak Mt. Everest is 8,848 metres above the sea level. The greatest depth of 11,022 metres is recorded at Mariana Trench in the Pacific Ocean. Could you imagine that depth of sea is much more than the highest point?

Continents : There are seven major continents. These are-Asia, Africa, North America, South America, Europe, Australia and Antarctica. All these continents are separated by large water bodies. Look at the world map and notice that the greater part of the landmass lies in the Northern Hemisphere.

Asia: It is the largest continent. It lies in the Eastern Hemisphere and covers about one third of the total land area of the earth. This continent is separated from Europe by the Ural mountains on the west. The Tropic of cancer passes through this continent. The combined landmass of Europe and Asia is known as Eurasia [Europe + Asia].

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth Water-Land-Air 5

Asia is separated from Africa by Suez Canal.

Africa : It is the second largest continent after Asia. A large part of this continent lies in the Northern Hemisphere. The equator or 0° latitude passes through the middle of the continent. It is the only continent through which the Tropic of cancer (23 1/2° N) the Equator (0°) and the Tropic of capricorn (23 1/2° S) pass.

The world’s largest hot desert, the Sahara is located in this continent. It is bound on all sides by seas and oceans. Look at the map of world. The world’s longest river Nile, flows through Africa. Notice where Equator, the Tropic of cancer and the Tropic of capricorn pass in the map of Africa.

North America : It is the third largest continent of the world. It is completely lies in the Northern and Western Hemisphere. North America is linked to South America by a narrow strip of land known as the Isthmus of Panama. The continent is surrounded by three oceans namely the Pacific Ocean, the Atlantic Ocean and the Arctic Ocean.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth: Water-Land-Air

South America : Most part of South America lies in the Southern Hemisphere. The World’s longest mountain range, the Andes, runs through its length from north to south. South America is the home of the world’s largest river, the Amazon River. Can you name the two oceans that surround it on the east and the west?

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth Water-Land-Air 6

Europe : It is the sixth largest continent. This continent lies to the west of Asia and it is much smaller than Asia. It is bound by water bodies on three sides and the Arctic circle passes through this continent.
Australia : It lies entirely in the Southern Hemisphere. It is the smallest continent and is often called the “Island continent”, as it is surrounded by water.

Antarctica : It is entirely in the Southern Hemisphere. It is frozen land found around the south pole. It contains 75 % of the ice in the world. It is estimated that the ice is about 4 km thick.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth Water-Land-Air 7

Hence, Antarctica is called the “Frozen Continent”. There are no permanent human settlements. Many countries have research stations in Antarctica. India also has research stations in Antarctica. These are named as Maitri and Dakshin Gangotri.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth Water-Land-Air 8

Continental Drift : 500 million years ago, the world map was not as it is today. There was one huge integrated landmass or mother-continent called the Pangaea. It was surrounded by the gigantic water body or super ocean called the Panthalassa. The Pangaea started breaking up about 200 million years ago. Tectonics meaning building activity is the bases of the Theory of Continental Drift. 100 million years hence the world map can actually appear much much different from what it is today.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth: Water-Land-Air

Planet Earth is enveloped by a thin blanket of gases, which we call the atmosphere. It is composed of three elements-gases, water vapour and dust particles. The atmosphere is composed mainly of nitrogen and oxygen, which make up about 99 per cent of clean, dry air. Nitrogen 78 %, Oxygen 21 % and other gasses like carbon dioxide, argon and others comprise 1 % by volume. Nitrogen helps in the growth of living organisms while oxygen is the breath of life.

The atmosphere appears to be very thin but there are actually seven or more layers in the atmosphere-each with its own characteristic.

Layers of Atmosphere : Three important layers are :

1. Troposphere : I extends upto 20 km above the ground and contains air.
2. Stratosphere: It extends from 20 to 50 km above the ground and contains the Ozone layer.
3. Ionosphere : It extends from 80 to 450 km above the ground. It contains electrically charged gas particles (ions) that reflect radio waves. Hence this layer is important for communications.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth Water-Land-Air 9

Humidity and Atmosphere: The amount of water vapour present in the air determines the humidity of the air. It varies from time to time and from place to place.

Humidity decreases with height in the troposphere because water enters the atmosphere through evaporation from the Earth’s surface. Higher the temperature, faster is the rate of evaporation.

Density of the Atmosphere : Air is a homogeneous mixture of gases. Due to the gravity of the Earth, this air, which is easily compressible, is squashed nearer the surface of the Earth. Therefore. the atmosphere is densest near the surface, i.e., nearly 80 % of the atmosphere is in the Troposphere, giving it the highest value of density. As altitude (height) increases, the density decreases.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth: Water-Land-Air

Pressure and Atmosphere : Air may seem weightless but it is not. Gravity pulls the atmosphere down to the Earth. This is air pressure. Atmospheric pressure is defined as the weight of a column of air. The higher we go, there are less air. Hence the pressure decreases the altitude increases.

Temperature Distribution and Atmosphere: The Earth’s atmosphere is heated by the heat absorbed by the gas molecules and impurities like dust particles present in the air. Within the troposphere, temperature decreases evenly with increase in height.

Biosphere : Realm of Living Organism
Earth is the only planet of the solar system that supports life. Life is possible because of its unique hydrosphere, lithosphere and atmosphere.

The Lithosphere: The upper most layer of the Earth’s crust which is capable of supporting life is called soil. The soil provides nutrients for land organisms. It is also the medium for the fixation of plants. Minerals are cycled through the soil.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth Water-Land-Air 10

Hydrosphere: The water dissolves and supports nutrients. Water is used by plants for making food. It is also necessary for carrying out the chemical reactions within the body of living organisms.

Atmosphere : It maintains an even life supporting temperature on the earth. It (Ozone layer of atmosphere) protects living organisms from the harmful ultra-violet radiations of the Sun. The gases (O2 and CO2) present in air supporting life. Oxygen (O2) helps in respiration, carbon dioxide (CO2) in food manufacture by green plants and nitrogen in growth.

There are several species of organism that vary in size from microbes and bacteria to huge mammals.All the living organisms including humans are linked to each other and to the biosphere for survival. Biosphere supports about 10,00,000 varieties of animals and 3,00,000 varieties of plants. It includes minutes bacteria as well as huge trees and whales. The non-living component includes lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere. It is known as physical environment.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Realms of the Earth: Water-Land-Air

The non-living organisms are broadly divided into two groups i.e. Plant Kingdom and Animal Kingdom. Plants produce their own food by the process of Photosynthesis, which is possible because of the solar energy. Animals cannot produce their own food themselves. They are dependent upon the plants directly or indirectly. All the food for the animals come from the vegetal world directly or indirectly. Man, being a part of the biosphere is also dependent upon the biosphere for his major needs.

What is Biosphere?
The narrow zone of contact between the land (lithosphere), water (hydrosphere) and air (atmosphere) is the biosphere. It is in this zone that life, that is unique to this planet, exists. Bios is an ancient Greek word meaning ‘life’. Life is biosphere is possible only because of a proper balance between land, water and air. Life exists on and in the ground (land), in water and in the air, the biosphere can be defined as the relatively narrow belt of living organisms found a little above the surface and a little below the surface of the Earth.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 6 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Chapter 4 Question Answer – Rotation of the Earth

Objective Type Questions [1 mark each]

Question 1.
How much time does the Earth take for one rotation?
Answer:
23 hours 56 minutes 4 seconds.

Question 2.
State the direction of rotation.
Answer:
West to East.

Question 3.
Name the two ends of the axis of the earth.
Answer:
North pole and South pole.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth

Question 4.
At what angle is the axis of the earth inclined to the plane of the orbit?
Answer:
66 1/2°.

Question 5.
What is the speed of rotation at the equator ?
Answer:
1650 km / hour.

Question 6.
Which country is known as the land of the ‘midnight Sun’?
Answer:
Norway.

Question 7.
Which country is known as the land of the ‘rising sun’?
Answer:
Japan.

Question 8.
What is the average distance between the earth and the sun?
Answer:
150 million km.

Question 9.
What is the apparent movement of the sun and planets?
Answer:
iFrom east to west.

Question 10.
What causes flattering at the poles of the earth?
Answer:
Rotation.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth

Question 11.
What is meant by earth’s axis?
Answer:
Axis of the earth is an imaginary line on which the earth rotates.

Question 12.
We always see the sun rising in the east. Why ?
Answer:
Because the earth rotates from west to east.

Question 13.
Noon is hotter than morning. Why ?
Answer:
Because at noon sunrays are vertical.

Question 14.
Which movement of the earth causes day and night?
Answer:
Rotation.

Question 15.
How do you define day?
Answer:
The period taken for one rotation is called a day.

Question 16.
Which of the two places Cairo (30° E) or Chennai (80° E) will experience sunrise earlier?
Answer:
Chennai.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth

Question 17.
When it is noon along the Prime Meridian, which longitude will have mid-night ?
Answer:
180° longitude.

Question 18.
On which day the north pole has (i) 24 hours of daylight (ii) 24 hours of darkness ?
Answer:
21 June.

Question 19.
On which days all places on the earth have 12 hours of daylight and 12 hours of darkness ?
Answer:
21 March and 23 September.

Question 20.
What is known as the period of diffused light before sunrise ?
Answer:
Dawn.

Write short notes : [2/3 marks each]

Question 1.
Rotation of the earth.
Answer:
Rotation : The spinning of the earth on its axis from west to east is called rotation. The earth takes about 24 hours (23 hours 56 minutes 4 seconds) to complete one rotation. It is also known as daily motion of the earth.
Effects :

  • Rotation causes days and nights.
  • All heavenly bodies like sun, moon, planets appear to move from east to west.
  • Tides occur regularly twice a day.
  • Winds and ocean currents change their directions.
  • The four main directions (north, south, east, west) can be determined with the help of rotation.
  • We get a measure of time. A day consists of 24 hours-one complete rotation.
  • The different times of a day like sunrise, noon, sunset, midnight can be determined due to rotation.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth

Question 2.
What are the effects of the inclination of the axis ?
Answer:

  • There is apparent movement of the sun from the equator towards tropics.
  • It causes opposite seasons in the two hemispheres.
  • It results in the variation of length of day and night.
  • When north pole is tilted towards the sun, the south pole turns away from the sun. So the two hemispheres are alternatively exposed to the sunrays.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Ferrel’s law ?
Answer:
At equator, the earth’s speed of rotation is about 1600 km per hour. The speed goes on decreasing poleward. At 60° latitude, it is 800 km per hour. This difference affects the general circulation of the atmosphere. Winds are deflectd to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. Similarly, the ocean currents are also deflected. This is known as Ferrel’s law. Due to this the earth is flattened at the poles and bulged at the equator.

Question 4.
What is the effect of longitude on time?
Answer:
All the places located on the same meridian have the same local time. As the earth rotates from west to east, the places in the east will have sunrise earlier than places in the west. The places in the east gain time while the places in the west lose time. The Rule is (East – Gain – Add, West – Lose – Subtract).

Question 5.
What is a chronometer ?
Answer:
A chronometer is a highly accurate timepiece which is used to keep Greenwich Mean Time. The Greek word ‘chronos’ means time. It helps in determining the longitude of a place.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth

Question 6.
What do you mean by local time?
Answer:
Local time : The local time of a place is the time of its own meridian. The local time is calculated by the position of the sun at noon at a given place. When the sun at any place is highest in the sky, it is noon and it is 12 o’clock. All the watches of that place should be set according to that time.

Characteristics :

  • Every meridian has a different local time.
  • The places on the same meridian have the same local time.
  • The eastern places will be ahead of western places for local time.
  • Sundial was a simple and old method to determine local time.

Question 7.
What do you mean by standard time?
Answer:
Standard time : The standard time is the time of a central meridian of a country and is adopted by all the places. Standard time is a uniform time throughout a country. All the watches of the country are set according to this time. The Indian Standard Time (I.S.T.) is the local time of a place 82 1/2° E longitude which passes in between Allahabad and Mirzapur. It is 5 1/2° hours ahead of Greenwich Mean Time. When it is noon at Greenwich, it is 5.30 p.m. in India.

Short Answer-Type Questions : [3 marks each]

Question 1.
What are the results of the difference in the earth’s speed of rotation at various latitudes ?
Answer:
At equator, the earth’s speed of rotation is about 1600 km per hour. The speed goes on decreasing poleward. At 60° latitude, it is 800 km per hour. This difference affects the general circulation of the atmosphere. Winds are deflected to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. Similarly, the ocean currents are also deflected. This is known as Ferrel’s Law. Due to this, the earth is flattened at the poles and bulged at the equator.

Question 2.
Why all the places south of the Antarctic Circle have 24 hours of darkness on June 21st ?
Answer:
On June 21st, it is winter solstice in southern hemisphere. The sun shines vertically on Tropic of Cancer. The South Pole-Antarctic Circle area is inclined away from the sun. So these places beyond Antarctic Circle have 24 hours of darkness.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth

Question 3.
What are the effects of the inclination of the axis?
Answer:

  1. There is apparent movement of the sun from the equator towards tropics.
  2. It causes opposite seasons in the two hemispheres.
  3. It results in the variation of lengths of day and night.
  4. When North Pole is tilted towards the sun, the South Pole turns away from the sun. So the two hemispheres are alternately exposed to the sunrays.

Question 4.
Why is dawn or twilight much shorter in duration at the equator than at polar areas?
Answer:
The brief period of refracted light between sunrise and full daylight is called dawn while that between sunset and complete darkness is called twilight. The sun rises and sets vertically at the equator. But the sun rises and sets obliquely in polar areas. So the period of dawn and twilight is longer in polar areas. As a result the sun takes longer time to pass through the refracted light.

Question 5.
On what dates is the sun overhead at the equator? What are these dates called?
Answer:
The sun is overhead at the equator on 23rd September and 21st March. These dates are called equinoxes meaning equal nights. 23rd September is known as autumnal equinox while 21st March is known as spring equinox.

Question 6.
Why is Norway called ‘the land of midnight sun’?
Answer:
Norway is located beyond Arctic Circle (66 1/2° N. latitude). In summer, on 21st June, the Sun never sets beyond the Arctic Circle. The polar areas have complete 24-hour continuous daylight. When there is midnight in other areas, the sun remains shining in Norway. So it is called the ‘land of midnight sun’.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth

Question 7.
Why is Japan called ‘the land of the rising Sun’?
Answer:
Japan is the easternmost country in the world. It is the first to receive sunrays as the earth moves from west to east. It has the sunrise earliest than other countries. So, it is known as the land of the rising sun.

Answer the following Questions : [5 marks each]

Question 1.
How are days and nights occurred ?
Answer:
Days and nights are occurred due to rotation of earth. The earth rotates on its axis from west to east. When it rotates, one half of the earth turns towards light and has, therefore, day. The other half turns away from the sun and remains in darkness and has night. During 24 hours, every part of the earth comes in turn before the sun and then goes into the darkness. Therefore, the position of day and night keeps on changing. When it is day in one hemisphere, it is night in the other.

Question 2.
Account for the unequal length of day and night.
Answer:
The length of day and night varies throughout the year. Sometimes the days are longer and nights are shorter or vice versa. It is due to two reasons :

  • The inclination of the axis.
  • The revolution of the earth.

Due to the inclined axis, one hemisphere leans towards the sun for the six months, the other hemisphere leans towards the sun for the next six months. In summer, on 21st June, days are longer in northern hemisphere and the nights are shorter. In winter, the conditions are reversed, the days are shorter and nights are longer in the northern hemisphere. If the axes were vertical there would have been equal days and nights everywhere.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth

Question 3.
(a) What is International Date Line?
(b) What is its necessity ?
(c) Explain its location.
Answer:
(a) The International Date Line is an imaginary line roughly corresponding to 180° meridian. Ships crossing this line change the date by one day.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth 1

(b) Necessity : A traveller going eastwards will be 12 hours ahead of G.M.T. (Greenwich Mean Time) till he reaches 180° east meridian. Similarly, he loses 12 hours when he reaches 180° west going westwards. Thus, there is total difference of 24 hours or a whole day at the 180° meridian. This causes a confusion of dates when travelling around the world. To avoid this confusion, nations have agreed upon the Internation Date Line to change dates. When Magellan returned in Spain in 1522 after travelling around the world, he thought he had arrived on the 5th of September. He was shocked to be told that the date was 6th september. As he travelled westward, he knew nothing about the day he had lost.

(c) Location of Date Line : The International Date Line passes through the Pacific Ocean forms North to South following 180° meridian. It avoids the land areas and deviates from 180°. This is done so that it does not divide group of islands under the same government. The date line goes zigzag to avoid the confusion of time between one island and another. It bends to the west of 180° to avoid the Aleutian islands. In the southern hemisphere it bends eastward to avoid Fiji and Tonga islands.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth

Question 4.
What is the rule of changing the date while crossing the International Date Line ?
(a) What is meant by ‘six-day week’ and ‘eight-day week’?
(b) Explain the above with the help of a map.
Answer:
Rule: On crossing the date line, the ships adjust the dates according to the following rules :
(a) When crossing westward towards Asia (from USA to Japan), a day will be added. When crossing the date line, ship misses a day from the calendar and have ‘six-day week’. If a ship crosses the date line on Monday, the next day will be Wednesday and not Tuesday.

(b) When crossing eastward towards America (from Japan to U.S.A) a day must be subtracted. When crossing the date line ships gain a day from the calendar and have an ‘eight-day week’. It repeats a day. If ship crosses the date line on Monday, the next day will be again Monday and not Tuesday.

Question 5.
Why do we have standard time?
Answer:
The local time of places which are on different meridians are bound to differ. For instance, it will be difficult to prepare a time table for trains which cross several longitudes. In India, for example, there will be a difference of about 1 hour and 45 minutes in the local times of Dwarka in Gujarat and Dibrugarh in Assam. It is, therefore, necessary to adopt the local time of some central meridian of a country as the standard time for the country. The longitude of 82 1/2° E (82° 30° E) is treated as the Standard Meridian in India. The local time at this meridian is taken as the standard time for the entire country. It is called the Indian Standard Time (IST).

Kabeer lives in Bhopal. He tells his friend Alok that they will not be able to sleep tonight. A day and night cricket match between India and England had started at 2 p.m. in London. This means that the match would begin at 7:30 p.m. in India and finish well in the night. Do you know what is the time difference between India and England ?

India located east of Greenwich at 82° 30′ E is 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of GMT. So, when it is 2:00 p.m. noon in London, it will be 7:30 p.m. in India.

Some countries have adopted more than one standard time because they have a great longitudinal extent. For example, in Russia, there are as many as eleven standard times. The earth has been divided into twenty-four time zones of one hour each. Each zone thus covers 15° of longitude.

Identify the correct answers : 1 mark each

Question 1.
Deflection of wind on the Earth’s surface is caused by
(a) Revolution of the earth
(b) Rotation of the earth
(c) Attraction of the moon
Answer:
(b) Rotation of the earth

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth

Question 2.
Rotation is the movement of the earth round the
(a) Sun
(b) on its axis
(c) round the universe
(d) round the earth
Answer:
(b) on its axis

Question 3.
The speed of rotation of the earth at the equator is
(a) 1550 km per hour
(b) 1650 km per hour
(c) 1639 km per hour
(d) 1570 km pr hour
Answer:
(b) 1650 km per hour

Question 4.
The sun rises in the east and sets in the west due to
(a) rotation of the earth
(b) rotation of the moon
(c) revolution of the earth
(d) revolution of the moon
Answer:
(a) rotation of the earth

Question 5.
The earth rotates on its axis once in
(a) 23 hours
(b) 24 hours 30 minutes
(c) 23 hours 56 minutes 4 seconds
(d) 22 hours
Answer:
(c) 23 hours 56 minutes 4 seconds

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth

Question 6.
The time when the sun is at the highest position in the sky is called
(a) morning
(b) noon
(c) evening
(d) twilight
Answer:
(b) noon

Question 7.
The International Date Line follows the
(a) 0°
(b) 145°
(c) 180°
(d) 80 meridians of longitude
Answer:
(c) 180°

Question 8.
The spinning of the earth on its axis is called
(a) revolution
(b) travelling
(c) speed
(d) rotation
Answer:
(d) rotation

Question 9.
The speed of rotation of the earth at the poles is
(a) 0 km / hour
(b) 990 km / hour
(c) 1530 km / hour
(d) 1650 km / hour
Answer:
(a) 0 km / hour

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth

Question 10.
The circular boundary between the sun-lit part of the sphere and the part in darkness is known as the
(a) latitude
(b) longitude
(c) shadow circle
(d) equator
Answer:
(c) shadow circle

Fill in the blanks with correct words [1 mark each]

Question 1.
The axis of the earth is inclined at an angle of ____ from the orbital plane.
Answer:
66 \(\frac{1}{2}\) °

Question 2.
The speed of rotation is negligible at the ____.
Answer:
poles

Question 3.
Everyday the earth makes a journey across the sky from _____ to _____.
Answer:
west, west

Question 4.
The movement of the earth on its axis is called _____.
Answer:
rotation

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth

Question 5.
The earth’s axis always points to the ______.
Answer:
pole star

Question 6.
Our shadow is the at _____ the noon time or mid-day.
Answer:
minimum

Question 7.
The local time at P(40° N, 40° E) is 12 noon on Sunday. The local time at B (40° N .130° E) will be _____ on Sunday.
Answer:
6 p.m.

Question 8.
A (20° N . 60° E), B(60° S . 60° E) and C (20° N, 20° E) are places on the earth. ____ of these will have the same local time.
Answer:
A and B.

If the sentence is true, write ‘T’ and if false write ‘F’ against the following : 1 mark each

1. The Earth’s axis is an imaginary line joining poles and passing through the equator.
Answer:
False

2. The circular boundary between the sun-lit and dark part of the earth is known as shadow circle.
Answer:
True

3. Actually the sun does not move from east to west.
Answer:
True

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth

4. Rotation is also known as the annual movement of the earth.
Answer:
True

5. The city of Kolkata at 88° 34′ E is considered as the Standard Meridian of India.
Answer:
False

6. The hours beginning from mid-night to noon is indicated by a.m.
Answer:
True

7. The axis of the earth makes an angle of 23 1/2° with the vertical.
Answer:
False

Write the differences: [2/3 marks each]

Question 1.
A.M. and P.M.
Answer:

A.M. P.M.
1. The word ‘meridian’ means mid-day or noon. A.M. = Ante-meridian or before noon. (Ante = before) 1. P.M. = Post-meridian or afternoon (Post = After)
2. The period of time from 12 midnight to just before 12 noon is called ante-meridian (a.m.) 2. The period from 12 noon to just before midnight (12.00) is called postmeridian (p.m.)

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth

Question 2.
Dawn and Dusk.
Answer:

Dawn Dusk/Twilight
1. Just before sunrise, there is some diffused light. This period is called dawn. 1. Just before sunset, diffused light is left. This period is called dusk.
2. Dawn lasts till the sun rises and begins when the centre of he sun arrives below the apparent horizon 6° (for civil down) / 12° (for nautical dawn) / 18° (for astronomical dawn). 2. Dusk continues till the centre of the sun sinks below the horizon 6° (for civil twilight) / 12° (for nautical twilight) / 18° (for astrono-mical twilight).
3. Dawn at the equator is the shortest as the sun rises there in vertical path. 3. Dusk at the equator is the shortest as the sun sinks there in vertical path.

Question 3.
Local time and Standard time.
Answer:

Local time Standard Time
1. Local time of a place is the time of its meridian. 1. Standard time is the time of a central meridian of an area.
2. Each place has its own local time. 2. All places have uniform or same time.
3. When it is noon, the local time is 12 o’clock. 3. It does not have any relation with noon or height of the sun.
4. All places on a meridian have same local time. 4. All places within a country have the same standard time.
5. The places in the east are ahead of west in time. For 1° longitude there is a difference of 4 minutes of time. 5. There is no change in time. So it is known as standard time.

Rotation of the Earth Class 6 WBBSE Notes

Axis of the Earth : The Earth rotates about its axis. It is inclined at an angle of 66 1/2° to the plane of the orbit.

Movements of the Earth : The Earth has two movements : (i) The Rotation and (ii) Revolution.

Rotation : Rotation is the spinning of Earth on its axis. Greek astronomer, Aristarchus of Samos (325-250 BC) stated that. It is the earth, and not the stars, that spins everyday.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth

Direction : Rotation is the turning around of the Earth on its axis, from west to east.

Effects : Day and night are caused due to daily motion of the earth. The earth depends upon the sun for its light. The sun can face only one half of the earth.

Everyday we see that the Sun rises in the east and sets in the west. It seems as if the Sun travels round the earth from east to west. This is known as ‘apparent movement of the Sun’. But the fact is otherwise. Actually the Sun does not rise or set. Like all other planets in the Solar System, the Earth also has two types of movements. The Earth rotates on an imaginary axis. It takes nearly 24 hours for the Earth to complete one rotation. The period taken for one rotation is called a day.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth 2

Movements of the Earth : In 1522 A.D., Nicolaus Copernicus, a Polish astronomer proved first in his book titled ‘On the Revolutions of the Heavenly Spheres’ that the earth spins daily on its axis and goes around the Sun every year along with the other planets of the Solar System. The Earth has two main motions or movements-
1. Rotation and 2. Revolution.

Rotation of the Earth:

Definition : The Earth spins on its own imaginary axis (66 1/2° inclined to its orbital plane) from west to east once in every 24 hours (23 hours 56 minutes and 4 seconds). This spinning of the Earth is termed as rotation. The rotation is called ‘diurnal motion’ of the Earth as it causes formation of day and night. This diurnal movement is also known as ‘the daily movement of the Earth’. According to A.N. Strahler, “The spinning of the Earth on its polar axis is termed as rotation”.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth 3

Salient features of the Earth’s Rotation:

Direction of Rotation : If we look the Earth (Globe) from outside, the Earth is found to rotate from west to east or in anti-clockwise direction. Since the Earth rotates in a west-east direction, we see the Sun rising everyday in the east and setting in the west.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth 4

Axis :

  1. Rotation is the turning around of the Earth on its axis, from west to east.
  2. The axis is the imaginary line passing through the centre of the Earth on which the Earth rotates.
  3. The Earth spins, west to east, around its axis once in 24 hours.
  4. The north pole and south pole lie at the ends of the axis.
  5. The Earth’s axis is not vertical. It makes an angle of 23 1/2° with the vertical or 66 1/2° with the plane of the Earth’s orbit.
  6. The Earth’s axis always remains pointed in the same direction (towards the Pole star) as the Earth goes around the Sun.
  7. The tilt of the Earth axis is also known as the inclination of the Earth’s axis.

The Speed of Rotation : Being spherical in shape, the surface speed of rotation of the Earth is variable. It is highest at the equator, gradually diminishing towards north and south and becomes zero at the poles. The surface speed at the equator (0°) is 1630 km / hr.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth 5

Why do we not feel the Rotation of the Earth? We do not feel that the Earth on which we live because it is constantly rotating. The reasons are-

(i) There are no heavenly objects nearer to the Earth, either stationary or moving opposite of the Earth’s rotation by which we can compare the Earth’s rotation.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth 6

(ii) The rate of rotation is uniform and constant for each place on the Earth’s surface.
(iii) The atmosphere also rotates with the Earth uniformly.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth

What are the effects of the speed of rotation: The differences in the speed of rotation at the Equator and at the poles has important consequences.

1. It affects the shape of the Earth : The rotation of the Earth is considered responsible for the slight flattening of the Earth at the two poles and bulging at the equator. The equatorial diameter is 43 km longer than the polar diameter.

2. It affects the general circulation of the atmosphere and ocean currents :
(a) The moving air and ocean water in deflected at the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere.
(b) Cyclones and anticylones are similarly deflected in both hemispheres.
(c) The movements of water in the ocean is affected in relation to rigid crust.

Effects of Earth’s Rotation –

The rotation of the Earth is responsible for the following major effects :

  • Formation of days and nights
  • Occurrence of sunrise, noon and sunset
  • Determination of time
  • Deflection of planetary wind
  • Formation of tides
  • Magnetization of the Earth
  • Differentiation of temperature
  • Determination of the direction
  • Different local time
  • Shape of the Earth
  • Other.

Formation of Days and Nights : The Earth rotates around its axis from west to east once in 24 hours. So when a particular place comes in front of the Sun, it gets the sunlight and therefore experiences day. As the earth rotates, this particular place moves away from the Sun into darkness. The imaginary line that separates the lit-up half from the darkened half is called the circle of Illumination or Shadow Circle. In this way all places on the Earth’s surface continuously experience periods of daylight followed by periods of darkness called night.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth 7

Occurrence of Sunrise, Noon and Sunset : As the Earth rotates, the portion of the Earth which starts turning towards the Sun has sunrise. Slowly the inclination of the sunrays increases. When it is maximum, it is noon. When that portion gets away from the Sun, evening appears and soon the sun sets. The positions of the Earth’s various parts continue to pass through these conditions as the Earth continues to rotate.

Determination of time : The Earth takes a full day to make a complete rotation. We divide the day in 24 hours and then an hour into 60 minutes and a minute into 60 seconds. Thus we get an idea of calculating time.

Deflection of planetary wind : In 1835, Gustave-Gaspard de Coriolis explained that air flows do not move in a straight path because the spinning of the Earth on its axis causes the air masses to get deflected. The tendency of deflection of wind due to the Earth’s rotation is known as the Coriolis effects or the Coriolis force. After investigating and analysing the Coriolis force, this concept was developed by the American climatologist William Ferrel in 1855.

According to Ferrel, due to the effect of Coriolis force, wind and ocean currents are deflected towards the right in the northern hemisphere and towards the left in the southern hemisphere. This is known as Ferrel’s Law.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth

Alternation or Formation of Day and Night –

As the Earth is a sphere, only half of it, facing the Sun, is lit-up by sunrays. The other half remains dark. As a result, day occurs in the lit-half of the earth and night in the dark-half of it. The imaginary line that separates the lit-up half from the darkened half is called circle of Illumination or shadow circle. Each place of the surface of the Earth is swept over twice by the shadow circle once at dawn and again at twilight everyday.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth 8

The Earth’s rotation does not allow either of the two halves to remain always lit or unlit. They keep moving from sunlight to darkness and again from darkness to sunlight after almost regular intervals. The process of this change is not sudden. Transformation from sunlit day to night darkness and again from night darkness to sun-lit day at each place is uniform and ceaselessly gradual at almost regular intervals. During each 24 hour day, each place or meridian appears to shift its position from west to east. Hence from any place or meridian the Sun appears to move from east to west. This phenomenon may be cited as a proof that the earth rotates from west to east in respect of the Sun.

A Causes of dawn, sunrise, noon, evening, twilight (or dusk) and mid-night: All these phenomena occur in a complete 24 hour day. No place on the Earth has an abrupt change from day to night or vice versa. There is a transition period between day and night as well as night and day. During this transition period, there is diffused light produced by scattering and reflection by clouds, dust and other particles present in the atmosphere. These occur both before sunrise and after sunset.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth 9

Dawn : The period of receiving refracted and reflected sunlight before sunrise is called dawn. However the period of diffused light before sunrise is called dawn. Dawn lasts until the sun rises and begins when the centre of the sun arrives below the apparent horizon 6° (for civil dawn) / 12° (for nautical dawn) / 18° (for astronomical dawn). Dawn at the equator is the shortest as the sun rises there in vertical path, at the temperate latitudes longer and at the poles it much longer.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth

Sunrise: The time at which the upper edge of the sun appears above the apparent horizon of a place on the Earth’s surface on a clear day is called sunrise. The Earth rotates around its axis from west to east makes the Sun appear to rise in the east and it is known as sunrise.

Noon : The time at which the Sun stands at its highest position or at in vertical position above the horizon of a place on the Earth surface is called noon.

Evening : Similarly the time at which the upper edge of the Sun appears to sink below the apparent horizon of a place on the Earth’s surface is called evening. Thus when the Sun sets at a particular place it is called evening. D

Twilight or Dusk : The period on diffused light before sunset is called twilight. Twiligh’t or dusk at a place or the Earth’s surface begins after sunset and continues till the centre of the Sun sinks below the horizon 6° (for civil twilight) / 12° (for nautical twilight) / 18° (for astronomical twilight).

Account for the unequal length of day and night : The tilting of the Earth axis is called the inclination of the Earth’s axis. The length of day and night varies throughout the year. It is due to the inclination of the Earth’s axis. Due to inclined axis, one hemisphere leans towards the Sun for the six months, the other hemisphere leans towards the Sun for the next six months.

Effect of the Inclined Axis –

Assume the Earth’s axis to be vertical –

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth 10

1. Place A on the Equator would be on position A’ after 12 hours
2. Place B on the Tropic
of Cancer would be at position B’ after 12 hours.
Distance BX = Distance XB’
∴ Length of day = Length of night.
3. Similarly at the poles, or at any other place on the Earth, lengths of day and night would be equal if the axis of the Earth was not inclined.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth

Now consider the effect of the inclined axis –

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth 11

1. Place A at the Equator would be at position
A’ after 12 hours
Distance AO = Distance OA’
∴ Length of day = Length of night

2. Place B on the Tropic of Cancer will be at position B’ after 12 hours.
But distance BX is not equal to distance XB’. BX is greater than BX’. This means that the length of day is greater than the length of night.
∴ Days are longer than nights

3. Place C on the Arctic Circle will be at position C’ after 12 hours. Even after 12 hours, place C remains in light (C’). In summer, the Sun does not set for six months in the region beyond the Arctic Circle.
∴ Day of 24 hours near the poles

4. Place P on the Tropic of Capricorn in the southern hemisphere will be at position P’ after 12 hours. Distance PQ (in light) is less than the distance QR (in darkness)
∴ Days are shorter than nights
Place S remains in continuous darkness.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth

Shadow Circle or Circle of Illumination : The Earth is spherical in shape. Its circumference is about 40,000 km while its diameter is about 12756 km in the west-east direction, the direction in which the Earth rotates. The Earth completes one round of rotation in about twenty-four hours. As the Earth rotates, the sun-lit side gradually moves away from the Sun into darkness (at sunset) and the side that was away from the Sun and had darkness gradually moves into daylight (at sunrise).

The circular boundary between the illuminated or sun-lit part of the sphere and the part in darkness is known as shadow circle or the circle of illumination.

Earth’s Rotation and Concept of Local Time : Owing to the spherical shape of the Earth only one half of the Earth is illuminated by the Sun at any given time. The other half is dark and experiences night. As the Earth rotates from west to east, the zone of illumination also moves slowly towards the east. Local time is one which is fixed in relation to the position on the Sun at that place or that meridian. When the Sun is overhead in the sky, it is mid-day or 12 noon.

We keep time in synch with the apparent daily movement of the Sun. The Earth completes one rotation approximately in 24 hours. 1 minute is obtained as we split each hour into 60 equal parts and 1 second is obtained by splitting a minute into 60 equal parts.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth 12

Change of Time and Date :

Ferdinand Magellan and his team who started their circumnavigation expedition in 1519 and when they returned at the end of the voyage, they found out something weird. The calendars back home were not at all matching with their calculations of time and date. They showed Tuesday when the mariners thought it was Monday.

Owing to the spherical shape of the Earth, only one half of the Earth is illuminated by the Sun at any given time. The other half is dark and experiences night. As the Earth rotates from west to east, the zone of illumination also moves slowly towards the east. This accounts for the variation of time and also the date. The Sun rises in the east as the earth rotates from west to east once in every 24 hours. So, places on the Earth located more towards the east are ahead in time than those to the west.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth

Sense of Date: By a common consensus the longitude of Greenwich, a place near London in England (U.K.), has been accepted as 0°. The Earth rotates on its axis once in 24 hours. It means that it takes 24 hours to pass through 360 degrees or 360° of longitude. In other words, it takes 24 hours to pass through 1° longitude. Thus, if we know the meridians of longitude of two places, we can find out the difference in their local times.

The local time at a place is fixed with reference to the apparent movement of the Sun. When the Sun is overhead in the sky, it is mid-day or 12 noon. In the morning, the length of the shadow is long. As the Sun moves up in the sky, the length of the shadow goes on decreasing. The length of the shadow is shortest when the position of the Sun is overhead at noon. In the afternoon, as the Sun moves down, the length of the shadow increases gradually. All places along a line of longitude have the same local time. The local time at places on different longitudes.

International Date Line : 180° is the same longitude which is numbered as 180° E and 180° W. This longitude is just opposite to that of the Greenwich Meridian [0°]. A peculiar situation arises at 180° long.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth 13

This may be illustrated with an example. When the time is 6 p.m. on Monday, 25th December at Greenwich, the time at 180° E long will be 12 hours ahead of G.M.T. The time at 180° E will be 6 a.m. on Tuesday, 26th December. The time at 180° W longitude will be 12 hours. behind that of the G.M.T. or 6 a.m. on Monday, 25th December. Thus when the time is computed eastwards, the time is 6 a.m. on Tuesday, 26th December. When the time is computed westwards, it is 6 a.m. on Monday, 25th December. Thus on either side of the 180° longitude there is a time difference of 24 hours or one day. In which longitude should the correction of date be made ? By international agreement, the correction of date is made along the 180° longitude line. This called the International Date Line.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth 14

While travelling eastwards, a date is repeated. For example, the time is 6.am. on Tuesday, 26th December, at 180° E, but on crossing the longitude, the time is 6 a.m. on Monday, 25th December. As a result of crossing at the international Date Line eastwards, the Christmas day gets repeated. The person celebrates two Christmas days on successive days. Again if a person crosses the International Date Line westwards, one day is lost. For example, it is 6 a.m. on 25 th December at 180° W. After crossing International Date Line, the time is 6 a.m. on 26th December. The Christmas day is lost owing to the crossing on the Date Line.

Why is the International Date Line not straight ?

The International Date Line passes through the Pacific Ocean. It deviates from 180° longitude in some places in order to keep all the islands under one administration on one side of the Date Line. The Date Line goes zigzag in some places to avoid land and to leave island groups wholly on the same side of the line. The Dare Line deviates eastwards in the Bering Straits between Alaska and Siberia. The line deviates westwards (7°) of 180° longitude to include the entire Aleutian islands to the east of the line. Further south, the Date line deviates eastwards (11°) of 180° around Fiji and Tonga islands. These islands keep the same date as New Zealand.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Rotation of the Earth

Duration of twilight :

The duration of twilight at a place depends on the path of the Sun in the sky.
(i) In the low latitudes, where the sun’s path is almost vertical, the duration of twilight is short. The sun sinks below the horizon rapidly.
(ii) In the middle and high latitudes, where the sun has an inclined path at a low angle, the duration of twilight is

Interna-tional Date Line :

The International Date Line may be defined as an imaginary line drawn almost along 180° meridian extending from the north pole to the south pole from which each new date starts and each date ends at last.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth’s Surface

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 6 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth’s Surface offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Chapter 3 Question Answer – Location of a Place on the Earth’s Surface

Objective Type Questions :

Question 1.
What is the latitude of equator?
Answer:

Question 2.
What is the latitude of Tropic of Cancer?
Answer:
23 \(\frac{1}{2}\)° North

Question 3.
What is the latitude of Arctic Circle ?
Answer:
66 \(\frac{1}{2}\)° North

Question 4.
What is the latitude of Tropic of Capricorn?
Answer:
23 \(\frac{1}{2}\)° South

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface

Question 5.
What is the latitude of Antarctic Circle?
Answer:
66 \(\frac{1}{2}\)° South

Question 6.
Which is the longest line of latitude?
Answer:
Equator

Question 7.
Which latitudes are known as low latitudes?
Answer:
0° to 30°

Question 8.
Which latitudes are known as Mid latitudes?
Answer:
30° to 60°

Question 9.
Which latitudes are known as High latitudes?
Answer:
60° to 90°

Question 10.
Which star is located vertically above the North Pole?
Answer:
Pole-Star

Question 11.
How many lines of latitude are there?
Answer:
180 + 1 = 181

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface

Question 12.
How many lines of longitude are there?
Answer:
360 – 1 = 359

Question 13.
What is the location of international date line?
Answer:
180° E – W meridian

Question 14.
Which meridian is called Prime Meridian?
Answer:
0° meridian

Question 15.
What is the value of equator?
Answer:
0° latitude

Question 16.
What is the value of Prime Meridian?
Answer:
0° longitude

Question 17.
What is the approximate distance covered by 1° latitude?
Answer:
111 km

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface

Question 18.
What is the difference of time for 1° of longitude?
Answer:
4 minutes

Question 19.
Name the two basic lines of reference for location of a place on Earth.
Answer:
Prime Meridian and equator

Question 20.
What does the word ‘meridian’ mean?
Answer:
‘Mid-Day’

Question 21.
Into how many time zones, has the world been divided ?
Answer:
24

Question 22.
Where is the place, Greenwich located?
Answer:
On 0° longitude (Britain) near London

Question 23.
Who devised the lines of latitude and longitude?
Answer:
Eratosthenes

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface

Question 24.
Name the two hemispheres of the Earth made by the equator.
Answer:
Northern and Southern Hemisphere

Question 25.
Name the thermal zones of the Earth.
Answer:
Tropical, Temperate and polar.

Question 26.
Which temperature zone receives almost vertical rays of the Sun?
Answer:
Tropical Zone.

Question 27.
Which temperature zone receives slanting rays?
Answer:
Polar Zone.

Question 28.
Which line of longitude is used to fix the world standard time?
Answer:
Prime Meridian – 0°

Question 29.
How can the position of a place be fixed on a map?
Answer:
With the help of latitude and longitude of a place.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface

Question 30.
What is meant by ‘parallels of latitude’?
Answer:
Lines of latitude

Question 31.
What do you mean by meridians?
Answer:
Lines of Longitude

Question 32.
What is a small circle?
Answer:
A circle which does not bisect the Earth into two equal halves.

Question 33.
What is the relation between Temperature and Latitude of a place?
Answer:
The temperature decreases with latitude.

Question 34.
What is latitude of North Pole and South pole?
Answer:
90° N and 90° S

Question 35.
What name is given to 23 \(\frac{1}{2}\)° North latitude?
Answer:
Tropic of Cancer

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface

Question 36.
What name is given to 23 \(\frac{1}{2}\)° South latitude?
Answer:
Tropic of Capricorn

Question 37.
What is latitudinal value of Arctic circle and Antarctic circle ?
Answer:
66 \(\frac{1}{2}\)° N and 66 \(\frac{1}{2}\)° S

Question 38.
Where is the equator situated ?
Answer:
In the middle of the Earth (Between North Pole and South Pole).

Question 39.
What is a grid (Earth Grid) ?
Answer:
It is a network of parallel and meridians on a globle. It is also called geographic grid.

Question 40.
Why are the letters N or S added to latitude values?
Answer:
The latitudes in Northern hemisphere are marked N while the latitude in Southern hemisphere marked S.

Question 41.
What is the importance of Tropic of Cancer?
Answer:
It marks the Northern Limit of Tropical Zone.

Question 42.
What is the importance of Tropic of Capricorn?
Answer:
It marks the Southern Limit of tropical zone.

Question 43.
Name the two reference lines with respect to which the distances of various places on the Earth’s surface are measured?
Answer:
Prime Meridian and Equator.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface

Question 44.
How is the latitude of a place found zone?
Answer:
With the help of Pole Star.

Question 45.
What are the limits of the tropical zone?
Answer:
23\(\frac{1}{2}\)° N and 23\(\frac{1}{2}\)° S

Question 46.
What is the North Temperate Zone?
Answer:
The Zone between 23 \(\frac{1}{2}\)° N – 66 \(\frac{1}{2}\)° N

Question 47.
What is the South Temperate Zone?
Answer:
The Zone between 23 \(\frac{1}{2}\)° S – 666 \(\frac{1}{2}\)° S.

Question 48.
By how many lines is the equator intersected?
Answer:
359

Question 49.
Why are letters E or W added to longitude values?
Answer:
The longitudes in the Eastern hemisphere are marked E while the longitudes in the Western hemisphere are marked W.

Question 50.
What are holes on the Earth?
Answer:
The Pole pointing towards Pole Star is called North pole while the opposite pole is called South Pole.

Define the following briefly : 2 marks each

Question 1.
What do you mean by latitude?
Answer:
Latitude is the angular distance of a place North or South of plane of equator.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface

Question 2.
What do you mean by longitude?
Answer:
Longitude is the angular distance of a place East or West of the Prime Meridian.

Question 3.
What is Graticule ?
Answer:
The network of parallels and meridians is called graticule.

Question 4.
What is Equator?
Answer:
Equator is an imaginary circle bisecting the Earth into two equal halves.

Question 5.
Define ‘Latitude’ and ‘Longitude’ of a place.
Answer:
Latitude is the angular distance of a place North or South of the equator. Longitude is angular distance of a place East of West of Prime Meridian.

Question 6.
What are the uses of lines of latitude?
Answer:

  1. We can find out the average temperature of a place with the help of latitude.
  2. We can find out the distance of a place from the equator ( 1 % latitude = 111 km )
  3. We can determine the location of a place.

Question 7.
What is the main function of longitude in Mathematical Geography?
Answer:
Longitude’s main function is to determine local time of a place in relation to
Greenwich mean time or world time. It is useful in determining the location of a place on the Earth.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface

Question 8.
(a) What do you mean by ‘Grid’ ?
(b) Which lines from the grid ?
(c) What is the use of this grid ?
Answer:
The lines of latitude and the lines of longitude intersect to form a geographic Grid System. This grid is located on a globe. It helps to find the exact location of places on Earth.

Question 9.
What is meant by ‘Graticule’ or ‘Earth Grid’ ?
Answer:
Lines of longitude and lines of latitude are drawn to determine the location of a place on the Earth. This complete network of parallels and meridians is called ‘graticule’ or ‘Earth Grid’. The term Grid is used for a network of crossing lines.

Question 10.
How will you find the latitude of a place with the help of Pole Star?
Answer:
Pole Star always points towards the North Pole. The altitude of the Pole Star is same as the latitude of a place in the northern hemisphere.

Question 11.
How will you determine the latitude of a place with the help of the Sun ?
Answer:
The latitude of a place can be determined by measuring the altitude of the Sun at mid-day. The mid-day altitude of the Sun is subtracted from 90°. It gives Zenith distance (i.e., the angle of the Sun with the Zenith of a place). The latitude of a place can be determined with the help of the following rule :
Latitude of a place = Zenith distance pm Declinaion of the Sun.

Answer the following questions : 5 marks each

Question 1.
Mention the properties of parallels of latitude.
Answer:
Important Properties of Parallels :

  1. A latitude is the angular distance of a place north or south of equator.
  2. The maximum value of latitude is 90°.
  3. The total number of latitudes including equator are 89 + 1 + 89 = 179
  4. Parallels are always parallel to one-another.
  5. Being parallel to each other the parallels never intersect each other
  6. Parallels except North Pole and South Pole are circular lines but not of the same size.
  7. As the latitude increases, the circumference of the parallel decreases.
  8. The parallels of latitude run in the east-west direction.
  9. The distance between any two consecutive parallels remains almost same and it is about 111 k.
  10. All parallels except North Pole and South Pole intersect meridians at right angles.
  11. All parallels except the equator are small circles.
  12. Every point on the earth lies on parallel of latitude.
  13. The place lying on the same parallel receive almost the same heat but local time differs from place to place.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface

Question 2.
What are the importance or uses of parallels of latitudes?
Answer:
Importance of uses of Parallels of Latitude :

  1. Parallels help us to guess what type of climate would prevail in a particular place.
  2. To find out the exact position of a place on the earth’s surface we need both the lines of latitude and longitude.
  3. The parallels of latitude enable us to know the distance of a place from the equator and they can be used to determine the scale of a map.

Question 3.
What are the properties of Meridians ?
Answer:
Important Properties of Meridians :

  1. Longitude is the angular distance of a place east or west of the Prime Meridians
  2. There are 360 meridians of longitude.
  3. The meridians are not parallel. They converge at the two poles.
  4. The meridians are semi-circles.
  5. All meridians are of equal length
  6. The distance between any two merdians are of equal. They get closer from the equator to the poles.
  7. All meridians run in a true north-south direction.
  8. All places on the same meridian have sunrise, noon or sunset at the same time.
  9. Each meridian cuts the equator at right angle.

Question 4.
Distinguish between the Parallels of Latitude and meridians of Longitude.
Answer:
Difference between latitude and longitude

Points of differnece Parallels of latitude Meridians of longitude
1. Orientation Parallels are extended in eastwest direction Meridians are extended in north-south direction.
2. Extent Parallels are extended in eastwest direction Meridians are extended in north-south direction.
3. Types They are parallel to each other. They are not parallel.
4. Highest The highest possible latitude is 90°. The highest possible longitude is 180°
5. Total No. There are 89 parallels in both the hemisphere at an interval of 1°. The total is 179. There are 180 meridians in both the hemisphere. The total in 360.
6. Length From the equator towards the poles the parallels are getting smaller in length. Meridians remain uniform in length.
7. Climate Parallels are related to climatic belts. Meridians are related to local time.
8. Angle Total angular measurement is 360°. Total angular measurement is 180°.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface

Question 5.
Distinguish bewteen Great Circle and Small Circle.
Answer:

Great Circle Small Circle
1. A great circle is a circle which bisects the Earth into two equal hemispheres. 1. A small circle is a circle which does not bisect the Earth into two equal hemispheres.
2. It passes through the centre of the Earth. 2. It does not pass through the centre of the Earth.
3. It has circumference of 2 πR. 3. It has a circumference less than 2π R.
4. All meridians and Equator are great circles. 4. All parallels except Equator are small circles.
5. Ships follow great circle as it is the shortest distance between two points. 5. Ships do not follow small circle routes.

Question 6.
Distinguish between latitude and longitude of a place.
Answer:

Latitude Longitude
1. Latitude is the angular distance of a place North or South of the Equator. 1. Longitude is the angular distance of a place East or West of Prime Meridian.
2. The latitude value-increases in NorthSouth directions from the Equator. 2. The longtidue value increases in EastWest directions from Meridian.
3. Its value ranges between 0° to 90° N, 0° to 90° S. 3. Its value ranges between 0° to 180° E, 0° to 180° W

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface

Question 7.
Distinguish between Equator and Prime Meridian.
Answer:

Equator Prime Meridian
1. Equator is a circle around the Earth bisecting it into two equal parts. 1. The prime meridian is a semicircle joining north pole and south pole.
2. It is 0° latitude. 2. It is 0° longitude.
3. It passes through the centre of the Earth. 3. It passes through the Greenwich (London).
4. It divides the Earth into northern and southern hemispheres. 4. It divides the Earth into eastern and western hemispheres.

Question 8.
Distinguish between the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn.
Answer:

Tropic of Cancer Tropic of Capricorn
1. 23 1/2° N Latitude is known as Tropic of Cancer. 1. 23 1/2° S Latitude is known as Tropic of Capricorn.
2. It lies in the northern hemisphere. 2. It lies in the Southern hemisphere.
3. The Sun shines vertical on it on 21 st June. 3. The Sun shines vertical on it on 22 nd December.
4. It is the northern limit of tropical region. 4. It is the southern limit of tropical region.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface

Question 9.
Distinguish between the Arctic circle and Antarctic circle.
Answer:

Arctic circle Antarctic circle
1. 66 1/2° N parallel is known as Arctic circle. 1. 66 1/2° S parallel is known as Antarctic circle.
2. Beyond this lies the northern polar region. 2. Beyond this lies the southern polar region.
3. Beyond Arctic circle the length of day is more than 24 hours in summer. 3. Beyond Antarctic circle the length of night is more than 24 hours in writer.
4. Arctic ocean lies in north of it. 4. Antarctica lies in south of it.

Identify the correct answers : 1 mark each

Question 1.
Lines of latitude are :
(a) circles of varying radii
(b) semicircles of equal length
(c) staright lines of varying length
(d) circles of same radius.
Answer:
(a) circles of varying radii

Question 2.
The zone between 23 \(\frac{1}{2}\)° N and 23 \(\frac{1}{2}\)° S is called the
(a) Temperate zone
(b) Torrid zone
(c) Polar zone
(d) Equatorial zone
Answer:
(b) Torrid zone

Question 3.
The Tropic of cancer refers to the line of latitude
(a) 0°
(b) 23 \(\frac{1}{2}\) S°
(c) 23 \(\frac{1}{2}\)N°
(d) 30° N.
Answer:
(c) 23 \(\frac{1}{2}\)N°

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface

Question 4.
Latitude of a point is the angular distance of that point measured from
(a) North Pole
(b) Equator
(c) Prime Meridian
(d) South Pole
Answer:
(b) Equator

Question 5.
Lines of Latitudes are
(a) of equal length
(b) parallel to one another
(c) north to south lines
(d) coverage at the equator.
Answer:
(b) parallel to one another

Question 6.
The end points on the surface of the earth are called
(a) points
(b) dots
(c) poles
(d) tops
Answer:
(c) poles

Question 7.
Meridians are lines
(a) which coverage at the two poles
(b) which are of unequal length
(c) which are parallel
(d) which coverage at the equator
Answer:
(a) which coverage at the two poles

Question 8.
The parallels of latitude are
(a) triangular
(b) circular
(c) oval
(d) rectangular lines
Answer:
(b) circular

Question 9.
The parallel which is called the ‘Great Circle’
(a) 23° 30’N circle
(b) 0° circle
(c) 66° 30’N circle
(d) 90° circle
Answer:
(b) 0° circle

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface

Question 10.
The Arctic circle is
(a) 23° 30’E
(b) 66° 30° N
(c) 66° 30° S
(d) 90° W
Answer:
(b) 66° 30° N

Fill in the blanks with correct words : 1 mark each

1. The _____ divides the earth into Northern Hemisphere and Southern Hemisphere.
Answer:
Equator

2. The distance between any two parallels of latitude is always _____.
Answer:
Equal

3. The _____ is also known as Zero Meridian.
Answer:
Prime meridian

4. The word ‘Meridian’ is derived from the Latin word Meridianus meaning _____.
Answer:
Mid-day

5. The parallel ____ degree south is called the Tropic of Capricorn.
Answer:
23 \(\frac{1}{2}\) S

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface

6. The parallel ____ degree north is called the Arctic Circle.
Answer:
23 \(\frac{1}{2}\) N

If the sentence is true, write ‘T’ and if false write ‘F’ against the following : 1 mark each

1. The highest possible latitude is 360°.
Answer:
False

2. The equator divides the Earth into two equal halves.
Answer:
True

3. The Antarctic circle is the line of longitude as 66 \(\frac{1}{2}\)°N.
Answer:
False

4. The Tropic of capricorn lies in the Northern Hemisphere.
Answer:
False

5. The Prime Meridian is the reference line for locating places in an east-west direction.
Answer:
True

6. Latitude lines are of equal length.
Answer:
False

7. Longitude lines are also called meridiAnswer:
Answer:
True

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface

8. Latitude of a place alone give us complete idea about the location of a place of the Earth surface.
Answer:
False

9. All meridians run in a east-west direction.
Answer:
False

10. The Earth axis makes 40° angle with the equatorial plane.
Answer:
False

11. The latitudes are semi-circles.
Answer:
False

12. All meridians are of equal length.
Answer:
True

13. There are two Frigid Zones on the Earth.
Answer:
True

14. Tempera-ture increases as we go away from equator.
Answer:
False

15. The Torrid Zone lies between the Tropic of cancer and Tropic of capricorn.
Answer:
True

Location of a Place on the Earth’s Surface Class 6 WBBSE Notes

Latitude and longitude : Lines of latitude and lines of longitude intersect each other to form a Grid. The Earth Grid helps in determining the location of a place.
Lines of latitude : These join the places of same latitude. These are called parallels of latitude as these are drawn parallel to the equator.
important parallels of latitude : Equator (0°), Tropic of Cancer (23 1/2° N), Tropic of Capricorn (23 1/2° S), Arctic circle (66 1/2° N), Antarctic circle (66 1/2° S) are important parallels of latitude.
Lines of Longitude: These are drawn from pole to pole. These are called meridians also 0° longitudeis called Prime meridian.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface

Time : Local time is time of the meridian of place i.e., 12 o’clock at noon. Standard time is the time of a central meridian of a country. Indian Standard Time (I.S.T.) is the time of 82 1/2° E Meridian near Allahabad, while G.M.T. is time of Greenwhich (0°. meridian) near London.

Time and longitude : There is a difference of 4 minutes for 1° of longitude. Eastern places are ahead of time. The following rule is used : East-Gain-Add. West-Lose-Subtract.

International Date Line : It is an imaginary line roughly corresponding to 180° meridian while crossing the international date line, ships gain or miss a day.

A globe is a model of the earth. Have you seen a globe in your school or home? It is a model of earth on a small scale. How do we locate places on the Earth ? The earth has no edges or corners which we can take as reference points or lines for measurement. For example, how do you locate your place in the classroom? Your seat may be the third seat in the second row. Here, you have two reference lines, namely the rows from the teacher’s table and number of seat from the entrance to the classroom. Therefore, we need two reference lines for locating places on the Earth.

The Equator and the Prime Meridian –

We know that the Earth is rotating on an imaginary axis.

The Poles : The two end points on the Earth’s surface at the top and at the bottom of the axis are called the poles of the Earth. That pole which points or ends towards the pole star is called the North Pole and the bottom end point is called the South Pole.

What is axis of the Earth?

An imaginary straight line joining the two poles (North and South Pole) passing through the centre of the Earth is called Earth’s axis. This axis is inclined to the plane of the earth’s orbit at an angle of 66 1/2°.

The Equator : If an east-west imaginary circle is drawn through the surface of the earth at an equal distance or midway from both the poles (north pole and south pole), it will divide the Earth’s surface into two almost equal halves. This imaginary line is called the Equator.

Hemispheres: The word hemisphere means half of a sphere i.e., the Earth. The e quat or divides the earth into two equal hemispheres. The northern half of the earth from the equator is known as the Northern Hemisphere and the southern half is known as Southern Hemisphere. So the half of the Earth to the north of the equator is called the Northern Hemisphere and half to the south of the equator is called the Southern Hemisphere.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface 1

All parallel circles from the equator upto the poles are called parallels of latitudes. These latitudes are measured in degrees. The equator itself is the largest among these lines (circles). The value of the equator is 0°. The remaining parallels become progressively smaller towards the poles. All the parallels are circular. The value of the north and the south poles of the Earth are 90° N and 90° S respectively.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface 2

Parallels of Latitudes: A line of latitude is an imaginary line on the Earth’s surface which joins all places having the same value to the north or south of the equator. The equator is the longest line of latitude. The length of equator is equal to the circumference of the Earth. Other lines of latitude are shorter length. The lengths of the lines of latitude decrease with distance from the equator. For example, 60° latitude is only half the length of the equator.

All lines of latitudes are circles parallel to the equator. Therefore, lines of latitude are called parallels of latitude.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface

Important parallels of latitudes –

Besides the equator and the two poles, the other important lines of latitude are the

  • The parallel 23 1/2° N (North) is called the Tropic of cancer.
  • The parallel of 66 1/2° N (North) is called the Arctic circle.
  • The parallel 23 1/2° S (South) is called the Tropic of capricorn
  • The parallel 66 1/2° S (South) is called the Antarctic circle.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface 3

The Tropics of cancer and capricorn mark the limits of the Tropical zone. In this zone, the Sun’s rays are overhead at least on one day in a year. The Arctic circle marks the limit of the North Polar Zone. The Antarctic circle marks the limit of the South Polar Zone. The Zone between the Tropic of cancer and the Arctic circle is called the North Temperate Zone. The zone between the Tropic of capricorn and the Antarctic circle is called the South Temperate Zone.

Based on latitude, we also describe different regions of the earth as under –

(a) Low Latitudes : The region between the Equator and 30° N or 30° S.
(b) Mid Latitudes : Between 30° and 60° N or S.
(c) High Latitudes : Between 60° and 90° N or S.

Relation between latitude and climate identification of Heat Zone:

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface 4

Distance between the parallels of latitude : The circumference of the earth is 40,075 km. The parallels of latitude are all full circles. The circumference is 360°. So the distance between 1° latitude is therefore 40,075 ÷ 360 = 111 . 1 km (approx). Distance between the latitudes are not same always because of the earth’s shape. It is 110.56 km near equator ; 110.8 km at 30° latitude; 11.7 km at 89° latitude ; Average distance between the latitudes are 111 km (69 mile).

A Number of Latitudes : We know that there are 360° in a circle. From pole to pole it is only half a circle or 180°. So the number of parallels of latitude at an interval of 1° is 89 in the northern hemisphere and 89 in the southern hemisphere (as NRS poles are two dots). If we take equator ; then the total no. of parallel are 89 + 89 + 1 = 179.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface 5

Characteristics of latitudes or parallels of latitudes :

  • All latitudes are full circles.
  • The parallels of latitude run in the east west direction
  • Parallels are always parallei to each other.
  • Among the parallels the equatoi is the largest and knowri as Great Circle.
  • As the latitude increases the circumference of the parallel decreases.
  • Being parallel to each other they never intersects one another.
  • All the parallels except North Pole and South Pole intersect meridians at right angles.
  • The place lying on the same parallel receives almost the same heat but local time differs place to place.
  • The maximum value of parallel is 90°.
  • The total number of the parallels of latitude including equator is 89 + 1 + 89 = 179.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface

Longitude :

You will find that it is difficult to find the exact location with the help of latitude only. The latitude of New Delhi is 30° N. Then New Delhi can be any where along the latitude of 30° N. You need to know something else to fix its position. The other fixed line of reference is a line running from the North Pole to the Soth Pole, called the Prime Meridian. All other lines running from the North Pole to the South Pole are called meridians of longitude.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface 6

Longitude is the angular distance of a place east or west of the Prime Meridian (also called Zero Meridian or Fixed Meridian).

The distance between any two meridians is also measured in degrees. Since each meridian of longitude is a semi-circle running from the North Pole to the South Pole. The zone between the Prime Meridian and 180° E longitude is called the Eastern Hemisphere. The opposite zone (0° to 180° W) is called the Western Hemisphere.

All lines of longitude are semicircles of equal length. The distance or gap between two lines of longitude is maximum at the equator and decreases gradually away from the equator.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface 7

Characteristics of the Meridian of longitude :

  • Longitude is the angular distance of a place east or west of the Prime Meridian.
  • There are 360 meridians of longitude.
  • The meridians are not parallel. They converge at the two poles.
  • The meridians are semicircles.
  • All the meridians are of equal length.
  • The distance between any two meridian varies they get closer from the equator to the poles.
  • All meridians run in a north south direction.
  • All places on the same meridian have sunrise, sunset, noon, at the same times.
  • Each meridian cuts the equator at right angle.

Great Circles: A great circle is a circle drawn on the Earth in such a way that the centre of the circle is the centre of the Earth. The radius of the great circle is the same as the radius of the Earth. A great circle is the largest possible circle that can be drawn on the surface of a sphere. Any number of great circles may be drawn on a sphere. All great circles divide the sphere any two equal hemisphere.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Location of a Place on the Earth's Surface 8

The equator is an example of a great circle. The equator divides the earth into two hemispheres. All lines of longitude are great circles. All lines of latitude except the equator are small cirles. The centres of the small circles are points other than the centre of the Earth. The small circles have radii which are smaller than that of the Earth.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 6 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Chapter 2 Question Answer – Shape of The Earth

Objective Type Questions :

Question 1.
What is the shape of the Earth?
Answer:
An oblate spheroid.

Question 2.
What is the equatorial diameter of the Earth?
Answer:
12,757 km.

Question 3.
What is the polar diameter of the Earth?
Answer:
12,714 km.

Question 4.
Who was the first sailor to circumnavigate the Earth?
Answer:
Magellan.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

Question 5.
Who was the first Greek philosopher to prove that Earth is spherical?
Answer:
Aristotle.

Question 6.
Who was the first scientist to prove that Earth is a spheroid?
Answer:
Newton.

Question 7.
Who was the first geographer who attempt to measure the size of the Earth?
Answer:
Eratosthenes.

Question 8.
Who was the first Indian Astronomer to describe the Earth as sphere?
Answer:
Aryabhatta

Question 9.
Which eclipse gives the evidence that the Earth is round?
Answer:
Lunar Eclipse.

Question 10.
What is the equatorial circumference of the Earth?
Answer:
40,077 km.

Question 11.
What is the polar cicumference of the Earth?
Answer:
40,009 km.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

Question 12.
How much part of the Earth is covered with water?
Answer:
71%.

Question 13.
Which one of the earliest proofs of the Earth’s sphericity, is the most conclusive and practical?
Answer:
Shadow of the Earth at Lunar Eclipse.

Question 14.
What do you understand by the term ‘oblate spheroid’?
Answer:
A sphere with unequal diameter.

Question 15.
Which force creates a bulge at the equatorial region?
Answer:
Centrifulgal force.

Question 16.
Where is Bedford level canal located?
Answer:
In UK.

Question 17.
Who was the scientist to perform Bedford level canal experiment?
Answer:
A.R.Wallace.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

Question 18.
What is the difference between polar diameter and equatorial diameter of the Earth?
Answer:
43 km.

Define and give very short answer of the following briefly 2 marks each

Question 1.
What is a spheroid ?
Answer:
A spheroid is not a perfect sphere. It is a sphere of rotation.

Question 2.
What is Geoid ?
Answer:
Geoid means Geo+oid. It means Earth shaped i.e., a spheroid.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

Question 3.
What is centrifugal force ?
Answer:
A force which acts away from the centre of a circle.

Question 4.
What is Horizon ?
Answer:
Horizon is the line where Earth and sky seem to meet.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Geocentric?
Answer:
In olden days, it was believed that the Earth is the centre of Solar System.

Question 6.
What is heliocentric ?
Answer:
It means the idea that Sun is the centre of the Solar System.

Question 7.
What is circumnavigation ?
Answer:
To sail round the Earth without changing direction.

Question 8.
Explain the spherical hori-
Answer:
Where Earth and sky appear to meet. It always look spherical due to spherical Earth.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

Question 9.
How does circumnavigation determine the Earth’s shape?
Answer:
Because it is possible to circumnavigate only the spherical Earth.

Question 10.
How do aerial photographs zon. help ?
Answer:
The photographs taken from space show spherical Earth.

Question 11.
Why is the shape of the Earth described as oblate spheroid?
Answer:
Because it is flattened at the poles and bulging at the equator.

Answer the following questions briefly : 3 marks each

Question 1.
Name the ancient Geographers and their views regarding shape of the Earth.
Answer:
In olden days, it was believed that the Earth is the centre of Solar System. To a common man, Earth appeared as a flat disc. Anaximander took it as cylindrical, Aristotle, Ptolemy, Aryabhatta and Pythagoras gave proofs that Earth is a sphere.

Question 2.
Name some modern Geographers and their views about shape of the Earth.
Answer:
(a) Magellan, after circumnavigation of the Earth, showed it to be a sphere.
(b) Copernicus proved that the Earth moved round the Sun.
(c) Galileo proved spherical shape of the Earth.
(d) Newton proved Earth to be a spheroid.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

Question 3.
Why does the Sun not rise at the same time everywhere in the world?
Answer:
If the Earth were flat, the whole world would have the sunrise and sunset at the same time. As the Earth is spherical and rotates from West to East, places in the East see the Sun earlier than the places in the West.

Question 4.
“The whole of the approaching ship is not visible at one time.” Why ?
Answer:
Along its curved surface, the appearance of a ship is gradual. We see first the smoke, then the mast and then the hull. If the Earth were flat, the entire ship would be seen all at once.

Question 5.
How can you prove that the Earth is a shape by looking at the Pole Star ?
Answer:
The Pole Star is at an angle of 90° at the North Pole. Its angle decreases towards the equator. It can happen only in an arc of a circle on surface of a sphere.

Question 6.
Briefly describe the shape of the Earth.
Answer:
The Earth is not a perfect sphere. Due to its rotation on its axis, the shape of Earth is bulging at equator and flattened at poles. It is a spheroid.

Question 7.
How did Earth get its atmospheric blanket?
Answer:
From the rotating cloud of gas and dust, heavy elements were separated. The remaining cloud of gases formed the atmosphere and functions as a blanket.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

Question 8.
“Even when the Earth is spherical, if appears to be flat.” Discuss.
Answer:
The actual shape of the Earth is spherical. The curvature of the Earth is small as compared to its big size. For a small area upto 100 sQuestion mile, this curvature is negligible. Therefore, it appears flat.

Question 9.
Why is the Earth slightly flattened at the poles ?
Answer:
The Earth is not a perfect sphere. It is slightly flattened at both the poles. It is due to the centripetal force produced by the rotation of the Earth.

Question 10.
Why does the Earth have an equatorial bulge?
Answer:
The rotation of the Earth produces centrifugal force acting outwardly on the surface of the Earth. Thus, the equatorial parts are pulled away from the centre. With the result, equatorial circumference is longer than the polar circumference by 125 km.

Question 11.
What is the latest and most convincing proof of the Earth’s spherical shape ?
Answer:
Photographs of the Earth have been taken by Apollo-astronauts from high altitudes. These give a true perspective view of the curvature from outer space. These show clearly the curved edge of the Earth. This is the most convincing proof.

Answer the following questions : 5 marks each

Question 1.
(a) Which Eclipse provides evidence to show a spherical Earth ?
(b) Who was the first scholar to provide this evidence?
(c) How did he prove that the Earth is a sphere ?
Answer:
(a) The lunar eclipse proves that the Earth is a sphere
(b) Aristotle was the first scholar to show this.
(c) The shadow cast by Earth on the Moon during the lunar eclipse is circular. Only a spherical Earth casts a circular shadow.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 9

Question 2.
State four traditional proofs of the Earth’s spherical shape.
Answer:

  1. The shadow cast by Earth on the Moon during a lunar eclipse is always circular.
  2. The Sun, planets and other heavenly bodies are spherical in shape.
  3. The Sun rises and sets at different times in different places due to curvature of the Earth.
  4. Circumnavigation round the Earth is a proof of its spherical shape.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 10

Question 3.
(a) Who was the first geographer to measure the circumference of the Earth ?
(b) What observations did he make?
(c) How did he calculate the circumference of the Earth?
Answer:
(a) In olden days, man was unable to determine the size of the Earth due to his limited knowledge. About 2000

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 11

years ago (in 230 BC) an Egyptian astronomer, Eratosthenes made the first attempt to measure the circumference of the Earth.

(b) He assumed that the Earth was a sphere. On 21st June, he observed at Syene (Aswan) in Egypt that the Sun was directly overhead at that place. At Alexandria, on the same day, the Sun was not directly overhead at noon. It was 7° 12 minute away from the vertical. Eratosthenes measured the distance between Syene and Alexandria. It was found to be 5000 stadia (925 km).

(c) Thus, assuming that the Earth’s circumference measured 360°, he calculated the circumference of the Earth.
7.2° angle on the circumference = 925 km
1° angle on the circumference = \(\frac{925 \times 10}{72}\) 360° angle on the circumference
= \(\frac{925 \times 10 \times 360}{72}\) = 46,250 km
This measurement was very close to the modern accurate measurement of 40,000 km.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

Question 4.
Describe any three experiments to prove the Spherical Shape of the Earth.
Answer:
(i) If you observe a ship approaching sea coast, the top of the mast is seen first and the hull, lower parts are seen gradually. Due to the curvature of the Earth, the whole ship is not seen at one time.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 12

(ii) Fix three poles of equal length at equal distance on the ground. These do not give a horizontal level. The top of the middle pole looks higher than the other two poles due to the curvature of the Earth. This experiment was done by Mr. A.R. Wallace on Bedford canal.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 13

(iii) If you look around at the Earth’s horizon (where Earth and sky appear to meet), it will everywhere and always appear circular. It widens with increasing altitude due to Spherical Earth.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 14

Question 5.
What is the shape of the Earth ?
Answer:
Nowadays, scientific knowledge and observations have proved that the Earth is spherical in shape. But the actual mea-
surements of Earth’s dimensions have revealed that Earth is not a perfect sphere. It is slightly bulging at the equator and flattened at both the poles. It is an oblate spheroid. Its equatorial diameter is longer than its polar diameter by 43 km.

Question 6.
What is ‘Geoid’ ?
Answer:
The Earth has a unique shape. It is not similar to anything. A special term ‘Geoid’ is used to describe the shape of the Earth. It means ‘Earth shaped’. It is a combination of two words (Geo+oid) and it means a shape identical to spheroid shape of the Earth.

Identify the correct answers 1 mark each

Question 1.
The average radius of the Earth is
(a) 5400 km
(b) 6,400 km
(c) 7,400 km
(d) 8,400 km
Answer:
(b) 6,400 km

Question 2.
The shape of the Earth is like the
(a) Cylinder
(b) Mango
(c) Pear
(d) Apple
Answer:
(c) Pear

Question 3.
Eratosthenes calculated the circumference of the Earth to be about.
(a) 1,52,000 stadia
(b) 2,52,000 stadia
(c) 3,52,000 stadia
(d) 4,52,000 stadia
Answer:
(b) 2,52,000 stadia

Question 4.
Greek philosopher and mathematician Pythagoras (572-500 B.C.) was among the first to suggest that the shape of the Earth was
(a) like a globle
(b) like a box
(c) like a cylinder
Answer:
(a) like a globe

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

Question 5.
From the space, the Earth looks
(a) black
(b) brown
(c) red
(d) blue
Answer:
(d) blue

Question 6.
During a lunar eclipse, the shadow of the Earth on the Moon appears as
(a) a straight line
(b) an arrow
(c) a box
(d) an arc of a circle
Answer:
(a) an arc of a circle

Question 7.
Due to sphere shape of the Earth, the Pole star at the North Pole can always be observed at
(a) 30° in the sky
(b) 60° in the sky
(c) 90° in the sky
(d) 180° in the sky
Answer:
(c) 90° in the sky

Question 8.
Megallan, the Portuguese explorer sailed completely around the Earth and returned to his starting point is
(a) Britain
(b) Spain
(c) Japan
(d) France
Answer:
(b) Spain

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

Question 9.
As one travels southwards, an angle of Pole star (North pole)
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
(d) becomes zero
Answer:
(d) decreases

Fill in the blanks with correct words 1 mark each

1. Polar circumference of the Earth is less than _______.
Answer:
Equator

2. The Earth bulges a little at the and is flattened at the _______.
Answer:
Equator

3. The shape of the Earth is described by scientists, have truely given the name ‘geoid’ meaning ‘_______’ or ‘_______’.
Answer:
Earth-shaped/Earth like form

4. During lunar eclipse shadow of _______ and its curvature can be observed with naked eye.
Answer:
Earth

5. The polar diameter of the Earth is _______.
Answer:
12,714 km

6. A Greek philosopher and scientist named _______ was the first to declare that the Earth is round.
Answer:
Aristotle

If the sentence is true, write ‘T’ and if false write ‘F’ against the following 1 mark each

1. If the earth was flat the pole star would have the same height for all latitudes.
Answer:
True

2. The height of the pole star in the sky varies with the latitude.
Answer:
True

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

3. When three ships are approaching the shore, the observer first see only one ship. The others lie below his line of vision.
Answer:
True

4. During an eclipse of the Moon, the shadow of the Earth which is thrown on the Moon, is always straight line.
Answer:
False

5. If the Earth was flat, the rising Sun would be seen at all places at the same time.
Answer:
True

6. Due to spherical shape of the Earth, places in the east see the rising Sun earlier.
Answer:
True

Shape of The Earth Class 6 WBBSE Notes

Earth : A unique planet. The Earth is a unique planet (Watery planet or Blue planet) because it is the only planet on which life exists.

Shape of the Earth : In olden days, people regarded the Earth as a plane surface, i.e., flat. But Anaximander, Aristotle, Ptolemy, Aryabhatta and Pythagoras gave proofs to show the Earth as a sphere.

Modern Views : Modern views confirm the spherical shape of the Earth, Magellan, Galileo, Copernicus, Newton proved the Earth to be a spheroid, i.e., a sphere of rotation. The Earth has the shape of Geoid. It is flattened at the poles and bulging at the equator.

Size of the Earth : An Egyptian Astronomer, Eratosthenes (230 BC) was the first to measure the size of the Earth. The equatorial diameter is 1,22,756 km. while polar diameter is 12,713 km.

In the old days, the Earth was considered to be a flat disc with steep edges. It was also thought that all heavenly bodies revolved around the earth. Early ideas of Universe were influenced by religious thoughts and practices. The Hindus believed that Universe was shaped like an egg-Brahmanda. According to Vedas, Earth was flat circular with a heaven above. Aryabhatta, the famous Indian astronomer, however, believed that the earth was spherical in shape and rotated on its axis. In Europe, the Greek philosopher Pythagoras was the first to state that the Earth was spherical in shape, there was considerable opposition to this idea in those days.

Nowadays, scientific knowledge and observations have proved that the Earth is spherical in shape. But the actual measurements of Earth’s dimensions have revealed that Earth is not a perfect sphere. It is slightly bulging at the equator and flattened at both the poles. It is an oblate spheroid.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

The Earth is not flat –

If the Earth were a flat disc, then the rising Sun would have been seen at all places at the same time. This does not happen. Places in the east see the rising sun earlier.

When a ship approaches land, its funnel or mast is seen first and then the full. If the Earth had been flat, the whole ship would have been seen at one time.

The Earth is a sphere : Proof of sphericity of the Earth (How did we discovered the Earth is round?)
Several things show that the shape of the Earth is rounded or sphere.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 1

Indirect Proofs –

Sunrise and Sunset : The Sun does not rise at the same time in every country. It rises in London, for example, some 5 hours later than in Mumbai. If the Earth were flat, the sunrise would be everywhere at the same time.

Sighting a ship : An observer watching through a telescope the approach of a ship seas first the smoke then the funnels, and then the hull. If the Earth were flat we would see the whole of the ship at one time. This proofs the rounded shape of the Earth.

The Earth’s shadow: The shadow cast by the Earth on the Moon during the lunar eclipse is circular. Only a round body can cast a circular shadow. All heavenly bodies like the Sun, Moon and other planets appear circular in all positions. The Earth and other heavenly bodies must be rounded and spherical in shape.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 2

Travelling Round the Earth: As the Earth is spherical in shape, it is possible to circumnavigate the Earth. Magellan was the first to go round the Earth in a ship and complete his voyage without encountering a sharp edge. An aeroplane can fly round the world. If we travel continually in the same direction, we return eventually to our starting point.

The Bedfort Level

Experiment: An experiment was made many years ago in the Bedford Level Canal area in Britain. A.R. Wallace did this experiment. The water level of the canal provided the base of measurement. Three poles were fixed at intervals of about 5 km. such that the poles were rising to the same height about the level of water in the canal.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 3

When a telescope was placed that in such a way that the top of pole A was in line with of pole C, it was found that the line of sight was intersecting the middle pole B. This would not happen if the Earth were flat. The middle pole B appeared higher owing to the curvature of the Earth.

The spherical horizon : The limit of the horizon at a place is circular and the horizon widens as the height of the observer increases. This again indicates the spherical shape of the Earth.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 4

Effect of gravity : The weight of a substance is related to the effect of force of gravity on that substance. It is found that an object weighs nearly the same at all places on the Earth. This means that the force of gravity is nearly equal to all places. This is possible only when the Earth is a sphere.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 5

Position of the pole star : The pole star appears vertically overhead at the North Pole. If the Earth were flat, the pole star should be overhead at all places on the Earth.

This is not the ease. The angle of elevation of the pole star is about 40° at London and 0° at Singapore or on equator. This is possible only when the earth is spherical in shape.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth

Direct Proofs –

Aerial Photographs : The most clinching evidence of the spherial shape of the Earth is obtained from photographs taken from space. Pictures taken by satellites show the spherical shape of the Earth. The astronauts from the moon have taken pictures of the Earth showing its spherical shape.

Artifical Satellites: Artificial Satellites and many space probes are put in orbit on the assumption that the Earth is spherical. The calculations have proved correct and the space probes of other planets of the Solar System have provided valuable data.

Earth as an Oblate Spheroid –

Definition of Oblateness of the Earth : A sphere which is slightly flattened at two opposite ends is called an oblate spheroid or oblate ellipsoid. The Earth is not, in fact, a perfect sphere, it has an equatorial bulge and a polar flattening. This type of spherical shape is known ‘oblate spheroid’.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 6

Proofs of the Oblateness of the Earth –

Difference between the length of the Equatorial diameter and Polar diameter:

The Earth has got an equatorial diameter of 12,757 km. through east-west and a polar diameter of 12,714 km. through north-south. In length the equatorial diameter is larger than the polar diameter by 43 km. Hence there is a slight bulging at the equator and a flattening at the two polar regions. This is caused by the rotation of the Earth.

Length of circumferences : The length of equatorial circumference is 40,076 km and the polar circumference is 40,009 km. The legnth of equatorial circumference is larger than the polar circumference by 67 km. Thus the Earth has got a shape of an oblate spheriod.

Concept of Geoid : Earth is not a perfect sphere. It is also not a simple oblate spheroid. A study of satellite orbits has already revealed that the Earth is not a perfect oblate ellipsoid or a perfect sphere as it was previously thought to be.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 7

The high mountains like Himalayas or deep valleys are also just a dot when we consider the size of the Earth. The Earth ‘bulges out’ a little at the equator and is flattened at the poles. There are much bigger depressions and bumps on its surface.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Shape of The Earth 8

These are areas of low atmospheric pressure which produce climatic changes. In as much as Earth is unique, its shape is also unique. Scientists have truly given the name ‘geo’ to this form or ‘geoid’ meaning ‘earth like form’ or earth shaped.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 6 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 11 Maps offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Chapter 11 Question Answer – Maps

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps 1
Look above that there is a scale drawn on the right side of the map. One can get answers to all questions from this scale. How?

Question 1.
What is the distance of the school from Subho’s house?
Answer:
Measure the distances in centimetre PQ, QR and RS by scale. The total distance is 8cm. The scale of the map is given as 1cm to 100 metre. Then the actual distance is 8 x 100 or 800 metre. So the distance between ‘A’ and ‘B’ is 1cm, then actual distance between them is (1 x 100 x m)=100m.

Now distance between B to C=5 cm, then actual distance between them is (5 x 100m) = m. and distance on map between C to D is 2 cm and then actual distance between them (2 x 100x m)=200 x m. The total distance from Subho’s house to school is (100 m+500 m+200 m) = 800 metre.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

Question 2.
Try to understand and solve the following chart’s question marked.

Distance on map Distance on ground Scale = \(\frac{map distance}{ground distance}\)
5cm 25km 1cm=5 km
10cm 100 km (a) ?
2cm (b) ? 1cm=30m

Answer:
WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps 2

Give a single technical term for the following : (1 mark each)

Question 1.
The science of map making.
Answer:
Cartography

Question 2.
Numbers and letters given to the network of lines on a map.
Answer:
Grid

Question 3.
The four directions of the compass – north, south, east and west.
Answer:
Cardinal directions

Question 4.
A straight line, drawn to scale, divided in terms of distances on the earth.
Answer:
Linear Scale

Question 5.
Map showing mountains, plateaus, plains, rivers etc, of an area.
Answer:
Physical Map

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

Question 6.
A collection of maps bound into a book.
Answer:
Atlas

Question 7.
The most important tool in the study of geography.
Answer:
Map

Question 8.
The instrument used to find directions on the earth.
Answer:
Compass

Answer the following questions briefly: (2 mark each)

Question 1.
What are the five components of a map?
Answer:
Title, Direction, Scale, Legend or Key and Grid Systems are the five components of a map.

Question 2.
What are the four cardinal directions ?
Answer:
North, South, East and West.

Question 3.
What is map?
Answer:
Map is a flat, symbolic representation of the earth or a part of the earth’s surface.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

Question 4.
What is cartography?
Answer:
The science of map making is called cartography.

Question 5.
What is globe?
Answer:
Globe is a very small, but true model of our earth. Earth is really 30 to 40 million times bigger than the globe in your classroom. Globe is shaped exactly like the earth-like a ball or sphere.

Question 6.
What do you mean by political map?
Answer:
Political map gives information about country, state, country boundaries etc.

Question 7.
What is sketch?
Answer:
A sketch is a rough drawing based on memory and spot observation and not to scale.

Question 8.
What is a plan?
Answer:
A drawing of a small area on a large scale is called a plan.

Answer the following questions briefly: (3 mark each)

Question 1.
Why are maps more useful than a globe?
Or
what are the advantages of maps?
Answer:

  • The whole earth cannot be studied at a time from a globe.
  • Globes do not show a large number of details, which can be shown on maps.
  • Distance cannot be measured on a globe because it is a curved surface.
  • A comparative study of two areas is not possible on a globe.
  • Maps can easily be handled.
  • Maps can easily be incorporated in books or bound in Atlases.
  • Maps can be drawn to any scale.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

Question 2.
Define the term ‘scale’.
Answer:
Scale is a map-land ratio. Map distance and ground distance always bear a ratio. Scale is a ratio in which distance between two points on a map bears the actual distance between the corresponding (same) points on the ground.

Question 3.
What is the necessity of ‘scale’?
Answer:

  • Scale is the most important and essential thing of a map. Without a scale, we have only a sketch or a diagram and not a geographic map.
  • It is necessary to draw a scale to show the relative position of different places on the map.
  • Every map has a definite ratio to the Earth. It is not possible to make the map of the same size because 25,000 miles or 40,000 km of paper will be required to draw the equator.
  • Maps are generally reduced in size. They are said to be drawn to scale. Thus, scale is a necessity in drawing a map.

Question 4.
Distinguish between a map and a plan.
Answer:
Plans are drawn on large scale. Plan shows details of a small area. It is true to scale and shows correct direction. Whereas a map is drawn on a small scale. It shows important features of a large area. A map shows continents or countries, while a plan is used for showing buildings, schools, play grounds etc.

Question 5.
Which map provides detail information?
Answer:
Large scale maps are larger in size. Small areas are shown on large maps. The scale is generally 6: 1 mile. These show man made and natural features with the help of symbols.

Identify the correct answers (MCQ): (1 mark each)

Question 1.
An accurate representation of the earth as a whole is made by……..
a. a map
b. a globe
c. a plan
d. a sketch
Answer:
b. a globe

Question 2.
The drawing of the whole or part of the earth’s surface on a sheet of paper is called a ……..
a. globe
b. sketch
c. painting
d. map
Answer:
d. map

Question 3.
Maps showing different states and countries of the world with their boundaries are called ……..
a. Physical Map
b. Relief Map
c. Political Map
d. Thematic Map
Answer:
c. Political Map

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

Question 4.
Which of the following is not drawn to scale?
a. a sketch
b. a plan
c. a map
d. a globe
Answer:
a. a sketch

Question 5.
The Latin word ‘mappa’ means ……………
a. cloth or napkin
b. book or paper weight
c. pencil or scale
d. paper or ink
Answer:
a. cloth or napkin

Question 6.
The science of map making is called ……………..
a. Geography
b. Cartography
c. Oceanography
d. Calligraphy
Answer:
b. Cartography

Fill in the blanks with the correct words: (1 mark each)

1. A …………. is a person who draws maps.
Answer: Cartographer

2. The map projection that is chiefly used for maps of the world, was first made in 1569 by a Dutchman called………….
Answer: Gerardus Mercator

3. If the north line is not shown, north is usually is the …………. of the map.
Answer: Top

4. …………. scale maps show the countries of the world.
Answer: Small

5. The blue colour is used in map for showing ………….
Answer: water bodies

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

6. A …………. is an approximate representation of the earth.
Answer: globe

If the sentence is true, write ‘T’ and if false write ‘F’ against the following. (1 mark each)

1. Distances are measured from a map using the scale of the map.
Answer: True

2. Plans are drawn on a smaller scale than maps.
Answer: False

3. Maps of the world are more accurate than globes.
Answer: False

4. Maps are more commonly used than globes.
Answer: True

5. An ‘Atlas’ is a book that contains maps of different parts of the world.
Answer: True

6. A sketch is always drawn with the help of a scale.
Answer: False

7. The science of map making is called topography.
Answer: False

8. The bottom of the map is taken as the west.
Answer False

9. A small-scale map represents small areas of the earth.
Answer: False

10. The larger area covered by a map, may distorted also.
Answer: True

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

11. The meaning of the symbols used on a map is called legend.
Answer: True

Maps Class 9 WBBSE Notes

Map : A map is a representation or a drawing of the earth’s surface or a part of it drawn on a flat surface according to scale.

Types of Map : Maps are of various types. Some of them are the following

  • Physical Maps-These maps focus on natural features of the earth such as mountains, plateaus, plains, oceans, forest, rivers etc.
  • Political Maps-Maps focusing on villages, towns and cities and different countries and states of the world with their boundaries are known as political maps.
  • Thematic Maps-Thematic maps are of various types such as road maps, rainfall maps, maps showing distribution of forests, industries etc. These maps focus on some specific information.

Components of Maps : Distance, direction and symbol scale, are the three components of maps.

Scale of Maps : On most maps, everything is shrunk, or scaled down. To understand a map. There are three common types of scales-

  • Verbal statement,
  • Linear scale and
  • Representative Fraction (R. F.).

Maps according to scale : Small scale Map and Large Scale Map.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps 3

Introduction: The Earth is a sphere, rather like a ball, but flattened at the poles. The most accurate model of the Earth is a globe. However, the earliest maps were drawn on flat surfaces because people then thought that the earth was flat, with sides and corners.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

The word ‘map’ comes from the Latin word ‘mappa’ meaning cloth as many of the earliest maps were drawn on skins, parchment and cloth. The globes are not so easy to carry. Moreover, landforms, roads, railways, towns and villages etc. cannot be properly drawn.

Definition of Map :

A map is a flat, symbolic representation of the earth or a part of the earth’s surface according to the scale. Maps represent the whole or part of the earth’s surface on flat surface according to the scale. As it is quite impossible to flatten a round shape completely, so the northern and southern portions of the earth are stretched which results in distortion in representing large areas on maps.

Therefore, maps do not represent the earth’s surface as accurately as globes but they cannot replace maps, because maps show selected features such as landforms, railways, roadways, etc., clearly. Moreover, a map is a pictorial representation of a small or big area on a plane surface.

Advantages of Maps :

Maps have special advantages of their own. Advantages of maps are-

  • They can be carried and handled easily.
  • Such features as landforms, roads, railways, towns and villages, etc. can better be shown on maps as compared to a globe.
  • A map is a pictorial representation of a small or big area on a plane “surface”.
  • Only a map is an accurate representation or a drawing of the earth’s surface or a part of it.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

Types of maps : There are several types of maps.

1. Political Maps : Maps showing different states and countries of the world with their boundaries are called Political Maps.
WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps 4

2. Physical Maps : Maps showing mountains, plains, plateaus, rivers and oceans etc., are called Physical Maps.
WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps 5

3. Thematic Mans Maps showing selected features of an area such as weather conditions, density of population, vegetation, roads and railways, etc., are called Thematic Maps.
WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps 6

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

Facts about Map:

The word ‘Map’ has come from the Latin word mappa meaning cloth as many of the earliest maps were drawn on skins, parchment and cloth. The most ancient map of earth was discovered in Babylon. This map was drawn on a terracotta plaque in 5th century BCE.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps 10

The most famous ancient maps of the world were made in the second century A.D. by the Greek scholar, Claudius Ptolemy. He based his drawings on mathematical calculations, along with information provided by sailors and explorers. In the 16th century (1578) geographer Mercator published the first book on maps. He titled it ‘Atlas’ after the Greek God ‘Atlas’. In present times too, a book of various maps is known as ‘Atlas’.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps 11
Globe and Map are keys in learning geography. Even though the globe is a small model of the earth, it is not possible to get much information about any country or continent and it is difficult to carry a globe to all places. An easier way to get information about the earth is the map. But it is difficult to draw a curved surface or round earth on a flat surface of a paper.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

Maps represent the whole or part of the earth’s surface on a flat surface according to the scale.

1. The science of map-making is called cartography. A map projection is the way in which cartographers show the curved surface of the earth on a flat map. One of the projection we see very often is that mode in 1569 by the Dutchman Gerardus Mercator.

However, it is impossible to draw a round earth on a flat surface. Reproducing the spherical surface on a flat piece of paper is a major challenge for cartographers. Every map has some distortion. A map can retain either the correct size of the countries or the correct shapes of very small areas, but not both at the same time. The larger area covered by a map may distorted also.

Basic Elements of a Map

The five basic parts or elements of a map which form important sources of information are the title, directions, scale, legend and grid system.

1. Title : All maps should have a title which tells the reader what the map is about.
Example : Physical map of India.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps 12

2. Direction :
Most maps show direction with an arrow that points to the direction of the north called a north line. Directions are always measured from North. The four directions such as North, South, East, West are called Cardinal directions.

They are shown on the maps by arrows with letters N,S,E,W etc. Generally the top of the map shows the North. Besides these, we also have intermediate directions such as North-East, North-West, South-East and South-West which is indicated by the north-south line on the map. If the north line is not shown, we presume that north is in the top of the map.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

3. Scale: Maps represent the part of the earth’s surface according to the scale which represents the ratio or proportion between the distances on the map and the actual distances on the ground. The scale of a map may be indicated by a simple statement method such as 1 Centimetre to 1 Kilometre. The scale may be shown by a straight line, This is called the linear scale.

Another method of representing a scale on a map is by a Representation Fraction, e.g. 1 : 10,00,000 or \(\frac{1}{10,00,000}\) which means 1cm on a map indicates 10,00,000cm on the ground.

4. Conventional signs or symbols or Legend :
Conventional signs or symbols in different colours are used to indicate a lot of information about physical and cultural features of the area. The use of symbols makes the map clearer and easier to read. Sometimes, colours are also used to show certain physical features in Atlas Maps. It is called Layer colouring Method.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps 13

5. Grid System : A grid is a set of lines used to find the exact locations of places on a map. Most maps use the latitude and longitude system, called the geographic grid to find places. Some signs and symbols are used when we draw a big area in a small space in the map.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Maps

Small Scale Map : Maps that represent large regions or areas (e.g. Earth, Continents and Countries) of the earth are called small scale maps. An atlas is an example of a small scale map as it shows large areas like continents and countries. Here 1cm in the map distance =250km on the ground distance. One does not get much information from a small scale map.

Large scale map : Maps which show small regions or areas (village or city maps) are called large scale maps. Here 1cm in the map distance = 2km on the ground distance. One gets detailed information from a large scale map.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Detailed explanations in West Bengal Board Class 6 Geography Book Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System offer valuable context and analysis.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Chapter 1 Question Answer – The Universe and The Solar System

Objective Type Questions :

Question 1.
In which unit the distances of universe are measured?
Answer:
Light year

Question 2.
What is the speed of light ?
Answer:
1,86,000 miles or 3,00,000 km per second

Question 3.
Which planet is known as ‘blue planet’?
Answer:
Earth

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 4.
Which planet is known as ‘red planet’?
Answer:
Mars

Question 5.
Which is the brightest plaent?
Answer:
Venus

Question 6.
Which planet has the largest number of satellites?
Answer:
Jupiter

Question 7.
Which planet has only one satellite?
Answer:
Earth

Question 8.
Name the largest satellite of the Solar System.
Answer:
Titan

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 9.
Name the planets between the Sun and the Earth.
Answer:
Mercury and Venus

Question 10.
What is the smallest planet in the Solar System?
Answer:
Mercury

Question 11.
Name the planet closest to the Sun.
Answer:
Mercury

Question 12.
Name the planet farthest from the Sun.
Answer:
Neptune

Question 13.
What is the position of the Earth from the Sun?
Answer:
Third

Question 14.
Name the first astronaut who landed on the Moon.
Answer:
Neil Armstrong

Question 15.
Which planet is known as Earth’s twin?
Answer:
Venus

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 16.
How many planets are there in the Solar System ?
Answer:
Eight

Question 17.
Name the largest planet of the Solar System.
Answer:
Jupiter

Question 18.
How much time does a ray of sunlight take to reach the Earth?
Answer:
About 8 minutes

Question 19.
How much time does a ray of moonlight take to reach the Earth ?
Answer:
About one second

Question 20.
Which planets have no satellites?
Answer:
Mecury, Venus

Question 21.
Which planet has three rings round it?
Answer:
Saturn

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 22.
What is the distance between the Sun and the Earth?
Answer:
150 million km

Question 23.
Which star is known as ‘Evening Star’ or ‘Morning Star’?
Answer:
Venus

Question 24.
What is the direction of rotation of Venus planet?
Answer:
From East to West

Question 25.
Name the two satellites of Mars.
Answer:
Deimos and Phobos

Question 26.
Name two Indian astronauts who went into space.
Answer:
Rakesh Sharma and Kalpana Chawla

Question 27.
How many satellites are there in Solar System?
Answer:
About 100

Question 28.
How many stars are there in our Galaxy ?
Answer:
About 1,00,000 million stars

Question 29.
Which is the centre of the Solar System – Sun or Earth ?
Answer:
Sun

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 30.
State the significances of atmosphere.
Answer:
It acts as a Protective Blanket around the Earth

Question 31.
What is meant by Hydrosphere?
Answer:
The layer of water on the surface of the Earth is called the Hydrosphere.

Question 32.
What is the period of rotation of Moon?
Answer:
27 days 7 hours 43 minutes

Question 33.
Why is Mars an object of great interest amongst planets nowadays ?
Answer:
Due to possibility of life on it

Question 34.
What is the Red Spot?
Answer:
Red soil on the mars containing iron, silica, titanium.

Question 35.
Which planet is tilted at an angle of 98° ?
Answer:
Urenus

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 36.
Name the planet whose polar caps show seasonal changes.
Answer:
Mars

Question 37.
With which planet do you associate the Great Red Spot?
Answer:
Jupiter

Question 38.
Name one gas found in the upper layer of the cloud of this planet.
Answer:
Ammonia and Methane

Question 39.
Which two planets are our closest celestial neighbours?
Answer:
Venus and Mars

Question 40.
The yellow face of the Sun is called-
Answer:
Photosphere

Question 41.
The outer layer of the Sun is called-
Answer:
Corona

Question 42.
The Sun moves faster at its equator than at its poles. At equator the rotation takes about-
Answer:
30 days

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 43.
Light year is the unit of-
Answer:
Distance

Question 44.
Which planet is said to be cruel according to Indian astrology ?
Answer:
Saturn

Question 45.
Which planet shows the same face towards Sun ?
Answer:
Mercury

Question 46.
The Moon’s orbit is inclined to the Earth’s orbit at an angle of about-
Answer:
5 degree

Question 47.
From new Moon to full Moon, more and more of the Moon’s illuminated half faces the Earth and the Moon is said to be-
Answer:
Waxing

Question 48.
From full Moon to new Moon, less and less of the Moon’s illuminated half faces the Earth, so it is said to be-
Answer:
Waning

Question 49.
Which unmanned spacecraft landed on Mars in 1976 ?
Answer:
Viking-1

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 50.
Which two poisonous gases are found on Jupiter ?
Answer:
Ammonia and Methane

Question 51.
Who discovered the Uranus planet?
Answer:
Sir William Herschel

Question 52.
What is the average temperature of the Earth?
Answer:
17°C

Question 53.
Planet is like a greenhouse.
Answer:
Venus

Question 54.
Planet spins on its axis from east to west.
Answer:
Venus

Question 55.
The planet which has the shortest day?
Answer:
Jupiter

Question 56.
The Halley’s Comet is seen from the earth after every-
Answer:
76 years

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 57.
Name of the largest planetoid is-
Answer:
Ceres

Question 58.
Celestial body which radiats heat and light-
Answer:
Star

Question 59.
The planet having the longest orbit around the Sun is-
Answer:
Neptune

Question 60.
The natural science that deals with the study of celestial objects is-
Answer:
Astronomy

Question 61.
The theory that explains the expanse of the universe is-
Answer:
Big Bang Theory.

Define the following briefly : 2 mark each

Question 1.
What is an orbit ?
Answer:
Orbit is the fixed path along which the planets revolve round the Sun.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 2.
What are Sunspots ?
Answer:
The dark patches or black spots on the bright surface of the Sun are known as Sunspots.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Asteroids?
Answer:
Millions of tiny planets made of cosmic fragments found in the wide gap between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter are known as Asteroids.

Question 4.
What are Comets ?
Answer:
Comets are heavenly bodies, with a head and a tail, formed by condensation of small particles of gas and rock fragments.

Question 5.
What are Meteors ?
Answer:
Meteors are small fragments of metallic rock scattered in the Solar System. Meteors burn when they enter the Earth’s atmosphere and are called ‘Shooting Stars’.

Question 6.
What do you understand by “Meteorites”?
Answer:
The unconsumed parts of the Meteors which reach the earth’s surface are known as Meteorites.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 7.
What is universe ?
Answer:
Universe is a vast, infinite, heavenly space which comprises all the heavenly bodies, the Sun, the planets and several galaxies of stars.

Question 8.
What is a light year ?
Answer:
A light year is the distance which a ray of light would cover in a year’s time (About 9.5 Trillion kilometre).

Question 9.
What is Galaxy ?
Answer:
A Galaxy is a group of millions of shining stars scattered regularly in space. It is also known as the Milky Way or Akash Ganga.

Question 10.
What are the satellites?
Answer:
Satellites are small spherical bodies which revolve around a particular planet.

Question 11.
What is new Moon?
Answer:
When the Moon shows its dark side to the Earth.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 12.
What is full Moon ?
Answer:
When the Moon shows full face to the Earth.

Question 13.
What is Astronomy?
Answer:
It is the study of positions and motions of heavenly bodies.

Question 14.
What are shooting stars?
Answer:
When a meteor enters the Earth’s atmosphere, it burns and is called a shooting star.

Question 15.
What is cosmology ? known as cosmology.
Answer:
The study of Solar System is known as cosmology.

Identify the correct answers (MCQ) : 1 mark each

Question 1.
Which planet shows the same face towards the Sun
(a) Earth
(b) Neptune
(c) Venus
(d) Mercury
Answer:
(c) Venus

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 2.
Which planet experiences all the season as of earth
(a) Saturn
(b) Uranus
(c) Mars
(d) Pluto
Answer:
(c) Mars

Question 3.
In Indian astrology, which one is cruel planet
(a) Mars
(b) Saturn
(c) Venus
(d) Uranus
Answer:
(b) Saturn

Question 4.
Which of the following is the cold planet
(a) Uranus
(b) Mars
(c) Venus
(d) Jupiter
Answer:
(d) Jupiter

Question 5.
Phobos and Demos are the satellite of
(a) Venus
(b) Neptune
(c) Mars
(d) Saturn
Answer:
(c) Mars

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 6.
The age of the universe is about
(a) 10 billion
(b) 15 billion
(c) 20 billion
(d) 18 billion
Answer:
(b) 15 billion

Question 7.
The word nebula is Latin means
(a) rain
(b) clouds
(c) frost
(d) drizzle
Answer:
(b) clouds

Question 8.
The word planasthai in Greek means
(a) to return
(b) to come
(c) to wander
(d) to see
Answer:
(c) to wander

Question 9.
The word Solaris in Latin means
(a) Planet
(b) Sun
(c) Star
(d) Moon
Answer:
(b) Sun

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 10.
Which planet experiences all the season as of earth
(a) Saturn
(b) Uranus
(c) Mars
(d) Jupiter
Answer:
(c) Mars

Question 11.
What position earth occupies in size from Sun
(a) 2nd
(b) 5 th
(c) 7 th
(d) 4 th
Answer:
(b) 5 th

Question 12.
Which two planets are nearly alike in size
(a) Neptune and Uranus
(b) Mercury and Venus
(c) Mars and Pluto
(d) Mercury and Mars
Answer:
(a) Neptune and Uranus

Question 13.
Which planets are called the ‘big four’?
(a) Jupiter, Saturn, Earth and Mars
(b) Jupiter, Uranus, Pluto and Earth
(c) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune
(d) Saturn, Uranus, Neptune and Earth
Answer:
(c) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 14.
Which two planets are called twin planets ?
(a) Venus and Earth
(b) Mercury and Venus
(c) Earth and Mars
(d) Pluto and Neptune
Answer:
(a) Venus and Earth

Question 15.
Halley’s Comet reappears after about
(a) 56 years
(b) 76 years
(c) 96 years
(d) 106 years
Answer:
(b) 76 years

Question 16.
Name the planet of which the orbit is very eccentric ?
(a) Neptune
(b) Pluto
(c) Uranus
(d) Saturn
Answer:
(b) Pluto

Fill in the blanks with correct words : 1 mark each

1. Heavenly bodies which radiates heat and light are called ____.
Answer:
Stars

2. The Earth is located at the _____ position from the Sun.
Answer:
Third

3. The Sun is about _____ million km. away from the Earth.
Answer:
150

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

4. Uranus completes one revolution in _____ years.
Answer:
84 years

5. The milky way is barred _____ shaped galaxy.
Answer:
Spiral

6 . _____ is called the ‘red planet’.
Answer:
Mars

7. The Moon has about _____ th the gravity of the Earth.
Answer:
1 / 6

8. The speed of the Moon’s revolution is about _____ km / hr.
Answer:
3,683

9. _____ was the first man to orbit around the Earth.
Answer:
Col. Yuri Gagarin

10. _____ became the first man to walk on the Moon.
Answer:
Neil Armstrong.

If the sentence is true, write ‘T’ and if false write ‘F’ against the followings : 1 mark each

1. Planets move around the Sun in circular orbits.
Answer: False

2. Satellites are smaller than the planets.
Answer: True

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

3. Saturn is the largest planet in the solar system.
Answer: False

4. The Moon reflects light from the Earth.
Answer: False

5. The Earth appears as a blue planet from space.
Answer: True

6. Rakesh Sharma was the first Indian to fly into space.
Answer: True

7. Kalpana Chawla was the first Indian woman in space.
Answer: True

8. Meteors are popularly known as ‘shooting stars’.
Answer: True

9. An asteroid is a tiny planet revolving around the Earth.
Answer: False

10. Uranus is the largest planet in the Solar System.
Answer: False

The Universe and The Solar System Class 6 WBBSE Notes

Earth : A unique planet. The Earth is a unique planet (Watery planet or Blue planet) because it is the only planet on which life exists.

The Universe : The science of Cosmology and Astronomy and solar system.

The Solar system : Solar system consists of the sun, planets, satellites, comets, asteroids and meteors. The Sun is the centre of the solar system. The sun is a vast hot gaseous mass. The distance between the Sun and the Earth is about 150 million kilometres. Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune are eight planets. The gravitational force of the Sun keeps the planets in their orbits.

Life on Planets : The Earth is a unique planet because life exists only on this planet. Other planets have no atmospheres. There is a possibility of life on Mars.

Other Heavenly bodies : There are about 100 satellites revolving around different planets. The Earth has one satellite-Moon. Neil Armstrong, an American Astronaut was the first man to land on Moon on 21st July 1969. Comets are heavenly bodies with a head and a tail. Halley’s comet is visible on Earth after a period of 76 years.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Introduction :

A star-studded sky on a cloudless night is a facinating sight. It is very wonderful to watch the sky after the sunset. One would first see one or two bright dots shining in the sky. Soon you would notice the number of shining dots increasing. Then you cannot count them any more. The whole sky is filled with tiny shining objects – some of them are bright and others are dim. It seems as if the sky is studded with diamonds. That is why “Twinkle, twinkle, little star” is a significant line of a nursery rhyme. All objects that pertain in the sky are called celestial bodies. The Sun, the Moon and millions of shining objects in the sky are also celestial bodies. Sometimes celestial bodies are called heavenly bodies. Stars, planets, comets, meteors, meteorites, asteroids are all celestial bodies. The stars in this infinite space or sky cling together in groups. Each large group is called the galaxy.

The Universe :

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 1

Definition : The Universe can be defined as everything that exists, everything that has existed, and everything that will exist. The Universe is all of space and time (space time) and its contents, which includes planets, moons, minor planets, stars, galaxies, the contents of intergalactic space and all matter and energy. The size of the entire Universe is still unknown.

Etymology : The word ‘Universe’ derives from the Old French word ‘univers’, which in turn derives from the Latin word ‘Universum’. The latin word was used by Cicero and later Latin authors in many of the same senses as the modern English word is used.

How vast is the Universe? : The Universe is indeed very vast in size and infinite space having millions of galaxies and heavenly bodies. The vastness of the Universe cannot be easily imagined, in view of great distances involved. Distances between heavenly bodies cannot be expressed in units like kilometre or mile which are used for measuring this Universe. A light year is the unit adopted for measuring distances in the Universe. The Star nearest to the Sun is Proxima Centauri. It takes about four years for light to travel the distance between Proxima Centauri and the Earth. Then it is very difficult to imagine how big the Universe is ! Scientists are still trying to find out more and more and more about it. We are not certain about its size, but we know that all of us-you, I belong to this Universe.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

How did the Universe originate?

The Universe consists of all things that exist planets, stars and galaxies. The origin of this Universe has its root in the “Big Bang Theory”, Most astronomers beliese that the Univetse came into existerce about 15 billion years ago in a gigantic explosion celled the Bia Bang. Acconding to this theory, about 15 billici years ago all of the matter and energy of space wes concentrated at one point. Thus there was a tremendous explosion.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 2

This explosion is lanown as the Big Beng in present drys. Small atoms formed within mirnutes of the explosion and the process of creation was started. All of the matter and energy, even the space itself, which were compressed into an infinitely small volume, then began to expand at an incredible rate. Within two to three minute, the whole thing that grown to the size of the solar system. In course of time it cooled enough to form Hydrogen and small amount of Helium gas. The Bia Beng modet states that the exrliest state of the Universe was extremely hot and dense and that it suberquently expanded.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 3

The initial hot, dense state is celled the Planck epoch, a brief period extending from time seto to one planck time unit. During the Planck epoch, all types of matter and all types of energy were concentrated into a dense state, where gravitation is belisved to have been er strong es the other fundamental foroes, and all the forces may have been unified. During the bilions of years that followed, immense heat and huge energy together with the gases and coemic clouds fomed the so called Universe. The golaxy was created by this Big Bang process and from them the sters, the planets and other cosmic objects wete formed or we see it today. The expansion of unikerse is still continuing.

Age of this Universe : The gigantic explosion is called the “Big Bang” which cccured 15 billion years ago. The age of the Univetse is thus considered about 15 billion years starting from the Big Bang episode. The current estimate of the age of the Universe is about 13 billion years.

The Celestial Bodies  :
Definition : All objects that belongs to the sky are called celestial bodies. The Sun, the Moon and millions of shining objects in the clear night sky are also celestial bodies. Sometimes celestial bodies are called heavenly bodies. Stars, planets, comets, meteors, meteorites, asteroids are all celestial bodies. Some celestial bodies have their own heat and light and are called stars. Some heavenly bodies do not have their own heat and light. They receive the light from the stars. These are called planets, clusters of millions of stars in the Universe are called Galaxies.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Galaxy :
Definition : A large group of stars, dust and light gases bound together by their own gravity is called a galaxy. It is a flattened system of different shapes and sizes. Several galaxies make up the Universe. There are 10″ galaxies in the Universe. Our Solar System is a part of the Universe which consists of clusters of millions of stars. These are called galaxies.
Earth’s Galaxy : Earth’s galaxy is called the Milky Way or Akash Ganga. The Milky way is a large spiral-shaped galaxy. It spans about 100,000 light years across and is about 10,000 light years thick at the centre.

Why its name Milky Way?

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 4

Earth’s Galaxy is called the Milky Way because it appears as a soft glowing light of billions of stars so far away that they cannot be seen individually. With his telescope, Galileo discovered this band of light was produced by countless individual stars which the naked eye cannot resolve.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Nebula :
Terminology : The word ‘nebula’ is derived from the Latin word for ‘Clouds’.
Definition : A nebula is the cloudy luminous patch of gas (cosmic cloud), made up of dust, hydrogen, helium gas, whirling around the centre of an eddy in the space. More than one nebula is called nebulae.
Formation : Scientists think the Nebulae are the hot gaseous form of matter. When the Nabulae cool, the stars are born.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 5
Hubble, Wyse and Mayall have found new facts about the nebulae after making special studies.
Types : The Nabulae belong to two types-(i) Galactic Nebulae and (ii) Extra Galactic Nebulae.

(i) Galactic Nebulae : These nebulae exist within our Milky Way. Their sizes are thousands times larger than our solar system.
(ii) Extra-galactic Nabulae: These nebulae are situated away from our Milky Way. They have a definite and similar shape. Some are spiral nebulae.

How the Sun, the solar system were formed?

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 6
About 4.6 billion years ago the Solar System was just a spinning disc of dust and gas. These gases, mainly hydrogen and partly helium, together with dust in space created a cosmic cloud. This cloud then got disturbed by various cosmic factors and thus squeezed. Gradual cooling caused gradual contraction in the size.

The disc gradually formed a nebula called solar nebula. The more the size of the nebula continued to decrease, the more the velocity of rotatory motion continued to increase. Thus, the nebula started spinning at a faster speed and consequently centrifugal force became so great that it exceeded the centripetal force. The outer layer of the disc, the matters became thinner and fragmented. The particles, either began to stick together or collided with others to form clumps. They began to revolve around the centre of the so called concentrated mass (new born Sun) due to its central gravitational pull.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 7

The central part of the nebula which remained behind became the Sun and originate nine rings and thus nine planets have been formed. Some rings also separated from the gaseous mass of the planets and revolved round them as sub-planets. The remaining part of the original gaseous mass became the Sun. These planets and sub-planets along with the Sun are known as Solar System or Solar Family. However, in our own Solar System the members may be grouped into the following six categories :

  • Stars
  • Planets
  • Satellites
  • Comets
  • Meteores
  • Asteroids.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Stars :

Definition : Some celestial bodies in the Universe are very huge and hot. They are made up of various gases. They have their own heat and light, which they emit in large amounts. These celestial bodies are called stars. The Sun is also a star. The Sun is the nearest star to the Earth. It is about 14.70 crore kilometre away from the Earth. The light of the Sun takes eight minute and twenty second to reach the earth.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 8

Physical Properties : Stars are self luminous bodies. It means they have their own heat and light. Stars are made up of hot gases giving out flames. They are usually very big in size but they are very far away from our earth. That is why they look very small. There are millions of stars in this limitless sky.

Why stars seems twinkling to us ?
The light from the stars passes through different layers of the atmosphere with varying densities. As a result, stars seem twinkling to us.

Second nearest star : Next to the Sun, the second nearest star is the Proxima Centauri or Alpha Centauri. It lies at a distance of about 4.25 light years from the earth. It was discovered in 1913. The mass of this star is 0.1 times than that of the Sun.

Sources of heat and light : Stars are intensely hot, glowing masses which produce massive energy. Hydrogen is the primary elements of building block of stars. The main source of the heat of a star is due to the conversion of Hydrogen gas into Helium gas. This heat is the primary source of self-illumination or shining of the stars.

Number of visible stars : There are 1022 stars in the Universe. It has been estimated that about 8000 stars visible from the Earth by the naked eye. Out of this, 4000 stars are visible in the Northern Hemisphere and 4000 in the Southern Hemisphere. In either hemisphere, 2000 stars are visible at any given time. The other 2000 stars are located in the day time sky and are not visible due to the brightness of the Sun.
Constellations : While watching the clear night sky, you may notice various

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 9

patterns formed by different groups of stars. These are called constellations. These constellations were named in honour of mythological characters. They hardly bear resemblence to names they are given. Today, 88 constellations are recognised.

Ursa Major or Great Bear is visible throughout the year in the northern sky in most of the Northern Hemisphere. The seven brightest stars of Ursa Major form a pattern known as the Big-Dipper in USA, the Plough in U.K. and Saptarshi in India. It’s name means ‘the great bear’. Orion, the hunter, is one of the most beautiful of all constellations. It is seen in the south-southwestern sky. In Bengal it is known as Kalpurush.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

The Sun :
Definition : The Sun is a medium size star situated at the centre of a huge rotating solar system consisting of nine planets (now eight planets except Pluto), their satellites and numerous small bodies known as asteroids. Its gravitational pull holds the other members in orbit and governs their motion.

Shape, size and colour : The shape of the Sun is perfectly spherical or round. Although it is slightly less than average sized star. Like all stars it is a ball of hot glowing gaseous body in the sky. The Sun is 13 lakh times bigger than our earth. It has a radius of about 700,000 km. The Sun is gaseous and not solid like the Earth. It looks big and bright because it is comparatively nearer to us or Earth. It is yellowish in colour and is of medium shape and size among the stars. Astronomers describe it as ‘a yellow dwarf’.

Weight and Volume : Though Sun is made up of hot gases i.e., very light substances it will still weight over 750 times more than all the planets put together. In volume Sun is so big that a million earths would fit into it. It is 1.3 billion (1 billion = 1000000000) times the volume of the Earth.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 10

Temperature : We get heat and light from the Sun. The surface temperature of the Sun is about 6000° C. In the core of the Sun, the temperatue is estimated to be about 20,000,000°C. Such extremely high temperatures are produced by the conversion of hydrogen into helium by the process of fusion. Heat is generated by this process and the Sun radiates energy in the form of electro-magnetic radiation. Solar prominences rise like huge flames hundreds of kilometer from the Sun’s surface.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 11

Time takes for light : The Sun is about 150 million (1 million = 10,00000) km away from the Earth. Light, which travels at the speed of 3,00,000 km per second, takes about 8.5 minutes to reach the Earth from the Sun.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 12

Layers of the Sun : From centre to the surface of the Sun, there are four distinctive layers; they are-

(a) Core : Interior core of the Sun, consist of hydrogen and helium gases with a temperature is called Solar core. The temperature at the core or centre of the Sun is around 1.4 million °C.

(b) Photosphere: The visible yellow face around the core of the Sun is called the photosphere or the sphere of light where, the temperature is about 6000° C. The rays and heat radiate from it.

(c) Chromosphere : Surrounding the photosphere is Chromosphere (temperature 32,400°C) which is pink or reddish in colour. The flames of the chromosphere go up thousands of kilometre and are called Prominences.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

(d) Corona : It is the uppermost layer of the Sun. It is visible to unaided eyes only during solar eclipses. Temperature of the Corona is about 2,700,000° C, hot enough to emit X-rays.
Density of Gas : The density of the gas in each layer decreases with the increasing altitude, just as the earth’s atmosphere thins with height. The corona, accordingly, is the least dense of the Sun’s layer.

Planets :
Definition : Some celestial bodies are made up of solid material. Since they not made of burning gases they do not have heat and light of their own. They only reflect the light which they receive from a star. Such celestial bodies are called planets. The Sun is a star and our Earth is also a planet which receives its light and heat from the Sun (star).

Etymology : The word ‘planet’ comes from the Greek word ‘planetai’ which means ‘wanderers’ as they seemed to move about or wander in the sky. All planets are revolving around the Sun in their respective elliptical orbits. Time taken for a complete revolution in each case is fixed.
Revolution speed of planets : All planets revolve the Sun in ellipse-like orbits. Their average speed including Pluto is 22.7 km per second. The planets closer to the Sun move faster than those which are more distant from it.

A Rotation of planets : Each planet rotates at different speed about their respective axis. All except Venus rotates in an anti-clockwise direction. It is really surprising that Venus rotates in a clockwise direction. To every one’s astonishment Venus sees the Sun rising in the West.

Smallest and closest planet : Mercury is the smallest planet in the Solar System and closest planet to the Sun.

  • A Earth’s position : In terms of distant from the Sun, the Earth’s position is third.
  • Largest planet : Jupiter is the largest planet in the solar system.
  • Brightest planet : Venus is the brightest planet in the solar system.
  • Number of planets : Our solar system is made up of eight planets. In order of their distance from the Sun, these are : Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune.

An easy way to memorise the name of the planets in order of their distance from the Sun is :
“My Very Efficient Mother Just Served Us Nuts”

Classification of planets : Almost all the planets fall into two groups :

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 13
(a) Inner planets : Mercury, Venus, Mars and Earth are called the Inner planets. They are also known as terrestrial (earth like) planets.
(b) Outer planets : These lie beyond the orbit of Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune are the Outer planets.

There is another way of grouping the planets-
(a) Inferior planets : Mercury and Venus are called inferior planets because they lie closer to the Sun than the Earth.
(b) Superior planets: All the planets which have their orbits outside the Earth’s orbit are called superior planets.

Comparison of Stars and Planets :

Stars Planets
1. A star is made up of hot, burning gases. 1. Planets are made up of solid material like rocks and stones.
2. Stars emit light of their own. 2. They shine because of the light they reflect from the Sun.
3. Stars twinkle. 3. Planets do not twinkle.
4. Stars are very big. 4. Planets are very small as compared to the stars.
5. Stars are very hot. 5. Temperature of planets depends on its distance from the Sun.
6. There are millions of stars. 6. There are nine planets.
7. The Sun is an exmaple of a star. 7. The Earth revolves around the Sun. It is an example of a planet.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

The brief description of the planets of our Solar System is given below :

Inner Planets:

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 14
1. Mercury: The Innermost planet : Mercury is the nearest planet to the Sun and smallest planet in the solar system. It is named after the messenger of the Roman Gods.

  • Distanc: Its distance is about 58 million km.
  • Diameter : Its diameter is 4878 km.
  • Max. and Min.

Temperature :
The maximum temperature of this planet is 430°C and minimum temperature at opposite side is – 180°C.

  • Rotational Period : 58 days.
  • Length of day : 58 days, 15 hrs 30 minutes
  • Length of year : 87.97 days.
  • Satellite : None.
  • Revolutionary Speed : It is the swiftest planet and completes one revolution in 88 days.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 15

Venus : The veiled planet : Venus is named after the Roman Goddess of love and beauty.

  • Distance from Sun : It is the second planet from the Sun and lies 107 million km distance from the Sun.
  • Size : It is like the Earth in size and mass and hence also known as the “Earth’s twin”.
  • Diameter : 12104 km.
  • Average surface temperature : It is the hottest planet in the Solar System and its average surface temperature is 450°C. It is the warmest planet.
  • Orbital period : 225 days.
  • Length of day : 243 days, 14 minutes.
  • Direction of rotation : It spins clockwise, opposite to that of Earth.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Earth : The Blue Planet : It is the largest of the inner planets. It is the fifth largest planet in the solar system and third in distance from the Sun. The Earth is known as the “Watery planet” or the “Blue planet”. It is the only known planet which has life on it.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 16

  • Distance from the Sun : 150 million km.
  • Average surface temperature of the Earth : 15°C or + 14°C
  • Length of day : 23 hrs, 56 minutes, 4 seconds.
  • Length of year : 364 days, 48 minutes, 46 seconds approximately 365.25 days.
  • Average speed of Revolution : 29 km. per second and direction of the revolution is anti-clockwise.
  • Satellite : One (moon).

Earth : The Blue, Watery Planet The “full Earth” was an unknown spectacle before the Apollo space flights. Such photographs of the Earthhave vastly increased our knowledge of weather patterns and climate. The Earth is called a waterly planet because 70% of its surface is covered with water. The Earth reflects about one third of the light that falls on it. The Earth’s atmosphere scatters the light and creates a predominantly blue planet.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 17

Mars : The Red Planet :
Mars is named after the Roman God of war. Its iron-rich red soil and pink sky give it the name ‘Red planet’. ‘

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 18

  • Distance from the sun : 228 million km (1.5 times that of Earth).
  • Average surface temperature: -25° C,
  • Length of day : 24 hours, 37 minutes,
  • Length of year : 1 year and 321.73 days.
  • Satellites : 2 (Phobos and Deimos).
  • Size : Small (diameter less and 25km).
  • Discovered : In 1877.

Jupiter : The Giant Planet : Venus is named after the Roman Goddess of love and beauty. It is the largest planet of the Solar System. About 1300 Earthsized balls could fit within this enormous planet.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 19

Jupiter rotates faster than any other planet. This fast spin causes high winds. D

  • Average surface temperature : 150° C.
  • Length of day : 9 hours, 50 minutes.
  • Length of year : 11 ye ars and 315 days.
  • Distance from the sun : 778 million km.
  • Satellites : 63
  • Size : Diameter ranges from 3000 km to 5000 km.
  • Discovered : In 1610 by Galileo Galilei.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Saturn : The Jewel Planet : Saturn is named after Jupiter’s father in Roman mythology. It is the second largest planet and the most beautiful planet in the solar mainly because of its spectacular rings. Which are made up of ice and icecovered-dust particles. The other giant planets also have rings, but the saturn’s rings are brighest and most complex.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 20

  • Average surface temperature: -178°C
  • Length of Day : 10 hours, 41 minutes..
  • Length of year : 29 years and 167.25 days.
  • Distance from the Sun : 1,400 million km (9.6 times that of Earth)
  • Satellites : 18 known (22 or more expected).
  • Discovered : Between 1655 and 1684.

Uranus : A Planet on its side : Uranus is named after the Roman God of the sky. This planet is about 4 times the size of Earth. Its axis is fitted at 98°. Unlike the other planets that spin like tops as they circle the Sun. Uranus seems to be rolling along its orbit. It completes one revolution in 84 years. This planet appears greenish in colour because the methane gas present absorb the reddish colour from the sunlight.
WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 21

  • Average surface temperature: -213° C.
  • Length of day : 16 hours, 48 minutes. It spins on its side, clockwise, opposite to that of Earth.
  • Length of year : 84 years and 3.65 days.
  • Distance from the Sun : 2870 million km.
  • Satellites: 15.
  • Discovered : Between 1787 and 1948.

Neptune : The Last Giant : Neptune is named after the Roman God of the sea, the son of Saturn and brother of Jupiter. Neptune is very similar to Uranus and can be considered its twin.

  1. Average surface temperature: -214° C
  2. Length of day : 16 hours, 3 minutes.
  3. Length of year : 164 years and 288.54 days.
  4. Distance from the sun : 4,500 million km.
  5. Satellites : 8.
  6. Discovered : Between 1787 and 1948.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 22

Pluto : The Dwarf Planet : Once it considered to be the ninth planet in the Solar System. Pluto’s orbit is unusual. It is highly elongated and tilted at an angle of 17° as compared to the orbits of the rest of the planets and for these causes Pluto was declared to be a ‘Dwarf Planet’ by the astronomers in 2006. According to them, dwarf planets cannot repel a celestial body that intrudes into its orbit and it is another cause for termed as dwarf planet Pluto, even smaller than the Moon, completes one revolution in 248 years. It has one satellite, named Charon (son of Pluto). Pluto was discovered in 1978.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Comparative Details of planets

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 23

Negative values of rotation period indicate that the planet rotates in opposite direction to that it revolves round the Sun.

Satellites :

Definition: The celestial bodies which rotate on their own axes and revolve round the planets are called satellites. The satellites revolve around the planets in the same way as the planets revolve around the Sun. Satellites shine by reflecting light from the Sun. These natural satellies are frequently referred as ‘Moon’ Humanmode satellite: They are artificial bodies. They are designed by scientists to gather information about universe.

Word Origin : The word satellite has its root in the Latin ‘Satelles’, which means ‘attendant’. The word ‘satellite’ means a follower and they follow the planets in their paths around the Sun. Planets and their satellites: Satellites are opaque bodies like the planets shining by reflected sunlight falling on them. All planet’s do not have satellites. As a result of recent space exploration the number of known satellites has increased. Saturn has the largest number of satellites, namely 20. It is now known that there are at least 57 satellites in the Solar System. Four satellites Ganymede and Callisto of Jupiter, Titan of Saturn and Triton of Naptune are larger than Mercury, the smallest planet. Most of the satellites are too small to hold an atmosphere around them. Titan, the largest satellite of saturn has an atmosphere around it.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

The Moon :

Moon, the only natural satellite of the Earth, is our nearest heavenly body being only 3,85,000 ~km away from the Earth. It is about 50 times smaller than the Earth.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 24

The diameter of the moon is about one-fourth the Earth’s diameter. The day temperature may be as high as 127° C and the temperature may drop down to -173° C just before the lunar dawn. Due to lack of atmosphere there is no weather, no clouds, no rain, no wind and no water on its surface.

The moon moves around the earth on an elliptical orbit at an average speed of about 3700 ~km per hour. It completes one revolution around the earth in 27 days. The time taken to complete one rotation in about 29 days.

Since moon takes almost the same time to rotate on its axis and complete one revolution, the same side of the Moon always faces the Earth. The Moon has about 1 / 6 th the gravity of the Earth. So if you weighted 100 kg on Earth you would weigh 16.6 kg on the Moon.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 25

Phases of the Moon : The Moon’s
appearance changes
as it moves around the Earth. These changing shapes, or the changes in the Moon’s visible shape are known as the phases of the Moon.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

1. New Moon : When the moon is between the Earth and the Sun, the part of the Moon facing the Earth is in complete darkness. This position is called the New Moon
2. Waxing Crescent: Three days after the New Moon, a thin illuminated surface of the Moon is visible from the Earth.
3. First Quarter: On the 7th day after the New Moon, the Moon looks like a luminous halfcircle.
4. Waxing Gibbous : On the 10 day after the New Moon, more than half, but less than full portion of the Moon is lighted.
5. Full Moon : On the 14th day after the New Moon, the Moon shows its full lighted surface. This face is the Full Moon.
6. Waning Gibbous : The 17th day after the New Moon is waning gibbous.
7. Last Quarter : On the 21st day after the New Moon, again the Moon looks like a luminous half circle. This phase is the Last Quarter.
8. Waning Crescent: On the 28th day after the first New Moon, once again the New Moon occurs. This circle is repeated every month. The period of time from one Full Moon or New Moon to the immediate next one is called a Lunar Month.

Eclipse : An eclipse is the darkening of a heavenly body when the shadow of one object in space falls on another object.

1. Lunar Eclipse : A lunar eclipse occurs when the earth (small object) is between the Sun (large light source) and the Moon, i.e., the Sun, Earth and Moon are in a straight line with the Earth in between the Sun and the Moon. The shadow of the Earth falls on the Moon.
2. Solar Eclipse : A solar eclipse occurs when the Sun Earth and Moon are in a straight line with the Moon positioned in between the Sun and the Earth. The shadow of the Moon is cast on the Earth.

Other Members of the Solar Family –

1. Asteroids : Definition : Thousands of small planetary bodies which revolve around the sun in big gap of about 550 million km. between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter are called asteroids. Asteroids are also called Planetoids or minor planets. Facts about Asteroids : They are rocky objects. This has come to be called the asteroid belt. So far more than 5000 asteroids have been identified and catalogued. They are irregular in shaped. Regardless of size and shape, all asteroids rotate on their axes every 5 to 20 hours. Mean period of their revolution is 4.5 years. The largest or biggest of the asteroids in Ceres, has a diameter of about 1000 km.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 26

Meteors and Meteorites :

Definition : When asteroids collide with one another, fragments of rock may break off. These pieces may find their way towards the Earth.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 27

Such objects are called meteors. Meteors are popularly known as ‘shooting stars’. Meteors are usually small and burn up before they can reach the earth’s surface. When meteors are large and do not burn up completely, they land on the earth’s surface and are known as meteorites. Sometimes a large meteorite strikes earth and make large holes, called Craters. Such a meteorite struck Siberia in Russia in 1908 . The most famous site is the Meteor Crater in Arizona of USA. The Crater is 1.2 km across and 170 metre deep.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Comets : Visitors of the Solar System –

Definition : Comets are bright objects with an elongated tail which have curved orbits around the Sun. As they have long orbits they appear at long intervals. Comets are heavenly bodies with a head and a tail. Word Origin : The word comet comes from the Latin word ‘Stella Cometa’ meaning ‘hairy star’.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 28

Orbit and movement : Comets move around the Sun in irregular orbits but their orbits are such elongated ellipse that it takes them hundreds and sometimes even thousands of years. Comets have been compared to large dirty snowballs.

The comet becomes visible only when it travels close to the sun. Example: The most famous comet is Halley’s Comet. Its orbital period averages 76 years. It was seen in 1910 and last sighted in 1986 . It is due to return in 2061 or 2062.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 29

What is coma? A comet is characterised by a long, luminous tail. But this is visible only when the comet’s orbit passes close to the Sun. When the comet travels close to the Sun, the ice melts to a head of gas called coma.

Space Venture or Journey to Sapce

During the years since world war II, a new science of space technology and astronautics has developed and the first successful man made earth satellite was Sputnik-I, launched by Russia on october 4, 1957.

For centuries man had hoped that one day he would set foot on the Moon. On 4th October, 1957, the Soviet spaceship Sputnik-1 had gone beyond the force of gravitation and moved round the Earth for 56 minutes at a height of 900 ~km. In the same year Russia had sent another spaceship, Sputnik-II, with a passenger dog named Laika. But unfortunately Sputnik-II was destroged in the space.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Advancement of Space and Moon Exploration –

1. Space exploration began with the launching of Russia’s Sputnik-1 into space on October 4, 1957.
2. Sputnik-2 followed a month later and carried with it a dog ‘Laika’.
3. The USA entered the space arena on January 31, 1958 with the launching of the Explorer-1.
4. In October 1959, the Russian satellite Luna- 3 sent pictures of the far side of the moon.
5. In 1959 Russian scientists had launched manless Lunik-1 and Lunik-2 directly towards the moon.

But Lunik-2 dashed against the Moon and was broken. At the end of the year Lunik-3 was launched successfully and it began to move around the Moon and televised the picture of the Moon’s opposite side.

6. First honours for space flight went to Russian Air Force Major Yuri Gagarin in 1961.
7. The first women cosmonaut, Valentina Tereshkova of Russia (now CIS) flew into space in June 1963 and stayed for about 3 days in the orbit.
8. Later Russian moon-ship Lunik-9 alighted in the Moon and had sending pictures to the Earth.
9. In 1966 and 1967 American Scientists had sent several spaceships with men and they came back with resourceful information about the Moon.
10. The man stepped on to the surface of the Moon for the first time on July 21,1969 at 8.26 a.m. as per Indian standard time. The rocket named Saturn was launched from the Cape Kennedy Space Centre at Florida, USA on July 16, 1969. A giant spacecraft, Appollo-II was fitted atop the Saturn. The Apollo-II carried Eagle, the lunar landing craft.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 30

Three astronauts, named Neil Armstrong, Michael Collins and Edwin Aldrin Jr. got into ApolloII. As the craft came near the Moon, the astronauts prepared to land. Michael Collins stayed in the spacecraft while the other two entered the lunar module Eagle. When everything was ready, the Eagle separated from space-craft and headed towards the Moon. As it reached the Sea of Tranquility – a vast dry plain or maria, the lunar module landed on its spidery legs. Then, the hatch of the Eagle was opened and Neil Armstrong stepped on to the Moon.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 31

Just after landing on the Moon Armstrong remarked with joy, ‘That’s one small step for a man, one giant leap for mankind’. After 30 minutes Aldrin came down from the Eagle to become the second man on the Moon.

Other Explorations

USSR sent up the unmanned Luna-16 (September 12, 1970) and Luna-17 (November 19, 1970). Luna-16 picked up Moon Soil samples and returned to the earth on September 24, 1970.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 32

India’s Space Research

ISRO (Indian Space Research Organization)the government institution that conducts and supervises space research in India. India’s first artificial satellite was Aryabhatta. Bhaskara-1, Bhaskara-2, INSAT, etc. are a few others satellites. The first Indian to travel successfully to space was Rakesh Sharma in 1984. The first Indian lunar vehicle from earth to land successfully on the moon was Chandrayana (2008).

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

India’s first Moon exploration by Chandrayaan-1 carried four Indian payloads and six foreign made science instruments, including the Moon Minerology Mapper (M3) which first detected water molecules on the surface of the Moon. ISRO’s (Indian Space Research Organisation’s) Chandrayaan-1 spacecraft, launched in October 2008. had experienced instrument failures earlier this year, leading to loss of communication with the spacecraft and prompting the agency to end the lunar mission in August.

Notable Indian Astronauts :

Kalpana Chawla : She was the first Indian-American astronaut and was the first Indian woman in 1997.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System 33

She went into space as a mission specialist on space shuttle Columbia in 1997 and spent about 372 hours in space. Her second space mission was on January 16, 2003. On February 1, 2003,

her space shuttle columbia met with a disaster during re-entry into the earth’s atmosphere and along with all the seven crew members Kalpana Chawla died.

Rakesh Sharma : He was the first Indian to fly into space aboard Soyuz T-II on 2nd April, 1984. He spent eight days in space in the Salyut-7 space station.

Sunita Williams : She was an American astronaut of Indian origin holds the record for the longest single space flight by a woman for about 195 days. She is accredited with a record 50 hours 40 minutes of most space walk time for a woman.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Do you know?

Question 1.
What is sky?
Answer:
The space above the earth that you can see when you look up, where clouds and the Sun, Moon and Stars appear. The sky is limitless. The sky is bright blue in colour, like the sky in a clear day.

Question 2.
What is a light year?
Answer:
A light year is the unit adopted for measuring distances in the Universe. A ray of light travels at a speed of 300,000 km per second. A light year is the distance which a ray of light would cover in a year’s time. This works out to 9.5 million million kilometre.

Question 3.
What is epoch?
Answer:
A length of time, which is a division of a period.

Question 4.
Origin of the word Solar:
Answer:
The word ‘Solar’ comes from the Latin word ‘Solaris’ meaning ‘Sun’.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 5.
Some well-known Constellations :
Answer:
Some well-known Constellations with their Indian names are given below :

  1. Ursa major (Great Bear)-Saptarishi
  2. Ursa minor (Little Bear)-Dhruva Matsya
  3. Orion (Hunter)Mirga
  4. Draco (Dragon)Kaleya
  5. Scorpio-Vrishchika.

Question 6.
Orbit
Answer:
All the eight planets of the Solar System revolve around the Sun in fixed paths. These paths are elongated. They are called orbits.

Question 7.
Why is venus hotter than Mercury (nearest planet to the Sun), even though venus is further away (second nearest to the Sun) from the Sun?
Answer:
It is all for the atmosphere that venus has. The intense heat is the result of accumulation of CO2 (carbon dioxide) and SO2 (sulfur dioxide) gas in the atmosphere of this planet. Radiation from the Sun is absorbed by the plaent (venus) and the heat emitted is trapped by the CO2 in venus’s atmosphere which creates increase of heat extensively. The atmosphere of the venus is made up of mostly carbon dioxide which traps the heat of the Sun, making the surface temperature as high as 450° C.

Question 8.
Why is Venus called veiled planet ?
Answer:
Venus is surrounded by a thick cloud cover hence known as the ‘veiled planet’.

WBBSE Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Universe and The Solar System

Question 9.
Why is Venus known as ‘evening star’ and ‘morning star’?
Answer:
Venus is the first to be seen in western night sky. It is never seen throughout the night. It rises before dawn and sets at sunset. These happen due to clockwise rotation of venus.

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Well structured WBBSE 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Europe in the Twentieth Century Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
The Bolshevik Revolution broke out in Russia in-………
A. 1915
B. 1916
C. 1917
D. 1918
Answer:
C. 1917

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 2.
The formation of Union of Soviet Socialist Republic was formally declared in-………
A. 1920
B. 1921
C. 1922
D. 1923
Answer:
C. 1922

Question 3.
The Bolsheviks captured power in Russia by the-………
A. November Revolution
B. July Revolution
C. February Revolution
D. October Revolution
Answer:
D. October Revolution

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 4.
A special secret police was formed by the Bolsheviks called-………
A. Duma
B. Cheka
C. Soviets
D. Aurora
Answer:
B. Cheka

Question 5.
What was the date and year of Bloody Sunday?
A. 9 January 1905
B. 12 January 1905
C. 4 April 1906
D. 9 August 1906
Answer:
A. 9 January 1905

Question 6.
Rasputin was-……….
A. Minister
B. Czar of Russia
C. Mystic Saint
D. Close relative of Czar
Answer:
C. Mystic Saint

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 7.
Bolshevik Revolution was led by-………
A. Stalin
B. Lenin
C. Trotsky
D. None of them
Answer:
B. Lenin

Question 8.
Who was known as ‘Czar The Liberator’?
A. Czar Alexander II
B. Czar Nicholas II
C. Czar Alexander III
D. Czar Nicholas III
Answer:
A. Czar Alexander II

Question 9.
The leadership in the march to St. Petersburg by the workers was given by-………
A. Stalin
B. Father Gapon
C. Trotsky
D. Lenin
Answer:
B. Father Gapon

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 10.
The emperor of Russia is called-………
A. Sultan
B. Czar
C. Kaiser
D. Chancellor
Answer:
B. Czar

Question 11.
Who was the first to be proclaimed Czar of Russia?
A. Czar Alexander I
B. Alexander II
C. Nicholas II
D. Ivan IV
Answer:
D. Ivan IV

Question 12.
Who first introduced Czarism?
A. Mikhial Romanov
B. Czar Peter the Great
C. Alexander II
D. Ivan IV
Answer:
D. Ivan IV

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 13.
Czarism ended in the year-……………..
A. 1905
B. 1900
C. 1917
D. 1927
Answer:
C. 1917

Question 14.
The father of modern Russia-……………..
A. Ivan IV
B. Nicholas II
C. Czar Peter the Great
D. Alexander I
Answer:
C. Czar Peter the Great

Question 15.
The Romanov dynasty came to an end during the reign of-……………..
A. Nicholas I
B. Alexander I
C. Alexander II
D. Nicholas II
Answer:
D. Nicholas II

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 16.
The Russian Revolution broke out during the reign of-……………..
A. Nicholas I
B. William II
C. Nicholas II
D. Ivan IV
Answer:
C. Nicholas II

Question 17.
The party which gave leadership in the Russian Revolution of 1917 was-……………..
A. Bolshevik Party
B. Young Italy
C. Menshevik Party
D. Nazi Party
Answer:
A. Bolshevik Party

Question 18.
The leader of November Revolution was-……………..
A. Luvov
B. Kerensky
C. Trotsky
D. Lenin
Answer:
D. Lenin

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 19.
Who put forward ‘April Thesis’?
A. Trotsky
B. Karl Marx
C. Stalin
D. Lenin
Answer:
D. Lenin

Question 20.
The meaning of ‘Pravda’ is -……………..
A. Truth
B. Iron
C. People
D. Communism
Answer:
A. Truth

Question 21.
Leningrad was seized during the reign of-……………..
A. Nicholas
B. Alexander II
C. Peter the Great
D. Catherine
Answer:
C. Peter the Great

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 22.
The meaning of Iskra, the newspaper published by Lenin-……………..
A. New life
B. Truth
C. Spark
D. Iron
Answer:
C. Spark

Question 23.
Nihilist movement broke out during the reign of-……………..
A. Peter the Great
B. Nicholas I
C. Alexander II
D. Nicholas II
Answer:
C. Alexander II

Question 24.
Father of socialism in Russia-……………..
A. Karl Marx
B. Engels
C. Lenin
D. Stalin
Answer:
C. Lenin

Question 25.
The Third Commintern was established in-……………..
A. Moscow
B. Taskhent
C. Bombay
D. Geneva
Answer:
A. Moscow

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 26.
The leadership of the Red Army to Petrograd on 7 November 1917 was given by-……………..
A. Lvov
B. Kerensky
C. Trotsky
D. Lenin
Answer:
C. Trotsky

Question 27.
The first socialist country in the world is- ……………..
A. United Kingdom
B. Poland
C. America
D. Soviet Russia
Answer:
D. Soviet Russia

Question 28.
‘New Economic Policy’ was introduced by-……………..
A. Stalin
B. Gapon
C. Lenin
D. Turgenev
Answer:
C. Lenin

Question 29.
The Paris Peace Conference took place in-……………..
A. 1919
B. 1920
C. 1921
D. 1922
Answer:
A. 1919

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 30.
‘Fourteen Points’ were put before Germany by-……………..
A. Lloyd George
B. Orlando
C. Woodrow Wilson
D. Clemenceau
Answer:
C. Woodrow Wilson

Question 31.
The country which did not join the League of Nations-……………..
A. America
B. Germany
C. Spain
D. England
Answer:
A. America

Question 32.
Lusitania was-……………..
A. A country in Europe
B. The name of a ship
C. The name of a captain
D. The name of an island
Answer:
B. The name of a ship

Question 33.
The American President during World War I was-……………..
A. Woodrow Wilson
B. Abraham Lincoln
C. George Washington
D. George Barlow
Answer:
A. Woodrow Wilson

Question 34.
President Wilson belonged to-……………..
A. Britain
B. China
C. America
D. Japan
Answer:
C. America

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 35.
The First World War broke out in-……………..
A. 1912
B. 1915
C. 1913
D. 1914
Answer:
D. 1914

Question 36.
The First World War came to an end in-……………..
A. 1919
B. 1918
C. 1916
D. 1920
Answer:
B. 1918

Question 37.
The Paris Peace Conference took place in-……………..
A. 1918
B. 1919
C. 1920
D. 1921
Answer:
B. 1919

Question 38.
Who of the following was most active in the establishment of League of Nations?
A. Lloyd George
B. Orlando
C. Clemenceau
D. Woodrow Wilson
Answer:
D. Woodrow Wilson

Question 39.
The League of Nations was formed after-……………..
A. First Balkan War
B. World War I
C. 2nd Balkan War
D. World War II
Answer:
B. World War I

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 40.
Archduke Francis Ferdinand was assassinated in-……………..
A. Bosnia
B. Sarajevo
C. Herzegovina
D. Poland
Answer:
B. Sarajevo

Question 41.
The Great Depression of 1929 first started in-……………..
A. Germany
B. America
C. France
D. Spain
Answer:
B. America

Question 42.
Which period is known as the ‘Era of Armed Peace’?
A. 1920-1939
B. 1871-1913
C. 1939-1945
D. 1914-1918
Answer:
B. 1871-1913

Question 43.
Sarajevo was the capital of-……………..
A. Serbia
B. Hungary
C. Bosnia
D. Austria
Answer:
C. Bosnia

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 44.
In 1920 the Treaty of Sevires was signed. with-
A. Russia
B. Austria
C. Hungary
D. Turkey
Answer:
D. Turkey

Question 45.
Where was the World Economic Conference held?
A. Ukraine
B. London
C. Holland
D. Cuba
Answer:
B. London

Question 46.
Nazism cropped up after First World War in-…………
A. Italy
B. Spain
C. Russia
D. Germany
Answer:
D. Germany

Question 47.
Hitler became the Prime Minister of Germany in-…………
A. 1931
B. 1932
C. 1933
D. 1934
Answer:
C. 1933

Question 48.
Swastika was the symbol of the-…………
A. Nazi Party
B. Fascist Party
C. Communist Party
D. Socialist Party
Answer:
A. Nazi Party

Question 49.
Mussolini’s party came to be known as-…………
A. Fascist Party
B. Socialist Party
C. Nazi Party
D. Communist Party
Answer:
A. Fascist Party

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 50.
The members of the Fascist party were known as-…………
A. Red Shirts
B. Brown Shirts
C. Black Shirts
D. Blue Shirts
Answer:
C. Black Shirts

Question 51.
The leader of the Spanish Civil War was-…………
A. Goebels
B. Hitler
C. General Franco
D. Himmler
Answer:
C. General Franco

Question 52.
Mussolini assumed the title-…………
A. Czar
B. Kaiser
C. Fuhrer
D. II Duce
Answer:
D. II Duce

Question 53.
Fascism rose in-…………
A. Italy
B. Spain
C. Germany
D. Russia
Answer:
A. Italy

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 54.
In Germany Nazi dictatorship was established by-…………
A. Bismarck
B. Hitler
C. Franco
D. None of the above
Answer:
B. Hitler

Question 55.
General Franco was the dictator of-…………
A. Germany
B. Italy
C. Spain
D. France
Answer:
C. Spain

Question 56.
Japan withdrew from the League of Nations in-…………
A. 1930
B. 1931
C. 1932
D. 1933
Answer:
D. 1933

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 57.
Weimer Republic was established in-…………
A. Spain
B. Germany
C. France
D. Italy
Answer:
B. Germany

Question 58.
The first President of Weimer Republic was-
A. Hitler
B. August Bebel
C. Friedrich Ebert
D. General Franco
Answer:
C. Friedrich Ebert

Question 59.
The last President of Weimer Republic was-…………
A. Friedrich Ebert
B. Hitler
C. Drexler
D. Hindenburg
Answer:
D. Hindenburg

Question 60.
The word ‘Fuhrer’ means-…………
A. Prime Minister
B. Leader
C. Dictator
D. Administrator
Answer:
B. Leader

Question 61.
Victor Emmanuel was the king of-…………..
A. Italy
B. Germany
C. Spain
D. Bulgaria
Answer:
A. Italy

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 62.
The first President of the Spanish Republic was-………….
A. Franco
B. Chamberlain
C. Niceto Zamora
D. Victor Emmanuel
Answer:
C. Niceto Zamora

Question 63.
‘Lebensraum’ means-………….
A. Living space
B. Leader
C. Party
D. German Parliaments
Answer:
A. Living space

Question 64.
Goebbels was the Minister of Propaganda of-………….
A. Germany
B. Italy
C. Spain
D. Cuba
Answer:
A. Germany

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 65.
The worst sufferers in Nazi Germany were the-………….
A. Jews
B. Christians
C. Muslims
D. Russians
Answer:
A. Jews

Question 66.
Hitler chose the war as the way out of the approaching-………….
A. Political crisis
B. Border crisis
C. Economic crisis
D. Religious crisis
Answer:
C. Economic crisis

Fill in the blanks

1. By the October Revolution of 1917 the …………… (Mensheviks/Bolsheviks/Nobility) captured power in Russia.
Answer: Bolsheviks

2. The Treaty of Brest-Litovsk was signed between Germany and …………… (Britain/Italy/ Russia).
Answer: Russia

3. The Red Army was organised by …………… (Stalin/Trotsky/Lenin).
Answer: Trotsky

4. The New Economic Policy of Lenin was a compromise between socialism and …………… (capitalism/communism/Nazism).
Answer: Capitalism

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

5. The Revolution of 1905 in Russia broke out during the reign of …………… (Czar Alexander II/ Nicholas I/Peter the Great).
Answer: Czar Alexander II

6. ‘Pravda’ was the mouthpiece of the …………… (Menshevik/Bolshevik/Communist) party.
Answer: Bolshevik

7. The two factions of Social Democratic Party are Boisheviks and …………… (Communists/ Mensheviks/Socialists).
Answer: Mensheviks

8. Czar …………… (Alexander I/Alexander II/ Nicholas I) showed his liberalism by releasing the Dekabrists.
Answer: Alexander II

9. Kaiser William II abdicated the throne in …………… (1916/1917/1918).
Answer: 1918

10. ‘War Communism’ was introduced by …………… (Trotsky/Lenin/Franco).
Answer: Lenin

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

11. The ruler of Russia was called …………… (Storm Trooper/Czar/Duma).
Answer: Czar

12. The legislature of Russia is known as …………… (Mir/Pravda/Duma).
Answer: Duma

13. The word ‘Communism’ was first used by …………… (Nicholas I/Lenin/Karl Marx).
Answer: Karl Marx

14. The author of the novel ‘Mother’ is …………… (Lenin/Engles/Maxim Gorky).
Answer: Maxim Gorky

15. The writer of the novel ‘Father and Sons’ was …………… (Maxim Gorky/Lenin/Ivan Turgenev).
Answer: Ivan Turgenev

16. The meaning of the word ‘Narod’ is …………… (Czar/people/monarch).
Answer: people

17. The newspaper ‘Pravda’ was published in the year …………… (1911/1910/1912).
Answer: 1912

18. The leader of the Russian Revolution of 1917 was …………… (Vladimir Lenin/Kerensky/ Karl Marx).
Answer: Vladimir Lenin

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

19. The leader of the Mensheviks was …………… (Vladimir Lenin/Trotsky/Julius Martov).
Answer: Julius Martov

20. The New Economic Policy was introduced by …………… (Karl Marx/Vladimir Lenin/ Kerensky).
Answer: Vladimir Lenin

21. Triple Alliance was formed in the year ………. (1880/1884/1882).
Answer: 1882

22. The Treaty of Versailles was opposed by ………. (Italy/Spain/Germany).
Answer: Germany

23. The Great Economic Depression of 1929 first started in ………. (Great Britain/America/ Germany).
Answer: America

24. ………. (Hoover/Woodrow Wilson/ Clemenceau) is known as the ‘Father of the League of Nations’.
Answer: Woodrow Wilson

25. During the First World War the Emperor of Germany was ………. (Charles X/Kaiser William II/Kaiser William III/Frederick William III).
Answer: Kaiser William II

26. After the First World War, the humiliating treaty which was imposed on Germany was the Treaty of ………. (Brest-Litovsk/ Versailles/ Lussane/Sevres).
Answer: Versailles

27. People of the Weimer Republic lost confidence in the democratic ………. (alliance/parliamentary system/values/ attitude).
Answer: Parliamentary system

28. After the First World War, the new Republican government of Germany was established in ………. (Berlin/Weimer/ Brussels).
Answer: Weimer

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

29. The Great Depression was a period of ………. (political crisis/economic crisis/religious crisis).
Answer: Economic crisis

30. The Saar Valley was put under an international commission for ………. (13/14/ 15) years.
Answer: 15

31. The Treaty of St. Germain was signed between the victorious allies and defeated Austria in ………. (1916/1918/1919)
Answer: 1919

32. The Treaty of ………. (Trianon/Neuilly/ Versailles) contained the seeds of the Second World War.
Answer: Versailles

33. Morocco is in ………. (Africa/Netherlands/ China).
Answer: Africa

34. The Rome-Berlin-Tokyo Axis was signed in ………. (1932/1933/1934).
Answer: 1932

35. USA entered the First World War in ………. (1917/1918/1919).
Answer: 1917

36. Herbert Hoover was the President of ………. (Britain/America/France).
Answer: America

37. Archduke Francis Ferdinand was the heir to the throne of ………. (Spain/Austria/ Herzegovina).
Answer: Austria

38. ………. (Llyod George/Woodrow Wilson/ Gorky) was called the ‘Father of the League of Nations’.
Answer: Woodrow Wilson

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

39. In ………. (1928/1929/1930) the American share market crashed.
Answer: 1929

40. ………. (24 October 1929/26 October 1929/ 22 October 1939) is known as the Black Day in the history of USA.
Answer: 24 October 1929

41. …………. (General France/ Mussolini/Hitler) formed the para-military force known as ‘Storm Trooper’.
Answer: Hitler

42. Hitler occupied Rhineland in ………….(1930) 1936/1939).
Answer: 1936

43. The Russo-German Non-Aggression Pact was signed in ………….(1929/1939/1949).
Answer: 1939

44. Hitler considered the Germans to be the master race or ………….(Herrenvolk/ Lebensraum/Gestapo).
Answer: Herrenvolk

45. In 1922 ………….(Franco/Mussolini/Hitler) captured power in Italy.
Answer: Mussolini

46. Mussolini occupied Ethiopia in ………….(1930/ 1934/1936).
Answer: 1936

47. The program of March to Rome was chalked out by ………….(Nazis/Fascists/ Communists).
Answer: Fascists

48. General Franco was the dictator of ………….(Netherlands/Sardinia/Spain).
Answer: Spain

49. Spanish Civil War took place in ………….(1938/ 1937/1939).
Answer: 1939

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

50. ………….(Hitler/Mussolini/General Franco) came out victorious in the Spanish Civil War.
Answer: General Franco

State True or False

1. By the October Revolution under Lenin, the Bolsheviks seized the government in the capital St. Petersburg.
Answer: True

2. In 1878, the Narodniks started a violent movement in Russia.
Answer: True

3. The New Economic Policy was declared by Lenin in 1921.
Answer: True

4. The Russian philosopher who prepared Russia mentally for the Russian revolution was Rousseau.
Answer: False

5. The ‘April Thesis’ was announced by Stalin.
Answer: False

6. The Union of Soviet Socialist Republic was a federation of 15 Soviet Socialist Republics.
Answer: True

7. On 7 November 1918, the Bolsheviks captured the Winter Palace.
Answer: False

8. A special secret police called Duma was formed by Bolsheviks.
Answer: False

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

9. The mental climate for the outbreak of the Russian Revolution was prepared by philosophers like Montesquieu and Rousseau.
Answer: False

10. The Bolshevik Revolution broke out under the leadership of Stalin.
Answer: False

11. Alexandra, the queen of Czar Nicholas II was enamoured by a fake priest named Rasputin.
Answer: True

12. The Third Section was the secret police introduced by Czar Nicholas I.
Answer: True

13. One important movement which broke out in Russia in 1870’s was the Narodnik movement.
Answer: True

14. In 1905, on a January Sunday about 6000 industrial workers under the leadership of Thiers assembled in front of the Winter Palace.
Answer: False

15. The Nihilist movement broke out during the reign of Czar Alexander I.
Answer: False

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

16. Father Gapon led the procession of workers to the Winter Palace.
Answer: True

17. Before the outbreak of Russian Revolution the Russian Society was divided into two classes.
Answer: True

18. The Bible Society was established by Alexander II in 1812.
Answer: False

19. Narodnik Volya was a secret society of Russia.
Answer: True

20. According to the provisions of the Treaty of Versailles Germany lost Alsace-Lorraine to France.
Answer: True

21. The Treaty of Sevres was concluded in 1919.
Answer: False

22. The Polish corridor was given to Austria for reaching the Baltic Sea.
Answer: False

23. The port of Danzig was snatched away from the possession of Germany.
Answer: True

24. The Treaty of Versailles adhered to the principle of self determination.
Answer: False

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

25. The League of Nations was established with the aim to establish permanent peace.
Answer: True

26. The republican government in Germany after the fall of monarchy was set up by Himmler.
Answer: False

27. The three mottos of Fascism were Stateworship, leader worship and war-worship.
Answer: True

28. When Hilter invaded Poland on 1 September 1939, the Second World War started.
Answer: True

29. Hilter formed a para-military force with unemployed youths known as Gestapo.
Answer: False

30. A secret police force named Gestapo was organised by Hitler.
Answer: True

31. Both Nazism and Fascism were in favour of democracy.
Answer: False

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

32. The Rome-Berlin-Tokyo Axis was formed in 1932.
Answer: True

Match the columns

Question 1.

Column I Column II
1. General Franco A. Germany
2. Lenin B. Italy
3. Mussolini C. Spain
4. Hitler D. Russia

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. General Franco C. Spain
2. Lenin D. Russia
3. Mussolini B. Italy
4. Hitler A. Germany

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 2.

Column I Column II
1. April Thesis A. Hitler
2. Woodrow Wilson B. MN Roy
3. Mein Kampf C. 14 Points
4. Indian Communist Party D. Lenin

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. April Thesis D. Lenin
2. Woodrow Wilson C. 14 Points
3. Mein Kampf A. Hitler
4. Indian Communist Party B. MN Roy

Question 3.

Column I Column II
1. Treaty of Versailles A. Allied powers with Hungary
2. Treaty of Trianon B. Germany and Russia
3. Treaty of Brest Litovsk C. Allied powers with Germany
4. Treaty of St. Germain D. Allied powers with Austria

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Treaty of Versailles C. Allied powers with Germany
2. Treaty of Trianon A. Allied powers with Hungary
3. Treaty of Brest Litovsk B. Germany and Russia
4. Treaty of St. Germain D. Allied powers with Austria

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 4.

Column I Column II
1. Lusitania A. German Parliament
2. Ludendroff B. Lenin
3. Duma C. British Linear
4. April Thesis D. German General

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Lusitania C. British Linear
2. Ludendroff D. German General
3. Duma A. German Parliament
4. April Thesis C. British Linear

Question 5.

Column I Column II
1. Treaty of Versailles A. 1929
2. League of Nations founded B. 1919
3. Great Economic Depression C. 1918
4. Weimer Republic established D. 1920

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Treaty of Versailles B. 1919
2. League of Nations founded D. 1920
3. Great Economic Depression A. 1929
4. Weimer Republic established C. 1918

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 6.

Column I Column II
1. Battle of Ypres A. Dardanelles
2. Anglo French naval expedition B. Republic proclaimed in Germany
3. Sinking of U boats C. Germany defeated
4. Kaiser fled D. USA declared war against Germany

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Battle of Ypres C. Germany defeated
2. Anglo-French naval expedition A. Dardanelles
3. Sinking of U boats D. USA declared war against Germany
4. Kaiser fled B. Republic proclaimed in Germany

Question 7.

Column I Column II
1. Turgenev A. Autocrats
2. Russians were defeated B. In Russia
3. Feeling of class struggle C. Russian philosopher
4. Czar of Russia D. Crimean War

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Turgenev C. Russian philosopher
2. Russians were defeated D. Crimean War
3. Feeling of class struggle B. In Russia
4. Czar of Russia A. Autocrats

Question 8.

Column I Column II
1. Germany lost A. U-boats
2. Treaty of Trianon B. Seeds of World War II
3. Treaty of Versailles C. 1920
4. German submarines D. Alsace-Lorraine

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Germany lost D. Alsace-Lorraine
2. Treaty of Trianon C. 1920
3. Treaty of Versailles B. Seeds of World War II
4. German submarines A. U-boats

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 9.

Column I Column II
1. Leader of Bolsheviks A. Revolutionary Court
2. 25th October 1917 B. Lenin
3. Cheka C. land to the peasants
4. Lenin promised D. October Revolution

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Leader of Bolsheviks B. Lenin
2. 25th October 1917 D. October Revolution
3. Cheka A. Revolutionary Court
4. Lenin promised C. land to the peasants

Question 10.

Column I Column II
1. Czar Nicholas II A. Russia
2. Czar Alexander II B. Secret police
3. Nihilist Movement C. October Manifesto
4. Third section D. Dekabrists released

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Czar Nicholas II C. October Manifesto
2. Czar Alexander II D. Dekabrists released
3. Nihilist Movement A. Russia
4. Third section B. Secret police

Question 11.

Column I Column II
1. Fuhrer A. Mussolini
2. II Duce B. Himmler
3. Gestapo C. Hitler
4. Spanish Civil War D. Franco

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Fuhrer C. Hitler
2. II Duce A. Mussolini
3. Gestapo B. Himmler
4. Spanish Civil War D. Franco

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 12.

Column I Column II
1. Fascist government A. Spain
2. Nazi government B. Russia
3. Bolshevik Revolution C. Italy
4. Franco government D. Germany

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Fascist government C. Italy
2. Nazi government D. Germany
3. Bolshevik Revolution B. Russia
4. Franco government A. Spain

Question 13.

Column I Column II
1. England A. Permanent member of league
2. The Secretariat B. President of America
3. Roosevelt C. 1929
4. Economic depression D. Organ of League of Nations

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. England A. Permanent member of league
2. The Secretariat  D. Organ of League of Nations
3. Roosevelt B. President of America
4. Economic depression C. 1929

Question 14.

Column I Column II
1. Battle of Marne A. Treaty of Bucharest
2. Battle of Verdun B. Germans defeated
3. Battle of Jutland C. French win
4. Second Balkan war D. England and Germany

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Battle of Marne B. Germans defeated
2. Battle of Verdun C. French win
3. Battle of Jutland D. England and Germany
4. Second Balkan war A. Treaty of Bucharest

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Europe in the Twentieth Century

Question 15.

Column I Column II
1. Herbert Hoover A. Russian philosopher
2. Dostoevsky B Socialist leader
3. Alexander Kerensky C. President of America
4. Frederich Ebert D. Prime Minister of Russia

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Herbert Hoover C. President of America
2. Dostoevsky A. Russian philosopher
3. Alexander Kerensky  D. Prime Minister of Russia
4. Frederich Ebert B Socialist leader

Question 16.

Column I Column II
1. Mannuel Azana A. Living space
2. Lebensraum B The leader
3. Victor Emmannuel C. Prime Minister of Spain
4. II Duce D. Italian king

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Mannuel Azana C. Prime Minister of Spain
2. Lebensraum A. Living space
3. Victor Emmannuel D. Italian king
4. II Duce B The leader

Question 17.

Column I Column II
1. Battle of Marne A. Unelected absolute ruler
2. 1917 B. France and Germany
3. Proletariat C. Entry of USA in World War I
4. Dictator D. Working class

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Battle of Marne  B. France and Germany
2. 1917 C. Entry of USA in World War I
3. Proletariat D. Working class
4. Dictator B. France and Germany

 

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Well structured WBBSE 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Invention first appeared in the-
(A) cotton industry
(B) jute industry
(C) tea industry
(D) silk industry
Answer:
(A) cotton industry

Question 2.
Humphry Davy invented the-
(A) Spinning Jenny
(B) Safety Lamp
(C) Water Frame
(D) Flying Shuttle
Answer:
(B) Safety Lamp

Question 3.
Socialism is a political, economic and philosophical doctrine opposed to-
(A) Capitalism
(B) Communism
(C) Nationalism
(D) Communalism
Answer:
(A) Capitalism

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 4.
Industrial Revolution led to the growth of-
(A) Communalism
(B) Communism
(C) Imperialism
(D) Terrorism
Answer:
(C) Imperialism

Question 5.
Flying Shuttle was discovered by-
(A) John Kay
(B) Crompton
(C) James Watt
(D) Hargreaves
Answer:
(A) John Kay

Question 6.
In which country did the ‘Luddite Riot’ break out?
(A) Russia
(B) England
(C) Greece
(D) France
Answer:
(B) England

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 7.
‘March of the Blanketeers’ started from-
(A) Manchester
(B) Paris
(C) Peking
(D) Berlin
Answer:
(A) Manchester

Question 8.
The International Working Men’s Association was established by-
(A) Louis Blanc
(B) Fourier
(C) Proudhon
(D) Karl Marx
Answer:
(D) Karl Marx

Question 9.
The word ‘Socialism’ was first introduced by-
(A) Charles Fourier
(B) Saint Simon
(C) Robert Owen
(D) Arnold Toynbee
Answer:
(C) Robert Owen

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 10.
The book ‘New View of Society’ was written by-
(A) Thomas Hobson
(B) Charles Fourier
(C) Robert Owen
(D) Louis Blanc
Answer:
(C) Robert Owen

Question 11.
The book ‘Das Capital’ was published in-
(A) 1857
(B) 1867
(C) 1877
(D) 1897
Answer:
(B) 1867

Question 12.
The book ‘Organisation of Labour’ was composed by-
(A) Arnold Toynbee
(B) Louis Blanc
(C) Hobson
(D) Karl Marx
Answer:
(B) Louis Blanc

Question 13.
Industrial Revolution first started in-
(A) England
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) Russia
Answer:
(A) England

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 14.
Spinning mule was invented by-
(A) Stephenson
(B) John Kay
(C) Crompton
(D) Cartwright
Answer:
(C) Crompton

Question 15.
According to Arnold Toynbee Industrial Revolution started in-
(A) 1758
(B) 1760
(C) 1660
(D) 1768
Answer:
(B) 1760

Question 16.
Industrial Revolution first started in-
(A) Coal industry
(B) Jute industry
(C) Iron industry
(D) Textile industry
Answer:
(D) Textile industry

Question 17.
Spinning Jenny was invented by-
(A) John Kay
(B) Richard Arkwright
(C) Stephenson
(D) James Hergreaves
Answer:
(D) James Hergreaves

Question 18.
The Industrial Revolution led to the emergence of a new class –
(A) aristoratic class
(B) middle class
(C) lower class
(D) warrior class
Answer:
(B) middle class

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 19.
Industrial Revolution led to the emergence of two new classes –
(A) Teacher and student
(B) ruler and subject
(C) lord and slave
(D) owner and worker
Answer:
(D) owner and worker

Question 20.
Chartist movement was a-
(A) Students’ movement
(B) Peasants’ movement
(C) Workers’ movement
(D) Women’s movement
Answer:
(C) Workers’ movement

Question 21.
Chartist movement took place in-
(A) England
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) Russia
Answer:
(A) England

Question 22.
The author of the book ‘A New View of Society’ was-
(A) Joseph Proudhon
(B) Mikhail Bakunin
(C) Vladimir Lenin
(D) Robert Owen
Answer:
(D) Robert Owen

Question 23.
The Utopian socialist whose ideas became popular in America-
(A) Mikhail Bakunin
(B) Charles Fourier
(C) Saint Simon
(D) Vladimir Lenin
Answer:
(B) Charles Fourier

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 24.
The author of the book ‘Utopia’ was-
(A) Robert Owen
(B) Charles Fourier
(C) Karl Marx
(D) Thomas More
Answer:
(D) Thomas More

Question 25.
Louis Auguste Blanqui was-
(A) Utopian Socialist
(B) Scientific Socialist
(C) Capitalist
(D) Imperialist
Answer:
(A) Utopian Socialist

Question 26.
The father of scientific socialism was-
(A) Saint Simon
(B) Montesquieu
(C) Karl Marx
(D) Robert Owen
Answer:
(C) Karl Marx

Question 27.
Who said-“The state is a machinery for exploitation”?
(A) Montesquieu
(B) Rousseau
(C) Karl Marx
(D) Frederick Engels
Answer:
(B) Rousseau

Question 28.
Who said-“Imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism”?
(A) Karl Marx
(B) Lenin
(C) Proudhon
(D) Robert Owen
Answer:
(B) Lenin

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 29.
The famous book of Karl Marx is-
(A) Das Capital
(B) Divine Comedy
(C) The Prince
(D) Macbeth
Answer:
(A) Das Capital

Question 30.
The Father of modern socialism –
(A) Frederich Engels
(B) Karl Marx
(C) Rousseau
(D) Robert Owen
Answer:
(B) Karl Marx

Question 31.
The ‘Father of anarchism’ is-
(A) Louis Blanc
(B) Lenin
(C) Proudhon
(D) Karl Marx
Answer:
(C) Proudhon

Question 32.
The members of the Triple Alliance were-
(A) England, France, Britain
(B) England, France, Russia
(C) Germany, Austria, Italy
(D) Germany, Austria, France
Answer:
(C) Germany, Austria, Italy

Question 33.
The members of the Triple Entente were-
(A) England, France, Germany
(B) England, France, Spain
(C) England, France, Russia
(D) England, France, Italy
Answer:
(C) England, France, Russia

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 34.
Archduke Francis Ferdinand was the heir to the-
(A) Serbian throne
(B) Austrian throne
(C) Spanish throne
(D) German throne
Answer:
(B) Austrian throne

Question 35.
Gavrilo Princip was a member of the-
(A) Triple Alliance
(B) ‘Black Hand’ terrorist organisation
(C) International Workingmen’s Association
(D) Communist Party
Answer:
(B) ‘Black Hand’ terrorist organisation

Question 36.
David Livingstone, the famous European explorer had been to-
(A) Africa
(B) Asia
(C) America
(D) Antartica
Answer:
(A) Africa

Question 37.
Ethiopia is a country in-
(A) Asia
(B) America
(C) Europe
(D) Africa
Answer:
(D) Africa

Question 38.
The Fourth Anglo-Mysore war was fought in-
(A) 1899
(B) 1799
(C) 1699
(D) 1599
Answer:
(B) 1799

Question 39.
Which country started the digging of the Suez Canal through Egypt?
(A) Turkey
(B) England
(C) Russia
(D) France
Answer:
(D) France

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 40.
The Open Door Policy was issued by-
(A) Sir John Hay
(B) Clement Attlee
(C) Kingsford
(D) Mac Arthur
Answer:
(A) Sir John Hay

Question 41.
Who was the author of ‘Imperialism, the highest stage of Capitalism’?
(A) Louis Blanc
(B) VI Lenin
(C) Karl Marx
(D) Engels
Answer:
(B) VI Lenin

Question 42.
The ‘Three Emperors League’ was a compromise made in-
(A) 1873
(B) 1815
(C) 1833
(D) 1820
Answer:
(A) 1873

Question 43.
The First Opium War was fought between England and-
(A) China
(B) France
(C) Russia
(D) Italy
Answer:
(A) China

Question 44.
In which year was the ‘Open Door Policy’ issued?
(A) 1869
(B) 1867
(C) 1899
(D) 1889
Answer:
(C) 1899

Question 45.
Bismarck was the Chancellor of-
(A) France
(B) Germany
(C) Britain
(D) Italy
Answer:
(D) Italy

Question 46.
The country which established dominance over the Shangtung region was-
(A) Germany
(B) Russia
(C) France
(D) England
Answer:
(A) Germany

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 47.
The Suez Canal was nationalised in-
(A) 1856
(B) 1956
(C) 1866
(D) 1966
Answer:
(A) 1856

Question 48.
The Suez Canal was constructed by-
(A) England
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) Italy
Answer:
(B) France

Question 49.
The plan for the construction of Aswan Dam was adopted by-
(A) Prime Minister of England
(B) President of France
(C) President of Egypt
(D) President of America
Answer:
(C) President of Egypt

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 50.
The Suez Canal was nationalised in 1956 on-
(A) 25 July
(B) 26 July
(C) 24 July
(D) 28 July
Answer:
(B) 26 July

Question 51.
The Suez Canal was nationalised by-
(A) President of America
(B) President of France
(C) President of Egypt
(D) Prime Minister of England
Answer:
(C) President of Egypt

Question 52.
The region in South Africa where the English first established their colony-
(A) Mauritania
(B) Brazil
(C) Cape of Good Hope
(D) Capetown
Answer:
(C) Cape of Good Hope

Question 53.
The Suez Canal flows through-
(A) Turkey
(B) France
(C) Egypt
(D) Arab
Answer:
(C) Egypt

Question 54.
The trade monopoly of the East India Company ended in-
(A) 1793
(B) 1813
(C) 1833
(D) 1853
Answer:
(B) 1813

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 55.
Colony was first established in Malay by the-
(A) British
(B) Dutch
(C) French
(D) Portuguese
Answer:
(D) Portuguese

Question 56.
When was the Union of South Africa formed?
(A) 1908
(B) 1910
(C) 1912
(D) 1915
Answer:
(B) 1910

Question 57.
The First Opium War was fought by China against-
(A) Russia
(B) France
(C) England
(D) Germany
Answer:
(C) England

Question 58.
The Second Opium War was fought by China agianst-
(A) Russia and Japan
(B) France and Russia
(C) France and Germany
(D) England and France
Answer:
(D) England and France

Question 59.
The Treaty of Nanking was signed between China and England in-
(A) 1840
(B) 1841
(C) 1843
(D) 1842
Answer:
(D) 1842

Question 60.
Algeria in north Africa was a colony of-
(A) English
(B) Portuguese
(C) French
(D) Dutch
Answer:
(C) French

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 61.
The Triple Entente was formed in-
(A) 1907
(B) 1890
(C) 1905
(D) 1914
Answer:
(A) 1907

Question 62.
Triple Alliance was formed in-
(A) 1882
(B) 1890
(C) 1830
(D) 1859
Answer:
(A) 1882

Question 63.
The direct cause of the First World War was-
(A) Sarajevo murder
(B) militant nationalism
(C) Morocco crisis
(D) Balkan crisis
Answer:
(A) Sarajevo murder

Question 64.
The First World War started in –
(A) 1915
(B) 1916
(C) 1914
(D) 1917
Answer:
(C) 1914

Question 65.
Sarajevo was the capital of-
(A) Serbia
(B) Hungary
(C) Bosnia
(D) Austria
Answer:
(A) Serbia

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 66.
Karl Marx’s book ‘Poverty of Philosophy’ was published in-
(A) 1845
(B) 1847
(C) 1848
(D) 1871
Answer:
(B) 1847

Question 67.
The Treaty of Tientsin was signed in-
(A) 1857
(B) 1858
(C) 1859
(D) 1860
Answer:
(B) 1858

Question 68.
The countries which signed the Treaty of Shimonoseki-
(A) China, England, France
(B) China, Japan
(C) China, France
(D) China, England
Answer:
(B) China, Japan

Question 69.
The Reinsurance Treaty was signed between Germany-
(A) Austria
(B) Italy
(C) England
(D) Russia
Answer:
(D) Russia

Question 70.
The Three Emperors league was formed between-
(A) England, France and Russia
(B) Russia, Germany and Austria
(C) Germany, Austria and Italy
(D) Germany, Japan and Italy
Answer:
(B) Russia, Germany and Austria

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 71.
The alliance of three emperors of Germany, Austria and Russia is known as-
(A) Weltpolitik
(B) Dreikaiserbund
(C) Lebensraum
(D) Schadenfreude
Answer:
(B) Dreikaiserbund

Fill in the blanks :

1. The Bank of France established by _____ (Louis Napoleon/Napoleon Bonaparte/Karl Marx) helped the process of industrialisation in France.
Answer:
Napoleon Bonaparte

2. _____ (France/England/Germany) was known as the ‘workshop of the world.’
Answer:
England

3. _____ (Lancashire/Norfolk/Birmingham) was the chief centre of the cotton industry.
Answer:
Lancashire

4. The real beginning of the Industrial Revolution in Germany was only after her unification in _____ (1868/1869/1870).
Answer:
1870

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

5. Kaiser William II was the emperor of _____ (Austria/Italy/Germany).
Answer:
Germany

6. _____ (Samuel Morse/Graham Bell/ Marconi) invented the telephone system.
Answer:
Graham Bell

7. _____ (James Watt/ Samuel Crompton/ Richard Arkwright) devised the system of using steam power to work machines.
Answer:
James Watt

8. The founder of International Working men’s Association was _____ (Stalin/Lenin/Karl Marx).
Answer:
Karl Marx

9. The famous Communist Manifesto was first published in _____ (1830/1848/1849).
Answer:
1848

10. The _____ (DasKapital/Communist Manifesto/Mein Kampf) is regarded as the ‘Bible of Socialism’.
Answer:
Das Kapital

11. _____ (Communism/Communalism/ Imperialism) was an important cause of the First World War.
Answer:
Imperialism

12. The ‘Grand Consolidated National Union’ was formed under the leadership of _____ (Robert Owen/Wilfred Owen/Karl Marx).
Answer:
Robert Owen

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

13. The year of ‘Peterloo Massacre’ was _____ (1800/1812/1819).
Answer:
1819

14. Auguste Blanqui used the term Industrial Revolution in _____ (1847/1837/1857).
Answer:
1837

15. England and Scotland was united in _____ (1607/1707/1807).
Answer:
1707

16. _____ (Karl Marx / Robert Owen/ Lenin) said ‘Workers of the world unite.’
Answer:
Lenin

17. _____ (Robert Owen/Saint Simon/Engels) is known as the ‘Father of British Socialism’.
Answer:
Robert Owen

18. After the opening of the Suez Canal in _____ (1865/1868/1869) distance between China and Europe reduced considerably.
Answer:
1869

19. The dismemberment of _____ (Africa/China/ Indo-China) by the foreign powers is commonly known as ‘the cutting of the Chinese melon’.
Answer:
China

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

20. The First World War ended in _____ (1918/ 1919/1920).
Answer:
1918

21. The Treaty of Nanking was signed between Britain and _____ (Japan/Russia/France).
Answer:
China

22. The Treaty of Tientsin was signed in _____ (1860/1861/1863).
Answer:
1861

23. Ethopia was formally annexed to Italy in _____ (1919/1936/1946).
Answer:
1936

24. The Nawab of Bengal during the Battle of Plassey was _____ (Mir Jafar/Mir Kasim/ Siraj-ud-daula).
Answer:
Siraj-Ud-Daula

25. The Entente Cordiale was signed in _____ (1904/1906/1908).
Answer:
1904

26. The First Balkan War came to an end with the signing of the treaty of _____ (London/ Peking/Nanking).
Answer:
London

27. _____ (America/Africa/Australia) is called the ‘Dark Continent’.
Answer:
Africa

28. The English General in the Battle of Plassey was _____ (Arthur Wellesley/Vansittart/ Robert Clive).
Answer:
Robert Clive

29. The direct cause of the First World War was _____ (Sarajevo murder/Morocco crisis/ Agadir Crisis).
Answer:
Sarajevo murder

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

30. The _____ (Portuguese/British/French) established their colony in Angola.
Answer:
Portuguese

31. Russia imposed the Treaty of San Stephano on _____ (France/Turkey/China).
Answer:
Turkey

32. The English East India Company got the Dewani right in the year _____ (1757/1764) 1765).
Answer:
1765

33. By the Treaty of Nanking China was forced to open _____ (Four/Five/Seven) ports to the foreigners.
Answer:
Five

34. Before the Treaty of Nanking _____ (1842) the foreigners could carry on trade only in the port of (Sanghai/Canton/Shantou).
Answer:
Canton

35. Algeria was the colony of _____ (Britain/ Italy/France).
Answer:
France

36. The jewel in the crown of the British empire was _____ (Africa/India/Togoland).
Answer:
India

Mark True or False :

1. The word Revolution means a change.
Answer: True

2. The Industrial Revolution began in Britain in the second half of the 17 th century.
Answer: False

3. The Industrial Revolution changed the way people lived.
Answer: True

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

4. The Industrial Revolution made the Western nations rich and powerful.
Answer: True

5. The Industrial Revolution gave birth to the factory system.
Answer: True

6. The real beginning of Industrial Revolution in Russia dates from 1871 after the Emancipation Statute of 1871 was passed.
Answer: False

7. The Industrial Revolution came late in Britain.
Answer: False

8. The most significant impact of the Industrial Revolution was on cotton textiles.
Answer: True

9. The Industrial Revolution in England brought about revolutionary changes in the method of production.
Answer: True

10. Due to Industrial Revolution, cottage industries gained importance.
Answer: False

11. Until the first half of the 20th century, things were made by people in their homes.
Answer: False

12. After deindustrialisation India was transformed from an exporter to an importer.
Answer: True

13. In 1835 in Liverpool (Germany) railway first started.
Answer: False

14. General Ned Ludd gave leadership in the ‘Luddite riot’.
Answer: True

15. Coal and iron are two important natural resources necessary for industrialisation.
Answer: True

16. In England Agricultural Revolution and Enclosure Movement preceded Industrial Revolution.
Answer: True

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

17. The most important economic event of the reign of Louis Philippe was the arrival in Paris of the railroad.
Answer: True

18. Cartwright invented the Flying Shuttle in 1733.
Answer: False

19. ‘Luddite riot’ was a protest movement of the aristocrats led by General Ned Ludd in Englad.
Answer: False

20. Turnpike trusts were bodies set up for maintaining the principal roads in Britain.
Answer: True

21. Ghetto was an overcrowded urban slum where the factory workers lived in unhygienic condition.
Answer: True

22. Lenin founded the doctorine of scientific socialism.
Answer: False

23. The Whigs Party supported the workers’ movement in England.
Answer: False

24. The German Social Democratic Party was established in 1875
Answer: True

25. Due to Industrial Revolution, economic equality was established between the factory owners and workers.
Answer: False

26. Socialism does not admit of any private right or ownership in either capital or property.
Answer: True

27. The Working Men’s Association of Germany presented a large petition to the Parliament known as People’s Charter.
Answer: False

28. Karl Marx was the leader of International Working Men’s Association.
Answer: True

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

29. The Industrial Revolution started rather late in France due to the French Revolution.
Answer: True

30. Industrialisation of Germany was hindered by Napoleonic warfare.
Answer: False

31. By the 15 th century, the British had several colonies all over the world.
Answer: False

32. Africa is famous for its mines which are rich in gold, diamonds and rubies.
Answer: True

33. In 1895 Ethiopia and Liberia were the only two independent countries in Africa.
Answer: True

34. Bank of France was recognised by the French emperor Napoleon III.
Answer: True

35. By the Treaty of Shimonoseki Hong Kong was ceded to the British.
Answer: False

36. The weakness of China encouraged the western powers to make territorial gain in China.
Answer: True

37. Italy was one of the contending parties in the partition of China.
Answer: False

38. In 1945 Mussolini attacked Ethiopia.
Answer: False

39. Radar was used a means of land defence, as well as in ships and planes during World War II.
Answer: True

Choose the best explanation :

1. Statement: The Industrial Revolution started late in France.
Explanation (A): Due to July Revolution of 1830.
Explanation (B): Due to February Revolution of 1848 .
Explanation (C): Due to Aristocratic Revolt in France.
Answer:
Explanation (A): Due to July Revolution of 1830.

2. Statement: Industrial Revolution first started in England.
Explanation (A): It was happened because of political and economic stability and national solidarity.
Explanation (B): The people of England were educated.
Explanation (C): There was demand of textile goods in England.
Answer:
Explanation (A): Due to July Revolution of 1830.

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

3. Statement: Industrial Revolution started rather late in Germany.
Explanation (A): Germany was divided into numerous small states.
Explanation (B): There was a lack of technical knowldege in Germany
Explanation (C): Germany could not establish colonies in India.
Answer:
Explanation (A): Germany was divided into numerous small states.

4 Statement: During the Industrial Revolution people of the villages began to move to cities.
Explanation (A): To take part in politics.
Explanation (B): For education.
Explanation (C): For employment.
Answer:
Explanation (C): For employment.

5. Statement: Different countries of Europe adopted a policy of aggressive imperialism.
Explanation (A): To establish colonies in different countries of Europe.
Explanation (B): To conquer those countries.
Explanation (C): To establish industries, mills and factories in those countries.
Answer:
Explanation (C): To establish industries, mills and factories in those countries.

6. Statement: France dug Suez Canal.
Explanation (A): The purpose of digging the Suez canal was to establish dominance over Egypt.
Explanation (B): Egypt asks France to dig the Suez Canal.
Explanation (C): Communication with the East was facilitated through the Suez Canal.
Answer:
Explanation (C): Communication with the East was facilitated through the Suez Canal.

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

7. Statement: US secretary Sir John Hay issued the Open Door Policy.
Explanation (A): As different European power established dominance over different part of China, America feared that it may not get a chance in China.
Explanation (B): America felt that China needed to be kept open for everyone.
Explanation (C): America wanted to bring China closer to Europe.
Answer:
Explanation (A): As different European power established dominance over different part of China, America feared that it may not get a chance in China.

8. Statement: Austria blamed Serbia for Sarajevo Assassination.
Explanation (A): Serbia was directly involved in this assassination.
Explanation (B): Serbia had good relation with Bosnian Serbs and Serbia supported the antiAustrian movement.
Explanation (C): The assassin was a Serb.
Answer:
Explanation (B): Serbia had good relation with Bosnian Serbs and Serbia supported the antiAustrian movement.

9. Statement: Serb terrorist Gavrilo Princip killed Austrian prince Ferdinand.
Explanation (A): Austria captured Bosnia and Herzegovina.
Explanation (B): Austria attacked Serbia.
Explanation (C): Austria led the Slav movement.
Answer:
Explanation (A): Austria captured Bosnia and Herzegovina.

Match the columns :

Question 1.

Column I Column II
1. Saint Simon A. Author of Das Capital
2. Auguste Blanqui B. Invented telegraph
3. Karl Marx C. Utopian socialist
4. Samuel Morse D. French economist

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Saint Simon C. Utopian socialist
2. Auguste Blanqui D. French economist
3. Karl Marx A. Author of Das Capital
4. Samuel Morse B. Invented telegraph

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 2.

Column I Column II
1. 1914 A. Telephone system invented
2. 1876 B. Formation of Triple Alliance
3. 1882 C. Formation of Triple Entente
4. 1907 D. First World War started

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. 1914 D. First World War started
2. 1876 A. Telephone system invented
3. 1882 B. Formation of Triple Alliance
4. 1907 C. Formation of Triple Entente

Question 3.

Column I Column II
1. Sarajevo A. A terrorist organisation
2. German submarine B. Heir to Austrian Throne
3. Archduke Francis Ferdinand C. Bosnia
4. Black Hand D. U-boat

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Sarajevo C. Bosnia
2. German submarine D. U-boat
3. Archduke Francis Ferdinand B. Heir to Austrian Throne
4. Black Hand A. A terrorist organisation

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 4.

Column I Column II
1. Robert Owen A. Spinning Jenny
2. Samuel Crompton B. Waterframe
3. Richard Arkwright C. Invented the steamship
4. Robert Fulton D. Cooperative movement

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Robert Owen D. Cooperative movement
2. Samuel Crompton A. Spinning Jenny
3. Richard Arkwright B. Waterframe
4. Robert Fulton C. Invented the steamship

Question 5.

Column I Column II
1. Britain A. Producer of rubber
2. Michigan B. Rich coal field
3. Brazil C. Mistress of the seas
4. Belgium D. Iron ore deposits

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Britain C. Mistress of the seas
2. Michigan D. Iron ore deposits
3. Brazil A. Producer of rubber
4. Belgium B. Rich coal field

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 6.

Column I Column II
1. Industrial Revolution first started A. Germany
2. British colony B. England
3. Zollverein C. India
4. Serfdom D. Russia

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Industrial Revolution first started B. England
2. British colony C. India
3. Zollverein A. Germany
4. Serfdom D. Russia

Question 7.

Column I Column II
1. Algeria A. British Colony
2. Indonesia B. Spain Colony
3. Malay C. Portuguese Colony
4. Philippines D. French Colony

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Algeria D. French Colony
2. Indonesia C. Portuguese Colony
3. Malay A. British Colony
4. Philippines B. Spain Colony

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 8.

Column I Column II
1. 1873 A. Triple Entente
2. 1882 B. Triple Alliance
3. 1904 C. Dreikaiserbund
4. 1907 D. Entente Cordiale

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. 1873 C. Dreikaiserbund
2. 1882 B. Triple Alliance
3. 1904 D. Entente Cordiale
4. 1907 A. Triple Entente

Question 9.

Column I Column II
1. Drain of wealth A. 1894-95
2. Manchu Government B. 1936
3. Sino-Japanese C. Private Trade
4. Ethiopia annexed D. China

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Drain of wealth C. Private Trade
2. Manchu Government D. China
3. Sino-Japanese A. 1894-95
4. Ethiopia annexed B. 1936

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 10.

Column I Column II
1. Canton A. Germany
2. Zollverein B. Emperor of Ethiopia
3. League of Nations C. China
4. Haile Selassie D. Peace Organisation

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Canton C. China
2. Zollverein A. Germany
3. League of Nations D. Peace Organisation
4. Haile Selassie B. Emperor of Ethiopia

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Industrial Revolution: Colonialism and Imperialism

Question 11.

Column I Column II
1. Imperialism, the Highest Stage of Capitalism A. John Hay
2. White Man’s Burden B. Lenin
3. King of Belgium C. Kipling
4. Open Door Policy D. Leopold II

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Imperialism, the Highest Stage of Capitalism B. Lenin
2. White Man’s Burden C. Kipling
3. King of Belgium D. Leopold II
4. Open Door Policy A. John Hay

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Well structured WBBSE 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
The Congress of Vienna was held in the year-
(A) 1814
(B) 1815
(C) 1816
(D) 1817
Answer:
(B) 1815

Question 2.
The most important person of the Vienna settlement was-
(A) Lafayette
(B) Louis Philippe
(C) Metternich
(D) St. Simon
Answer:
(C) Metternich

Question 3.
The decision of the leaders of the Vienna Congress was to divide Poland into-
(A) one division
(B) three divisions
(C) two divisions
(D) four divisions
Answer:
(B) three divisions

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 4.
Nationalism means-
(A) strong love for one’s own country without appreciation for other nations
(B) strong devotion for one’s own country and hatred for others
(C) strong love for all the countries of the world
(D) strong devotion for one’s own country and its history and culture.
Answer:
(A) strong love for one’s own country without appreciation for other nations

Question 5.
Liberal nationalism stands for-
(A) freedom of all and equality before law
(B) freedom of only male members of the society
(C) freedom only for senior citizens
(D) freedom of the monarch to rule the people
Answer:
(A) freedom of all and equality before law

Question 6.
In Europe and in different parts of the world the concept of nationalism developed in full form in-
(A) 16 th century
(B) 20th century
(C) 18 th century
(D) 19 th century
Answer:
(D) 19 th century

Question 7.
Which of the following countries did not attend the Congress of Vienna?
(A) Prussia
(B) Britain
(C) Switzerland
(D) Russia
Answer:
(C) Switzerland

Question 8.
The Carlsbad Decree was declared in the year-
(A) 1848
(B) 1819
(C) 1856
(D) 1861
Answer:
(B) 1819

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 9.
The Carlsbad Decree was declared in-
(A) Germany
(B) France
(C) Russia
(D) Italy
Answer:
(A) Germany

Question 10.
The Carlsbad Decree was declared by-
(A) Talleyrand
(B) Metternich
(C) Louis VII
(D) Charles X
Answer:
(B) Metternich

Question 11.
In 1815 the Prime Minister of Austria was-
(A) Alexander I
(B) Metternich
(C) Louis XVI
(D) Castlereagh
Answer:
(B) Metternich

Question 12.
Metternich was the Chancellor of-
(A) Austria
(B) Russia
(C) Italy
(D) Britain
Answer:
(A) Austria

Question 13.
The father of European conservatism was-
(A) Alexander 1
(B) Louis XV
(C) Cavour
(D) Metternich
Answer:
(D) Metternich

Question 14.
The period of the Age of Metternich was-
(A) 1816-1849
(B) 1815-1848
(C) 1850-1858
(D) 1810-1828
Answer:
(B) 1815-1848

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 15.
The ‘Coachman of Europe’ was-
(A) Talleyrand
(B) Castlereagh
(C) Metternich
(D) Louis XVIII
Answer:
(C) Metternich

Question 16.
The representative of defeated France in the Vienna Conference was-
(A) Castlereagh
(B) Metternich
(C) Cavour
(D) Talleyrand
Answer:
(D) Talleyrand

Question 17.
The representatives of the Vienna Congress wanted to reestablish the dynasties which reigned in various states prior to Napoleonic wars according to the Principle of-
(A) Compensation
(B) Balance of Power
(C) Legitimacy
(D) Combination
Answer:
(C) Legitimacy

Question 18.
According to the Carlsbad Decree of 1819 restrictions were imposed on-
(A) social institutions of Germany
(B) business organisations of Germany
(C) German universities and other educational institutions
(D) political institutions of Germany
Answer:
(C) German universities and other educational institutions

Question 19.
Metternich to curb all forms of liberalistic ideas in the German universities imposed the-
(A) Carlsbad Decree
(B) Pedlar Decree
(C) Milan Decree
(D) Lyon Decree
Answer:
(A) Carlsbad Decree

Question 20.
Who said Italy is ‘only a geographical expression’?
(A) Cavour
(B) Metternich
(C) Talleyrand
(D) Louis XVIII
Answer:
(B) Metternich

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 21.
The July Revolution broke out in-
(A) 1820
(B) 1830
(C) 1840
(D) 1850
Answer:
(B) 1830

Question 22.
The king of France during the July Revolution was-
(A) Napoleon
(B) Charles X
(C) Louis XVI
(D) Louis Philippe
Answer:
(B) Charles X

Question 23.
Polignac was appointed minister by-
(A) Charles X
(B) Louis Philippe
(C) Napoleon
(D) Francis II
Answer:
(A) Charles X

Question 24.
The leadership in July Revolution was provided by-
(A) Thiers
(B) Polignac
(C) Simon Bolivar
(D) Metternich
Answer:
(A) Thiers

Question 25.
The task of the French Revolution of 1789 which remained incomplete was completed by the-
(A) French Revolution
(B) February Revolution
(C) July Revolution
(D) Industrial Revolution
Answer:
(C) July Revolution

Question 26.
July Revolution broke out in-
(A) Italy
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) Britain
Answer:
(B) France

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 27.
The July Revolution of 1830 sparked off on-
(A) 29 July
(B) 21 July
(C) 27 July
(D) 30 July
Answer:
(C) 27 July

Question 28.
July monarchy was established in France in-
(A) 1815
(B) 1828
(C) 1848
(D) 1830
Answer:
(D) 1830

Question 29.
July monarchy was established in France by-
(A) Louis Philippe
(B) Louis XVIII
(C) Francis Ferdinand
(D) Charles X
Answer:
(A) Louis Philippe

Question 30.
After the July Revolution the ruler who sat on the throne of France was-
(A) Louis XVIII
(B) Leopold
(C) Cavour
(D) Louis Philippe
Answer:
(D) Louis Philippe

Question 31.
The ruler of France who was dethroned after the July Revolution was-
(A) Louis Philippe
(B) Louis XVIII
(C) Charles X
(D) Metternich
Answer:
(C) Charles X

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 32.
The February Revolution broke out in France against the autocracy of-
(A) Napoleon III
(B) Metternich
(C) Louis Philippe
(D) Napoleon
Answer:
(C) Louis Philippe

Question 33.
The king of France during the February Revolution was-
(A) Charles X
(B) Louis XVI
(C) Louis Napoleon
(D) Louis Philippe
Answer:
(D) Louis Philippe

Question 34.
Third French Republic was established in-
(A) 1792
(B) 1830
(C) 1848
(D) 1870
Answer:
(D) 1870

Question 35.
The most influential Prime Minister of Louis Philippe was-
(A) Guizot
(B) Von Bulow
(C) Turgo
(D) Count Caprivi
Answer:
(A) Guizot

Question 36.
“When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold”-who said this?
(A) Napoleon III
(B) Bismarck
(C) Metternich
(D) Cavour
Answer:
(C) Metternich

Question 37.
The socialists in France were eager to end the French Monarchy under the leadership of-
(A) Karl Marx
(B) Louis Blanc
(C) Robert Owen
(D) Charles Fourier
Answer:
(B) Louis Blanc

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 38.
A movement demanding the enlargement of franchise started in France under the leadership of-
(A) Louis Blanc
(B) Guizot
(C) Cavour
(D) Thiers
Answer:
(D) Thiers

Question 39.
After having declared his grandson heir to the throne, Louis Philippe sought asylum in-
(A) Austria
(B) Russia
(C) Prussia
(D) England
Answer:
(D) England

Question 40.
Louis Napoleon in 1852 declared himself as the ‘Emperor’ with the title of-
(A) Charles X
(B) Napoleon
(C) Napoleon I
(D) Napoleon III
Answer:
(D) Napoleon III

Question 41.
Garibaldi’s men were called-
(A) Red Shirts
(B) Black Shirts
(C) Brown Shirts
(D) Blue Shirts
Answer:
(A) Red Shirts

Question 42.
Napoleon III was the ruler of-
(A) Piedmont-Sardinia
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) Austria
Answer:
(B) France

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 43.
Carbonari was a secret society of-
(A) Italy
(B) Russia
(C) France
(D) Austria
Answer:
(A) Italy

Question 44.
Garibaldi, a great patriot of Italy occupied-
(A) Sicily and Naples
(B) Venetia
(C) Rome
(D) Austria
Answer:
(A) Sicily and Naples

Question 45.
Before unification Central Italy was ruled by-
(A) Austria
(B) Poland
(C) Pope
(D) France
Answer:
(C) Pope

Question 46.
In 1860, the Red Shirts under the leadership of Garibaldi went to-
(A) Sicily
(B) Lombardy
(C) Tuscany
(D) Modena
Answer:
(A) Sicily

Question 47.
The ‘Young Italy’ organisation was established by-
(A) Mazzini
(B) Cavour
(C) Garibaldi
(D) Napoleon III
Answer:
(A) Mazzini

Question 48.
The Journal ‘Risorgimento’ was edited by-
(A) Mazzini
(B) Cavour
(C) Garibaldi
(D) Leopold
Answer:
(B) Cavour

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 49.
The greatest impediment to Italian unification was-
(A) Russia
(B) Germany
(C) Spain
(D) Austria
Answer:
(D) Austria

Question 50.
The first king of united Italy was-
(A) Cavour
(B) Garibaldi
(C) Napoleon III
(D) Victor Emmanuel II
Answer:
(D) Victor Emmanuel II

Question 51.
The brain of unification of Italy was-
(A) Garibaldi
(B) Cavour
(C) Mazzini
(D) Bismarck
Answer:
(B) Cavour

Question 52.
The leadership in the Italian unification movement was given by-
(A) Venice
(B) Lombardy
(C) Piedmont-Sardinia
(D) Rome
Answer:
(C) Piedmont-Sardinia

Question 53.
The leadership in Naples and Sicily was given by-
(A) Mazzini
(B) Cavour
(C) Garibaldi
(D) Louis XVI
Answer:
(C) Garibaldi

Question 54.
The main centre of Carbonari was-
(A) Naples
(B) Piedmont
(C) Lombardy
(D) Genoa
Answer:
(A) Naples

Question 55.
Count Cavour was appointed as the Prime Minister of-
(A) Perma Modena
(B) Rome
(C) Tuscany
(D) Piedmont-Sardinia
Answer:
(D) Piedmont-Sardinia

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 56.
How many wars did Bismarck fight to unify Germany?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six
Answer:
(A) Three

Question 57.
Bismarck successfully waged war against Denmark in-
(A) 1862
(B) 1861
(C) 1864
(D) 1868
Answer:
(C) 1864

Question 58.
The main function of Frankfurt Parliament was to frame a constitution for-
(A) Italy
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) Russia
Answer:
(B) Germany

Question 59.
According to the decisions of Frankfurt Parliament, the crown of a united Germany was offered to-
(A) Alexander I
(B) Francis II
(C) Frederick William
(D) Louis Philippe
Answer:
(C) Frederick William

Question 60.
The leader of German unification movement was-
(A) Hitler
(B) Mussolini
(C) Mazzini
(D) Bismarck
Answer:
(D) Bismarck

Question 61.
Germany defeated France in the battle of-
(A) Sadowa
(B) Sedan
(C) Jena
(D) Trafalgar
Answer:
(B) Sedan

Question 62.
The Battle of Sadowa was fought between-
(A) Denmark and Russia
(B) France and Russia
(C) Austria and Prussia
(D) Prussia and Russia
Answer:
(C) Austria and Prussia

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 63.
Which treaty ended the Battle of Sadowa?
(A) Treaty of Plombieres
(B) Treaty of London
(C) Treaty of Prague
(D) Treaty of Villafranca
Answer:
(C) Treaty of Prague

Question 64.
The Frankfurt Parliament was convened in-
(A) Russia
(B) Italy
(C) Germany
(D) England
Answer:
(C) Germany

Question 65.
The Frankfurt Parliament was convened in the year-
(A) 1830
(B) 1848
(C) 1861
(D) 1862
Answer:
(B) 1848

Question 66.
A master of political and diplomatic juggling-
(A) Bismarck
(B) Cavour
(C) Napoleon III
(D) William I
Answer:
(A) Bismarck

Question 67.
The Zollverein was formed under the leadership of-
(A) Austria
(B) Italy
(C) Savoy
(D) Prussia
Answer:
(D) Prussia

Question 68.
Who was the first emperor of unified Germany?
(A) Napoleon III
(B) William I
(C) Bismarck
(D) Cavour
Answer:
(B) William I

Question 69.
The first stage in the unification of Germany was the creation of-
(A) Zollverein
(B) Confederation of the Rhine
(C) Frankfurt Parliament
(D) Bundestag
Answer:
(A) Zollverein

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 70.
Who took the first step to unify Germany?
(A) Bismarck
(B) Napoleon Bonaparte
(C) Count Cavour
(D) Hitler
Answer:
(B) Napoleon Bonaparte

Question 71.
Ems Telegram was published on-
(A) 10 th July, 1870
(B) 13 th July, 1870
(C) 17 th July, 1870
(D) 19 th July, 1870
Answer:
(B) 13 th July, 1870

Question 72.
According to Bismarck the greatest obstacle to Germany unity was-
(A) Austria
(B) Russia
(C) Poland
(D) France
Answer:
(A) Austria

Question 73.
Philke Hetaira was a secret society of –
(A) Germany
(B) Turkey
(C) Italy
(D) Greece
Answer:
(D) Greece

Question 74.
Nicholas I was the ruler of-
(A) Austria
(B) Russia
(C) Italy
(D) Prussia
Answer:
(B) Russia

Question 75.
Moldavia and Wallachia was invaded by-
(A) Britain
(B) Italy
(C) Russia
(D) Germany
Answer:
(C) Russia

Question 76.
Greece was under the subjugation of-
(A) Turkey
(B) Russia
(C) Germany
(D) Italy
Answer:
(A) Turkey

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 77.
The ‘Sick Man of Europe’ was-
(A) France
(B) Greece
(C) Italy
(D) Turkey
Answer:
(D) Turkey

Question 78.
In the famous Vienna Note Russia was asked to withdraw her claims in-
(A) Egypt
(B) Turkey
(C) Italy
(D) France
Answer:
(B) Turkey

Question 79.
The secret society associated with the Greek War of Independence was-
(A) Hetaira Philka
(B) Carbonari
(C) Young Italy
(D) Zollverein
Answer:
(A) Hetaira Philka

Question 80.
The Crimean War ended with-
(A) Treaty of Pressburg
(B) Treaty of Paris
(C) Treaty of Prague
(D) Treaty of Gastein
Answer:
(B) Treaty of Paris

Question 81.
“The Crimean War was the only perfectly useless war that has been waged” was said by-
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Vincent Smith
(C) E H Carr
(D) Sir Robert Morier
Answer:
(D) Sir Robert Morier

Question 82.
The Kulaks were-
(A) Serfs
(B) Factory owners
(C) Mahajans
(D) Well-to-do peasants
Answer:
(D) Well-to-do peasants

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 83.
Who adopted the Czar title first?
(A) Alexander II
(B) Nicholas I
(C) Ivan IV
(D) Bakunin
Answer:
(C) Ivan IV

Question 84.
The organ of rural self-government in Russia-
(A) Duma
(B) Zemstvo
(C) Parliament
(D) Reichstag
Answer:
(B) Zemstvo

Question 85.
The Czar remembered for abolition of serfdom-
(A) Alexander I
(B) Alexander II
(C) Alexander III
(D) Alexander IV
Answer:
(B) Alexander II

Question 86.
The Czar known as ‘Czar the Liberator’-
(A) Alexander II
(B) Alexander I
(C) Peter the Great
(D) Nicholas I
Answer:
(A) Alexander II

Question 87.
Czar Alexander II died on-
(A) 2 January, 1890
(B) 14 February, 1885
(C) 14 March, 1883
(D) 13 March, 1881
Answer:
(D) 13 March, 1881

Question 88.
Czar Alexander II was assassinated by-
(A) Black Hand
(B) General Will
(C) People’s Will
(D) Carbonari
Answer:
(C) People’s Will

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 89.
The First Balkan War was fought in the year-
(A) 1911
(B) 1912
(C) 1913
(D) 1914
Answer:
(B) 1912

Question 90.
Who ascended the throne after Alexander III?
(A) Nicholas I
(B) Ivan IV
(C) Alexander IV
(D) Nicholas II
Answer:
(D) Nicholas II

Fill in the blanks :

1. After the fall of Napoleon, European statesmen assembled at a conference at the Austrian capital ____ (Berlin/Vienna/ Naples).
Answer:
Vienna

2. At the Congress of Vienna, Prussia was represented by ____ (Castlereagh/ Frederick William/Hardenberg).
Answer:
Hardenberg

3. In accordance with the principle of legitimacy, the ____ (Hohenzollern/ Bourbon/ Stuart) dynasty was reestablished in France.
Answer:
Bourbon

4. According to the Principle of Legitimacy the dominance of ____ (France/Austria/Italy) over Germany was revived.
Answer:
Austria

5. In accordance with the Principle of Legitimacy the House of Orange was restored in ____ (France/Germany/ Holland).
Answer:
Holland

6. The conference at Carlsbad in 1819 was convened and dominated by ____ (Castlereagh/Metternich/Louis XVIII).
Answer:
Metternich

7. The period from 1815 to ____ (1830/1848/1850) is known as the age of Metternich.
Answer:
1848

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

8. The Carlsbad Decrees were a set of reactionary restrictions in the states of the ____ (French/Italian/German) confederation.
Answer:
German

9. The President of German Confederation was ____ (Russia/Italy/Austria).
Answer:
Austria

10. The Protocol of Troppeau was drafted in the year ____ (1810 / 1820 / 1830) in the Concert of Europe.
Answer:
1820

11. The July Revolution of ____ (1820/1830/ 1848) gave a death blow to Metternich system.
Answer:
1830

12. In accordance with the Principle of Balance of Power ____ (Italy/France/Germany) was encircled with powerful states all around.
Answer:
France

13. With the exception of ____ (Frederich William III/Alexander I/Francis I) all the diplomats of the congress of Vienna were devoted to ‘ancien regime’.
Answer:
Alexander I

14. The leader of the July Revolution was ____ (Guizot/Polignac/Thiers).
Answer:
Thiers

15. ____ (Thiers/Polignac/Guizot) was appointed by Charles X as his minister.
Answer:
Polignac

16. Louis Philippe came to the throne of France in ____ (1830/1836/1840).
Answer:
1830

17. ____ (Guizot/Polignac/Thiers) gave a call to the people of France to resist the illegal activities of the French government.
Answer:
Thiers

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

18. The Second French Empire was founded by ____ (Louis Napoleon/Napoleon Bonaparte /Louis XVI).
Answer:
Louis Napoleon

19. The Second French empire was founded in ____ (1851/1852/1853).
Answer:
1852

20. The foundation of the Second French Republic was laid in ____ (1830/1848) 1858).
Answer:
1848

21. The year ____ (1848 / 1856 / 1864) is known as the ‘Year of Revolution’.
Answer:
1848

22. Louis Philippe, the ruler of France, abdicated to ____ (France/England/ Russia).
Answer:
England

23. Before unification of Italy, Naples and Sicily in South Italy was ruled by the ____ (Savoy/ Hapsburg/Bourbon) dynasty.
Answer:
Bourbon

24. ____ (Cavour/Garibaldi/Emmanuel) was the editor of the Italian periodical ‘Risorgimento’.
Answer:
Cavour

25. In 1860 some states of Central Italy like Perma, Modena and Tuscany expressed their desire to join ____ (France/PiedmontSardinia/Westphalia).
Answer:
Piedmont-Sardinia

26. ____ (Italy/France/Germany) after the Vienna Congress was reduced to a mere geographical expression.
Answer:
Italy

27. A united and independent Italy was born in ____ (1860/1865/1870).
Answer:
1870

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

28. The pact of Plombieres was signed in ____ (1848/1858/1862).
Answer:
1858

29. The Young Italians were disarmed by the ____ (French/British/Austrian) army.
Answer:
Austrian

30. In 1852 King Victor Emmanuel of ____ (Piedmont-Sardinia/Lombardy/Milan) appointed Cavour as his Prime Minister.
Answer:
PiedmontSardinia

31. Mazzini believed that war with ____ (France/ Germany/Austria) was the only means to liberate Italy.
Answer:
Austria

32. Mazzini favoured a ____ (democratic/ republican/monarchical) form government in a free Italy.
Answer:
republican

33. The Pact of Plombieres was signed between Napoleon III and ____ (Garibaldi/Count Cavour/Mazzini).
Answer:
Count Cavour

34. The first stage in the unification of Germany was the creation of ____ (Zollverein/Philiki Hetaira/Carbonari).
Answer:
Zollverein

35. In ____ (1848/1849/1850) the German nationalists convened a parliament called Frankfurt Parliament.
Answer:
1848

36. Under the rule of ____ (Metternich/ Napoleon/Bismarck) the Germans became acquainted with democratic and nationalist ideas.
Answer:
Napoleon

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

37. The Confederation of the Rhine was inaugurated by ____ (Louis Philippe/ Napoleon/Mazzini).
Answer:
Napoleon

38. During the French Revolution Germany was divided into ____ (300 / 400 / 500) large and small states.
Answer:
300

39. The leadership in the unification of Germany was given by ____ (Russia/ Prussia/Lombardy).
Answer:
Prussia

40. The ____ (Danish/Spanish/ Prussian) war was the first step towards German unification.
Answer:
Danish

41. After a crushing defeat at ____ (Sadowa/ Sedan/Waterloo) France was compelled to sign the treaty of Frankfurt.
Answer:
Sedan

42. The German states formed a tariff organisation on the basis of commercial cooperation known as ____ (Carbonari) Kulak/Zollverein).
Answer:
Zollverein

43. The Emancipation Statute was passed by ____ (Alexander I/Alexander II/Nicholas I) of Russia.
Answer:
Alexander II

44. England and France participated directly in the Crimean War in support of ____ (Egypt/ Greece/Turkey).
Answer:
Turkey

45. The Crimean War came to an end with the signing of the Treaty of ____ (Adrianople/ Versailles/Paris).
Answer:
Paris

46. The Balkan means the hilly area between the Aegean sea and the ____ (Danube/ Adriatic/Mediterranean Sea).
Answer:
Danube

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

47. ____ (Greece/Turkey/Austria) included vast areas of Africa and Europe and was known as the Ottoman empire.
Answer:
Turkey

48. In 1821, the people of Greece revolted against ____ (Russia/Turkey/France).
Answer:
Turkey

49. The Treaty of Adrianople was signed in ____ (1829/1830/1840).
Answer:
1829

50. The Treaty of Prague was signed in ____ (1865/1866/1867).
Answer:
1866

51. The Greek people, under the ____ (British/ Spanish/Turkish) rule, began their national liberation movement.
Answer:
Turkish

Mark True or False :

1. The Vienna Congress dismantled the Napoleonic empire.
Answer: True

2. The Vienna Congress marks the beginning of an era.
Answer: True

3. According to the Principle of Reward and Punishment, Poland was punished.
Answer: True

4. Metternich prided himself as the ‘vanquisher of Napoleon’.
Answer: True

5. Metternich was the Chancellor of Austria.
Answer: True

6. The period between the Vienna Settlement and the Revolution of 1848 is often dubbed as the Metternich Era in European politics.
Answer: True

7. The period between 1815 and 1848 is known as the ‘period of peace’.
Answer: False

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

8. After 1815 there was a conflict between monarchical and nationalist ideals.
Answer: True

9. Czar Alexander I was the leader of the Vienna Congress.
Answer: False

10. The Four Big Powers in the Vienna Congress were Russia, Austria, England and France.
Answer: False

11. After the fall of Napoleon Bonaparte, Louis XVIII of the Bourbon dynasty ascended the throne of France.
Answer: True

12. In accordance with the Principle of Balance of power, France was encircled with powerful states all around.
Answer: True

13. Metternich was the leader of the concert of Europe.
Answer: True

14. The July Revolution of 1848 paved the way for the destruction of Metternich system.
Answer: False

15. The July Revolution of 1830 in France brought an end to the Divine Right of Kingship in France.
Answer: True

16. The king of France at the time of the July Revolution was Louis XIV.
Answer: False

17. Inspired by the July Revolution the Polish people began their fight for freedom against the Germans.
Answer: False

18. The July Ordinance was issued by the French emperor Charles X in 1830.
Answer: True

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

19. Lafayette was a leader of the July Revolution.
Answer: True

20. The foundation of Second French Republic was laid in 1840.
Answer: False

21. Louis Napoleon in 1852 ended the Second French Republic in France and established the Second Empire.
Answer: True

22. The book ‘Organisation of Labour’ was written by Louis Blanc.
Answer: True

23. The socialists under the leadership of Louis Philippe were eager to end the French Monarchy.
Answer: False

24. Guizot was the prime minister of king Louis Philippe.
Answer: True

25. The Battle of Sadowa was fought in 1860.
Answer: False

26. The Battle of Sadowa was fought between Austria and Russia.
Answer: False

27. The Battle of Sedan was fought between France and Austria.
Answer: False

28. Carbonari was a secret society which was established during the German unification movement.
Answer: False

29. By the Peace of Villafranca (1859) Austria ceded Lombardy to Piedmont.
Answer: True

30. Cavour was the Prime Minister of Austria.
Answer: False

31. In the Battles of Magenta and Salferino the Austrians were defeated.
Answer: True

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

32. Mazzini believed that in the war against Austria, foreign help was necessary.
Answer: False

33. The Carbonari were so called because they used to burn charcoal.
Answer: True

34. Austria was merely a ‘geographical expression’.
Answer: False

35. Before the rule of Napoleon, Germany was divided into several small kingdoms.
Answer: True

36. The foundation of the Frankfurt Parliament was an important step towards German unification.
Answer: True

37. Bismarck planned for the unification of Germany under the leadership of Prussia.
Answer: True

38. Metternich followed the policy of ‘Blood and Iron’.
Answer: False

39. Count Benedetti was sent by Napoleon III to the Prussian king to get assurance that none of the Prussian dynasty would ever lay any claim on the Spanish throne.
Answer: True

40. The treaty of Berlin (1878) under the leadership of Bismarck tried to solve the Balkan question.
Answer: True

41. The Treaty of Zurich was signed in 1869 between Austria and Piedmont-Sardinia.
Answer: False

42. After the battle of Sadowa Germany was united.
Answer: False

43. The absolute rule of the French monarchs was known as Czardom.
Answer: False

44. The Russian serfs were emancipated in 1721.
Answer: False

45. The Balkan means the hilly areas between the Aegean Sea and the Danube.
Answer: True

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

46. In the Crimean War, England and France fought against Austria.
Answer: False

47. The treaty which brought an end to the Crimean War was the Treaty of Paris (1856).
Answer: True

48. The Treaty of San Stephano was concluded after the Crimean War.
Answer: False

49. In Russia the serfs were subjected to the village mirs.
Answer: True

50. According to the ‘Emancipation Statute’ of 1871 the Russian serfs were declared free.
Answer: False

51. Greece was conquered by Russia and lost her independence.
Answer: False

52. In the famous Vienna Note Russian Guardianship over the orthodox Greek Church in Turkey was admitted.
Answer: True

53. According to the Emancipation Statute the serfs were to pay back the advance money to the government in 49 instalments.
Answer: True

54. Louis Kossuth was known as ‘Mazzini of Hungary’.
Answer: True

Choose the best explanation :

1. Statements The period between 1815 to 1848 known as the ‘Era of Metternich’.
Explanation (A): He became the Prime Minister of Austria.
Explanation (B): He was the central figure at Vienna Congress.
Explanation (C): He became the central figure in the politics of the whole Europe.
Answer:
Explanation (C): He became the central figure in the politics of the whole Europe.

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

2. Statements At Vienna Congress, as a punishment, Norway was snatched away from Denmark and was given to Sweden.
Explanation (A): Metternich had enmity with the king of Denmark.
Explanation (B): King of Denmark helped Napoleon against the Allies.
Explanation (C): Denmark was an ally of Britain.
Answer:
Explanation (B): King of Denmark helped Napoleon against the Allies.

3. Statement: The leaders who took the most important part in defeating Napoleon met at Vienna.
Explanation (A): They wanted to reconstruct the political map of Europe.
Explanation (B): They wanted to establish a democratic government in France.
Explanation (C): They wanted to liberate Italy from the hands of Austria.
Answer:
Explanation (B): They wanted to establish a democratic government in France.

4. Statement: The July Revolution is one of the most important events in the history of France.
Explanation (A): It reformed the existing economic situation of France.
Explanation (B): It helped to remove monarchy from France.
Explanation (C): It succeeded in securing the revolutionary spirits ( liberty, equality and fraternity).
Answer:
Explanation (C): It succeeded in securing the revolutionary spirits ( liberty, equality and fraternity).

5. Statement: After the Fall of Napoleon Louis XVIII sat on the throne of France.
Explanation (A): According to the principle of Legitimacy Louis XVIII was reinstated on the throne of France.
Explanation (B): The people of France elected Louis XVIII as the ruler of France.
Explanation (C): The leaders of the Vienna Congress supported the accession of a weak monarch to the throne of France.
Answer:
Explanation (A): According to the principle of Legitimacy Louis XVIII was reinstated on the throne of France.

6. Statement: The Revolution of 1848 brought about a change in the system of administration prevailing at that time.
Explanation (A): Constitutional system of administration was recognised.
Explanation (B): Absolute monarchy was established in different countries of Europe.
Explanation (C): In some countries of Europe autocratic rulers became popular.
Answer:
Explanation (A): Constitutional system of administration was recognised.

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

7. Statement: Guizot, the Prime Minister of France, was dismissed from office by Louis Philippe.
Explanation (A): Guizot rose in revolt against Louis Philippe.
Explanation (B): Popular agitation took serious turn in France and Guizot was dismissed by Louis Philippe.
Explanation (C): Guizot took part in an armed clash with the people and was dismissed.
Answer:
Explanation (B): Popular agitation took serious turn in France and Guizot was dismissed by Louis Philippe.

8. Statement: In Italy, a secret society “The Carbonari’ was established.
Explanation (A): The purpose is to spread nationalist movement elsewhere in Europe.
Explanation (B): The purpose is to unite Italy into a single state.
Explanation (C): The purpose is to express discontent against the existing system.
Answer:
Explanation (B): The purpose is to unite Italy into a single state.

9. Statement: The Battle of Sadowa brought forth an important change.
Explanation (A): The political centre of central Europe shifted from Vienna to Berlin.
Explanation (B): The relation between Prussia and France became bitter.
Explanation (C): Prussia and Spain came under the rule of the same dynasty.
Answer:
Explanation (A): The political centre of central Europe shifted from Vienna to Berlin.

10. Statement: France signed the Treaty of Frankfurt with Prussia in 1871.
Explanation (A): France was defeated at the battle of Sedan.
Explanation (B): France did not fight but surrendered to Prussia.
Explanation (C): Both France and Prussia agreed to support each other by the Treaty of Frankfurt.
Answer:
Explanation (A): France was defeated at the battle of Sedan.

11. Statement: Bismarck signed the Treaty of Gastein with Austria.
Explanation (A): Bismarck’s aim was to take the help of Austria for German unification.
Explanation (B): Bismarck’s aim was to settle the confrontation with Austria.
Explanation (C): The treaty was a temporary solution and Bismarck resolved to teach Austria a proper lesson in time.
Answer:
Explanation (C): The treaty was a temporary solution and Bismarck resolved to teach Austria a proper lesson in time.

12. Statement: Czar Alexander II is called the ‘Czar Liberator’.
Explanation (A): He improved the condition of the workers.
Explanation (B): He changed the system of production in industries.
Explanation (C): He abolished serfdom is Russia.
Answer:
Explanation (C): He abolished serfdom is Russia.

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

13. Statement: There were some defects in the Emancipation Statute of 1861.
Explanation (A): The amount of compensation payable to the landlord by the peasant fixed by the Act was much higher than the customary prices of land in the market.
Explanation (B): The landlords were required to part with 50% of their land to be given to the liberated serfs.
Explanation (C): The serfs were to be full fledged citizens of Russia.
Answer:
Explanation (A): The amount of compensation payable to the landlord by the peasant fixed by the Act was much higher than the customary prices of land in the market.

14. Statement: Czar Peter the Great is known as the ‘Father of modern Russia’.
Explanation (A): Under his leadership modernisation of Russia was started.
Explanation (B): He abolished serfdom.
Explanation (C): He improved the economic system of Russia.
Answer:
Explanation (B): He abolished serfdom.

Match the columns :

Question 1.

Column I Column II
1. Crimean War A. Secret society of Italy
2. Carbonari B. Austria
3. 1870 C. 1854-56
4. Congress of Vienna held D. Italy united

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Crimean War C. 1854-56
2. Carbonari A. Secret society of Italy
3. 1870 D. Italy united
4. Congress of Vienna held B. Austria

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 2.

Column I Column II
1. Leading person at Congress of Vienna A. France
2. Mazzini B. Bismarck
3. Talleyrand C. Metternich
4. Blood and Iron policy D. Leader of Italy

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Leading person at Congress of Vienna C. Metternich
2. Mazzini D. Leader of Italy
3. Talleyrand A. France
4. Blood and Iron policy B. Bismarck

Question 3.

Column I Column II
1. February Revolution A. 1830
2. July Revolution B. 1848
3. Defeat of Austia by Prussia C. 1870
4. Unification of Germany completed D. 1866

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. February Revolution B. 1848
2. July Revolution A. 1830
3. Defeat of Austia by Prussia D. 1866
4. Unification of Germany completed C. 1870

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 4.

Column I Column II
1. Philke Hetaira A. Italy
2. Carbonari B. Odessa
3. Ems Telegram C. Ambassador
4. Count Benedetti D. Bismarck

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Philke Hetaira B. Odessa
2. Carbonari A. Italy
3. Ems Telegram D. Bismarck
4. Count Benedetti C. Ambassador

Question 5.

Column I Column II
1. Foundation of Second French Republic A. 1830
2. Louis Philippe becomes the king of France B. 1848
3. William II became the first German empeor C. 1870
4. United Italy born D. 1871

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Foundation of Second French Republic B. 1848
2. Louis Philippe becomes the king of France A. 1830
3. William II became the first German empeor D. 1871
4. United Italy born C. 1870

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 6.

Column I Column II
1. Pact of Plombieres A. 1856
2. Treaty of Villafranca B. 1878
3. Treaty of Paris C. 1858
4. Treaty of San Stephano D. 1859

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Pact of Plombieres C. 1858
2. Treaty of Villafranca D. 1859
3. Treaty of Paris A. 1856
4. Treaty of San Stephano B. 1878

Question 7.

Column I Column II
1. Nicholas I A. Central figure in European politics
2. Cavour B. Czar of Russia
3. Charles X C. Prime Minister of Piedmont
4. Metternich D. Ruler of France

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Nicholas I B. Czar of Russia
2. Cavour C. Prime Minister of Piedmont
3. Charles X D. Ruler of France
4. Metternich A. Central figure in European politics

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 8.

Column I Column II
1. Bourbon A. Holland
2. Orange B. Piedmont
3. Savoy C. France
4. Hapsburg D. Austria

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Bourbon C. France
2. Orange A. Holland
3. Savoy B. Piedmont
4. Hapsburg D. Austria

Question 9.

Column I Column II
1. 1848 A. Battle of Sadowa
2. 1854 B. Battle of Sedan
3. 1866 C. Crimean War
4. 1870 D. Year of Revolution

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. 1848 D. Year of Revolution
2. 1854 C. Crimean War
3. 1866 A. Battle of Sadowa
4. 1870 B. Battle of Sedan

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Europe in the 19th Century: Conflict of Nationalist and Monarchial Ideas

Question 10.

Column I Column II
1. Emancipation Statute, 1861 A. Germany
2. Zollverein B. Austria
3. Philke Hetaira C. Russia
4. Vienna Congress D. Greece

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Emancipation Statute, 1861 C. Russia
2. Zollverein A. Germany
3. Philke Hetaira D. Greece
4. Vienna Congress B. Austria

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath

Well structured WBBSE 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath can serve as a valuable review tool before exams.

The Second World War and Its Aftermath Class 9 WBBSE MCQ Questions

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Question 1.
The main cause of World War II was the………………..
A. Balkan War
B. Russo-German War
C. World War I
D. Anglo-French War
Answer:
C. World War I

Question 2.
Chamberlain took an assurance from Hitler that Germany would be satisfied by………………..
A. Occupation of Rhineland
B. Occupation of Poland
C. Cession to her of Sudetenland
D. Cession to her of Baltic states
Answer:
B. Occupation of Poland

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath

Question 3.
A secret additional pact to divide Poland was made between………………..
A. Russia and Germany
B. Germany and Italy
C. Italy and France
D. England and France
Answer:
A. Russia and Germany

Question 4.
To plan global military strategy, top Allied leaders held a series of conferences such as the ones at………………..
A. Versailles
B. Paris
C. Tehran
D. Berlin
Answer:
C. Tehran

Question 5.
At the Munich Conference in 1938, a region of this nation was given to Adolf Hitler by the British and the French………………..
A. Czechoslovakia
B. Poland
C. Holland
D. Austria
Answer:
A. Czechoslovakia

Question 6.
Which Allied army fought its way to Berlin and reached the city first?
A. England
B. France
C. Soviet Russia
D. USA
Answer:
C. Soviet Russia

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath

Question 7.
When did Hitler become Chancellor of Germany?
A. 1793
B. 1795
C. 1796
D. 1801
Answer:
B. 1795

Question 8.
What was the last major attempt at a peaceful resolution with Germany prior to the outbreak of World War II?
A. Potsdam Conference
B. The Washington Conference
C. The Munich Conference
D. Yalta Conference
Answer:
C. The Munich Conference

Question 9.
The main Axis Powers of World War II consisted of………………..
A. Germany, Finland, Japan
B. Germany, Italy, Japan
C. Germany, Russia, Italy
D. Germany, Italy, Belgium
Answer:
B. Germany, Italy, Japan

Question 10.
The term ‘D-Day’ refers to………………..
A. Allied invasion of the coast of Normandy
B. Allied invasion of Italy
C. Allied invasion of Germany
D. Allied invasion of Poland
Answer:
A. Allied invasion of the coast of Normandy

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath

Question 11.
World War II broke out on………………..
A. 1 September, 1938
B. 3 September, 1939
C. 9 August, 1937
D. 5 December, 1933
Answer:
B. 3 September, 1939

Question 12.
What agreement did Hitler defy when the invasion of the USSR began?
A. Hitler-Stalin agreement
B. Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact
C. Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty
D. Treaty of Versailles
Answer:
B. Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact

Question 13.
What day was the invasion of Normandy or D………………..Day?
A. 6 June, 1943
B. 6 June, 1944
C. 12 May, 1940
D. 3 September, 1946
Answer:
B. 6 June, 1944

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath

Question 14.
What caused the United States to enter the war on the side of the Allies?
A. Germany’s invasion of France
B. Germany’s invasion of Poland
C. Japan’s attack on Pearl Harbour
D. Russia’s entry into the war
Answer:
C. Japan’s attack on Pearl Harbour

Question 15
A great supporter of aggressive nationalism………………..
A. Churchill
B. Hitler
C. Stalin
D. Roosevelt
Answer:
B. Hitler

Question 16.
The top allied leaders held a conference in………………..
A. Tehran
B. Normandy
C. Moscow
D. Venice
Answer:
A. Tehran

Question 17.
European Recovery Programme was announced by………………..
A. Hitler
B. Goering
C. Mussolini
D. George Marshall
Answer:
D. George Marshall

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath

Question 18.
The United Nations Organisation was established………………..
A. to divide Germany into four zones
B. to establish international peace
C. to supervise the working of Germany
D. to preserve neutrality among the allies
Answer:
B. to establish international peace

Fill in the blanks

1. The Treaty of Versailles was imposed on ___ (Italy/France/Germany).
Answer: Germany

2. Japan attacked Manchuria in ___(1930/ 1931/1932).
Answer: 1931

3. In 1935 Mussolini attacked ___ (Abyssinia/Danzig/Rhineland).
Answer: Abyssinia

4. Haile Selassie was the emperor of ___ (Ethiopia/Poland/Syria).
Answer: Ethiopia

5. After the Second World War ___ (England/France/Czechoslovakia) was converted into Communist dictatorship.
Answer: Czechoslovakia

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath

6. General Eisenhower was appointed the Supreme Commander of the Allied invasion in ___ (Asia/Europe/Africa).
Answer: Europe

7. The Nazi-Soviet Non-Aggression pact was signed in ___ (1938/1939/1990).
Answer: 1939

8. The dictator of Italy who installed a fascist regime was ___ (Adolf Hitler/Benito Mussolini/Joseph Stalin).
Answer: Benito Mussolini

9. The title Adolf Hitler took in 1934 that meant leader was ___ (Fuhrer/Dictator/ Minister),
Answer: Fuhrer

10. Hitler invaded Poland on ___ 1939. (1 September/4 September/15 October)
Answer: 1 September

11. Pearl Harbour was attacked by Japan in ___ (1941/1942/1943).
Answer: 1941

12. In 1941 Pearl Harbour was attacked by ___ (Belgium/USA/Japan).
Answer: Japan

13. ___ (Belgium/Austria/Germany) suffered setback at Stalingrad.
Answer: Germany

14. Atomic bombs were dropped on Hiroshima and Nagasaki in ___ (1939/1941/1945).
Answer: 1945

15. ___ (USA/Britain/Austria) dropped atomic bombs on Hiroshima and Nagasaki.
Answer: U.S.A

16. USA entered into Second World War in ___ (1939/1941/1943).
Answer: 1941

17. Admiral Hideki Tojo was the Prime Minister of ___ (Britain/USA/Japan).
Answer: Japan

18. The Japanese launched a surprise attack on the ___ (British/German/US) naval base at Pearl Harbour.
Answer: US

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath

19. Perhaps the largest leap in technology during World War II was the ___ (bouncing/atom/cluster) bomb.
Answer: atom

20. Japan was worried about ___ (US/French/ British) navy in Hawaii.
Answer: US

21. On the ‘D-Day’ Anglo-American force landed at ___ (Lyons/Normandy/Marseilles) coast.
Answer: Normandy

22. Francisco Franco was the Fascist dictator of ___ (Italy/Germany/Spain).
Answer: Spain

23. The provinces of Alsace and Lorraine were taken away from ___ (France/England/ Germany).
Answer: Germany

24. ___ (Britain/Japan/France) had built a strong underground line of fortresses and gave it the name Maginot Line.
Answer: France

25. Daladier was the Prime Minister of ___ (Britain/USA/France).
Answer: France

26. Hideki Tojo was the Prime Minister of ___ (USA/Ethiopia/Japan).
Answer: Japan

27. ‘The Crisis in Civilisation’ was written by ___ (Rabindranath/Marx/Lenin).
Answer: Rabindranath

28. The term ‘Cold War’ was popularised by ___ (George Kennan/Walter Lippmann/ Bernard Baruch).
Answer: Watter Lippmann

29. USA joined the Second World War in ___ (1930/1940/1950).
Answer: 1940

30. Germany surrendered unconditionally in (1940/1942/1945).
Answer: 1945

31. Truman Doctrine and Marshall Plan was declared by ___ (USA/Britain/Italy).
Answer: USA

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath

32. The ___ (SEATO/CENTO/Warsaw Pact) was a military alliance formed by Soviet Union as a counter balance to the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation.
Answer: Warsaw Pact

State True or False

1. The Treaty of Versailles (1919) was humiliating for France.
Answer: False

2. One of the main points in Hitler’s foreign policy was Pan Germanism.
Answer: True

3. Germany invaded Poland on September 1, 1939.
Answer: True

4. Germany attacked France in 1939.
Answer: False

5. The Red Army of the Soviet Union followed the ‘Scorched Earth Policy’.
Answer: True

6. With the Japanese attack on Pearl Harbour, there was the extension of the Second World War in Asia.
Answer: True

7. Russia was attacked by the German Nazis in 1942.
Answer: False

8. Leningrad was besieged by the German army.
Answer: True

9. Hitler committed suicide in 1945.
Answer: True

10. Germany abandoned her membership of the League of Nations in 1944.
Answer: False

11. After the Second World War two great powers United States of America and the Union of Soviet Socialist Republic emerged.
Answer: True

12. Two ‘superpowers’ which emerged after the Second World War were Great Britain and United States of America.
Answer: False

13. During 1946-47 the government of Poland, Romania, Albania were converted into communist dictatorships.
Answer: True

14. To counteract communism, the western responses were Truman Doctrine and Marshall Plan.
Answer: True

15. The Non-aligned nations emerged after the First World War.
Answer: False

16. The United Nations Organisation was established in 1940.
Answer: False

17. Due to German attack during the Second World War, vast areas of Russia including Leningrad and Stalingrad were completely destroyed.
Answer: True

18. USA entered into Warsaw Pact with East European countries in 1955.
Answer: False

19. President Truman of America declared that USA would help Greece and Turkey with the aim of freeing these countries from Soviet influence.
Answer: True

20. After the Potsdam Conference France was divided into four occupied zones.
Answer: False

21. The ‘Third World’ countries launched the Non-Alignment Movement.
Answer: True

22. Harry Truman of Britain and Clement Attlee of USA joined the Potsdam Conference.
Answer: False

23. The decision that Germany will be de-Nazified was taken at the Potsdam conference.
Answer: True

24. Scorched earth policy means the policy of destroying everything that might be of use to an invading enemy.
Answer: True

Match the columns

Question 1.

Column I Column I
1. Hitler A. Japanese emperor
2. General Eisenhower B. Hitler’s mistress
3. Hirohito C. Mein Kampf
4. Eva Braun D. Supreme Allied Commander

Answer:

Column I Column I
1. Hitler C. Mein Kampf
2. General Eisenhower D. Supreme Allied Commander
3. Hirohito A. Japanese emperor
4. Eva Braun B. Hitler’s mistress

Question 2.

Column I Column II
1. Neville Chamberlain A. Italy
2. Mussolini B. Spain
3. General Tojo C. Britain
4. General Franco D. Japan

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Neville Chamberlain C. Britain
2. Mussolini A. Italy
3. General Tojo D. Japan
4. General Franco B. Spain

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath

Question 3.

 Column I  Column II
1. Czechoslovakia occupied by Germany A. 1933
2. D-Day B. 1945
3. Disarmament Conference C. 6 June,1944
4. Atom bomb dropped in Japan D. 1939

Answer:

Column I  Column II
1. Czechoslovakia occupied by Germany D. 1939
2. D-Day C. 6 June,1944
3. Disarmament Conference A. 1933
4. Atom bomb dropped in Japan B. 1945

Question 4.

Column I Column II
1. Germany used A. 81mm Mortar
2. British used B. M-10 Wolverine
3. US Tank Destroyer C. Typhoon fighter bomber
4. French artillery possessed D. light armoury (Pz-II, Pz-III)

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Germany used D. light armoury (Pz-II, Pz-III)
2. British used C. Typhoon fighter bomber
3. US Tank Destroyer B. M-10 Wolverine
4. French artillery possessed A. 81mm Mortar

Question 5.

Column I Column II
1. General army A. 1933
2. Peace of Paris B. International peace organisation
3. Disarmament Conference C. Overran Yugoslavia
4. UNO D. 1919

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. General army C. Overran Yugoslavia
2. Peace of Paris D. 1919
3. Disarmament Conference A. 1933
4. UNO B. International peace organisation

Question 6.

Column I Column II
1. 1 September, 1939 A. Pearl Harbour bombed
2. 3 July, 1942 B. Battle of Britain began
3. 7 December, 1941 C. Poland attacked by Germany
4. 10 July, 1940 D. Germany took Sebastopol

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. 1 September, 1939 C. Poland attacked by Germany
2. 3 July, 1942 D. Germany took Sebastopol
3. 7 December, 1941 A. Pearl Harbour bombed
4. 10 July, 1940 B. Battle of Britain began

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath

Question 7.

Column I Column II
1. 13 September, 1942 A. Deliverance Day
2. 17 July, 1945 B. Yalta Conference begins
3. 4 February, 1945 C. Battle of Stalingrad
4. 6 June, 1944 D. Potsdam Conference

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. 13 September, 1942 C. Battle of Stalingrad
2. 17 July, 1945 D. Potsdam Conference
3. 4 February, 1945 B. Yalta Conference begins
4. 6 June, 1944 A. Deliverance Day

Question 8.

Column I Column II
1. Truman Doctrine A. King of Italy
2. Nicholas II B. Walter Lipmann
3. Cold War C. 1947
4. Victor Emmanuel D. Czar of Russia

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Truman Doctrine C. 1947
2. Nicholas II D. Czar of Russia
3. Cold War B. Walter Lipmann
4. Victor Emmanuel A. King of Italy

Question 9.

Column I Column II
1. 2 September, 1945 A. Rome occupied by Allied army
2. 4 June, 1944 B. Japan surrenders unconditionally
3. Pearl Harbour C. Soviet Union
4. T-34 Tank D. Island of O’ahu

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. 2 September, 1945  B. Japan surrenders unconditionally
2. 4 June, 1944 A. Rome occupied by Allied army
3. Pearl Harbour D. Island of O’ahu
4. T-34 Tank C. Soviet Union

Question 10.

Column I Column II
1. Germany A. President of America
2. Roosevelt B. 1943
3. Mehmed V C. Annexation of Sudetenland
4. Battle of Tunisia D. Sultan of Turkey

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Germany C. Annexation of Sudetenland
2. Roosevelt A. President of America
3. Mehmed V D. Sultan of Turkey
4. Battle of Tunisia B. 1943

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath

Question 11.

Column I Column II
1. Twenty years armistice A. Treaty at Champagne
2. French government signed B. Treaty at Champagne
3. Dictated Peace C. 1919-1939
4. Fall of Third French Republic D. Treaty of Versailles

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Twenty years armistice C. 1919-1939
2. French government signed B. Treaty at Champagne
3. Dictated Peace D. Treaty of Versailles
4. Fall of Third French Republic A. Treaty at Champagne

Question 12.

Column I Column II
1. Red Army A. 7 December, 1941
2. Pearl Harbour Incident B. 1942
3. Potsdam Conference C. 1945
4. Battle of Midway D. Russia

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Red Army D. Russia
2. Pearl Harbour Incident A. 7 December, 1941
3. Potsdam Conference C. 1945
4. Battle of Midway B. 1942

Question 13.

Column I Column II
1. Mass murder of Jewish people A. Cold War began
2. Largest battle of World War II B. Hitler
3. Nazi flag designed by C. Holocaust
4. Outcome of World War II D. Battle of the Atlantic

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Mass murder of Jewish people C. Holocaust
2. Largest battle of World War II D. Battle of the Atlantic
3. Nazi flag designed by B. Hitler
4. Outcome of World War II A. Cold War began

WBBSE Class 9 History MCQ Questions Chapter 6 The Second World War and Its Aftermath

Question 14.

Column I Column II
1. Kamikaze A. America
2. Battle of Britain B. Germany
3. Paris was occupied in 1940 C. Japanese aircraft
4. ‘Cash and Carry’ policy D. Germany defeated

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Kamikaze C. Japanese aircraft
2. Battle of Britain D. Germany defeated
3. Paris was occupied in 1940 B. Germany
4. ‘Cash and Carry’ policy A. America

Question 15.

Column I Column II
1. Goebbels A. Lieutenant of Hitler
2. Battle of Normandy B. 1941
3. Goering C. 1944
4. Battle of Crete D. Hitler’s propaganda minister

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Goebbels D. Hitler’s propaganda minister
2. Battle of Normandy C. 1944
3. Goering A. Lieutenant of Hitler
4. Battle of Crete B. 1941